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Title 45: Public Welfare</TITLE>
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<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Aug. 10, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="1" NODE="45:1" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 45—Public Welfare--Volume 1</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part 
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT>SUBTITLE A—<E T="04">Department of Health and Human Services</E> 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>2


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> SUBTITLE A—Department of Health and Human Services</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—GENERAL ADMINISTRATION


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1 [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2—TESTIMONY BY EMPLOYEES AND PRODUCTION OF DOCUMENTS IN PROCEEDINGS WHERE THE UNITED STATES IS NOT A PARTY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 5 U.S.C. 552.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 37146, Oct. 5, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1   Scope, purpose, and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth rules to be followed when an employee or former employee of the Department of Health and Human Services (“DHHS” or “Department”), other than an employee of the Food and Drug Administration, is requested or subpoenaed to provide testimony in a deposition, trial, or other similar proceeding concerning information acquired in the course of performing official duties or because of such person's official capacity with DHHS. This part also sets forth procedures for the handling of subpoenas duces tecum and other requests for any document in the possession of DHHS, other than the Food and Drug Administration, and for the processing of requests for certification of copies of documents. Separate regulations, 21 CFR part 20, govern the Food and Drug Administration, and those regulations are not affected by this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is the policy of the DHHS to provide information, data, and records to non-federal litigants to the same extent and in the same manner that they are <I>made</I> available to the general public <I>and,</I> when subject to the jurisdiction of a court or other tribunal presiding over non-federal party litigation, to follow all applicable procedural and substantive rules relating to the production of information, data, and records by a non-party. The availability of Department employees to testify in litigation not involving federal parties is governed by the Department's policy to maintain strict impartiality with respect to private litigants and to minimize the disruption of official duties. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part applies to state, local and tribal judicial, administrative, and legislative proceedings, and to federal judicial and administrative proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any civil or criminal proceedings where the United States, the Department of Health and Human Services, and any agency thereof, or any other Federal agency is a party.
</P>
<P>(2) Congressional requests or subpoenas for testimony or documents. 
</P>
<P>(3) Consultative services and technical assistance provided by the Department of Health and Human Services, or any agency thereof, in carrying out its normal program activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) Employees serving as expert witnesses in connection with professional and consultative services as approved outside activities in accordance with 5 CFR 2635.805 and 5 CFR 5501.106. (In cases where employees are providing such outside services, they must state for the record that the testimony represents their own views and does not necessarily represent the official position of the DHHS.) 
</P>
<P>(5) Employees making appearances in their private capacity in legal or administrative proceedings that do not relate to the Department of Health and Human Services (such as cases arising out of traffic accidents, crimes, domestic relations, etc.) and not involving professional and consultative services. 
</P>
<P>(6) Any matters covered in 21 CFR part 20-,involving the Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(7) Any civil or criminal proceedings in State court brought on behalf of the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (1):</HED><PSPACE>While on duty, an employee of the Department witnesses an incident in which a fellow employee trips on a loose piece of carpeting and sustains an injury. The injured employee brings a private tort action against the contractor installing the carpeting and the private landlord maintaining the building. The employee/witness is served with a subpoena to appear at a deposition to testify about the incident. The person seeking the testimony would not be required to obtain Agency head approval prior to requesting the testimony, because the subject of the testimony does not “relate to” the Department, within the meaning of § 2.1(d)(5).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (2):</HED><PSPACE>While on duty, an employee of the Department witnesses a mugging while looking out the window to check the weather, and then notifies the local police of what she observed. She is subsequently subpoenaed to testify in a criminal proceeding. The local prosecutor would not be required to obtain Agency head approval prior to requiring the employee to testify, because the subject of the testimony does not “relate to” the Department, within the meaning of § 2.1(d)(5).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (3):</HED><PSPACE>A nurse on duty at an Indian Health Service hospital emergency room treats a child who is brought in following a report of domestic violence. The nurse is subsequently served with a subpoena to testify in a criminal proceeding against one of the child's parents concerning the injuries to the child which he observed. The local prosecutor would be required to obtain Agency head approval prior to requiring the nurse to testify, because the subject of the testimony involves “information acquired in the course of performing official duties or because of the person's official capacity,” within the meaning of § 2.1(a).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (4):</HED><PSPACE>A personnel specialist working for the Department is subpoenaed to testify concerning the meaning of entries on time and attendance records of an employee, which the requesting party received from the employee pursuant to discovery in a personal injury action brought by the employee. The party requesting the personnel specialist to appear would be required to obtain Agency head approval prior to compelling the personnel specialist to testify, because the testimony sought involves “information acquired in the course of performing official duties or because of the person's official capacity,” within the meaning of § 2.1(a).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example (5):</HED><PSPACE>A National Institutes of Health physician is subpoenaed in a private medical malpractice action to provide expert testimony in her specialty. The party requesting her testimony would be required to obtain Agency head approval prior to her testifying in response to the subpoena, because the expert testimony sought involves “information acquired in the course of performing official duties or because of the person's official capacity,” within the meaning of § 2.1(a).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37146, Oct. 5, 1987, as amended at 55 FR 4611, Feb. 9, 1990; 68 FR 25838, May 14, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agency head</I> refers to the head of the relevant operating division or other major component of the DHHS, or his or her delegatee. 
</P>
<P><I>Agency head</I> for the purposes of this part means the following officials for the components indicated: 
</P>
<P>(1) Office of the Secretary—Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management; 
</P>
<P>(2) Administration on Aging—Assistant Secretary for Aging; 
</P>
<P>(3) Administration for Children and Families—Assistant Secretary for Children and Families; 
</P>
<P>(4) Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality—Administrator; 
</P>
<P>(5) Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry—Administrator; 
</P>
<P>(6) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention—Director; 
</P>
<P>(7) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services—Administrator; 
</P>
<P>(8) Health Resources and Services Administration—Administrator; 
</P>
<P>(9) Indian Health Service—Director; 
</P>
<P>(10) National Institutes of Health—Director; 
</P>
<P>(11) Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration—Administrator; 
</P>
<P>(12) Office of Inspector General—Inspector General. 
</P>
<P><I>Employee of the Department</I> includes current and former:
</P>
<P>(1) Commissioned officers in the Public Health Service Commissioned Corps, as well as regular and special DHHS employees (except employees of the Food and Drug Administration), when they are performing the duties of their regular positions, as well as when they are performing duties in a temporary assignment at DHHS or another organization. 
</P>
<P>(2) Employees of intermediaries, carriers, Medicare Administrative Contractors, Program Safeguard Contractors, and Recovery Audit Contractors, and any successor entities, that perform one or more of the following functions described in section 1874A or 1893 of the Social Security Act relating to the administration of the Medicare program:
</P>
<P>(i) Determination of payment amounts; making payments; beneficiary education and assistance; providing consultative services; communication with providers; or, provider education and technical assistance; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other such functions as are necessary to carry out the Medicare program, including any of the following program integrity functions under section 1893 of the Social Security Act:
</P>
<P>(A) Review of activities of providers or suppliers, including medical and utilization review and fraud review;
</P>
<P>(B) Auditing of cost reports;
</P>
<P>(C) Determinations as to whether payment should not be, or should not have been, made because Medicare is the secondary payer, and recovery of payments that should not have been made;
</P>
<P>(D) Education of providers, beneficiaries, and other persons with respect to payment integrity and benefit quality assurance issues; or,
</P>
<P>(E) Developing (and periodically updating) a list of items of durable medical equipment which are subject to prior authorization.
</P>
<P>(3) Employees of a contractor, subcontractor, or state agency performing survey, certification, or enforcement functions under title XVIII of the Social Security Act or Section 353 of the Public Health Service Act but only to the extent the requested information was acquired in the course of performing those functions and regardless of whether documents are also relevant to the state's activities.
</P>
<P>(4) Employees and qualified contractors of an entity covered under the Federally Supported Health Centers Assistance Act of 1992, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 233(g)-(n), (FSHCAA), provided that the testimony is requested in medical malpractice tort litigation and relates to the performance of medical, surgical, dental or related functions which were performed by the entity, its employees and qualified contractors at a time when the DHHS deemed the entity and its employees and qualified contractors to be covered by the FSHCAA. 
</P>
<P><I>Certify</I> means to authenticate under seal, pursuant to 42 U.S.C 3505, official documents of the Department. 
</P>
<P><I>Testify and testimony</I> includes both in-person, oral statements before a court, legislative or administrative body and statements made pursuant to depositions, interrogatories, declarations, affidavits, or other formal participation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25839, May 14, 2003, as amended at 73 FR 53150, Sept. 15, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.3   Policy on Presentation of testimony and production of documents.</HEAD>
<P>No employee or former employee of the DHHS may provide testimony or produce documents in any proceedings to which this part applies concerning information acquired in the course of performing official duties or because of the person's official relationship with the Department unless authorized by the Agency head pursuant to this part based on a determination by the Agency head, after consultation with the Office of the General Counsel, that compliance with the request would promote the objectives of the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25839, May 14, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.4   Procedures when voluntary testimony is requested or when an employee is subpoenaed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All requests for testimony by an employee or former employee of the DHHS in his or her official capacity and not subject to the exceptions set forth in § 2.1(d) of this part must be addressed to the Agency head in writing and must state the nature of the requested testimony, why the information sought is unavailable by any other means, and the reasons why the testimony would be in the interest of the DHHS or the federal government. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the Agency head denies approval to comply with a subpoena for testimony, or if the Agency head has not acted by the return date, the employee will be directed to appear at the stated time and place, unless advised by the Office of the General Counsel that responding to the subpoena would be inappropriate (in such circumstances as, for example, an instance where the subpoena was not validly issued or served, where the subpoena has been withdrawn, or where discovery has been stayed), produce a copy of these regulations, and respectfully decline to testify or produce any documents on the basis of these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25840, May 14, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.5   Subpoenas duces tecum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a subpoena duces tecum has been served upon a DHHS employee or former employee commanding the production of any record, such person shall refer the subpoena to the Office of the General Counsel (including regional chief counsels) for a determination of the legal sufficiency of the subpoena, whether the subpoena was properly served, and whether the issuing court or other tribunal has jurisdiction over the Department.) If the General Counsel or his designee determines that the subpoena is legally sufficient, the subpoena was properly served, and the tribunal has jurisdiction, the terms of the subpoena shall be complied with unless affirmative action is taken by the Department to modify or quash the subpoena in accordance with Fed. R. Civ. P. 45 (c). 
</P>
<P>(b) If a subpoena duces tecum served upon a DHHS employee or former employee commanding the production of any record is determined by the Office of the General Counsel to be legally insufficient, improperly served, or from a tribunal not having jurisdiction, such subpoena shall be deemed a request for records under the Freedom of Information Act and shall be handled pursuant to the rules governing public disclosure established in 45 CFR part 5.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25840, May 14, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.6   Certification and authentication of records.</HEAD>
<P>Upon request, DHHS agencies will certify, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 3505, the authenticity of copies of records that are to be disclosed. Fees for copying and certification are set forth in 45 CFR 5.43.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 25840, May 14, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 3—CONDUCT OF PERSONS AND TRAFFIC ON THE NATIONAL INSTITUTES OF HEALTH FEDERAL ENCLAVE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>40 U.S.C. 318-318d. 486; Delegation of Authority, 33 FR 604.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 2068, Jan. 22, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director or Acting Director of the National Institutes of Health (NIH), or other officer or employee of NIH to whom the authority involved has been delegated.
</P>
<P><I>Enclave</I> means, unless the context requires a different meaning, the area, containing about 318 acres, acquired by the United States in several parcels in the years 1935 through 1983, and any further future acquisitions, comprising the National Institutes of Health located in Montgomery County, Maryland, over which the United States acquired exclusive jurisdiction under the Act of March 31, 1953, Chapter 158 (1953 Maryland Laws 311).
</P>
<P><I>Police officer</I> means a uniformed or non-uniformed police officer appointed under a delegation of authority to the Director under Title U.S. Public Law 107-296, Homeland Security Act of 2002; any other Federal law enforcement officer; and any other person whose law enforcement services are secured by contract, or upon request or deputation from a State or local law enforcement agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2068, Jan. 22, 1990, as amended at 85 FR 72910, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part apply to all areas in the enclave and to all persons on or within the enclave, except as otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part do not apply to occupants, their visitors, and other authorized persons in areas used as living quarters:
</P>
<P>(1) When specifically made inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of the following provisions: § 3.24 Parking permits; § 3.25 Servicing of vehicles; § 3.42 Hobbies and sports; and § 3.42(f) Smoking.
</P>
<P>(c) All regulations in this part are in addition to the provisions in the United States Code, including title 18 relating to crimes and criminal procedure, and title 21 relating to food and drugs, which apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Without regard to the place of the offense, or
</P>
<P>(2) To areas (such as the enclave) subject to the “special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States,” as defined in Title 18 United States Code section 7.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with the Assimilative Crimes Act (18 U.S.C. 13), whoever is found guilty of an offense which, although not made punishable by any act of Congress, nor any provision of these regulations, would be punishable if committed within the State of Maryland, shall be guilty of a like offense and subject to a like punishment. In the event of an irreconcilable conflict between a provision of this part and a Maryland statute governing the identical subject matter, this part shall control.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal criminal statutes which apply.</I> The following Federal criminal statutes in the United States Code apply to Federal enclaves and elsewhere without regard to the place of the offense. This listing is provided solely for the information of the public and is not all-inclusive. The omission of other Federal statutes does not mean that such other statutes do not apply. In any given situation, the cited statutory provisions and any amendments in effect when the alleged offense occurred shall determine the specifics of the offense, applicability, and penalty.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subject 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">U.S. Code 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provides generally 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum penalty
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. By force or threat of force, willful injury, intimidation or interference with, or attempts to injure, intimidate or interfere with, a person from participating in or enjoying any benefit, service, privilege, program, facility, or activity, provided by or administered by the U.S., and engaging in certain other Federal protected activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not involving death or bodily injury: Imprisonment one year and/or $1,000 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Malicious destruction or damage, by an explosive, to a building or other property owned, possessed, used, or leased by the U.S., U.S. agency, or any organization receiving Federal financial assistance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 844(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First offense not involving death or personal injury: Imprisonment 10 years and/or $10,000 fine and seizure and forfeiture of explosive materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Possession of explosive in buildings owned, possessed, used, or leased by U.S. or U.S. agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 844(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits, except with written consent of the agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Imprisonment one year and/or $1,000 fine and seizure and forfeiture of explosive materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Use of or carrying an explosive to commit, or during commission of, a felony prosecutable in a U.S. court</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 844(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First offense: Imprisonment 10 years and seizure and forfeiture of explosive materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Use of or carrying a firearm during and in relation to any crime of violence prosecutable in a U.S. court</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 U.S.C. 924(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First offense: Imprisonment 5 years and $5,000 fine and seizure and forfeiture of firearm and ammunition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Manufacture, distribution, dispensing, or possession with intent to do these acts, of narcotics and other controlled substances and counterfeit substances</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21 U.S.C. 841, 842, 843, 845</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits, except as authorized by the Controlled Substances Act (generally 21 U.S.C. 801-904)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First offense: Imprisonment 20 years and/or $250,000 fine depending on the amount and kind of substance (twice the above penalties for distribution by a person at least 18 years of age to one under age 21).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Simple possession of narcotics or other controlled substances</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21 U.S.C. 844</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits, unless substance obtained directly, or pursuant to prescription or order, from a practitioner, acting in the course of professional practice, or as otherwise authorized under the Controlled Substances Act</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First offense: Imprisonment 1 year and/or $5,000 fine.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) <I>Maryland criminal statutes that apply.</I> The matters described in this paragraph are governed, in whole or in part, by the current version of the cited Maryland criminal statutory provisions, which are made Federal criminal offenses under the Assimilative Crimes Act (18 U.S.C. 13). This listing sets forth areas of conduct particularly relevant to the enclave and is provided solely for the information of the public. The list is not all-inclusive and omission of other Maryland criminal statutes does not mean that such other statutes are not assimilated as Federal offenses under the Act. Generally, other Maryland criminal statutes will apply on the enclave, by force of the Act, unless superseded by Federal Law or a given provision of this part. In any given situation, the cited statutory provisions and any amendments in effect when the alleged offense occured shall determine the specifics of the offense, applicability, and penalty.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subject
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maryland code annotated
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provides generally
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum penalty
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Pedestrian right-of-way</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transportation, Sec. 21-502</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pedestrians have the right-of-way in crosswalks and certain other areas. Subject to certain limitations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Imprisonment 2 months and/or $500 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 21-511</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blind, partially blind, or hearing impaired pedestrians have the right-of-way at any crossing or intersection. Subject to certain limitations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$500 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Drivers to exercise due care</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transportation, Sec. 21-504</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Drivers shall exercise due care to avoid colliding with pedestrians, children and incapacitated individuals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$500 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Driving while intoxicated, under the influence of alcohol and/or a drug or controlled substance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transportation, Sec. 21-902</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 21-902(a) (driving while intoxicated, first offense): Imprisonment 1 year and/or $1,000 fine.
<br/>Sec. 21-902 (b), (c), (d) (driving under the influence): Imprisonment 2 months and/or $500 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Unattended motor vehicles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transportation, Sec. 21-1101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits leaving motor vehicles unattended unless certain precautions are taken</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$500 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Carrying or wearing certain concealed weapons (other than handguns) or openly with intent to injure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 4-202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits, except for law enforcement personnel or as a reasonable precaution against apprehended danger</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Imprisonment 3 years or $1,000 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Unlawful wearing, carrying, or transporting a handgun, whether concealed or openly</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 4-202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits except by law enforcement personnel or with permit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First offense and no prior related offense: Imprisonment 3 years and/or $2,500 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Use of handgun or concealable antique firearm in commission of felony or crime of violence</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 4-204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Imprisonment 20 years.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Disturbance of the peace</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 6-409</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits acting in a disorderly manner in public places</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Imprisonment 30 days and/or $500 fine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Gambling</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 12-102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibits betting, wagering and gambling, and certain games of chance (does not apply to vending or purchasing lottery tickets authorized under State law in accordance with approved procedures)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sec. 240: Imprisonment one year and/or $1,000 fine. Sec. 245: Imprisonment 2 years and/or $100 fine.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2068, Jan. 22, 1990, as amended at 85 FR 72910, Nov. 16, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.3   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>A person must comply with the regulations in this part; with all official signs; and with the lawful directions or orders of a police officer or other authorized person, including traffic and parking directions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.4   False reports and reports of injury or damage.</HEAD>
<P>A person may not knowingly give any false or fictitious report concerning an accident or violation of the regulations of this part or any applicable Federal or Maryland statute to any person properly investigating an accident or alleged violation. All incidents resulting in injury to persons or willful damage to property in excess of $100.00 (one hundred dollars) in value must be reported by the persons involved to the Police Office as soon as possible. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2068, Jan. 22, 1990, as amended at 88 FR 1135, Jan. 9, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.5   Lost and found, and abandoned property.</HEAD>
<P>Lost articles which are found on the enclave, including money and other personal property, together with any identifying information, must be deposited at the Police Office or with an office (such as the place where found) which may likely have some knowledge of ownership. If the article is deposited with an office other than the Police Office and the owner does not claim it within 30 days, it shall be deposited at the Police Office for further disposition in accordance with General Services Administration regulations (41 CFR 102). Abandoned, or other unclaimed property and, in the absence of specific direction by a court, forfeited property, may be so identified by the Police Office and sold and the proceeds deposited in accordance with 41 CFR part 102-41.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 1874, Jan. 16, 1992, as amended at 85 FR 72910, Nov. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.6   Nondiscrimination.</HEAD>
<P>A person may not discriminate by segregation or otherwise against another person because of age, color, creed, handicap, national origin, race or sex, in furnishing or by refusing to furnish to that person the use of any facility of a public nature, including all services, privileges, accommodations, and activities provided within the enclave. (Title 18 United States Code section 245 prohibits, by use of force or threat of force, willful injury, intimidation, or interference with, a person from participating in or enjoying any benefit, service, privilege, program, facility, or activity provided by or administered by the United States, attempts to do these acts, and engaging in certain other activities.) 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Traffic Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.21   Emergency vehicles.</HEAD>
<P>A person must yield the right of way to an emergency vehicle operating its siren or flashing lights. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.22   Request for identification.</HEAD>
<P>Upon request by a police officer, a person involved in any of the following situations must provide identification, for example, by exhibiting satisfactory credentials (such as an employment identification card or driver's license): 
</P>
<P>(a) A traffic accident within the enclave; 
</P>
<P>(b) The police officer reasonably believes that the individual is engaged in, or has engaged in, criminal conduct or a violation of the regulations of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(c) The enclave or a portion of the enclave is not open to the public (see § 3.41). 
</P>
<P>A driver of a motor vehicle involved in an accident within the enclave shall also exhibit, upon the request of a police officer, the owner's registration card or other satisfactory proof of ownership. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.23   Parking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may not stand (vehicle stopped, with or without, an occupant), or park a motor vehicle or other vehicle: 
</P>
<P>(1) In a lane, space, or area not designated by a sign for parking, and/or standing; 
</P>
<P>(2) On a sidewalk; 
</P>
<P>(3) Within an intersection or crosswalk; 
</P>
<P>(4) Within 10 feet of a fire hydrant, 5 feet of a driveway, or 20 feet of a stop sign, crosswalk, or traffic control signal; 
</P>
<P>(5) In a double-parked position; 
</P>
<P>(6) At a curb painted yellow; 
</P>
<P>(7) On the side of a street facing oncoming traffic; 
</P>
<P>(8) In a position that would obstruct traffic; 
</P>
<P>(9) For a period in excess of 24 hours, except at living quarters, or with the approval of the Police Office. 
</P>
<P>(b) A person must park bicycles, motorbikes, and similar vehicles only in designated areas, and may not bring these vehicles inside buildings. 
</P>
<P>(c) A visitor must park in an area identified for that purpose by posted signs or similar instructions, such as “visitor parking” and “reserved for visitors”. 
</P>
<P>(d) A person may not drive or park an unauthorized motor vehicle on a grassy, or any other unpaved, area without the approval of the Police Office. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.24" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.24   Parking permits.</HEAD>
<P>Except for visitor parking, a person may not park a motor vehicle without displaying a parking permit, currently valid for that location. The Director may revoke or refuse to issue or renew any parking permit for violation of this section, or any provision of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.25" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.25   Servicing of vehicles.</HEAD>
<P>A person may not wash, polish, change oil, lubricate, or make nonemergency repairs on a privately owned vehicle.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.26" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.26   Speed limit.</HEAD>
<P>The speed limit is 25 miles per hour, unless otherwise posted. A driver of a vehicle may not exceed the speed limit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.27" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.27   Bicycles.</HEAD>
<P>A person may not operate a bicycle, motorbike, or similar vehicle without a horn or other warning device, and, if the vehicle is operated between dusk and dawn, it must be equipped with an operating headlight, and taillight or reflector.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Facilities and Grounds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.41   Admission to facilities or grounds.</HEAD>
<P>The enclave is officially open to the public during normal working and visiting hours and for approved public events. The enclave is closed to the public at all other times, and the Director may also officially close all or part of the enclave, or any building, in emergency situations and at other times the Director deems necessary to ensure the orderly conduct of Government business. When all or part of the enclave is closed to the public, admission is restricted to employees and other authorized persons who may be required to display Government credentials or other identification when requested by a police officer and may be required to sign a register. The living quarters and adjacent areas are not open to the public but are open at all times to occupants and their visitors and business invitees, unless otherwise closed by the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.42   Restricted activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hobbies and sports.</I> A person may undertake hobbies and sports only in designated areas or as approved by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pets and other animals.</I> A person may not bring on the enclave any cat, dog, or other animal except for authorized purposes. This prohibition does not apply to domestic pets at living quarters or to the exercise of these pets under leash or other appropriate restraints. The use of a service animal by a person with a disability to assist that person is authorized.</P>
<P>(c) <I>Photography.</I> A person may take photographs, films or audiovisuals, for personal or news purposes on the grounds of the enclave or in entrances, lobbies, foyers, corridors, and auditoriums in use for public meetings, except when contrary to security regulations or Department of Health and Human Services policies, or where prohibited by appropriate signs. Photographs and similar activities for advertising or commercial purposes may be taken only with the advance written approval of the Director. A person may take photographs of a patient only with the informed consent of the patient (or the natural or legal guardian) and of the Director of the Warren Grant Magnuson Clinical Center or delegate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Intoxicating beverages, narcotics, and other controlled substances.</I> A person may not possess, sell, consume, or use alcohol or other intoxicating beverages, except in connection with official duties, as part of authorized research, or as otherwise authorized by the Director, or, in the case of possession, consumption or use only, in living quarters. (The sale, consumption, use, or possession of narcotics and other controlled substances is prohibited and shall be governed by the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 841-845); driving under the influence of an alcoholic beverage, drug or controlled substance is prohibited and shall be governed by the Maryland <I>Transportation Code Annotated</I> section 21-902.)
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nuisances and disturbances.</I> The following acts by a person are prohibited: Unwarranted loitering, disorderly conduct (acting in a disorderly manner to the disturbance of the public peace is prohibited and shall be governed by <I>Maryland Code Annotated,</I> Article 27, section 122); littering or disposal of rubbish in an unauthorized manner, the creation of any hazard to persons or property; the throwing of articles of any kind from or at a building; the climbing upon any part of a building for other than an authorized purpose; the loud playing of radios or other similar devices; and rollerskating, skateboarding, sledding or similar activities, except in officially designated areas.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Smoking.</I> Except as part of an approved medical research protocol, a person may not smoke on the enclave.






</P>
<P>(g) <I>Firearms, explosive, and other weapons.</I> No person other than a specifically authorized police officer shall possess firearms, explosives, or other dangerous or deadly weapons or dangerous materials intended to be used as weapons either openly or concealed. Upon written request, the Director may permit possession in living quarters of antique firearms held for collection purposes, if the Director finds that the collection does not present any risk of harm.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2068, Jan. 22, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 1874, Jan. 16, 1992; 88 FR 1135, Jan. 9, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.43" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.43   Removal of property.</HEAD>
<P>A person may not remove Federal property from the enclave or any building on the enclave without a property pass, signed by an authorized property custodian, which specifically describes the items to be removed. In an emergency, or when the property custodian is not available, a police officer may approve removal of Federal property if, after consulting with the administrative officer or other appropriate official, the police officer is authorized by the official to do so. Privately-owned property, other than that ordinarily carried on one's person, may be removed only under this property pass procedure, or upon properly establishing ownership of the property to a police officer.
</P>
<P>Packages, briefcases, or other containers brought within the enclave are subject to inspection while on, or being removed from, the enclave.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.44" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.44   Solicitation.</HEAD>
<P>It shall be unlawful for a person (other than an employee using authorized bulletin boards), without prior written approval of the Director, to offer or display any article or service for sale within the enclave buildings or grounds; or to display any sign, placard, or other form of advertisement; or to collect private debts; or to solicit business, alms, subscriptions or contributions, except in connection with approved national or local campaigns for funds for welfare, health and other public interest purposes, or solicitation of labor organization membership or dues as authorized under the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-454). 
</P>
<P>This provision shall not apply to authorized lessees and their agents and employees with regard to space leased for commercial, cultural, educational, or recreational purposes, under the Public Buildings Cooperative Use Act of 1976 (40 U.S.C. 490(A)(16)).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.61" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.61   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person found guilty of violating any provision of the regulations in this part is subject to a fine or imprisonment of not more than thirty days or both, for each violation (Pub. L. 107-296, Homeland Security Act of 2002).






</P>
<P>(b) Penalties for violation of offenses proscribed by Federal statutes (generally codified in title 18 of the United States Code) and Maryland criminal statutes which are made Federal offenses under the Assimilative Crimes Act and are prescribed in the applicable provisions of those statutes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 2068, Jan. 22, 1990, as amended at 85 FR 72910, Nov. 16, 2020; 88 FR 1135, Jan. 9, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4—SERVICE OF PROCESS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 42 U.S.C. 300aa-11.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 24079, May 31, 1983, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.1   Suits against the Department and its employees in their official capacities.</HEAD>
<P>Summonses and complaints to be served by mail on the Department of Health and Human Services, the Secretary of Health and Human Services, or other employees of the Department in their official capacities should be sent to the General Counsel, Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Avenue, S.W., Washington, DC 20201. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.4.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.2   Other process directed to the Department or Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>Subpoenas and other process (other than summonses and complaints) that are required to be served on the Department of Health and Human Services or the Secretary of Health and Human Services in his official capacity should be served as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) If authorized by law to be served by mail, any mailed process should be sent to the General Counsel, Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence, S.W., Washington, DC 20201.
</P>
<P>(b) If served by an individual, the process should be delivered to the staff in the Office of Legal Resources, Office of the General Counsel, Room 700E, 200 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20201, or in the absence of that staff, to any staff member of or individual assigned to the Immediate Office of the General Counsel, up to and including any Deputy General Counsel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 24079, May 31, 1983,as amended at 73 FR 48151, Aug. 18, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.4.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.3   Process against Department officials in their individual capacities.</HEAD>
<P>Process to be served on Department officials in their individual capacities must be served in compliance with the requirements for service of process on individuals who are not governmental officials. The Office of the General Counsel is authorized but not required to accept process to be served on Departmental officials in their individual capacities if the suit relates to an employee's official duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.4.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.4   Acknowledgement of mailed process.</HEAD>
<P>The Department will not provide a receipt or other acknowledgement of process received, except for a return receipt associated with certified mail and, where required, the acknowledgement specified by Rule 4(c)(2)(C) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.4.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.5   Effect of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part are intended solely to identify Department officials who are authorized to accept service of process. Litigants must comply with all requirements pertaining to service of process that are established by statute and court rule even though they are not repeated in these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.4.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.6   Materials related to petitions under the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding the provisions of §§ 4.1, 4.2, and 4.3, service of the Secretary's copies of petitions for compensation under the VICP and of related filings, by mail, shall be served upon the Director, Division of Vaccine Injury Compensation, Office of Special Programs, Health Resources and Services Administration 5600 Fishers Lane, Parklawn Building, Room 16C-17, Rockville, Maryland 20857, or in person, shall be served upon the Director, Division of Vaccine Injury Compensation, Office of Special Programs, Health Resources and Services Administration, 4350 East West Highway, 10th Floor, Bethesda, Maryland 20814.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78990, Dec. 27, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.4.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.7   Congressional subpoenas directed to the Department or Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding the provisions of §§ 4.1, 4.2, and 4.3, service of Congressional subpoenas shall be delivered to the staff in the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Legislation, Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20201.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 48151, Aug. 18, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 5—FREEDOM OF INFORMATION REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552, 18 U.S.C. 1905, 31 U.S.C. 9701, 42 U.S.C. 1306(c), E.O. 12600, E.O.13392


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 74939, Oct. 28, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Information About Freedom of Information Act Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended, for Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) records that are subject to the FOIA. This part should be read in conjunction with the text of the FOIA and the Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget. This part contains the rules that we follow to process FOIA requests, such as the amount of time we have to make a determination regarding the release of records, who can decide to release records and who can decide not to release them, the fees we may charge, if applicable, the reasons why some records are exempt from disclosure under the FOIA, and the administrative and legal remedies available should a requester disagree with our initial disclosure determination.
</P>
<P>(a) The FOIA provides a right of access to agency records, except to the extent that any portions of the records are protected from public disclosure by an exemption or exclusion in the statute. The FOIA does not require us to perform research for you or to answer your questions. The FOIA does not require agencies to create new records or to perform analysis of existing records; for example, by extrapolating information from existing agency records, reformatting publicly available information, preparing new electronic programs or databases, or creating data through calculations of ratios, proportions, percentages, trends, frequency distributions, correlations, or comparisons. However, at our discretion and if it would conserve government resources, we may decide to supply requested information by consolidating information from various records.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to data generated by an agency grant recipient under the provisions of 45 CFR part 75 to the extent the requirements of 45 CFR 75.322(e) do not apply to the data. We will not process your request under the FOIA or these regulations if that data is already available to the public through an archive or other source. In that situation, we will refer you to that other source. The procedures for requesting research data made available under the provisions of 45 CFR 75.322(e) are referenced in § 5.23(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.2   Presumption of openness and proactive disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) We will administer the FOIA with a presumption of openness. In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(8) we will disclose records or information exempt from disclosure under the FOIA whenever disclosure would not foreseeably harm an interest protected by a FOIA exemption and disclosure is not prohibited by law. We also will consider whether partial disclosure of information is possible whenever we determine that a full disclosure of a requested record is not possible. This includes taking reasonable steps to segregate and release nonexempt information.
</P>
<P>(b) Records that the FOIA requires agencies to make available for public inspection in an electronic format may be accessed through each OpDiv's and Staff Div's Web site. Each OpDiv and StaffDiv is responsible for determining which of its records must be made publicly available (including frequently requested records), for identifying additional records of interest to the public that are appropriate for public disclosure, and for posting and indexing such records. Each OpDiv and StaffDiv must ensure that its Web site of posted records and indices is reviewed and updated on an ongoing basis. Each OpDiv and StaffDiv has a FOIA Requester Service Center or FOIA Public Liaison who can assist individuals in locating records. A list of agency FOIA Public Liaisons is available at <I>http://www.foia.gov/report-makerequest.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> is defined at 5 U.S.C. 551(1). HHS is an agency. Private entities performing work under a contractual agreement with the government are not agencies for the purpose of this definition. However, information maintained on behalf of an agency under Government contract, for the purposes of records management, is considered an agency record.
</P>
<P><I>Chief FOIA Officer</I> means a senior official of HHS, at the Assistant Secretary or equivalent level, who has agency-wide responsibility for ensuring efficient and appropriate compliance with the FOIA, monitoring implementation of the FOIA throughout the agency, and making recommendations to the head of the agency to improve the agency's implementation of the FOIA. The Secretary of HHS has designated the Assistant Secretary, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public Affairs (ASPA), as the Agency Chief FOIA Officer (ACFO); that official may be contacted at HHS.ACFO@hhs.gov.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial use</I> means a use or purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest of the requester or the person or entity on whose behalf the request is made.
</P>
<P><I>Department or HHS</I> means the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Deputy Agency Chief FOIA Officer (DACFO)</I> means a designated official within the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public Affairs, who has been authorized by the Chief FOIA Officer to act upon their behalf to implement compliance with the FOIA, as described above. This official is also the approving review authority for FOIA administrative appeals.
</P>
<P><I>Direct costs</I> mean those expenses that an agency incurs in searching for and duplicating (and, in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing) records in order to respond to a FOIA request. For example, direct costs include the salary of the employee performing the work (<I>i.e.,</I> the basic rate of pay for the employee, plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating computers and other electronic equipment, such as photocopiers and scanners. Direct costs do not include overhead expenses such as the costs of space, and of heating or lighting a facility.
</P>
<P><I>Duplication</I> means the process of making a copy of a record and sending it to the requester, to the extent necessary to respond to the request. Such copies include both paper copies and electronic records. Fees for duplication are further explained within § 5.52.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> means any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. Agencies may seek assurance from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>A request from a professor of geology at a university for records relating to soil erosion, written on letterhead of the Department of Geology, would be presumed to be from an educational institution.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>A request from the same professor of geology seeking drug information from the Food and Drug Administration in furtherance of a murder mystery he is writing would not be presumed to be an institutional request, regardless of whether it was written on institutional stationery.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>A student who makes a request in furtherance of their coursework or other school-sponsored activities and provides a copy of a course syllabus or other reasonable documentation to indicate the research purpose for the request, would qualify as part of this fee category.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P><I>Expedited processing</I> means the process set forth in the FOIA that allows requesters to request faster processing of their FOIA request, if they can demonstrate a specific compelling need.
</P>
<P><I>Fee category</I> means one of the four categories established by the FOIA to determine whether a requester will be charged fees for search, review, and duplication. The categories are: commercial use requests; non-commercial scientific or educational institutions requests; news media requests; and all other requests. Fee categories are further explained within § 5.53.
</P>
<P><I>Fee waiver</I> means the waiver or reduction of fees if a requester is able to demonstrate that certain standards set forth in the FOIA and this part are satisfied, including that disclosure of the records is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P><I>First-party request</I> means a request by an individual for records pertaining to that individual, or an authorized representative acting on such an individual's behalf.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA Public Liaison</I> means an agency official who reports to the agency Chief FOIA Officer and serves as a supervisory official to whom a requester can raise concerns about the service the requester has received from the FOIA Requester Service Center. This individual is responsible for assisting in reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA request</I> means a written request that reasonably describes the records sought.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA library records</I> are records that are required to be made available to the public without a specific request under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2). We make FOIA library records available to the public electronically through our Web pages (<I>http://www.hhs.gov/foia/reading/index.html</I>) and at certain physical locations. A list of the physical locations is available at <I>http://www.hhs.gov/foia/contacts/index.html</I>. Other records may also be made available at our discretion through our Web pages (<I>http://www.hhs.gov</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Freedom of Information Act (FOIA</I>) means the law codified at 5 U.S.C. 552 that provides the public with the right to request agency records from Federal executive branch agencies. A link to the text of the FOIA is at <I>https://www.justice.gov/oip/freedom-information-act-5-usc-552.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Officer</I> means an HHS official who has been delegated the authority to release or withhold records; to assess, waive, or reduce fees in response to FOIA requests; and to determine whether to grant expedited processing. In that capacity, the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Officer has the authority to task agency organizational components to search for records in response to a FOIA request, and to provide records located in their offices. Apart from records subject to proactive disclosure pursuant to subsection (a)(2) of the FOIA, only FOIA Officers have the authority to release or withhold records or to waive fees in response to a FOIA request. Our FOIA operations are decentralized, and each FOIA Requester Service Center has a designated official with this authority; the contact information for each FOIA Requester Service Center is available at <I>http://www.hhs.gov/foia/contacts/index.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) The <I>HHS Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Officer in the Office of the Secretary</I> means the HHS official who in addition to overseeing the daily operations of the FOIA program in that office and having the authority of a <I>Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Officer,</I> is also responsible for the Department-wide administration and coordination of the FOIA and its implementing regulations and policies as they pertain to the programs and activities of the Department. This individual serves as the principal resource with respect to the articulation of procedures designed to implement and ensure compliance with the FOIA and its implementing regulations and policies as they pertain to the Department. This individual reports through the DACFO to the ACFO to support oversight and compliance with the OPEN Government Act.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Frequently requested records</I> means records, regardless of form or format, that have been released to any person under the FOIA and that have been requested 3 or more times or because of the nature of their subject matter, the agency determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate Office of the Secretary (IOS)</I> means offices within the Office of the Secretary, responsible for operations and work of the Secretary. It includes the Office of the Deputy Secretary, Office of the Chief of Staff, the Secretary's Counselors, the Executive Secretariat, the Office of Health Reform, and the Office of Intergovernmental and External Affairs.
</P>
<P><I>Non-commercial scientific institution</I> means an institution that is not operated to further a commercial, trade, or profit interest and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use.
</P>
<P><I>Office of the Inspector General (OIG)</I> means the Staff Division within the Office of the Secretary (OS), which is responsible for protecting the integrity of HHS programs and the health and welfare of the beneficiaries of those programs. OIG is responsible for processing FOIA requests for the records it maintains.
</P>
<P><I>Office of the Secretary (OS)</I> means the HHS's chief policy officer and general manager, who administers and oversees the organization, its programs and activities. The Deputy Secretary and a number of Assistant Secretaries and Staff Divisions support OS. The HHS FOIA Office within ASPA processes FOIA requests for records maintained by OS Staff Divisions other than the OIG. In certain circumstances and at the HHS FOIA Office's discretion, the HHS FOIA office may also process FOIA requests involving other HHS OpDivs, as further described in § 5.28(a).
</P>
<P><I>Operating Division (OpDiv)</I> means any of the following divisions within HHS which are subject to this regulation:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Office of the Secretary (OS)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Administration for Children and Families (ACF) Administration for Community Living (ACL)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(ATSDR) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Indian Health Service (IHS)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Institutes of Health (NIH)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P><I>Operating Division and Staff Division Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Officers</I> means the officials who are responsible for overseeing the daily operations of their FOIA programs in their respective Operating Divisions or Staff Divisions, with the full authority as described in the definition of <I>Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Officer.</I> These individuals serve as the principal resource and authority for FOIA operations and implementation within their respective Operating Divisions or Staff Divisions.
</P>
<P><I>Other requester</I> means any individual or organization whose request does not qualify as a commercial-use request, representative of the news media request (including a request made by a freelance journalist), or an educational or non-commercial scientific institution request.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means any information that would be an agency record when maintained by an agency in any format, including an electronic format; and any information that is maintained for an agency by an entity under Government contract, for the purposes of records management.
</P>
<P><I>Redact</I> means delete or mark over.
</P>
<P><I>Representative of the news media</I> means any person or entity that actively gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations that broadcast news to the public at large and publishers of periodicals, including print and online publications that disseminate news and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public. We do not consider requests for records that support the news-dissemination function of the requester to be a commercial use. We consider “freelance” journalists who demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity as working for that entity. A publishing contract provides the clearest evidence that a journalist expects publication; however, we also consider a requester's past publication record.
</P>
<P><I>Review</I> means examining records responsive to a request to determine whether any portions are exempt from disclosure. Review time includes processing a record for disclosure (<I>i.e.,</I> doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure), including redacting the record and marking the appropriate FOIA exemptions.
</P>
<P><I>Search</I> means the process of identifying, locating, and retrieving records to find records responsive to a request, whether in hard copy or in electronic form or format.
</P>
<P><I>Staff Division (StaffDiv)</I> means an organization component that provides leadership, direction, and policy and management guidance to the Office of the Secretary and the Department. The following StaffDivs are subject to the regulations in this part:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Immediate Office of the Secretary (IOS)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary for Administration (ASA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary for Financial Resources (ASFR)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary for Health (OASH)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary for Legislation (ASL)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation (ASPE) Assistant Secretary for Public Affairs (ASPA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response (ASPR)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Departmental Appeals Board (DAB)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Office for Civil Rights (OCR)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Office of the General Counsel (OGC) Office of Global Affairs (OGA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Office of the Inspector General (OIG)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Office of Medicare Hearings and Appeals (OMHA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology (ONC)</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P><I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity, including a corporation, State, or foreign government, but not including another Federal Government entity, that provides commercial or financial information, either directly or indirectly to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>Tolling</I> means temporarily stopping the running of a time limit. We may toll a request to seek clarification or to address fee issues, as further described in § 5.24.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.4   Regulatory scope.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements in this part apply to all OpDivs and StaffDivs of HHS. Some OpDivs and StaffDivs may establish or continue to maintain additional rules because of unique program requirements, but such rules must be consistent with this part and the FOIA. If additional rules are issued, they must be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and you may get copies online at <I>https://www.federalregister.gov/, http://www.regulations.gov/</I> or by contacting one of our FOIA Requester Service Centers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.5   Interrelationship between the FOIA and the Privacy Act of 1974.</HEAD>
<P>The FOIA allows any person (whether an individual or entity) to request access to records. The Privacy Act, at 5 U.S.C. 552a(d), provides an additional right of access, allowing individuals to request records about themselves, if the records are maintained in a system of records (defined in 5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(5)).
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Requesting records about you.</I> If any part of your request includes records about yourself that are maintained within a system of records as defined by the Privacy Act at 5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(5), you should make your request in accordance with the Privacy Act and the Department's implementing regulations at 45 CFR part 5b. This includes requirements to verify your identity. We will process the request under the Privacy Act and, if it is not fully granted under the Privacy Act, we will process it under the FOIA. You may obtain, under the FOIA, information that is exempt from access under the Privacy Act, if the information is not excluded or exempt under the FOIA. If you request records about yourself that are not maintained within a system of records, we will process your request under the FOIA only.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requesting records about another individual.</I> If you request records about another individual, we will process your request under the FOIA. You may receive greater access by following the procedures described in § 5.22(g).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—How to Request Records under FOIA</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.21   Who can file a FOIA request?</HEAD>
<P>Any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization other than a Federal agency, regardless of nationality, may submit a FOIA request to us. This includes state and local governments<I>.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.22   What do I include in my FOIA request?</HEAD>
<P>In your FOIA request:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide a written description of the records you seek in sufficient detail to enable our staff to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. The more information you provide, the better possibility we have of finding the records you are seeking. Information that will help us find the records would include:
</P>
<P>(1) The agencies, offices, or individuals involved;
</P>
<P>(2) The approximate date(s) when the records were created;
</P>
<P>(3) The subject, title, or description of the records sought; and
</P>
<P>(4) Author, recipient, case number, file designation, or other reference number, if available.
</P>
<P>(b) Include your name, full mailing address, and phone number and if available, your email address. This information allows us to reach you faster if we have any questions about your request. It is your responsibility to keep your current mailing address up to date with the office where you have filed the FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(c) State your willingness to pay all fees, or the maximum amount of fees you are willing to pay, and/or include a request for a fee waiver/reduction.
</P>
<P>(d) Mark both your letter and envelope, or the subject line of your email, with the words “FOIA Request.”
</P>
<P>(e) If you are unable to submit a written request to us due to circumstances such as disability or literacy, you may make a request orally to a FOIA Officer. FOIA Officers will put in writing an oral request made directly to them.
</P>
<P>(f) If you are making a first-party request, you must comply with the verification of identity procedures set forth in 45 CFR part 5b.
</P>
<P>(g) Where your request for records pertains to another individual, you may receive greater access by submitting either a notarized authorization signed by that individual or a declaration made in compliance with the requirements set forth in 28 U.S.C. 1746 by that individual authorizing disclosure of the records to the requester, or by submitting proof that the individual is deceased (<I>e.g.,</I> a copy of a death certificate or an obituary). At our discretion, we may require you to supply additional information if necessary to verify that a particular individual has consented to disclosure of records about them.
</P>
<P>(h) If you are requesting the medical records of an individual other than yourself from a government program that pays or provides for health care (<I>e.g.</I> Medicare, Indian Health Service) and you are not that individual's legally authorized representative, you should submit a Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) compliant release authorization form signed by the subject of records or the individual's legally authorized representative. The HIPAA Privacy Rule requires that an authorization form contain certain core elements and statements which are described in the Privacy Rule's requirements at 45 CFR 164.508. If you are submitting a request for Medicare records to CMS, CMS has a release authorization form at the following link: <I>ttps://www.cms.gov/Medicare/CMS-Forms/CMS-Forms/Downloads/CMS10106.pdf.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Before filing your request, you may find it helpful to consult the HHS FOIA Requester Service Centers online at <I>http://www.hhs.gov/foia/contacts/index.html,</I> which provides additional guidance to assist in submitting a FOIA request to a specific OpDiv or StaffDiv or to regional offices or divisions within an OpDiv or StaffDiv. You may also wish to check in the agency's electronic FOIA libraries available online at <I>http://www.hhs.gov/foia/reading/index.html,</I> to see if the information you wish to obtain is already available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.23   Where do I send my FOIA request?</HEAD>
<P>We have several FOIA Requester Service Centers (FOIA offices) that process FOIA requests. You should send your FOIA request to the appropriate FOIA Requester Service Center that you believe would have the records you seek. An up-to-date listing is maintained online at <I>http://www.hhs.gov/foia/contacts/index.html.</I> You also may submit your request electronically by emailing it to the appropriate FOIA Requester Service Center or by submitting it to the Department's web portal located at <I>https://requests.publiclink.hhs.gov/palMain.aspx.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) If you are requesting research data made available under the provisions of 45 CFR 75.322(e), requests for such data should be addressed to the OpDiv that made the award under which the data were first produced. That OpDiv will process your request in accordance with established procedures consistent with the FOIA and 45 CFR 75.322(e).
</P>
<P>(b) We officially receive your request when it reaches the FOIA Requester Service Center with responsibility for the OpDiv or StaffDiv where requested records are likely to be located, but no later than 10 working days after the request first arrives at any of our FOIA Requester Service Centers.
</P>
<P>(c) If you have questions concerning the processing of your FOIA request, you may contact the FOIA Requester Service Center processing your request. If that initial contact does not resolve your concerns, you may wish to contact the designated FOIA Public Liaison for the OpDiv or StaffDiv processing your request. You can find a list of our FOIA Requester Service Centers and Public Liaisons at <I>http://www.hhs.gov/foia/contacts/index.html.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.24" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.24   How does HHS process my FOIA request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acknowledgement.</I> We acknowledge all FOIA requests in writing within 10 working days after receipt by the appropriate office. The acknowledgement letter or email informs you of your request tracking number, provides contact information, and informs you of any complexity we are aware of in processing that may lengthen the time required to reach a final decision on the release of the records. In addition, the acknowledgement letter or email or a subsequent communication may also seek additional information to clarify your request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Perfected requests.</I> (1) A request is considered to be perfected (<I>i.e.,</I> the 20 working day statutory response time begins to run) when—
</P>
<P>(i) The request either has been received by the responsible FOIA office, or, in any event, not later than 10 working days after the request has been received by any HHS FOIA office;
</P>
<P>(ii) The requested records are reasonably described; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The request contains sufficient information to enable the FOIA office to contact you and transmit records to you.
</P>
<P>(2) We provide at least 20 working days for you to respond to a request to perfect your request, after notification. Requests must reasonably describe the records sought and contain sufficient information to enable the FOIA office to contact you and transmit records to you. If we determine that a request does not meet these requirements, we will attempt to contact you if possible. Should you not answer any correspondence, or should the correspondence be returned as undeliverable, we reserve the right to administratively close the FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stops in processing time (tolling).</I> We may stop the processing of your request one time if we require additional information regarding the specifics of the request. The processing time resumes upon our receipt of your response. We also may stop the processing of your request if we require clarification regarding fee assessments. If additional information or clarification is required, we will attempt to contact you using the contact information you have provided. The processing time will resume upon our receipt of your response. We will provide at least 20 working days after notification for you to respond to a request for additional information or clarification regarding the specifics of your request or fee assessment. Should you not answer any correspondence, or should the correspondence be returned as undeliverable, we may administratively close the FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Search cut-off date.</I> As the end or cut-off date for a records search, we use the date on which we first begin our search for documents responsive to your request, unless you specify an earlier cut-off date, or a specific date range for the records search. We will use the date of the first search in those cases when you request records “through the present,” “through today,” or similar language. The FOIA allows you to request existing agency records. The FOIA cannot be used to request records which the agency may create in the future in the course of carrying out its mission.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Processing queues.</I> We place FOIA requests in simple or complex processing queues to be processed in the order received, on a first-in, first-out basis, absent approval for expedited processing based upon a compelling need, as further explained and defined in § 5.27. We will place your request in the simple or complex processing queue based on the estimated amount of work or time needed to process the request. Among the factors we may consider are the number of records requested, the number of pages involved in processing the request, and the need for consultations or referrals. We will advise requesters of potential complicating factors in our acknowledgement letter or email, or in subsequent communications regarding your request and, when appropriate, we will offer requesters an opportunity to narrow or modify their request so that it can be placed in the simple processing track.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Unusual circumstances.</I> Whenever we cannot meet the statutory time limit for processing a request because of “unusual circumstances,” as defined in the FOIA, and we extend the time limit on that basis, we will notify you, before expiration of the 20-day period to respond and in writing of the unusual circumstances involved and of the date by which we estimate processing of the request will be completed. Where the extension exceeds 10 working days, we will provide you, as described by the FOIA, with an opportunity to modify the request or arrange an alternative time period for processing the original or modified request. We will make available a designated FOIA contact in the appropriate FOIA Requester Service Center or the appropriate FOIA Public Liaison for this purpose. In addition, we will inform you of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> For the purposes of satisfying unusual circumstances, we may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request, involving clearly related matters, that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. In the event that requests are aggregated, they will be treated as one request for the purposes of calculating both response time and fees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.25" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.25   How does HHS handle requests that involve more than one OpDiv, StaffDiv, or Federal agency?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Re-routing of misdirected requests.</I> When a FOIA Requester Service Center determines that a request was misdirected within HHS, the receiving FOIA Requester Service Center must route the request to the FOIA Requester Service Center of the proper OpDiv or StaffDiv within HHS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consultation, referral, and coordination.</I> When reviewing records located by an OpDiv or StaffDiv in response to a request, the OpDiv or StaffDiv will determine whether another agency of the Federal Government is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. As to any such record, the OpDiv or StaffDiv must proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consultation.</I> When records originated with an OpDiv or StaffDiv processing the request, but contain within them information of interest to another OpDiv, StaffDiv, agency or other Federal Government office, the OpDiv or StaffDiv processing the request should typically consult with that other entity prior to making a release determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral.</I> (i) When the OpDiv or StaffDiv processing the request believes that a different OpDiv, StaffDiv, or agency is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, the OpDiv or StaffDiv typically should refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to that other entity. Ordinarily, the entity that originated the record is presumed to be the best entity to make the disclosure determination. However, if the OpDiv or StaffDiv processing the request and the originating entity jointly agree that the OpDiv or StaffDiv processing the request is in the best position to respond regarding the record, then the record may be handled as a consultation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever an OpDiv or StaffDiv refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another OpDiv, StaffDiv, or federal agency, it must document the referral, maintain a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral; informing the requester of the name(s) of the entity to which the record was referred, including that entity's FOIA contact information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coordination.</I> The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the OpDiv, StaffDiv, or federal agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. In such instances, in order to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, the OpDiv or StaffDiv that received the request should coordinate with the originating entity to seek its views on the disclosability of the record. The release determination for the record that is the subject of the coordination should then be conveyed to the requester by the OpDiv or StaffDiv that originally received the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classified information.</I> On receipt of any request involving classified information, the OpDiv or StaffDiv must determine whether the information is currently and properly classified in accordance with applicable classification rules. Whenever a request involves a record containing information that has been classified or may be appropriate for classification by another agency under any applicable executive order concerning the classification of records, the OpDiv or StaffDiv must refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that information to the agency that classified the information, or which should consider the information for classification. Whenever an OpDiv's or StaffDiv's record contains information that has been derivatively classified (for example, when it contains information classified by another agency), the OpDiv or StaffDiv must refer the responsibility for responding to that portion of the request to the agency that classified the underlying information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing of responses to consultations and referrals.</I> All consultations and referrals received by the Department will be handled according to the date that the FOIA request initially was received by the first OpDiv, StaffDiv, or federal agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreements regarding consultations and referrals.</I> OpDivs or StaffDivs may establish agreements with other OpDivs, StaffDivs, or federal agencies to eliminate the need for consultations or referrals with respect to particular types of records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.26" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.26   How does HHS determine estimated completion dates for FOIA requests?</HEAD>
<P>(a) When we provide an estimated completion date, in accordance with § 5.24(f) and upon request, for the processing of records that do not require consultation with another agency, we estimate the completion date on the basis of our reasonable judgment as to how long it will take to complete the request. Given the uncertainty inherent in establishing any estimate, the estimated completion date is subject to change at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) When we provide an estimated completion date, in accordance with § 5.24(f) and upon request, for records that must be reviewed by another agency, our estimate may also be based on information from the other agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.27" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.27   How do I request expedited processing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) To request expedited processing, you must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct, explaining the basis for your need for expedited processing. You must send the request to the appropriate FOIA Officer at the address listed at <I>http://www.hhs.gov/foia/contacts/index.html.</I> You may request expedited processing when you first request records or at any time during our processing of your request or appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) We process requests on an expedited basis whenever we determine that one or more of the following criteria exist:
</P>
<P>(1) That a failure to obtain requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is an urgent need to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity (this criterion applies only to those requests made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information to the public).
</P>
<P>(c) We will respond to your request for expedited processing within 10 calendar days of our receipt of your request to expedite. If we grant your request, the OpDiv or StaffDiv responsible for the review of the requested records will process your request as a priority, and it will be processed as soon as practicable. We will inform you if we deny your request for expedited processing and provide you with appeal rights. If you decide to appeal that denial, we will expedite our review of your appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) If we must refer records to another agency, we will inform you and suggest that you seek expedited review from that agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.28" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.28   How does HHS respond to my request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appropriate FOIA Officer will send you a response informing you of our release determination, including whether any responsive records were located, how much responsive material was located, whether the records are being released in full or withheld in full or in part, any fees you must pay for processing of the request, and your right to seek assistance from the appropriate FOIA Public Liaison.
</P>
<P>(b) If we deny any part of your request, our response will explain the reasons for the denial, which FOIA exemptions apply to the withheld records, your right to appeal that determination, and your right to seek dispute resolution services from the appropriate FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS). We will advise you of the number of pages withheld or the estimated volume of withheld records, unless providing such information would harm an interest protected by an applicable FOIA exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) Records may be withheld in full or in part if any of the nine FOIA exemptions apply. If we determine to withhold part of a record pursuant to an exemption, we will provide access to reasonably segregable non-exempt information contained in the record. On the released portion of the record, we indicate where the information has been redacted and the exemption(s) we applied, unless including that indication would harm an interest the exemption protects. In subpart C of this part, we list the exemptions to disclosure that may apply to agency records.
</P>
<P>(d) We also may deny your request for other reasons, including that a request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested records do not exist, cannot be located, or have been destroyed; or that the requested records are not readily reproducible in the form or format requested.
</P>
<P>(e) If a request involves a voluminous amount of material or searches in multiple locations, we may provide you with interim responses if feasible and reasonably possible, releasing the records on a rolling basis.
</P>
<P>(f) Copies of records in the format you request will be provided if the records already exist in that format or if they are reasonably and readily reproducible in the format you request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.29" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.29   How may I request assistance with the FOIA process?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you have questions concerning the processing of your FOIA request, you should first contact the FOIA Requester Service Center processing your request. Additionally, for assistance at any point in the FOIA process, you may contact the FOIA Public Liaison at the FOIA Requester Service Center processing your request. The FOIA Public Liaison is responsible for assisting you to reduce delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting to resolve any FOIA disputes. Some FOIA Requester Service Centers allow you to check the status of your request online. You can find a list of our FOIA Requester Service Centers and Public Liaisons at <I>http://www.hhs.gov/foia/contacts/index.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of Government Information Services (OGIS), which is part of the National Archives and Records Administration, serves as the Federal FOIA ombudsman and assists requesters and agencies to prevent and resolve FOIA disputes through mediation. Mediation is a voluntary process. If we participate in the dispute resolution services provided by OGIS, we will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute and will follow the principles of confidentiality in accordance with the Administrative Dispute Resolution Act, 5 U.S.C. 571-8. You may contact OGIS at the following address: National Archives and Records Administration, Office of Government Information Services, 8601 Adelphi Road—OGIS, College Park, MD 20740-6001, or by email at <I>ogis@nara.gov,</I> or by telephone at 202-741-5770 or 1-877-684-6448 (toll free).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Exemptions to Disclosure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.31   What are the reasons records may be withheld?</HEAD>
<P>While we are committed to providing public access to as many of our records as possible, there are instances in which information falls within one or more of the FOIA's nine exemptions and disclosure would either foreseeably harm an interest protected by a FOIA exemption or disclosure is prohibited by law. We review all records and weigh and assess all legal and policy requirements prior to making a final disclosure determination. A description of the nine FOIA exemptions is provided in paragraphs (a) through (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption 1.</I> Exemption 1 protects from disclosure information specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and are in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption 2.</I> Exemption 2 authorizes our agency to withhold records that are related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of an agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption 3.</I> Exemption 3 authorizes our agency to withhold records which are specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552(b)) provided that such statute requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue; or establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld; and if enacted after the date of enactment of the OPEN FOIA Act of 2009, October 28, 2009, specifically cites to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption 4.</I> Exemption 4 authorizes our agency to withhold trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption 5.</I> Exemption 5 authorizes our agency to withhold inter-agency or intra agency memorandums or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the agency, provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exemption 6.</I> Exemption 6 authorizes our agency to protect information in personnel and medical files and similar files when the disclosure of such information would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemption 7.</I> Exemption 7 authorizes our agency to withhold records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records or information would cause the following harm(s):
</P>
<P>(1) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(2) Would deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication;
</P>
<P>(3) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(4) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a state, local, or foreign agency or authority, or any private institution which furnished information on a confidential basis, and, in the case of a record or information compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by an agency conducting lawful national security intelligence investigation, information furnished by a confidential source;
</P>
<P>(5) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or
</P>
<P>(6) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exemption 8.</I> Exemption 8 authorizes our agency to withhold records that are contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemption 9.</I> Exemption 9 authorizes our agency to withhold geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.32   Records not subject to the requirements of the FOIA—law enforcement exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>Under the FOIA, there is special protection for narrow categories of law enforcement and national security records. The provisions protecting those records are known as “exclusions” and are described in 5 U.S.C. 552(c). These exclusions expressly authorize Federal law enforcement agencies, under these exceptional circumstances, to treat the records as not subject to the requirements of the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(a) Should an HHS OpDiv or StaffDiv maintain records which are subject to a FOIA exclusion, and consider employing an exclusion or have a question as to the implementation of an exclusion, the OpDiv or StaffDiv will consult with the Office of Information Policy, U.S. Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(b) Because records falling within an exclusion are not subject to the requirements of the FOIA, should any HHS OpDiv or StaffDiv maintain such excluded records, the OpDiv or StaffDiv will limit its response to those records that are subject to the FOIA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Confidential Commercial Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.41   How does a submitter identify records containing confidential commercial information?</HEAD>
<P>A person who submits records to the government may designate part or all of the information in such records that they may consider to be exempt from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA. The person may make this designation either at the time the records are submitted to the government or within a reasonable time thereafter. The designation must be in writing. Any such designation will expire 10 years after the records were submitted to the government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.42   How does HHS process FOIA requests for confidential commercial information?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Predisclosure notification.</I> The procedures in this section apply to records on which the submitter has designated information as provided in § 5.41. They also apply to records that were submitted to the government where we have substantial reason to believe that information in the records could reasonably be considered exempt under Exemption 4. Certain exceptions to these procedures are stated in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) When we receive a request for such records, and we determine that we may be required to disclose them, we will make reasonable efforts to notify the submitter about these facts. The notice will include a copy of the request, and it will inform the submitter about the procedures and time limits for submission and consideration of objections to disclosure. If we must notify a large number of submitters, we may do this by posting or publishing a notice in a place where the submitters are reasonably likely to become aware of it.
</P>
<P>(2) The submitter has 10 working days from the date of the notice to object to disclosure of any part of the records and to state all bases for its objections. FOIA Offices in HHS and its organizational components may extend this period as appropriate and necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) We review and consider all objections to release that we receive within the time limit. If a submitter fails to respond within the time period specified in the notice, we will consider the submitter to have no objection to disclosure of the information. If we decide to release the records, we inform the submitter in writing, along with our reasons for the decision to release. We include with the notice a description of the information to be disclosed or copies of the records as we intend to release them. We also provide the submitter with a specific date that we intend to disclose the records, which must be at least 5 working days after the date of the notice. We do not consider any information we receive after the date of a disclosure decision.
</P>
<P>(4) If the requester files a lawsuit under the FOIA for access to records submitted to HHS, we promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(5) We will notify the requester in these circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) When we notify a submitter that we may be required to disclose information under the FOIA, we will also notify the requester that notice and opportunity to comment are being provided to the submitter;
</P>
<P>(ii) When the agency notifies a submitter of a final disclosure decision under the FOIA,
</P>
<P>and;
</P>
<P>(iii) When a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions to predisclosure notification.</I> The notice requirements in paragraph (a) of this section do not apply in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) We determine that we should withhold the information under a FOIA exemption;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been lawfully published or made available to the public
</P>
<P>(3) We are required by a statute (other than the FOIA), or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600, to disclose the information; or
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter appears obviously frivolous. However, in such a case, the agency must provide the submitter with written notice of any final disclosure determination and intent to release, at least 5 working days prior to the specified disclosure date. We will notify the submitter as referenced in § 5.42(a)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Fees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.51" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.51   General information on fees for all FOIA requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) We generally assume that when you request records you are willing to pay the fees we charge for services associated with your request. You may specify a limit on the amount you are willing to spend. We will notify you if it appears that the fees will exceed $25.00 or your specified limit and ask whether you nevertheless want us to proceed with the search.
</P>
<P>(b) If you have failed to pay FOIA fees in the past, we will require you to pay your past due bill and we may also require you to pay the anticipated fee before we begin processing your current request. If we estimate that your fees may be greater than $250.00, we also may require advance payment or a deposit before we begin processing your request. If you fail to make an advance payment within 20 working days after the date of our fee letter, we will close the request.
</P>
<P>(c) We may charge interest on unpaid bills beginning on the 31st calendar day following the day the FOIA fee invoice was sent. We may assess interest, administrative costs, and penalties for overdue FOIA fee costs.
</P>
<P>(d) If we determine that you (either acting alone or with a group of requesters) are breaking down a single request into a series of requests in order to avoid or reduce fees, we may aggregate all of these requests when calculating the fees. In aggregating requests, we may consider the subject matter of the requests and whether the requests were filed close in time to one another.
</P>
<P>(e) If, in the course of negotiating fees, you do not respond to the agency within 20 working days of our last communication, your request will be closed.
</P>
<P>(f) We may stop the processing of your request, if necessary, to clarify fee issues with you, and to confirm your willingness to pay applicable fees. Fee related issues may arise sequentially over the course of processing a request, and the FOIA allows agencies to stop the processing time as many times as necessary in order to clarify issues regarding fee assessment and willingness to pay fees.
</P>
<P>(g) We may charge search fees even if the records are exempt from disclosure, or if we do not find any responsive records during our search.
</P>
<P>(h) We do not send an invoice to requesters if assessable processing fees are less than $25.00.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.52" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.52   What is the FOIA fee schedule for obtaining records?</HEAD>
<P>In responding to FOIA requests for records, we charge the following fees, where applicable, unless we have given you a reduction or waiver of fees. The fees we charge for search and review are three-tiered, and the hourly charge is determined by the classification and grade level of the employee performing the search or review. When the search or review is performed by employees at grade GS-1 through GS-8 (or equivalent), an hourly rate will be charged based on the salary of a GS-5, step 7, employee; when done by a GS-9 through GS-14 (or equivalent), an hourly rate will be charged based on the salary of a GS-12, step 4,employee; and when done by a GS-15 or above (or equivalent), an hourly rate will be charged based on the salary of a GS-15, step 7, employee. In each case, the hourly rate will be computed by taking the current hourly rate listed for the specified grade and step in the General Schedule Locality Pay Table for the Locality of Washington-Baltimore-Northern Virginia, DC-MD-VA-WV-PA, adding 16% of that rate to cover benefits, and rounding to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Search fees</I>—(1) <I>Manual searches.</I> Fees will be assessed to search agency files and records in both hardcopy and electronic format. Such fees will be at the rate or rates for the classification of the employee(s) performing the search, as established in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Computer searches.</I> We base the fees for computer searches on the actual cost to our agency of operating the computer and the salary of the operator.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review fees.</I> (1) We charge review fees for time we spend examining documents that are responsive to a request to determine whether we must apply any FOIA exemptions to withhold information. Review time includes processing any record for disclosure (<I>i.e.,</I> doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure), including redacting the record and marking the appropriate FOIA exemptions. We charge review fees even if we ultimately are unable to disclose a record.
</P>
<P>(2) We do not charge review fees for time we spend resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions. However, we do charge review fees for time we spend obtaining and considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a confidential commercial information submitter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duplication fees</I>—(1) <I>Photocopying standard-sized pages.</I> The current charge for photocopying records is $0.10 per page.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reproduction of electronic records.</I> We will attempt to provide records in the format you sought, if the records are reasonably and readily reproducible in the requested format. We charge you for our direct costs for staff time and to organize, convert, and format data for release, per requester instructions, and for printouts or electronic media necessary to reproduce electronic records requested under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Copying other media.</I> We will charge you the direct cost of copying other media.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mailing and special delivery fees.</I> We release records by United States Postal Service or, when appropriate, by electronic means, such as electronic mail or web portal. If a requester seeks special delivery, such as overnight shipping, we reserve the right to pass on the actual costs of special delivery to the requester. Requesters may provide their mailing account and billing information to the agency, so that they may pay directly for special delivery options.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification of records.</I> The FOIA does not require agencies to certify records as true copies. We may elect, as a matter of administrative discretion, to certify records upon request; however, such a request must be submitted in writing. Further, we will only certify as true copies records that have not left the agency's chain of custody. The charge for certification is $25.00 per record certified.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other statutes specifically providing for fees.</I> The fee schedule of this section does not apply to fees charged under any statute that specifically requires an OpDiv or StaffDiv to set and collect fees for particular types of records. In instances where records responsive to a request are subject to a statutorily-based fee schedule program, the OpDiv or StaffDiv must inform the requester of the contact information for that program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.53" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.53   How does HHS calculate FOIA fees for different categories of requesters?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a commercial use requester, we charge you fees for searching, reviewing, and duplicating responsive records.
</P>
<P>(b) If you are an educational or noncommercial scientific institution requester, or a member of the news media, you are entitled to search time, review time, and up to 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent for other media) without charge. We charge duplication fees after the first 100 pages (or its cost equivalent).
</P>
<P>(c) If you do not fall into either of the categories in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section (<I>i.e.</I> you are an “other requester”), you are entitled to two hours of free search time, up to 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent of other media) without charge, and you will not be charged for review time. We may charge for search time beyond the first two hours and for duplication beyond the first 100 pages (or its cost equivalent).
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If we fail to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request, we may not charge search fees, or, in the instances of the requester categories referenced in paragraph (b) of this section, may not charge duplication fees, except as described in (d)(2)-(4).
</P>
<P>(2) If we have determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and we provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 days.
</P>
<P>(3) If we have determined that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, we may charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraph (b) of this section, may charge duplication fees if the following steps are taken: we must have provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA and must have discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5. U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, we may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(4) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.54" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.54   How may I request a fee waiver?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requesters may seek a waiver of fees by submitting a written application demonstrating how disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(b) We must furnish records responsive to a request without charge or at a reduced rate when we determine, based on all available information, that the following three factors are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosure of the requested information would shed light on the operations or activities of the government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure of the requested information would be likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. We will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, we will consider the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) We will identify whether the requester has any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. Requesters will be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is an identified commercial interest, we will determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request. A waiver or reduction of fees is justified when the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section are satisfied and any commercial interest is not the primary interest furthered by the request. We ordinarily will presume that when a news media requester has satisfied factors (b)(1) and (2) of this section, the request is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return will not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) You should ask for waiver or reduction of fees when you first submit your request to HHS, and should address the criteria referenced in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.61" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.61   When may I appeal HHS's FOIA determination?</HEAD>
<P>In order to fully exhaust all of your administrative remedies, you must file an appeal of an adverse agency determination in writing, and to be considered timely it must be postmarked, or in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted within 90 calendar days from the date of such determination. Any electronic transmission made after normal business hours will be considered to have been transmitted on the next calendar day. If a postmark is not legible, the timeliness of a submission will be based on the date that we receive the appeal. Adverse determinations include:
</P>
<P>(a) Refusal to release a record, either in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(b) Determination that a record does not exist or cannot be found;
</P>
<P>(c) Determination that a request does not reasonably describe the records sought;
</P>
<P>(d) Determination that the record you sought was not subject to the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(e) Denial of a request for expedited processing;
</P>
<P>(f) Denial of a fee waiver request; or
</P>
<P>(g) Fee category determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.62" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.62   How do I file an appeal?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You have the right to appeal an adverse agency determination of your FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(b) You may submit your appeal via mail or electronically.
</P>
<P>(1) Please send your appeal to the review official at the address provided in your denial letter. If you are unsure who is the appropriate review official, please contact the FOIA Requester Service Center that processed your request to obtain that information.
</P>
<P>(2) The addresses to mail FOIA appeals for CMS and OS are, respectively: Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Attn: Principal Deputy Administrator, Room C5-16- 03, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21244; and U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Deputy Agency Chief FOIA Officer, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public Affairs, Room 729H, 200 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201. Additionally, information, including how to submit a FOIA appeal electronically, can be found at the following online locations for CMS and OS: <I>https://www.cms.gov/Regulations-and-Guidance/Legislation/FOIA/filehow.html</I> and <I>https://requests.publiclink.hhs.gov/palMain.aspx.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) When submitting an appeal, you should mark both your letter and envelope with the words “FOIA Appeal” or include the words “FOIA Appeal” in the subject line of your email. You should also include your FOIA request tracking number, a copy of your initial request, and a copy of our final determination letter.
</P>
<P>(c) Your appeal should clearly identify the agency determination that is being appealed. It would be helpful if you provide specific reasons explaining why you believe the agency's adverse determination should be reconsidered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.63" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.63   How does HHS process appeals?</HEAD>
<P>(a) We respond to your appeal within 20 working days after the appeal official designated in your appeal letter receives it. If, however, your appeal is based on a denial of a request for expedited processing, we will act on your appeal of that decision expeditiously. Before making a decision on an appeal of an adverse determination, the designated review official will consult with the Office of the General Counsel. Also, the concurrence of the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public Affairs is required in all appeal decisions, including those on fees. When the review official responds to an appeal, that constitutes the Department's final action on the request.
</P>
<P>(b) If we reverse or modify the initial decision, we will inform you in writing and, if applicable, reprocess your request. If we do not change our initial decision, we will respond in writing to you, explain the reasons for the decision, set out any FOIA exemptions that apply, and inform you of the provisions for judicial review. If a requester files a FOIA lawsuit in reference to an appeal, we will cease processing the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.64" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.64   What avenues are available to me if I disagree with HHS's appeal decision?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In our response letter, we notify you of your right to seek judicial review of an adverse determination as set forth in the FOIA at 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B). Before seeking review by a court of an adverse determination, you generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) We also inform you that the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) offers mediation services to resolve disputes between FOIA requesters and Federal agencies as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. As referenced in § 5.29(b) you may contact OGIS via mail, email, or telephone for assistance.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Records Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.71" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.5.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.71   How does HHS retain FOIA records?</HEAD>
<P>We will preserve records created in administering the Department's Freedom of Information program until disposition is authorized under an applicable General Records Schedule or other records schedule duly approved by the Archivist of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="5a" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 5a [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="5b" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 5b—PRIVACY ACT REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 5 U.S.C. 552a. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 47409, Oct. 8, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 5b.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Access</I> means availability of a record to a subject individual. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure</I> means the availability or release of a record to anyone other than the subject individual. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Individual</I> means a living person who is a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence. It does not include persons such as sole proprietorships, partnerships, or corporations. A business firm which is identified by the name of one or more persons is not an individual within the meaning of this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Maintain</I> means to maintain, collect, use, or disseminate when used in connection with the term “record”; and, to have control over or responsibility for a system of records when used in connection with the term “system of records.” 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notification</I> means communication to an individual whether he is a subject individual. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by the Department, including but not limited to the individual's education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history and that contains his name, or an identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or a photograph. When used in this part, record means only a record which is in a system of records. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Responsible Department official</I> means that officer who is listed in a notice of a system of records as the system manager for a given system of records or another individual listed in the notice of a system of records to whom requests may be made, or the designee of either such officer or individual. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Routine use</I> means the disclosure of a record outside the Department, without the consent of the subject individual, for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which the record was collected. It includes disclosures required to be made by statute other than the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552. It does not include disclosures which are permitted to be made without the consent of the subject individual which are not compatible with the purpose for which it was collected such as disclosures to the Bureau of the Census, the General Accounting Office, or to Congress. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services, or his designee. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Statistical record</I> means a record maintained for statistical research or reporting purposes only and not maintained to make determinations about a particular subject individual. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Subject individual</I> means that individual to whom a record pertains. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>System of records</I> means any group of records under the control of the Department from which a record is retrieved by personal identifier such as the name of the individual, number, symbol or other unique retriever assigned to the individual. Single records or groups of records which are not retrieved by a personal identifier are not part of a system of records. Papers maintained by individual employees of the Department which are prepared, maintained, or discarded at the discretion of the employee and which are not subject to the Federal Records Act, 44 U.S.C. 2901, are not part of a system of records; <I>Provided,</I> That such personal papers are not used by the employee or the Department to determine any rights, benefits, or privileges of individuals. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements section 3 of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a (hereinafter referred to as the Act), by establishing agency policies and procedures for the maintenance of records. This part also establishes agency policies and procedures under which a subject individual may be given notification of or access to a record pertaining to him and policies and procedures under which a subject individual may have his record corrected or amended if he believes that his record is not accurate, timely, complete, or relevant or necessary to accomplish a Department function. 
</P>
<P>(b) All components of the Department are governed by the provisions of this part. Also governed by the provisions of this part are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Certain non-Federal entities which operate as agents of the Department for purposes of carrying out Federal functions, such as intermediaries and carriers performing functions under contracts and agreements entered into pursuant to sections 1816 and 1842 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1395h and 1395u. 
</P>
<P>(2) Advisory committees and councils within the meaning of the Federal Advisory Committee Act which provide advice to (i) any official or component of the Department or (ii) the President and for which the Department has been delegated responsibility for providing services. 
</P>
<P>(c) Employees of the Department governed by this part include all regular and special government employees of the Department; members of the Public Health Service Commissioned Corps; experts and consultants whose temporary (not in excess of 1 year) or intermittent services have been procured by the Department by contract pursuant to 3109 of Title 5, United States Code; volunteers where acceptance of their services are authorized by law; those individuals performing gratuitous services as permitted under conditions prescribed by the Civil Service Commission; and, participants in work-study or training programs. 
</P>
<P>(d) Where other statutes mandate procedures which are inconsistent with the procedures set forth in this part, components of the Department may issue supplementary regulations containing procedures necessary to comply with such statutes. In addition, components of the Department may supplement by regulation the policies and procedures set forth in this part to meet particular needs of the programs administered by such components. 
</P>
<P>(e) This part does not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Make available to a subject individual records which are not retrieved by that individual's name or other personal identifier. 
</P>
<P>(2) Make available to the general public records which are retrieved by a subject individual's name or other personal identifier or make available to the general public records which would otherwise not be available to the general public under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and part 5 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(3) Govern the maintenance or disclosure of, notification of or access to, records in the possession of the Department which are subject to regulations of another agency, such as personnel records subject to the regulations of the Civil Service Commission. 
</P>
<P>(4) Apply to grantees, including State and local governments or subdivisions thereof, administering federally funded programs. 
</P>
<P>(5) Make available records compiled by the Department in reasonable anticipation of court litigation or formal administrative proceedings. The availability of such records to the general public or to any subject individual or party to such litigation or proceedings shall be governed by applicable constitutional principles, rules of discovery, and applicable regulations of the Department and any of its components. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the Department to protect the privacy of individuals to the fullest extent possible while nonetheless permitting the exchange of records required to fulfill the administrative and program responsibilities of the Department, and responsibilities of the Department for disclosing records which the general public is entitled to have under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and part 5 of this title. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.4   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No record will be maintained by the Department unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) It is relevant and necessary to accomplish a Department function required to be accomplished by statute or Executive Order; 
</P>
<P>(2) It is acquired to the greatest extent practicable from the subject individual when maintenance of the record may result in a determination about the subject individual's rights, benefits or privileges under Federal programs; 
</P>
<P>(3) The individual providing the record is informed of the authority for providing the record (including whether the providing of the record is mandatory or voluntary, the principal purpose for maintaining the record, the routine uses for the record, what effect his refusal to provide the record may have on him), and if the record is not required by statute or Executive Order to be provided by the individual, he agrees to provide the record. 
</P>
<P>(b) No record will be maintained by the Department which describes how an individual exercises rights guaranteed by the First Amendment unless expressly authorized (1) by statute, or (2) by the subject individual, or (3) unless pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.5   Notification of or access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Times, places, and manner of requesting notification of or access to a record.</I> (1) Subject to the provisions governing medical records in § 5b.6 of this part, any individual may request notification of a record. He may at the same time request access to any record pertaining to him. An individual may be accompanied by another individual of his choice when he requests access to a record in person; <I>Provided,</I> That he affirmatively authorizes the presence of such other individual during any discussion of a record to which access is requested. 
</P>
<P>(2) An individual making a request for notification of or access to a record shall address his request to the responsible Department official and shall verify his identity when required in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section. At the time the request is made, the individual shall specify which systems of records he wishes to have searched and the records to which he wishes to have access. He may also request that copies be made of all or any such records. An individual shall also provide the responsible Department official with sufficient particulars to enable such official to distinguish between records on subject individuals with the same name. The necessary particulars are set forth in the notices of systems of records. 
</P>
<P>(3) An individual who makes a request in person may leave with any responsible Department official a request for notification of or access to a record under the control of another responsible Department official; <I>Provided,</I> That the request is addressed in writing to the appropriate responsible Department official. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Verification of identity</I>—(1) <I>When required.</I> Unless an individual, who is making a request for notification of or access to a record in person, is personally known to the responsible Department official, he shall be required to verify his identity in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section if: 
</P>
<P>(i) He makes a request for notification of a record and the responsible Department official determines that the mere disclosure of the existence of the record would be a clearly unwarranted invasion of privacy if disclosed to someone other than the subject individual; or, 
</P>
<P>(ii) He makes a request for access to a record which is not required to be disclosed to the general public under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and part 5 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Manner of verifying identity.</I> (i) An individual who makes a request in person shall provide to the responsible Department official at least one piece of tangible identification such as a driver's license, passport, alien or voter registration card, or union card to verify his identity. If an individual does not have identification papers to verify his identity, he shall certify in writing that he is the individual who he claims to be and that he understands that the knowing and willful request for or acquisition of a record pertaining to an individual under false pretenses is a criminal offense under the Act subject to a $5,000 fine. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section, an individual who does not make a request in person shall submit a notarized request to the responsible Department official to verify his identity or shall certify in his request that he is the individual who he claims to be and that he understands that the knowing and willful request for or acquisition of a record pertaining to an individual under false pretenses is a criminal offense under the Act subject to a $5,000 fine. 
</P>
<P>(iii) An individual who makes a request on behalf of a minor or legal incompetent as authorized under § 5b.10 of this part shall verify his relationship to the minor or legal incompetent, in addition to verifying his own identity, by providing a copy of the minor's birth certificate, a court order, or other competent evidence of guardianship to the responsible Department official; <I>except that,</I> an individual is not required to verify his relationship to the minor or legal incompetent when he is not required to verify his own identity or when evidence of his relationship to the minor or legal incompetent has been previously given to the responsible Department official. 
</P>
<P>(iv) An individual shall further verify his identity if he is requesting notification of or access to sensitive records such as medical records. Any further verification shall parallel the record to which notification or access is being sought. Such further verification may include such particulars as the individual's years of attendance at a particular educational institution, rank attained in the uniformed services, date or place of birth, names of parents, an occupation or the specific times the individual received medical treatment. 
</P>
<P>(v) An individual who makes a request by telephone shall verify his identity by providing to the responsible Department official identifying particulars which parallel the record to which notification or access is being sought. If the responsible Department official determines that the particulars provided by telephone are insufficient, the requester will be required to submit the request in writing or in person. Telephone requests will not be accepted where an individual is requesting notification of or access to sensitive records such as medical records. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Granting notification of or access to a record.</I> (1) Subject to the provisions governing medical records in § 5b.6 of this part and the provisions governing exempt systems in § 5b.11 of this part, a responsible Department official, who receives a request for notification of or access to a record and, if required, verification of an individual's identity, will review the request and grant notification or access to a record, if the individual requesting access to the record is the subject individual. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the responsible Department official determines that there will be a delay in responding to a request because of the number of requests being processed, a breakdown of equipment, shortage of personnel, storage of records in other locations, etc., he will so inform the individual and indicate when notification or access will be granted. 
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to granting notification of or access to a record, the responsible Department official may at his discretion require an individual making a request in person to reduce his request to writing if the individual has not already done so at the time the request is made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.6   Special procedures for notification of or access to medical records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An individual in general has a right to notification of or access to his medical records, including psychological records, as well as to other records pertaining to him maintained by the Department. This section sets forth special procedures as permitted by the Act for notification of or access to medical records, including a special procedure for notification of or access to medical records of minors. The special procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section may not be suitable for use by every component of the Department. Therefore, components may follow the paragraph (b) procedure for notification of or access to medical records, or may issue regulations establishing special procedures for such purposes. The special procedure set forth in paragraph (c) of this section relating to medical records of minors is mandatory. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medical records procedures</I>—(1) <I>Notification of or access to medical records.</I> (i) Any individual may request notification of or access to a medical record pertaining to him. Unless the individual is a parent or guardian requesting notification of or access to a minor's medical record, an individual shall make a request for a medical record in accordance with this section and the procedures in § 5b.5 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual who requests notification of or access to a medical record shall, at the time the request is made, designate a representative in writing. The representative may be a physician, other health professional, or other responsible individual, who would be willing to review the record and inform the subject individual of its contents at the representative's discretion. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Utilization of the designated representative.</I> A subject individual will be granted direct access to a medical record if the responsible official determines that direct access is not likely to have an adverse effect on the subject individual. If the responsible Department official believes that he is not qualified to determine, or if he does determine, that direct access to the subject individual is likely to have an adverse effect on the subject individual, the record will be sent to the designated representative. The subject individual will be informed in writing that the record has been sent. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Medical records of minors</I>—(1) <I>Requests by minors; notification of or access to medical records to minors.</I> A minor may request notification of or access to a medical record pertaining to him in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requests on a minor's behalf; notification of or access to medical records to an individual on a minor's behalf.</I> (i) In order to protect the privacy of a minor, a parent or guardian, authorized to act on a minor's behalf as provided in § 5b.10 of this part, who makes a request for notification of or access to a minor's medical record will not be given direct notification of or access to such record. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A parent or guardian shall make all requests for notification of or access to a minor's medical record in accordance with this paragraph and the procedures in § 5b.5 of this part. A parent or guardian shall at the time he makes a request designate a family physician or other health professional (other than a family member) to whom the record, if any, will be sent. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where a medical record on the minor exists, it will be sent to the physician or health professional designated by the parent or guardian in all cases. If disclosure of the record would constitute an invasion of the minor's privacy, that fact will be brought to the attention of the physician or health professional to whom the record is sent. The physician or health professional will be asked to consider the effect that disclosure of the record to the parent or guardian would have on the minor in determining whether the minor's medical record should be made available to the parent or guardian. Response to the parent or guardian making the request will be made in substantially the following form: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P-DASH>We have completed processing your request for notification of or access to 
</P-DASH>
<FP>________________________________________'s 
</FP>
<FP>   (Name of minor) 
</FP>
<FP>medical records. Please be informed that if any medical record were found pertaining to that individual, they have not been sent to your designated physician or health professional.</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>In each case where a minor's medical record is sent to a physician or health professional, reasonable efforts will be made to so inform the minor. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.7   Procedures for correction or amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any subject individual may request that his record be corrected or amended if he believes that the record is not accurate, timely, complete, or relevant or necessary to accomplish a Department function. A subject individual making a request to amend or correct his record shall address his request to the responsible Department official in writing; <I>except that,</I> the request need not be in writing if the subject individual makes his request in person and the responsible Department official corrects or amends the record at that time. The subject individual shall specify in each request: 
</P>
<P>(1) The system of records from which the record is retrieved; 
</P>
<P>(2) The particular record which he is seeking to correct or amend; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether he is seeking an addition to or a deletion or substitution of the record; and, 
</P>
<P>(4) His reasons for requesting correction or amendment of the record. 
</P>
<P>(b) A request for correction or amendment of a record will be acknowledged within 10 working days of its receipt unless the request can be processed and the subject individual informed of the responsible Department official's decision on the request within that 10 day period. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the responsible Department official agrees that the record is not accurate, timely, or complete based on a preponderance of the evidence, the record will be corrected or amended. The record will be deleted without regard to its accuracy, if the record is not relevant or necessary to accomplish the Department function for which the record was provided or is maintained. In either case, the subject individual will be informed in writing of the correction, amendment, or deletion and, if accounting was made of prior disclosures of the record, all previous recipients of the record will be informed of the corrective action taken. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the responsible Department official does not agree that the record should be corrected or amended, the subject individual will be informed in writing of the refusal to correct or amend the record. He will also be informed that he may appeal the refusal to correct or amend his record to the appropriate appeal authority listed in § 5b.8 of this part. The appropriate appeal authority will be identified to the subject individual by name, title, and business address. 
</P>
<P>(e) Requests to correct or amend a record governed by the regulation of another government agency, <I>e.g.,</I> Civil Service Commission, Federal Bureau of Investigation, will be forwarded to such government agency for processing and the subject individual will be informed in writing of the referral. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.8   Appeals of refusals to correct or amend records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing the appeal.</I> (1) A subject individual who disagrees with a refusal to correct or amend his record may appeal the refusal in writing. All appeals shall be made to the following appeal authorities, or their designees, or successors in function: 
</P>
<P>(i) Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management for records of the Office of the Secretary, or where the initial refusal to correct or amend was made by another appeal authority. The appeal authority for an initial refusal by the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management is the Under Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assistant Secretary for Health for records of the Public Health Service including Office of Assistant Secretary for Health; Health Resources Administration; Health Services Administration; Alcohol, Drug Abuse, and Mental Health Administration; Center for Disease Control; National Institutes of Health; and Food and Drug Administration. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Assistant Secretary for Education for records of the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Education, National Center for Education Statistics, National Institute of Education, and Office of Education. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Assistant Secretary for Human Development for records of the Office of Human Development. 
</P>
<P>(v) Commissioner of Social Security for records of the Social Security Administration. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Administrator, Social and Rehabilitation Service for the records of the Social and Rehabilitation Service. 
</P>
<P>(2) An appeal will be completed within 30 working days from its receipt by the appeal authority; <I>except that,</I> the appeal authority may for good cause extend this period for an additional 30 days. Should the appeal period be extended, the subject individual appealing the refusal to correct or amend the record will be informed in writing of the extension and the circumstances of the delay. The subject individual's request to amend or correct the record, the responsible Department official's refusal to correct or amend, and any other pertinent material relating to the appeal will be reviewed. No hearing will be held. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the appeal authority agrees that the record subject to the appeal should be corrected or amended, the record will be amended and the subject individual will be informed in writing of the correction or amendment. Where an accounting was made of prior disclosures of the record, all previous recipients of the record will be informed of the corrective action taken. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the appeal is denied, the subject individual will be informed in writing: 
</P>
<P>(i) Of the denial and the reasons for the denial; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That he has a right to seek judicial review of the denial; and, 
</P>
<P>(iii) That he may submit to the responsible Department official a concise statement of disagreement to be associated with the disputed record and disclosed whenever the record is disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notation and disclosure of disputed records.</I> Whenever a subject individual submits a statement of disagreement to the responsible Department official in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section, the record will be noted to indicate that it is disputed. In any subsequent disclosure, a copy of the subject individual's statement of disagreement will be disclosed with the record. If the responsible Department official deems it appropriate, a concise statement of the appeal authority's reasons for denying the subject individual's appeal may also be disclosed with the record. While the subject individual will have access to this statement of reasons, such statement will not be subject to correction or amendment. Where an accounting was made of prior disclosures of the record, all previous recipients of the record will be provided a copy of the subject individual's statement of disagreement, as well as the statement, if any, of the appeal authority's reasons for denying the subject individual's appeal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.9   Disclosure of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consent to disclosure by a subject individual.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section authorizing disclosures of records without consent, no disclosure of a record will be made without the consent of the subject individual. In each case the consent, whether obtained from the subject individual at the request of the Department or whether provided to the Department by the subject individual on his own initiative, shall be in writing. The consent shall specify the individual, organizational unit or class of individuals or organizational units to whom the record may be disclosed, which record may be disclosed and, where applicable, during which time frame the record may be disclosed (<I>e.g.,</I> during the school year, while the subject individual is out of the country, whenever the subject individual is receiving specific services). A blanket consent to disclose all of a subject individual's records to unspecified individuals or organizational units will not be honored. The subject individual's identity and, where applicable (<I>e.g.,</I> where a subject individual gives consent to disclosure of a record to a specific individual), the identity of the individual to whom the record is to be disclosed shall be verified. 
</P>
<P>(2) A parent or guardian of any minor is not authorized to give consent to a disclosure of the minor's medical record. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosures without the consent of the subject individual.</I> The disclosures listed in this paragraph may be made without the consent of the subject individual. Such disclosures are: 
</P>
<P>(1) To those officers and employees of the Department who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties. The responsible Department official may upon request of any officer or employee, or on his own initiative, determine what constitutes legitimate need. 
</P>
<P>(2) Required to be disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and part 5 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(3) For a routine use as defined in paragraph (j) of § 5b.1 of this part. Routine uses will be listed in any notice of a system of records. Routine uses published in appendix B are applicable to more than one system of records. Where applicable, notices of systems of records may contain references to the routine uses listed in appendix B. Appendix B will be published with any compendium of notices of systems of records. 
</P>
<P>(4) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of Title 13 U.S.C. 
</P>
<P>(5) To a recipient who has provided the agency with advance written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record; <I>Provided,</I> That, the record is transferred in a form that does not identify the subject individual. 
</P>
<P>(6) To the National Archives of the United States as a record which has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States Government, or for evaluation by the Administrator of General Services or his designee to determine whether the record has such value. 
</P>
<P>(7) To another government agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of such government agency or instrumentality has submitted a written request to the Department specifying the record desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought. 
</P>
<P>(8) To an individual pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of any individual if a notice of the disclosure is transmitted to the last known address of the subject individual. 
</P>
<P>(9) To either House of Congress, or to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee. 
</P>
<P>(10) To the Comptroller General, or any of his authorized representatives, in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office. 
</P>
<P>(11) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accounting of disclosures.</I> (1) An accounting of all disclosures of a record will be made and maintained by the Department for 5 years or for the life of the record, whichever is longer; <I>except that,</I> such an accounting will not be made: 
</P>
<P>(i) For disclosures under paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section; and, 
</P>
<P>(ii) For disclosures made with the written consent of the subject individual. 
</P>
<P>(2) The accounting will include: 
</P>
<P>(i) The date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and address of the person or entity to whom the disclosure is made. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any subject individual may request access to an accounting of disclosures of a record. The subject individual shall make a request for access to an accounting in accordance with the procedures in § 5b.5 of this part. A subject individual will be granted access to an accounting of the disclosures of a record in accordance with the procedures of this part which govern access to the related record. Access to an accounting of a disclosure of a record made under paragraph (b)(7) of this section may be granted at the discretion of the responsible Department official. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.10   Parents and guardians.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part, a parent or guardian of any minor or the legal guardian or any individual who has been declared incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction is authorized to act on behalf of an individual or a subject individual. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of § 5b.5, of this part governing procedures for verifying an individual's identity, and paragraph (c) (2) of § 5b.6 of this part governing special procedures for notification of or access to a minor's medical records, an individual authorized to act on behalf of a minor or legal incompetent will be viewed as if he were the individual or subject individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.11   Exempt systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> The Act permits certain types of specific systems of records to be exempt from some of its requirements. It is the policy of the Department to exercise authority to exempt systems of records only in compelling cases. 


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific systems of records exempted.</I> (1) Those systems of records listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section are exempt from the following provisions of the Act and this part: 
</P>
<P>(i) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and paragraph (c)(2) of § 5b.9 of this part which require a subject individual to be granted access to an accounting of disclosures of a record. 
</P>
<P>(ii) 5 U.S.C. 552a(d) (1) through (4) and (f) and §§ 5b.6, 5b.7, and 5b.8 of this part relating to notification of or access to records and correction or amendment of records. 
</P>
<P>(iii) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4) (G) and (H) which require inclusion of information about Department procedures for notification, access, and correction or amendment of records in the notice for the systems of records. 
</P>
<P>(iv) 5 U.S.C. 552(e)(3) and paragraph (a)(3) of § 5b.4 of this part which require that an individual asked to provide a record to the Department be informed of the authority for providing the record (including whether the providing of the record is mandatory or voluntary, the principal purposes for maintaining the record, the routine uses for the record, and what effect his refusal to provide the record may have on him), and if the record is not required by statute or Executive Order to be provided by the individual, he agrees to provide the record. This exemption applies only to an investigatory record compiled by the Department for criminal law enforcement purposes in a system of records exempt under subsection (j)(2) of the Act to the extent that these requirements would prejudice the conduct of the investigation. 


</P>
<P>(2) The following systems of records are exempt from those provisions of the Act and this part listed in paragraph (b) (1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) Pursuant to subsection (j)(2) of the Act: 
</P>
<P>(A) The Saint Elizabeths Hospital's Court-Ordered Forensic Investigatory Materials Files; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The Investigatory Material Compiled for Law Enforcement Purposes System, HHS. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to subsection (k)(2) of the Act: 
</P>
<P>(A) The General Criminal Investigation Files, HHS/SSA; 
</P>
<P>(B) The Criminal Investigations File, HHS/SSA; and, 
</P>
<P>(C) The Program Integrity Case Files, HHS/SSA. 
</P>
<P>(D) Civil and Administrative Investigative Files of the Inspector General, HHS/OS/OIG.
</P>
<P>(E) Complaint Files and Log. HHS/OS/OCR.
</P>
<P>(F) Investigative materials compiled for law enforcement purposes for the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank (HIPDB), of the Office of Inspector General. (See § 61.15 of this title for access and correction rights under the HIPDB by subjects of the Data Bank.) 
</P>
<P>(G) Investigative materials compiled for law enforcement purposes for the Program Information Management System, HHS/OS/OCR.
</P>
<P>(H) Investigative materials compiled for law enforcement purposes from the CMS Fraud Investigation Database (FID), HHS/CMS.
</P>
<P>(I) Investigative materials compiled for law enforcement purposes from the Automated Survey Processing Environment (ASPEN) Complaints/ Incidents Tracking System (ACTS), HHS/CMS.
</P>
<P>(J) Investigative materials compiled for law enforcement purposes from the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Information Tracking System (HITS), HHS/CMS.
</P>
<P>(K) Investigative materials compiled for law enforcement purposes from the Organ Procurement Organizations System (OPOS), HHS/CMS. 
</P>
<P>(L) Investigative materials compiled for law enforcement purposes for the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB). (See § 60.21 of this subchapter for access and correction rights under the NPDB by subjects of the Data Bank.)
</P>
<P>(iii) Pursuant to subsection (k)(4) of the Act: 
</P>
<P>(A) The Health and Demographic Surveys Conduct in Random Samples of the U.S. Population; 
</P>
<P>(B) The Health Manpower Inventories and Surveys; 
</P>
<P>(C) The Vital Statistics for Births, Deaths, Fetal Deaths, Marriages and Divorces Occurring in the U.S. during Each Year; and, 
</P>
<P>(D) The Maryland Psychiatric Case Register. 
</P>
<P>(E) The Health Resources Utilization Statistics, DHHS/OASH/NCHS. 
</P>
<P>(F) National Medical Expenditure Survey Records. HHS/OASH/NCHSR. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Pursuant to subsection (k)(5) of the Act: 
</P>
<P>(A) The Investigatory Material Compiled for Security and Suitability Purposes System, HHS; 
</P>
<P>(B) The Suitability for Employment Records, HHS; and
</P>
<P>(C) NIH Electronic Research Administration (eRA) Records, HHS/NIH/OD/OER, 09-25-0225.
</P>
<P>(v) Pursuant to subsections (j)(2), (k)(2), and (k)(5) of the Act: 
</P>
<P>(A) The Clinical Investigatory Records, HHS/FDA; 
</P>
<P>(B) The Regulated Industry Employee Enforcement Records, HHS/FDA; 
</P>
<P>(C) The Employee Conduct Investigative Records, HHS/FDA; and, 
</P>
<P>(D) The Service Contractor Employee Investigative Records, HHS/FDA. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Pursuant to subsection (k)(6) of the Act: 
</P>
<P>(A) The Personnel Research and Merit Promotion Test Records, HHS/SSA/OMA. 
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vii) Pursuant to subsections (k)(2) and (k)(5) of the Act:
</P>
<P>(A) Public Health Service Records Related to Investigations of Scientific Misconduct, HHS/OASH/ORI.
</P>
<P>(B) Administration: Investigative Records, HHS/NIH/OM/OA/OMA.
</P>
<P>(C) FDA Records Related to Research Misconduct Proceedings, HHS/FDA/OC, 09-10-0020.
</P>
<P>(D) NIH Records Related to Research Misconduct Proceedings, HHS/NIH, 09-25-0223.
</P>
<P>(viii)(A) HHS Insider Threat Program Records, 09-90-1701.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ix) Pursuant to subsections (j)(2) and (k)(2) of the Act:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>NIH Police Records, 09-25-0224.</I> (All law enforcement investigatory records are exempt from subsections (c)(3), (d)(1) through (4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) through (I), and (f) of the Act; criminal law enforcement investigatory records are exempt from additional subsections (c)(4), (e)(2) and (3), (e)(5), (e)(8), and (g); the access exemption for non-criminal law enforcement investigatory records is limited as provided in subsection (k)(2).)
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(3) The following systems of records are exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and § 5b.9(c)(3), which require a subject individual to be granted access to an accounting of disclosures of a record; and from 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1) through (4) and §§ 5b.5, 5b.7, and 5b.8, relating to notification of or access to records and correction or amendment of records.
</P>
<P>(i) Pursuant to subsection (k)(5) of the Privacy Act:
</P>
<P>(A) NIH Division of Loan Repayment Record System, 09-25-0165.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to subsection (k)(2) of the Privacy Act:
</P>
<P>(A) OCSE Federal Case Registry of Child Support Orders (FCR), HHS/ACF/OCSE, 09-80-0385; only records marked with the Family Violence Indicator are exempt, based on the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 653(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(4) The following systems of records are exempt from the following provisions of the Act and this part: 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and § 5b.9(c)(3), which require a subject individual to be granted access to an accounting of disclosures of a record; 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1) through (4) and (f) and §§ 5b.6, 5b.7, and 5b.8, relating to notification of or access to records and correction or amendment of records; and 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) through (I) which require inclusion of information about Department procedures for notification, access, and correction or amendment of records and categories of record sources in the notice for the systems of records.
</P>
<P>(i) Pursuant to subsection (k)(2) of the Privacy Act:
</P>
<P>(A) ORR Unaccompanied Children Bureau (UCB) Child Abuse or Neglect Investigation Records and Central Registry, 09-80-0323.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification of or access to records in exempt systems of records.</I> (1) Where a system of records is exempt as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, any individual may nonetheless request notification of or access to a record in that system. An individual shall make requests for notification of or access to a record in an exempt system of records in accordance with the procedures of §§ 5b.5 and 5b.6 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) An individual will be granted notification of or access to a record in an exempt system but only to the extent such notification or access would not reveal the identity of a source who furnished the record to the Department under an express promise, and prior to September 27, 1975 an implied promise, that his identity would be held in confidence, if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The record is in a system of records which is exempt under subsection (k)(2) of the Act and the individual has been, as a result of the maintenance of the record, denied a right, privilege, or benefit to which he would otherwise be eligible; or, 
</P>
<P>(ii) The record is in a system of records which is exempt under subsection (k)(5) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(3) If an individual is not granted notification of or access to a record in a system of records exempt under subsections (k) (2) and (5) of the Act in accordance with this paragraph, he will be informed that the identity of a confidential source would be revealed if notification of or access to the record were granted to him. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discretionary actions by the responsible Department official.</I> Unless disclosure of a record to the general public is otherwise prohibited by law, the responsible Department official may in his discretion grant notification of or access to a record in a system of records which is exempt under paragraph (b) of this section. Discretionary notification of or access to a record in accordance with this paragraph will not be a precedent for discretionary notification of or access to a similar or related record and will not obligate the responsible Department official to exercise his discretion to grant notification of or access to any other record in a system of records which is exempt under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 47409, Oct. 8, 1975] 






</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 5b.11, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.12   Contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All contracts entered into on or after September 27, 1975 which require a contractor to maintain or on behalf of the Department to maintain, a system of records to accomplish a Department function must contain a provision requiring the contractor to comply with the Act and this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) All unexpired contracts entered into prior to September 27, 1975 which require the contractor to maintain or on behalf of the Department to maintain, a system of records to accomplish a Department function will be amended as soon as practicable to include a provision requiring the contractor to comply with the Act and this part. All such contracts must be so amended by July 1, 1976 unless for good cause the appeal authority identified in § 5b.8 of this part authorizes the continuation of the contract without amendment beyond that date. 
</P>
<P>(c) A contractor and any employee of such contractor shall be considered employees of the Department only for the purposes of the criminal penalties of the Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(i), and the employee standards of conduct listed in appendix A of this part where the contract contains a provision requiring the contractor to comply with the Act and this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not apply to systems of records maintained by a contractor as a result of his management discretion, <I>e.g.,</I> the contractor's personnel records. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5b.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5b.13   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> Where applicable, fees for copying records will be charged in accordance with the schedule set forth in this section. Fees may only be charged where an individual requests that a copy be made of the record to which he is granted access. No fee may be charged for making a search of the system of records whether the search is manual, mechanical, or electronic. Where a copy of the record must be made in order to provide access to the record (<I>e.g.,</I> computer printout where no screen reading is available), the copy will be made available to the individual without cost. Where a medical record is made available to a representative designated by the individual or to a physician or health professional designated by a parent or guardian under § 5b.6 of this part, no fee will be charged. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fee schedule.</I> The fee schedule for the Department is as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Copying of records susceptible to photocopying—$.10 per page. 
</P>
<P>(2) Copying records not susceptible to photocopying (<I>e.g.,</I> punch cards or magnetic tapes)—at actual cost to be determined on a case-by-case basis. 
</P>
<P>(3) No charge will be made if the total amount of copying does not exceed $25. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.14.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 5<E T="01">b</E>—Employee Standards of Conduct
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> All employees are required to be aware of their responsibilities under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a. Regulations implementing the Act are set forth in 45 CFR 5b. Instruction on the requirements of the Act and regulation shall be provided to all new employees of the Department. In addition, supervisors shall be responsible for assuring that employees who are working with systems of records or who undertake new duties which require the use of systems of records are informed of their responsibilities. Supervisors shall also be responsible for assuring that all employees who work with such systems of records are periodically reminded of the requirements of the Act and are advised of any new provisions or interpretations of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Penalties.</I> (1) All employees must guard against improper disclosure f records which are governed by the Act. Because of the serious consequences of improper invasions of personal privacy, employees may be subject to disciplinary action and criminal prosecution for knowing and willful violations of the Act and regulation. In addition, employees may also be subject to disciplinary action for unknowing or unwillful violations, where the employee had notice of the provisions of the Act and regulations and failed to inform himself sufficiently or to conduct himself in accordance with the requirements to avoid violations. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Department may be subjected to civil liability for the following actions undertaken by its employees: 
</P>
<P>(a) Making a determination under the Act and §§ 5b.7 and 5b.8 of the regulation not to amend an individual's record in accordance with his request, or failing to make such review in conformity with those provisions; 
</P>
<P>(b) Refusing to comply with an individual's request for notification of or access to a record pertaining to hiem; 
</P>
<P>(c) Failing to maintain any record pertaining to any individual with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness as is necessary to assure fairness in any determination relating to the qualifications, character, rights, or opportunities of, or benefits to the individual that may be made on the basis of such a record, and consequently a determination is made which is adverse to the individual; or 
</P>
<P>(d) Failing to comply with any other provision of the Act or any rule promulgated thereunder, in such a way as to have an adverse effect on an individual. 
</P>
<P>(3) An employee may be personally subject to criminal liability as set forth below and in 5 U.S.C. 552a (i): 
</P>
<P>(a) Any officer or employee of an agency, who by virtue of his employment or official position, has possession of, or access to, agency records which contain individually identifiable information the disclosure of which is prohibited by the Act or by rules or regulations established thereunder, and who, knowing that disclosure of the specific material is so prohibited, willfully discloses the material in any manner to any person or agency not entitled to receive it, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any officer or employee of any agency who willfully maintains a system of records without meeting the notice requirements [of the Act] shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rules Governing Employees Not Working With Systems of Records.</I> Employees whose duties do not involve working with systems of records will not generally disclose to any one, without specific authorization from their supervisors, records pertaining to employees or other individuals which by reason of their official duties are available to them. Notwithstanding the above, the following records concerning Federal employees are a matter of public record and no further authorization is necessary for disclosure: 
</P>
<P>(1) Name and title of individual. 
</P>
<P>(2) Grade classification or equivalent and annual rate of salary. 
</P>
<P>(3) Position description. 
</P>
<P>(4) Location of duty station, including room number and telephone number. 
</P>
<P>In addition, employees shall disclose records which are listed in the Department's Freedom of Information Regulation as being available to the public. Requests for other records will be referred to the responsible Department official. This does not preclude employees from discussing matters which are known to them personally, and without resort to a record, to official investigators of Federal agencies for official purposes such as suitability checks, Equal Employment Opportunity investigations, adverse action proceedings, grievance proceedings, etc. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rules governing employees whose duties require use or reference to systems of records.</I> Employees whose official duties require that they refer to, maintain, service, or otherwise deal with systems of records (hereinafter referred to as “Systems Employees”) are governed by the general provisions. In addition, extra precautions are required and systems employees are held to higher standards of conduct. 
</P>
<P>(1) Systems Employees shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Be informed with respect to their responsibilities under the Act; 
</P>
<P>(b) Be alert to possible misuses of the system and report to their supervisors any potential or actual use of the system which they believe is not in compliance with the Act and regulation; 
</P>
<P>(c) Make a disclosure of records within the Department only to an employee who has a legitimate need to know the record in the course of his official duties; 
</P>
<P>(d) Maintain records as accurately as practicable. 
</P>
<P>(e) Consult with a supervisor prior to taking any action where they are in doubt whether such action is in conformance with the Act and regulation. 
</P>
<P>(2) Systems Employees shall not: 
</P>
<P>(a) Disclose in any form records from a system of records except (1) with the consent or at the request of the subject individual; or (2) where its disclosure is permitted under § 5b.9 of the regulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Permit unauthorized individuals to be present in controlled areas. Any unauthorized individuals observed in controlled areas shall be reported to a supervisor or to the guard force. 
</P>
<P>(c) Knowingly or willfully take action which might subject the Department to civil liability. 
</P>
<P>(d) Make any arrangements for the design development, or operation of any system of records without making reasonable effort to provide that the system can be maintained in accordance with the Act and regulation. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contracting officers.</I> In addition to any applicable provisions set forth above, those employees whose official duties involve entering into contracts on behalf of the Department shall also be governed by the following provisions: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Contracts for design, or development of systems and equipment.</I> No contract for the design or development of a system of records, or for equipment to store, service or maintain a system of records shall be entered into unless the contracting officer has made reasonable effort to ensure that the product to be purchased is capable of being used without violation of the Act or regulation. Special attention shall be given to provision of physical safeguards. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contracts for the operation of systems of records.</I> A review by the Contracting Officer, in conjunction with other officials whom he feels appropriate, of all proposed contracts providing for the operation of systems of records shall be made prior to execution of the contracts to determine whether operation of the system of records is for the purpose of accomplishing a Department function. If a determination is made that the operation of the system is to accomplish a Department function, the contracting officer shall be responsible for including in the contract appropriate provisions to apply the provisions of the Act and regulation to the system, including prohibitions against improper release by the contractor, his employees, agents, or subcontractors. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other service contracts.</I> Contracting officers entering into general service contracts shall be responsible for determining the appropriateness of including provisions in the contract to prevent potential misuse (inadvertent or otherwise) by employees, agents, or subcontractors of the contractor. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rules Governing Responsible Department Officials.</I> In addition to the requirements for Systems Employees, responsible Department officials shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Respond to all requests for notification of or access, disclosure, or amendment of records in a timely fashion in accordance with the Act and regulation; 
</P>
<P>(2) Make any amendment of records accurately and in a timely fashion; 
</P>
<P>(3) Inform all persons whom the accounting records show have received copies of the record prior to the amendments of the correction; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Associate any statement of disagreement with the disputed record, and 
</P>
<P>(a) Transmit a copy of the statement to all persons whom the accounting records show have received a copy of the disputed record, and 
</P>
<P>(b) Transmit that statement with any future disclosure. 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.14.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 5<E T="01">b</E>—Routine Uses Applicable to More Than One System of Records Maintained by HHS
</HEAD>
<P>(1) In the event that a system of records maintained by this agency or carry out its functions indicates a violation or potential violation of law, whether civil, criminal or regulatory in nature, and whether arising by general statute or particular program statute, or by regulation, rule or order issued pursuant thereto, the relevant records in the system of records may be referred, as a routine use, to the appropriate agency, whether federal, or foreign, charged with the responsibility of investigating or prosecuting such violation or charged with enforcing or implementing the statute, or rule, regulation or order issued pursuant thereto. 
</P>
<P>(2) Referrals may be made of assignments of research investigators and project monitors to specific research projects to the Smithsonian Institution to contribute to the Smithsonian Science Information Exchange, Inc. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the event the Department deems it desirable or necessary, in determining whether particular records are required to be disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act, disclosure may be made to the Department of Justice for the purpose of obtaining its advice. 
</P>
<P>(4) A record from this system of records may be disclosed as a “routine use” to a federal, state or local agency maintaining civil, criminal or other relevant enforcement records or other pertinent records, such as current licenses, if necessary to obtain a record relevant to an agency decision concerning the hiring or retention of an employee, the issuance of a security clearance, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant or other benefit. 
</P>
<P>A record from this system of records may be disclosed to a Federal agency, in response to its request, in connection with the hiring or retention of an employee, the issuance of a security clearance, the reporting of an investigation of an employee, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit by the requesting agency, to the extent that the record is relevant and necessary to the requesting agency's decision on the matter. 
</P>
<P>(5) In the event that a system of records maintained by this agency to carry out its function indicates a violation or potential violation of law, whether civil, criminal or regulatory in nature, and whether arising by general statute or particular program statute, or by regulation, rule or order issued pursuant thereto, the relevant records in the system of records may be referred, as a routine use, to the appropriate agency, whether state or local charged with the responsibility of investigating or prosecuting such violation or charged with enforcing or implementing the statute, or rule, regulation or order issued pursuant thereto. 
</P>
<P>(6) Where Federal agencies having the power to subpoena other Federal agencies' records, such as the Internal Revenue Service or the Civil Rights Commission, issue a subpoena to the Department for records in this system of records, the Department will make such records available. 
</P>
<P>(7) Where a contract between a component of the Department and a labor organization recognized under E.O. 11491 provides that the agency will disclose personal records relevant to the organization's mission, records in this system of records may be disclosed to such organization. 
</P>
<P>(8) Where the appropriate official of the Department, pursuant to the Department's Freedom of Information Regulation determines that it is in the public interest to disclose a record which is otherwise exempt from mandatory disclosure, disclosure may be made from this system of records. 
</P>
<P>(9) The Department contemplates that it will contract with a private firm for the purpose of collating, analyzing, aggregating or otherwise refining records in this system. Relevant records will be disclosed to such a contractor. The contractor shall be required to maintain Privacy Act safeguards with respect to such records. 
</P>
<P>(10)-(99) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(100) To the Department of Justice or other appropriate Federal agencies in defending claims against the United States when the claim is based upon an individual's mental or physical condition and is alleged to have arisen because of activities of the Public Health Service in connection with such individual. 
</P>
<P>(101) To individuals and organizations, deemed qualified by the Secretary to carry out specific research solely for the purpose of carrying out such research. 
</P>
<P>(102) To organizations deemed qualified by the Secretary to carry out quality assessment, medical audits or utilization review. 
</P>
<P>(103) Disclosures in the course of employee discipline or competence determination proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.7.0.1.14.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part <E T="01">5b</E>—Delegations of Authority [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 6 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 7—EMPLOYEE INVENTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Reorg. Plan No. 1 of 1953, 18 FR 2053; 3 CFR 1953 Supp. E.O. 10096, 15 FR 391; 3 CFR. 1950 Supp. and E.O. 10930, 26 FR 2583; 3 CFR 1961 Supp.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 7.0" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.9.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.0   Who are employees.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term <I>Government employee</I> means any officer or employee, civilian or military, except such part-time employees or part-time consultants as may be excluded therefrom by a determination made in writing by the head of the employee's office or constituent organization, pursuant to an exemption approved by the Commissioner of Patents that to include him or them would be impracticable or inequitable, given the reasons therefor. A person shall not be considered to be a part-time employee or part-time consultant for this purpose unless the terms of his employment contemplate that he shall work for less than the minimum number of hours per day, or less than a minimum number of days per week, or less than the minimum number of weeks per year, regularly required of full-time employees of his class.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 7986, Aug. 10, 1962]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.9.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1   Duty of employee to report inventions.</HEAD>
<P>Every Department employee is required to report to the Assistant Secretary (Health and Scientific Affairs) in accordance with the procedures established therefor, every invention made by him (whether or not jointly with others) which bears any relation to his official duties or which was made in whole or in any part during working hours, or with any contribution of Government facilities, equipment, material, funds, or information, or of time or services of other Government employees on official duty. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 12842, Oct. 1, 1966] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.9.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.3   Determination as to domestic rights.</HEAD>
<P>The determination of the ownership of the domestic right, title, and interest in and to an invention which is or may be patentable, made by a Government employee while under the administrative jurisdiction of the Department, shall be made in writing by the Assistant Secretary (Health and Scientific Affairs), in accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 10096 and Government-wide regulations issued thereunder by the Commissioner of Patents as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) The Government as represented by the Assistant Secretary (Health and Scientific Affairs) shall obtain the entire domestic right, title and interest in and to all inventions made by any Government employee (1) during working hours, or (2) with a contribution by the Government of facilities, equipment, materials, funds, or information, or of time or services of other Government employees on official duty, or (3) which bear a direct relation to or are made in consequence of the official duties of the inventor. 
</P>
<P>(b) In any case where the contribution of the Government, as measured by any one or more of the criteria set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, to the invention is insufficient equitably to justify a requirement of assignment to the Government of the entire domestic right, title and interest in and to such invention, or in any case where the Government has insufficient interest in an invention to obtain the entire domestic right, title, and interest therein (although the Government could obtain same under paragraph (a) of this section), the Department, subject to the approval of the Commissioner, shall leave title to such invention in the employee, subject, however, to the reservation to the Government of a nonexclusive, irrevocable, royalty-free license in the invention with power to grant licenses for all governmental purposes, such reservation to appear, where practicable, in any patent, domestic or foreign, which may issue on such invention. 
</P>
<P>(c) In applying the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, to the facts and circumstances relating to the making of any particular invention, it shall be presumed that an invention made by an employee who is employed or assigned (1) to invent or improve or perfect any art, machine, manufacture, or composition of matter, (2) to conduct or perform research, development work, or both, (3) to supervise, direct, coordinate, or review Government financed or conducted research, development work, or both, or (4) to act in a liaison capacity among governmental or nongovernmental agencies or individuals engaged in such work, falls within the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, and it shall be presumed that any invention made by any other employee falls within the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section. Either presumption may be rebutted by a showing of the facts and circumstances and shall not preclude a determination that these facts and circumstances justify leaving the entire right, title and interest in and to the invention in the Government employee, subject to law. 
</P>
<P>(d) In any case wherein the Government neither (1) obtains the entire domestic right, title and interest in and to an invention pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, nor (2) reserves a nonexclusive, irrevocable, royalty-free license in the invention, with power to grant licenses for all governmental purposes, pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the Government shall leave the entire right, title and interest in and to the invention in the Government employee, subject to law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 7986, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended at 31 FR 12842, Nov. 1, 1966] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.9.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4   Option to acquire foreign rights.</HEAD>
<P>In any case where it is determined that all domestic rights should be assigned to the Government, it shall further be determined, pursuant to Executive Order 9865 and Government-wide regulations issued thereunder, that the Government shall reserve an option to require the assignment of such rights in all or in any specified foreign countries. In case where the inventor is not required to assign the patent rights in any foreign country or countries to the Government or the Government fails to exercise its option within such period of time as may be provided by regulations issued by the Commissioner of Patents, any application for a patent which may be filed in such country or countries by the inventor or his assignee shall nevertheless be subject to a nonexclusive, irrevocable, royalty-free license to the Government for all governmental purposes, including the power to issue sublicenses for use in behalf of the Government and/or in furtherance of the foreign policies of the Government.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 7987, Aug. 10, 1962]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.9.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.7   Notice to employee of determination.</HEAD>
<P>The employee-inventor shall be notified in writing of the Department's determination of the rights to his invention and of his right of appeal, if any. Notice need not be given if the employee stated in writing that he would agree to the determination of ownership which was in fact made. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 12842, Oct. 1, 1966] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.9.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.8   Employee's right of appeal.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who is aggrieved by a determination of the Department may appeal to the Commissioner of Patents, pursuant to section 4(d) of Executive Order 10096, as amended by Executive Order 10930, and regulations issued thereunder, by filing a written appeal with the Commissioner, in duplicate, and a copy of the appeal with the Assistant Secretary (Health and Scientific Affairs), within 30 days (or such longer period as the Commissioner may, for good cause, fix in any case) after receiving written notice of such determination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 7986, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended at 31 FR 12842, Oct. 1, 1966] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 9—USE OF HHS RESEARCH FACILITIES BY ACADEMIC SCIENTISTS, ENGINEERS, AND STUDENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>27 Stat. 395, as amended; 20 U.S.C. 91. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>34 FR 18938, Nov. 27, 1969, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 9.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>To enhance the availability of DHHS scientific research and study facilities to academic scientists, engineers, and qualified students. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the Department of Health and Human Services in accordance with the policy of the President announced on February 21, 1969, to make research and study facilities of the Department readily available to the scientific community, especially qualified academic scientists and engineers. Unique, unusual, and expensive-to-duplicate facilities at laboratories and other study and research facilities of the Department will be made available to the national scientific community, to the maximum extent practical without serious detriment to the missions of those facilities. It is also the policy of the Department to permit qualified students and graduates of institutions of learning in the several States, and territories, as well as the District of Columbia, to use study and research facilities of the Department. When such facilities are used by academic scientists, engineers, and students, the costs incurred for the operation of the unique or unusual research facilities, as well as of the other facilities, should be funded by the operating agency responsible for the operation of that facility, except for any significant incremental costs incurred in support of research not directly related to an HHS mission. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.10.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.3   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The heads of operating agencies are delegated authority for negotiations and decisions as to the use of Department facilities by qualified academic scientists, engineers, and students. 
</P>
<P>(b) The heads of operating agencies may (and are encouraged to) redelegate to the heads of their respective component organizations, with the power to further redelegate to laboratory directors, the authority for negotiations and decisions as to the use of departmental facilities. Appropriate use shall be made of advisory groups in formulating their decisions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.10.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.4   Criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The official permitting use of Department facilities must determine that it would be consistent with the programs of his activity to participate. Facilities may be made available provided the use of such facilities will be of direct benefit to the objectives of the academic scientist, or engineer, or student, with the prospect of fruitful interchange of ideas and information between Department personnel and the academic scientist, or engineer, or student, and such use will not interfere with the Department program. 
</P>
<P>(b) The official permitting use of Department facilities will furnish the non-Government user with safety requirements or operating procedures to be followed. Such requirements or procedures are to include the requirement to report to the permitting official any accident involving the non-Government user. 
</P>
<P>(c) The official delegated authority for approving the use of Department facilities will not permit the use of laboratory facilities unless he determines: 
</P>
<P>(1) That facilities are available for the period desired; and 
</P>
<P>(2) That the proposed research will not interfere with regular Department functions or needs, nor require the subsequent acquisition of additional equipment by the Department. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.10.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.5   Restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each individual authorized to use Department facilities will be expected to use the facilities and equipment with customary care and otherwise conduct himself in such manner as to complete his research or study within any time limits prescribed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each individual authorized to use HHS facilities may not be authorized to sign requisitions for supplies and equipment. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any official approving the use of HHS facilities should seek an agreement, executed by non-Government users, absolving the Federal agency of liability in case of personal injury, death, and failure or damage to the non-Government user's experiments or equipment. The agreement must also contain a statement that the non-Government user will comply with all safety regulations and procedures while using such facilities. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 12—DISPOSAL AND UTILIZATION OF SURPLUS REAL PROPERTY FOR PUBLIC HEALTH PURPOSES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 203, 63 Stat. 385, as amended; 40 U.S.C. 484; sec. 501 of Pub. L. 100-77, 101 Stat. 509-10, 42 U.S.C. 11411.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 72173, Oct. 31, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 12.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949, 63 Stat. 377 (40 U.S.C. 471 <I>et seq.</I>). Terms defined in the Act and not defined in this section have the meanings given to them in the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accredited</I> means having the approval of a recognized accreditation board or association on a regional, State, or national level, such as a State Board of Health. <I>Approval</I> as used above describes the formal process carried out by State Agencies and institutions in determining that health organizations or programs meet minimum acceptance standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of General Services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assigned property</I> means real and related personal property which, in the discretion of the Administrator or his designee, has been made available to the Department for transfer for public health purposes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disposal agency</I> means the executive agency of the Government which has authority to assign property to the Department for transfer for public health purposes.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Excess</I> means any property under the control of any Federal agency which is not required for its needs and the discharge of its responsibilities, as determined by the head thereof.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Fair market value</I> means the highest price which the property will bring by sale in the open market by a willing seller to a willing buyer.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Holding agency</I> means the Federal agency which has control over and accountability for the property involved.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Nonprofit institution</I> means any institution, organization, or association, whether incorporated or unincorporated, no part of the net earnings of which inures or may lawfully inure to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and (except for institutions which lease property to assist the homeless under Title V of Pub. L. 100-77) which has been held to be tax-exempt under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Off-site property</I> means surplus buildings, utilities and all other removable improvements, including related personal property, to be transferred by the Department for removal and use away from the site for public health purposes.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>On-site</I> means surplus real property, including related personal property, to be transferred by the Department for use in place for public health purposes.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Public benefit allowance</I> means a discount on the sale or lease price of real property transferred for public health purposes, representing any benefit determined by the Secretary which has accrued or may accrue to the United States thereby.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Related personal property</I> means any personal property: (1) Which is located on and is (i) an integral part of, or (ii) useful in the operation of real property; or (2) which is determined by the Administrator to be otherwise related to the real property.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>State</I> means a State of the United States, and includes the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the Territories and possessions of the United States.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Surplus</I> when used with respect to real property means any excess real property not required for the needs and the discharge of the responsibilities of all Federal agencies as determined by the Administrator.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 72173, Oct. 31, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 7745, Mar. 10, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part is applicable to surplus real property located within any State which is appropriate for assignment to, or which has been assigned to, the Department for transfer for public health purposes, as provided for in section 203(k) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.3   General policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of the Department to foster and assure maximum utilization of surplus real property for public health purposes, including research.
</P>
<P>(b) Transfers may be made only to States, their political subdivisions and instrumentalities, tax-supported public health institutions, and nonprofit public health institutions which (except for institutions which lease property to assist the homeless under Title V of Pub. L. 100-77) have been held tax-exempt under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.
</P>
<P>(c) Real property will be requested for assignment only when the Department has determined that the property is suitable and needed for public health purposes. The amount of real and related personal property to be transferred shall not exceed normal operating requirements of the applicant. Such property will not be requested for assignment unless it is needed at the time of application for public health purposes or will be so needed within the immediate or foreseeable future. Where construction or major renovation is not required or proposed, the property must be placed into use within twelve (12) months from the date of transfer. When construction or major renovation is contemplated at the time of transfer, the property must be placed in use within 36 months from the date of transfer. If the applicable time limitation is not met, the transferee shall either commence payments in cash to the Department for each month thereafter during which the proposed use has not been implemented or take such other action as set forth in § 12.12 as is deemed appropriate by the Department. Such monthly payments shall be computed on the basis of the current fair market value of the property at the time of the first payment by subtracting therefrom any portion of the purchase price paid in cash at the time of transfer, and by dividing the balance by the total number of months in the period of restriction. If the facility has not been placed into use within eight (8) years of the date of the deed, title to the property will be revested in the United States, or, at the discretion of the Department, the restrictions and conditions may be abrogated in accordance with § 12.9. 
</P>
<P>(d) Transfers will be made only after the applicant has certified that the proposed program is not in conflict with State or local zoning restrictions, building codes, or similar limitations.
</P>
<P>(e) Organizations which may be eligible include those which provide care and training for the physically and mentally ill, including medical care of the aged and infirm; clinical services; services (including shelter) to homeless individuals; other public health services (including water and sewer); or similar services devoted primarily to the promotion and protection of public health. In addition, organizations which provide assistance to homeless individuals may be eligible for leases under title V of Public Law 100-77. Except for the provision of services (including shelter) to homeless individuals, organizations which have as their principal purpose the providing of custodial or domiciliary care are not eligible. The eligible organization must be authorized to carry out the activity for which it requests the property.
</P>
<P>(f) An applicant's plan of operation will not be approved unless it provides that the applicant will not discriminate because of race, color, sex, handicap, or national origin in the use of the property.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 72173, Oct. 31, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 7745, Mar. 10, 1988; 55 FR 32252, Aug. 8, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.4   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Surplus property transferred pursuant to this part will be disposed of on an “as is, where is,” basis without warranty of any kind.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless excepted by the General Services Administrator in his assignment, mineral rights will be conveyed together with the surface rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.5   Awards.</HEAD>
<P>Where there is more than one applicant for the same property, it will be awarded to the applicant having a program of utilization which provides, in the opinion of the Department, the greatest public benefit. Where the property will serve more than one program, it will be apportioned to fit the needs of as many programs as is practicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.6   Notice of available property.</HEAD>
<P>Reasonable publicity will be given to the availability of surplus real property which is suitable for assignment to the Department for transfer for public health uses. The Department will establish procedures reasonably calculated to afford all eligible users having a legitimate interest in acquiring the property for such uses an opportunity to make an application therefor. However, publicity need not be given to the availability of surplus real property which is occupied and being used for eligible public health purposes at the time the property is declared surplus, the occupant expresses interest in the property, and the Department determines that it has a continuing need therefor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.7   Applications for surplus real property.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for surplus real property for public health purposes shall be made to the Department through the office specified in the notice of availability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32252, Aug. 8, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.8   Assignment of surplus real property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notice of interest in a specific property for public health purposes will be furnished the General Services Administrator by the Department at the earliest possible date.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests to the Administrator for assignment of surplus real property to the Department for transfer for public health purposes will be based on the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department has an acceptable application for the property.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant is willing, authorized, and in a position to assume immediate care, custody, and maintenance of the property.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant is able, willing and authorized to pay the administrative expenses incident to the transfer.
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant has the necessary funds, or the ability to obtain such funds, to carry out the approved program of use of the property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.9   General disposal terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Surplus real property transfers under this part will be limited to public health purposes. Transferees shall be entitled to a public benefit allowance in terms of a percentage which will be applied against the value of the property to be conveyed. Such an allowance will be computed on the basis of benefits to the United States from the use of such property for public health purposes. The computation of such public benefit allowances will be in accordance with Exhibit A attached hereto and made a part hereof.
</P>
<P>(b) A transfer of surplus real property for public health purposes is subject to the disapproval of the Administrator within 30 days after notice is given to him of the proposed transfer.
</P>
<P>(c) Transfers will be on the following terms and conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The transferee will be obligated to utilize the property continuously in accordance with an approved plan of operation.
</P>
<P>(2) The transferee will not be permitted to sell, lease or sublease, rent, mortgage, encumber, or otherwise dispose of the property, or any part thereof, without the prior written authorization of the Department.
</P>
<P>(3) The transferee will file with the Department such reports covering the utilization of the property as may be required.
</P>
<P>(4) In the event the property is sold, leased or subleased, encumbered, disposed of, or is used for purposes other than those set forth in the approved plan without the consent of the Department, all revenues or the reasonable value of other benefits received by the transferee directly or indirectly from such use, as determined by the Department, will be considered to have been received and held in trust by the transferee for the account of the United States and will be subject to the direction and control of the Department. The provisions of this paragraph shall not impair or affect the rights reserved to the United States in paragraph (c)(6) of this section, or the right of the Department to impose conditions to its consent.
</P>
<P>(5) Lessees will be required to carry all perils and liability insurance to protect the Government and the Government's residual interest in the property. Transferees will be required to carry such flood insurance as may be required by the Department pursuant to Pub. L. 93-234. Where the transferee elects to carry insurance against damages to or loss of on-site property due to fire or other hazards, and where loss or damage to transferred Federal surplus real property occurs, all proceeds from insurance shall be promptly used by the transferee for the purpose of repairing and restoring the property to its former condition, or replacing it with equivalent or more suitable facilities. If not so used, there shall be paid to the United States that part of the insurance proceeds that is attributable to the Government's residual interest in the property lost, damaged, or destroyed in the case of leases, attributable to the fair market value of the leased facilities.
</P>
<P>(6) With respect to on-site property, in the event of noncompliance with any of the conditions of the transfer as determined by the Department, title to the property transferred and the right to immediate possession shall, at the option of the Department, revert to the Government. In the event title is reverted to the United States for noncompliance or voluntarily reconveyed, the transferee shall, at the option of the Department, be required to reimburse the Government for the decrease in value of the property not due to reasonable wear and tear or acts of God or attributable to alterations completed by the transferee to adapt the property to the public health use for which the property was transferred. With respect to leased property, in the event of noncompliance with any of the conditions of the lease, as determined by the Department, the right of occupancy and possession shall, at the option of the Department, be terminated. In the event a leasehold is terminated by the United States for noncompliance or is voluntarily surrendered, the lessee shall be required at the option of the Department to reimburse the Government for the decrease in value of the property not due to reasonable wear and tear or acts of God or attributable to alterations completed by the lessee to adapt the property to the public health use for which the property was leased.
</P>
<FP>With respect to any reverter of title or termination of leasehold resulting from noncompliance, the Government shall, in addition thereto, be reimbursed for such costs as may be incurred in recovering title to or possession of the property.
</FP>
<FP>Any payments of cash made by the transferee against the purchase price of property transferred shall, upon a forfeiture of title to the property for breach of condition, be forfeited.
</FP>
<P>(7) With respect to off-site property, in the event of noncompliance with any of the terms and conditions of the transfer, the unearned public benefit allowance shall, at the option of the Department, become immediately due and payable or, if the property or any portion thereof is sold, leased, or otherwise disposed of without authorization from the Department, such sale, lease or sublease, or other disposal shall be for the benefit and account of the United States and the United States shall be entitled to the proceeds. In the event the transferee fails to remove the property or any portion thereof within the time specified, then in addition to the rights reserved above, at the option of the Department, all right, title, and interest in and to such unremoved property shall be retransferred to other eligible applicants or shall be forfeited to the United States.
</P>
<P>(8) With respect only to on-site property which has been declared excess by the Department of Defense, such declaration having included a statement indicating the property has a known potential for use during a national emergency, the Department shall reserve the right during any period of emergency declared by the President of the United States or by the Congress of the United States to the full and unrestricted use by the Government of the surplus real property, or of any portion thereof, disposed of in accordance with the provisions of this part. Such use may be either exclusive or nonexclusive. Prior to the expiration or termination of the period of restricted use by the transferee, the Government will not be obligated to pay rent or any other fees or charges during the period of emergency, except that the Government will:
</P>
<P>(i) Bear the entire cost of maintenance of such portion of the property used by it exclusively or over which it may have exclusive possession or control;
</P>
<P>(ii) Pay the fair share, commensurate with the use of the cost of maintenance of such surplus real property as it may use nonexclusively or over which it may have nonexclusive possession or control;
</P>
<P>(iii) Pay a fair rental for the use of improvements or additions to the surplus real property made by the purchaser or lessee without Government aid; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Be responsible for any damage to the surplus real property caused by its use, reasonable wear and tear, the common enemy and acts of God excepted. Subsequent to the expiration or termination of the period of restricted use, the obligations of the Government will be as set forth in the preceding sentence and, in addition, the Government shall be obligated to pay a fair rental for all or any portion of the conveyed premises which it uses.
</P>
<P>(9) The restrictions set forth in paragraphs (c) (1) through (7) of this section will extend for thirty (30) years for land with or without improvements; and for facilities being acquired separately from land whether they are for use on-site or off-site, the period of limitations on the use of the structures will be equal to their estimated economic life. The restrictions set forth in paragraphs (c) (1) through (7) of this section will extend for the entire initial lease period and for any renewal periods for property leased from the Department.
</P>
<P>(d) Transferees, by obtaining the consent of the Department, may abrogate the restrictions set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for all or any portion of the property upon payment in cash to the Department of an amount equal to the then current fair market value of the property to be released, multiplied by the public benefit allowance granted at the time of conveyance, divided by the total number of months of the period of restriction set forth in the conveyance document and multiplied by the number of months that remain in the period of restriction as determined by the Department. For purposes of abrogation payment computation, the current fair market value shall not include the value of any improvements placed on the property by the transferee.
</P>
<P>(e) Related personal property will be transferred or leased as a part of the realty and in accordance with real property procedures. It will be subject to the same public benefit allowance granted for the real property. Where related personal property is involved in an on-site transfer, the related personal property may be transferred by a bill of sale imposing restrictions for a period not to exceed five years from the date of transfer, other terms and conditions to be the same as, and made a part of, the real property transaction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.10   Compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 and other related Acts (environmental impact).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department will, prior to making a final decision to convey or lease, or to amend, reform, or grant an approval or release with respect to a previous conveyance or lease of, surplus real property for public health purposes, complete an environmental assessment of the proposed transaction in keeping with applicable provisions of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, the National Archeological Data Preservation Act, and other related acts. No permit to use surplus real property shall allow the permittee to make, or cause to be made, any irreversible change in the condition of said property, and no use permit shall be employed for the purpose of delaying or avoiding compliance with the requirements of these Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) Applicants shall be required to provide such information as the Department deems necessary to make an assessment of the impact of the proposed Federal action on the human environment. Materials contained in the applicant's official request, responses to a standard questionnaire prescribed by the Public Health Service, as well as other relevant information, will be used by the Department in making said assessment.
</P>
<P>(c) If the assessment reveals (1) That the proposed Federal action involves properties of historical significance which are listed, or eligible for listing, in the National Register of Historic Places, or (2) that a more than insignificant impact on the human environment is reasonably foreseeable as a result of the proposed action, or (3) that the proposed Federal action could result in irreparable loss or destruction of archeologically significant items or data, the Department will, except as provided for in paragraph (d) of this section, prepare and distribute, or cause to be prepared or distributed, such notices and statements and obtain such approvals as are required by the above cited Acts.
</P>
<P>(d) If a proposed action involves other Federal agencies in a sequence of actions, or a group of actions, directly related to each other because of their functional interdependence, the Department may enter into and support a lead agency agreement to designate a single lead agency which will assume primary responsibility for coordinating the assessment of environmental effects of proposed Federal actions, preparing and distributing such notices and statements, or obtaining such approvals, as are required by the above cited Acts. The procedures of the designated lead agency will be utilized in conducting the environmental assessment. In the event of disagreement between the Department and another Federal agency, the Department will reserve the right to abrogate its lead agency agreement with the other Federal Agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 72173, Oct. 31, 1980, as amended at 55 FR 32252, Aug. 8, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.11   Special terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applicants will be required to pay all external administrative costs which will include, but not be limited to, taxes, surveys, appraisals, inventory costs, legal fees, title search, certificate or abstract expenses, decontamination costs, moving costs, closing fees in connection with the transaction and service charges, if any, made by State Agencies for Federal Property Assistance under the terms of a cooperative agreement with the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of off-site property, applicants will be required to post performance bonds, make performance guarantee deposits, or give such other assurances as may be required by the Department or the holding agency to insure adequate site clearance and to pay service charges, if any, made by State Agencies for Federal Property Assistance under the terms of a cooperative agreement with the Department.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever negotiations are undertaken for disposal to private nonprofit public health organizations of any surplus real property which cost the Government $1 million or more, the Department will give notice to the Attorney General of the United States of the proposed disposal and the terms and conditions thereof. The applicant shall furnish to the Department such information and documents as the Attorney General may determine to be appropriate or necessary to enable him to give the advice as provided for by section 207 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Where an applicant proposes to acquire or lease and use in place improvements located on land which the Government does not own, he shall be required, before the transfer is consummated, to obtain a right to use the land commensurate with the duration of the restrictions applicable to the improvements, or the term of the lease. The applicant will be required to assume, or obtain release of, the Government's obligations respecting the land including but not limited to obligations relating to restoration, waste, and rent. At the option of the Department, the applicant may be required to post a bond to indemnify the Government against such obligations.
</P>
<P>(e) The Department may require the inclusion in the transfer or lease document of any other provision deemed desirable or necessary.
</P>
<P>(f) Where an eligible applicant for an on-site transfer proposes to construct new, or rehabilitate old, facilities, the financing of which must be accomplished through issuance of revenue bonds having terms inconsistent with the terms and conditions of transfer prescribed in § 12.9 (c), (d), and (e) of this chapter, the Department may, in its discretion, impose such alternate terms and conditions of transfer in lieu thereof as may be appropriate to assure utilization of the property for public health purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.12   Utilization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where property or any portion thereof is not being used for the purposes for which transferred, the transferee will be required at the direction of the Department:
</P>
<P>(1) To place the property into immediate use for an approved purpose;
</P>
<P>(2) To retransfer such property to such other public health user as the Department may direct;
</P>
<P>(3) To sell such property for the benefit and account of the United States;
</P>
<P>(4) To return title to such property to the United States or to relinquish any leasehold interest therein;
</P>
<P>(5) To abrogate the conditions and restrictions of the transfer, as set forth in § 12.9(d) of this chapter, except that, where property has never been placed in use for the purposes for which transferred, abrogation will not be permitted except under extenuating circumstances; or
</P>
<P>(6) To make payments as provided for in § 12.3(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the transferee or lessee desires to place the property in temporary use for a purpose other than that for which the property was transferred or leased, approval from the Department must be obtained, and will be conditioned upon such terms as the Department may impose. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.13   Form of conveyance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Transfers or leases of surplus real property will be on forms approved by the Office of General Counsel of the Department and will include such of the disposal or lease terms and conditions set forth in this part and such other terms and conditions as the Office of General Counsel may deem appropriate or necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) Transfers of on-site property will normally be by quitclaim deed without warranty of title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.14   Compliance inspections and reports.</HEAD>
<P>The Department will make or have made such compliance inspections as are necessary and will require of the transferee or lessee such compliance reports and actions as are deemed necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.15   Reports to Congress.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary will make such reports of real property disposal activities as are required by section 203 of the Act and such other reports as may be required by law.



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.11.0.1.16.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Exhibit A to Part 12—Public Benefit Allowance for Transfer of Real Property for Health Purposes 
<SU>1</SU>

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="4" scope="col">Classification
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="12" scope="col">Percent allowed
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="7" scope="col">Organization allowances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Utilization allowances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Maximum public benefit allowance
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Basic public benefit allowance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Tax support
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Accreditation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Hardship
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Unmet needs
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Integrated research program
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Outpatient services
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Public services
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Training program
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">10 to 25%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">26 to 50%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">51 to 100%
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hospitals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clinics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nursing Homes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Public Health Administration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Public Refuse Disposal and Water Systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Research</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rehabilitation Facility</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Special Services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Assistance to the Homeless</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 100
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This public benefit allowance applies only to surplus real property being sold for on-site use. When surplus real property is to be moved from the site, a basic public benefit allowance of 100% will be granted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Applicable when this is the primary use to be made of the property. The public benefit allowance for the overall health program is applicable when such facilities are conveyed as a minor component of other facilities.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 72173, Oct. 31, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 7745, Mar. 10, 1988]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="12a" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 12a—USE OF FEDERAL REAL PROPERTY TO ASSIST THE HOMELESS








</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 11411; 40 U.S.C. 550.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 89898, Nov. 13, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 12a.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means any eligible organization that has submitted an application to the Department of Health and Human Services to obtain use of a certain suitable property to assist the homeless.
</P>
<P><I>Classification</I> means a property's designation as unutilized, underutilized, excess, or surplus.
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means one calendar day, including weekends and holidays.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible organization</I> means a State or local government agency, or a private, non-profit organization that provides assistance to the homeless, and that is authorized under the State law in which the property is located to carry out the activity for which it requests property and enter into an agreement with the Federal Government for use of property for the purposes of this part. Eligible organizations that are private, non-profit organizations interested in applying for suitable property must be tax exempt under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code at the time of application and remain tax exempt throughout the time the Federal Government retains a reversionary interest in the property.
</P>
<P><I>Encumbrance</I> means any non-approved use by a transferee or a third party that limits the full utilization of the transferred property, regardless of time period, and includes liens, easements, restrictive covenants, licenses, leases, mortgages, informal agreements, and unaddressed trespass.
</P>
<P><I>Excess property</I> means any property under the control of a Federal executive agency that the head of the agency determines is not required to meet the agency's needs or responsibilities, pursuant to 40 U.S.C. 524.
</P>
<P><I>GSA</I> means the General Services Administration.
</P>
<P><I>HHS</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Homeless</I> is defined in 42 U.S.C. 11302. This term is synonymous with “homeless individual” and “homeless person.”
</P>
<P><I>HUD</I> means the Department of Housing and Urban Development.
</P>
<P><I>HUD website</I> means a website maintained by HUD providing information about HUD, including any successor websites or technologies that are equally accessible and available to the public.
</P>
<P><I>Landholding agency</I> means the Federal department or agency with statutory authority to control property. For purposes of this part, the landholding agency is typically the Federal department or agency that had custody and accountability on behalf of the Federal Government, of a certain piece of property at the time that such property was reported to HUD for a suitability determination pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 11411.
</P>
<P><I>Lease</I> means an agreement in writing between either HHS for surplus property or landholding agencies for underutilized and unutilized properties and the applicant giving rise to the relationship of lessor and lessee for the use of Federal property for a term of at least one year under the conditions set forth in the lease document.
</P>
<P><I>Non-profit organization</I> means an organization recognized as a non-profit by the State in which the organization operates, no part of the net earnings of which inures to the benefit of any member, founder, contributor, or individual; that has a voluntary board; that has an accounting system or has designated an entity that will maintain a functioning accounting system for the organization in accordance with generally accepted accounting procedures; and that practices nondiscrimination in the provision of assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Permit</I> means a license granted by a landholding agency to use unutilized or underutilized property for a specific amount of time, usually one year or less, under terms and conditions determined by the landholding agency. A permit does not grant to the recipient an estate in land or any interest in the property.
</P>
<P><I>Property</I> means real property consisting of vacant land or buildings, or a portion thereof, that is excess, surplus, or designated as unutilized or underutilized in surveys by the heads of landholding agencies conducted pursuant to 40 U.S.C. 524.
</P>
<P><I>Related personal property</I> means any personal property that is located on real property and is either an integral part of or useful in the operation of that property or is determined by GSA to be otherwise related to the property.
</P>
<P><I>Representative of the homeless</I> means a State or local government agency, or private nonprofit organization that provides, or proposes to provide, services to the homeless.
</P>
<P><I>Screen</I> means the process by which GSA surveys Federal executive agencies to determine if they have an interest in using excess Federal property to carry out a particular agency mission, and then surveys State, local, and non-profit entities, to determine if any such entity has an interest in using surplus Federal property to carry out a specific public use.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a State of the United States, and includes the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the Territories and possessions of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Suitable property</I> means that HUD has determined that a certain property satisfies the criteria listed in 24 CFR 581.6.
</P>
<P><I>Surplus property</I> means any excess property not required by any Federal landholding agency for its needs or the discharge of its responsibilities, as determined by GSA.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer document</I> means a lease, deed, or permit transferring surplus, unutilized, or underutilized property.
</P>
<P><I>Transferee</I> means an eligible entity that acquires Federal property by lease, deed, or permit.
</P>
<P><I>Underutilized</I> means an entire property or portion thereof, with or without improvements which is used only at irregular periods or intermittently by the accountable landholding agency for current program purposes of that agency, or which is used for current program purposes that can be satisfied with only a portion of the property.
</P>
<P><I>Unutilized property</I> means an entire property or portion thereof, with or without improvements, not occupied for current program purposes for the accountable executive agency or occupied in caretaker status only.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to Federal property that has been designated by Federal landholding agencies as unutilized, underutilized, excess, or surplus and is therefore subject to the provisions of Title V of the McKinney Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 11411).
</P>
<P>(b) The following categories of properties are not subject to this part (regardless of whether they may be unutilized or underutilized):
</P>
<P>(1) Buildings and property at military installations that were approved for closure under the Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990 (part A of title XXIX of Pub. L. 101-510; 10 U.S.C. 2687 note) after October 25, 1994.
</P>
<P>(2) Machinery and equipment not determined to be related personal property by the landholding agency or GSA or determined to be related personal property that the landholding agency or GSA chooses to dispose of separate from real property.
</P>
<P>(3) Government-owned, contractor-operated machinery, equipment, land, and other facilities reported excess for sale only to the using contractor and subject to a continuing military requirement.
</P>
<P>(4) Properties subject to special legislation directing a particular action.
</P>
<P>(5) Properties subject to a court order that is binding on the Federal Government and, for any reason, precludes transfer for use to assist the homeless under the authority of 42 U.S.C. 11411.
</P>
<P>(6) Property not subject to Federal Real Property Council reporting requirements in accordance with 40 U.S.C. 623(i).
</P>
<P>(7) Mineral rights interests independent of surface rights.
</P>
<P>(8) Air space interests independent of surface rights.
</P>
<P>(9) Indian Reservation land subject to 40 U.S.C. 523.
</P>
<P>(10) Property interests subject to reversion.
</P>
<P>(11) Easements.
</P>
<P>(12) Any building or fixture that is excess, or surplus, that is on land under the control of a landholding agency, where the underlying land is not excess or surplus.
</P>
<P>(13) Property purchased in whole or in part with Federal funds if title to the property is not held by a Federal landholding agency as defined in this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.3   General policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of HHS to foster and assure maximum utilization of surplus property for homeless assistance purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) Transfers may be made only to eligible organizations.
</P>
<P>(c) Property will be requested for assignment only when HUD has made a final determination that the property is suitable for use to assist the homeless, GSA has determined it is available, and HHS has determined it is needed for homeless assistance purposes. The amount of real and related personal property to be transferred shall not exceed normal operating requirements of the applicant. Such property will not be requested for assignment unless it is needed at the time of application for homeless assistance purposes or will be so needed within the immediate or foreseeable future.
</P>
<P>(d) Transfers by deed will be made only after the applicant's financial plan is approved and the applicant provides certification that the proposed program is permissible under all applicable State and local zoning restrictions, building codes, and similar limitations.
</P>
<P>(e) In instances of noncompliance, transferees are provided an opportunity to cure the noncompliance pursuant to § 12a.10.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.4   Expression of interest process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Properties published by HUD as suitable and available, pursuant to 24 CFR 581.8, for application for use to assist the homeless shall not be available for any other purpose for a period of 30 days beginning on the date the list of properties is published on the HUD website. Any eligible organization interested in any underutilized, unutilized, excess, or surplus property for use to assist the homeless must send HHS a written expression of interest in that property within 30 days after the property has been published on the HUD website.
</P>
<P>(b) Although a property may be determined suitable by HUD, HUD's determination does not mean a property is necessarily fit for use for the purpose(s) stated in the application, nor does it guarantee subsequent conveyance or transfer of a property.
</P>
<P>(c) If a written expression of interest to apply for suitable property for use to assist the homeless is received by HHS within the 30-day holding period, such property may not be made available for any other purpose until the date HHS or the appropriate landholding agency has completed action on the application submitted pursuant to that expression of interest.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The expression of interest should identify the specific property, briefly describe the proposed use, include the name of the organization, and indicate whether it is a public body or a private, non-profit organization. The expression of interest must be sent to HHS by email, <I>rpb@psc.hhs.gov,</I> or by mail at the following address: Department of Health and Human Services, Program Manager, Federal Real Property Assistance Program, Real Estate Logistics and Operations, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
</P>
<P>(2) HHS will notify the landholding agency (for unutilized and underutilized properties) or GSA (for excess and surplus properties) when an expression of interest has been received for a certain property.
</P>
<P>(e) An expression of interest may be sent to and accepted by HHS any time after the 30-day holding period has expired only if the property remains available as determined by GSA or the landholding agency for application to assist the homeless. In such a case, an application submitted pursuant to this expression of interest may be approved for use by the homeless if:
</P>
<P>(1) There are no pending applications or written expressions of interest made under any law for use of the property for any purpose; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of excess or surplus property, GSA has not received a bona fide offer to purchase that property or advertised for the sale of the property by public auction.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.5   Application process and requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of an expression of interest, HHS will send an application packet to the interested entity. The application packet requires the applicant to provide certain information, including the following—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Acquisition type.</I> The applicant must state whether it is requesting acquisition of the property by lease, deed, or permit. A lease of one year, extendable at HHS's discretion, with the concurrence of GSA or the landholding agency, may be granted when the applicant's initial application is approved and the applicant's final application outlining the applicant's financial plan is found to be otherwise reasonable based on the criteria in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, but either a change in zoning is required or the financial plan proposes to utilize Low-Income Housing Tax Credits or other funding sources that typically take longer to process than other forms of financing. Applicants that initially apply for transfer by lease or permit and subsequently request transfer by deed will follow the same bifurcated application process, including deadlines, contained in 42 U.S.C. 11411. Should an applicant wish to transition from acquisition by lease to acquisition by deed, HHS will issue a letter of commitment to a lessee indicating that, provided its application meets all application criteria, including securing of all necessary financing that complies with Federal Government requirements, HHS will issue a deed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Description of the applicant organization.</I> The applicant must document that it satisfies the definition of an <I>eligible organization</I> as specified in § 12a.1.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Description of the property desired.</I> The applicant must describe the listed property desired, including existing zoning. Applicants must certify that any modification(s) made to and use of the property will conform to all applicable building codes, and local use restrictions, or similar limitations. In accordance with GSA policy, determinations regarding parcelization are made prior to screening. Therefore, expressions of interest and applications for portions of listed properties will not be accepted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Description of the proposed program.</I> The applicant must fully describe the proposed program and plan of use, including implementation plans.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Demonstration of need.</I> The applicant must demonstrate that the property is needed for homeless assistance purposes at the time of application and how the program will address the needs of the homeless population to be assisted. The applicant must demonstrate that it has an immediate need and ability to utilize all of the property for which it is applying.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Demonstrate that the property is suitable and adaptable for the proposed program and plan of use.</I> The applicant must fully explain why the property is suitable and describe what, if any, modification(s) will be made to the property before the program becomes operational.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Ability to finance and operate the proposed program.</I> If the applicant's initial application is approved, the applicant must set forth a reasonable plan to finance the approved program within 45 days of the initial approval. To be considered reasonable, the plan must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Specifically describe all anticipated costs and sources of funding for the proposed program, including any property modifications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be accompanied by supporting documentation which demonstrates that the proposed plan is likely to succeed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate that the applicant is ready, willing, able, and authorized to assume care, custody, and maintenance of the property;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstrate that it has secured the necessary dedicated funds, or will obtain such funds, to carry out the approved proposed program and plan of use for the property, including administrative expenses incident to the transfer by deed, lease, or permit;
</P>
<P>(v) Not diminish the value of the Federal Government's interest in the property nor impair the Federal Government's ability to revert and immediately dispose of the property free of any and all liens, encumbrances, or anything else which renders the property unmarketable. Deed transfers will only be made after an applicant demonstrates its financial plan adequately protects the Federal Government's interest in the property; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Neither subject the Federal Government's interest in the property to foreclosure nor impose obligations (<I>e.g.,</I> extended use agreements) on the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Compliance with non-discrimination requirements.</I> Each applicant under this part must certify in writing that it will comply with all requirements of Federal law and HHS policy, as amended, relating to non-discrimination, including the following: the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3601-3619) and implementing regulations at 24 CFR part 100; and, as applicable, Executive Order 11063 (Equal Opportunity in Housing) and implementing regulations at 24 CFR part 107; Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d to d-4) (Non-discrimination in Federally Assisted Programs) and implementing regulations at 45 CFR part 80; section 1557 of the Affordable Care Act and implementing regulations at 45 CFR part 92; the prohibitions against discrimination on the basis of age under the Age Discrimination Act of 1975 (42 U.S.C. 6101-6107) and implementing regulations at 45 CFR part 91; and the prohibitions against discrimination against otherwise qualified individuals with disabilities under section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794) and implementing regulations at 45 CFR part 84. The applicant must maintain the required records to demonstrate compliance with all applicable Federal laws and HHS policies related to non-discrimination.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Insurance and indemnification.</I> The applicant must certify that it will insure the property against loss, damage, or destruction to protect the residual financial interest of the United States. The United States shall be named as an additional insured. Applicants must provide proof of insurance annually or upon request. Failure to maintain sufficient insurance may result in adverse action, including reversion of the property, at the discretion of HHS. In the event of a covered loss, the transferee must hold all insurance proceeds in trust and obtain written concurrence from HHS before disbursing the funds. Applicants, and all affiliated parties utilizing the property, as approved by HHS, must indemnify the United States and hold the United States harmless for all actions involving use of the property.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Historic preservation.</I> Where applicable, the applicant must provide information that will enable HHS to comply with Federal historic preservation requirements.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Environmental information.</I> The applicant must provide sufficient information to allow HHS to analyze the potential impact of the applicant's proposal on the environment, in accordance with the instructions provided with the application packet. HHS will assist applicants in obtaining any pertinent environmental information in the possession of HUD, GSA, or the landholding agency. However, the burden is on the applicant to submit sufficient documentation for analysis by HHS.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Local government notification.</I> The applicant must certify that it has notified the applicable unit of general local government responsible for sewer, water, police, and fire services, in writing, of its proposed program for the specific property and submit a copy of that written notification.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Zoning and local use restrictions.</I> An applicant requesting a deed must certify that it has consulted all State and local governmental entities that will have jurisdiction over the property and that the proposed use will comply with all applicable zoning and local use restrictions, including local building code requirements. An applicant that applies for a lease or permit is not required to comply with local zoning requirements, as long as the Federal Government retains ownership of the property. Deed transfers will only be made after the applicant has provided acceptable written proof that the proposed program is not in conflict with State or local zoning laws and restrictions, building codes, or similar limitations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of evaluations.</I> Due to the short time frame imposed by statute for evaluating applications, HHS's evaluation will, generally, be limited to the information contained in the application. It is therefore incumbent on applicants to provide thorough and complete applications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deadline for initial application.</I> An initial application must be received by HHS, at the email address in § 12a.4(d)(1) or other address indicated by HHS, within 75 days after an expression of interest is received from a particular applicant for that property. Upon written request from the applicant, HHS may, in its discretion, grant extensions authorized by 42 U.S.C. 11411(e)(2)(A), provided that the appropriate landholding agency or GSA concurs with the extension.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Evaluation of initial application.</I> (1) Upon receipt of an initial application, HHS will review it for completeness, and, if incomplete and time permits, may, in its discretion, return it or ask the applicant to furnish any missing or additional required information prior to final evaluation of the initial application.
</P>
<P>(2) HHS will evaluate each initial application within 10 days of receipt and will promptly advise the applicant of its decision. All initial applications will be reviewed on the basis of the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Services offered.</I> The extent and range of proposed services, such as meals, shelter, job training, and counseling.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Need.</I> The demand for the program, the program's ability to satisfy unmet needs of the community, and the degree to which the available property will be fully utilized.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Experience.</I> Demonstrated ability to provide the services, such as prior success in operating similar programs and recommendations attesting to that fact by Federal, State, and local authorities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Deadline and evaluation of final application.</I> (1) If HHS approves an initial application, HHS will notify the applicant and provide the applicant 45 days in which to provide a final application. The final application shall set forth a reasonable plan to finance, as specified in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, the approved program as set forth in the initial application. Applicants may not modify the approved initial application within its final application proposal.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of the final application, HHS will make a determination within 15 days and notify the applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) Unlike with initial applications, requests for extensions are not authorized by 42 U.S.C. 11411 and thus will not be considered for final applications.
</P>
<P>(4) Applications are evaluated on a first-come, first-served basis. HHS will notify all organizations that have submitted expressions of interest for a particular property whether an earlier application received for that property has been approved.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Competing applications.</I> If HHS receives more than one final application simultaneously, HHS will evaluate all applications and make a determination based on each application's merit. HHS will rank approved applications based on the elements listed in paragraph (a) of this section, and notify the landholding agency, or GSA, as appropriate, of the approved applicant.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.6   Action on approved applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unutilized and underutilized properties.</I> (1) When HHS approves an application, it will so notify the applicant and forward a copy of the application to the landholding agency. The landholding agency will execute the lease, or permit document, as appropriate, in consultation with the applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) The landholding agency maintains the discretion to decide the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The length of time the property will be available.
</P>
<P>(ii) The terms and conditions of the lease or permit document (except that a landholding agency may not charge any fees or impose any costs).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Excess and surplus properties.</I> (1) When HHS approves an application, it will so notify the applicant and request that GSA assign the property to HHS for transfer. Requests to GSA for the assignment of surplus property to HHS for homeless assistance purposes will be based on the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) HHS has a fully approved application for the property;
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant is able, willing, and authorized to assume immediate care, custody, and maintenance of the property;
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicant is able, willing and authorized to pay the administrative expenses incident to the transfer; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The applicant has secured the necessary funds, or had demonstrated the ability to obtain such funds, to carry out the approved program of use of the property.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of an acceptable assignment, HHS will execute the transfer document in accordance with the procedures and requirements set out in this part and any other terms and conditions HHS and GSA determine are appropriate or necessary. Custody and accountability of the property will remain throughout the lease term with the landholding agency (<I>i.e.,</I> the agency which initially reported the property as excess) and throughout the deed term with the transferee.
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to assignment to HHS, GSA may consider other Federal uses and other important national needs in deciding the disposition of surplus property. Priority of consideration will normally be given to uses to assist the homeless. However, both GSA and HHS may consider any competing request for the property made under 40 U.S.C. 550 that is so meritorious and compelling that it outweighs the needs of the homeless.
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever GSA or HHS decides in favor of a competing request over a request for property for homeless assistance, the agency making the decision will transmit to the appropriate committees of Congress an explanatory statement which details the need satisfied by conveyance of the surplus property, and the reasons for determining that such need was so meritorious and compelling as to outweigh the needs of the homeless.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.7   Transfer documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Surplus property may be conveyed to eligible organizations pursuant to 40 U.S.C. 550(d) and 42 U.S.C. 11411, as amended, by lease or deed, at the applicant's discretion.
</P>
<P>(b) Transfers of surplus property for homeless assistance purposes are in exchange for the transferee's agreement to fully utilize the property for homeless assistance purposes in accordance with the terms specified in the transfer document.
</P>
<P>(c) A transfer of surplus property for homeless assistance purposes is subject to the disapproval of GSA within 30 days after notice is given to GSA of the proposed transfer.
</P>
<P>(d) Surplus property transferred pursuant to this part will be disposed on an “as is, where is” basis without warranty of any kind except as may be stated in the transfer document.
</P>
<P>(e) Unless excepted by GSA in its assignment, the disposal of property includes mineral rights associated with the surface estate.
</P>
<P>(f) Transfers of surplus property under this part will be made with the following general terms and conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) For the period provided in the transfer document, the transferee shall utilize all the surplus property it receives solely and continuously for the approved program and plan of use, in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 11411 and this part, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) The transferee has 12 months from the date of transfer to place the surplus property into use, if HHS did not approve in writing, construction of new facilities or major renovation of the property when it approved the final application;
</P>
<P>(ii) The transferee has 48 months from the date of transfer to place the surplus property into use, if the transferee proposes construction of new facilities or major renovation of the property and HHS approves it in writing at the time it approves the final application;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the applicable time limitation is not met, the transferee shall either commence payments in cash to the Federal Government for each month thereafter during which the proposed use has not been implemented or take such other action as set forth at § 12a.10 as is deemed appropriate by HHS. Such monthly payments shall be computed on the basis of the current fair market value of the property, as conveyed, at the time of the first payment and dividing it by 360 months. At HHS's discretion, the payment may be waived if the transferee makes a sufficient showing of continued progress to place the property into use or if an unforeseeable event occurs which prevents the property from being put into use within the applicable timeframe; and
</P>
<P>(iv) HHS may permit use of surplus property at any time during the period of restriction by an entity other than the transferee in accordance with § 12a.11.
</P>
<P>(2) The transferee will not be permitted to encumber, or dispose of the property, or impair full utilization thereof, without the prior written authorization of HHS. In the event the property is encumbered, sold, or disposed of, or is used for any purposes other than those set forth in an approved plan without the written consent of HHS, all revenues or the reasonable value of other benefits received by the transferee directly or indirectly from such use, as determined by HHS, will be considered to have been received and held in trust by the transferee for the account of the United States and will be subject to the direction and control of HHS. The provisions of this paragraph (f)(2) shall not impair or affect the rights reserved to the United States in paragraph (f)(8) of this section, or the right of HHS to impose conditions to its consent.
</P>
<P>(3) The transferee will file with HHS such reports on its maintenance and use of the transferred property and any other reports or information deemed necessary by HHS.
</P>
<P>(4) The transferee shall pay all administrative costs incidental to the transfer, including but not limited to—transfer taxes; surveys; appraisals; title searches; the transferee's legal fees; and recordation expenses. Transferee is solely responsible for such costs and may not seek reimbursement from the Federal Government for any reason.
</P>
<P>(5) The transferee shall protect, preserve, maintain, and repair the property to ensure that the property remains in as good a condition as when received.
</P>
<P>(6) The transferee shall protect the residual financial interest of the United States in the surplus property by insurance or such other means as HHS directs.
</P>
<P>(7) The transferee shall abide by all applicable Federal civil rights laws including those specified in the covenants and conditions contained in the transfer document, prohibiting the transferee from discriminating on the basis of, including but not limited to, race, color, national origin, religion, sex, familial status, or disability in the use of the property.
</P>
<P>(8) In the event of noncompliance with any conditions of the deed as determined by HHS, whether caused by the legal or other inability of the transferee, its successors and assigns, to perform any of the obligations of the transfer document, the Federal Government has an immediate right of reentry thereon, and to cause all right, title, and interest in and to the property to revert to the United States, and the transferee shall forfeit all right, title, and interest in and to the property. In such event, transferee shall execute a quitclaim deed and take all other actions necessary to return the property to the United States within ninety (90) days of a written request from the Federal Government, extended only at the discretion of the Federal Government. Transferee shall cooperate with the United States in the event of a reversion and agrees that the United States need not seek judicial intervention before exercising its right to revert, reenter, and reconvey the property.
</P>
<P>(9) In the event title is reverted to the United States for noncompliance or voluntarily reconveyed to the United States, the transferee shall, at the option of HHS, be required to: reimburse the United States for the decrease in value of the property not due to market conditions, reasonable wear and tear, acts of God, or approved alterations completed by the transferee to adapt the property to the homeless use for which the property was transferred; and reimburse the United States for any costs incurred in reverting title to or possession of the property, including reasonable attorneys' fees.
</P>
<P>(10) With respect to leased property, in the event of noncompliance with any of the conditions of the lease, as determined by HHS or the landholding agency, the right of occupancy and possession shall, at the option of HHS or the landholding agency, be terminated. In the event a leasehold is terminated by the United States for noncompliance or is voluntarily surrendered, the lessee shall be required, at the option of HHS, to reimburse the United States for the decrease in value of the property not due to market conditions, reasonable wear and tear, acts of God, or approved alterations completed by the lessee to adapt the property to the homeless use for which the property was leased. With respect to any termination of leasehold resulting from noncompliance, the United States, shall, in addition thereto, be reimbursed for such costs as may be incurred in recovering possession of the property, including reasonable attorneys' fees.
</P>
<P>(11) Any other term or condition that HHS and GSA determine appropriate or necessary.
</P>
<P>(12) With respect to surplus property transferred by deed, the terms and conditions including those in this paragraph (f), apply for a period of three hundred sixty (360) months of use in accordance with a program of use approved in writing by HHS. The three hundred sixty months (360) period may, in HHS's sole discretion, be extended or restarted in the event the property is not fully utilized or is retransferred to a successor entity. Expiration of the terms and conditions in this paragraph (f) does not release the transferee from continuing compliance, as appropriate, with any conditions that may run with the land, <I>e.g.,</I> environmental conditions and/or historic preservation covenants. Such conditions will continue to be the responsibility of the transferee and successors.
</P>
<P>(13) With respect to surplus property transferred by lease, the terms and conditions including those in this paragraph (f), extend for the entire initial lease and for any subsequent renewal periods, unless specifically excluded in writing by HHS.
</P>
<P>(g) Related personal property may be transferred or leased as a part of the realty and in accordance with real property procedures.
</P>
<P>(h) Transferees will be responsible for the protection and maintenance of the property during the time that they possess the property. Upon termination of the lease term or reversion of title to the United States, the transferee will be responsible for removing improvements made to the property if directed to by the United States and, in such event, will be responsible for restoration of the property or the costs associated with restoring the property. If improvements made by the transferee are not voluntarily removed by the transferee and the United States consents, they will become the property of the United States. If the United States does not consent, the transferee shall reimburse the United States for reasonable costs of removal. GSA or the landholding agency, as appropriate, will assume responsibility for protection and maintenance of a property when the lease terminates or title reverts.
</P>
<P>(i) Transferees, by obtaining the written consent of HHS, may abrogate the restrictions set forth in paragraph (f) of this section for all or any portion of the property in accordance with the provisions of § 12a.12.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.8   Compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 and other related Acts (environmental impact).</HEAD>
<P>(a) HHS, prior to making a final decision to convey or lease, or to amend, reform, or grant an approval or release with respect to a previous conveyance or lease of, surplus property for homeless purposes, will act in accordance with applicable provisions of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, the National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, the National Archeological Data Preservation Act, and other related acts. No lease to use surplus property shall allow the lessee to make, or cause to be made, any irreversible change in the conditions of said property, and no lease shall be employed for the purpose of delaying or avoiding compliance with the requirements of these Acts, unless approved by the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Applicants shall be required to provide such information as HHS deems necessary to make an assessment of the impact of the proposed Federal action on the human environment. Materials contained in the applicant's official request, responses to a standard questionnaire prescribed by HHS, as well as other relevant information, will be used by HHS in making said assessment.
</P>
<P>(c) If the assessment reveals:
</P>
<P>(1) That the proposed Federal action involved properties of historical significance which are listed, or eligible for listing, in the National Register of Historic Places; or
</P>
<P>(2) That a more than insignificant impact on the human environment is reasonably foreseeable as a result of the proposed action; or
</P>
<P>(3) That the proposed Federal action could result in irreparable loss or destruction of archeologically significant items or data, HHS will, except as provided for in paragraph (d) of this section, prepare and distribute, or cause to be prepared or distributed, such notices and statements and obtain such approvals as are required by the Acts cited in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) If a proposed action involves other Federal agencies in a sequence of actions, or a group of actions, directly related to each other because of their functional interdependence, HHS may enter into and support a lead agency agreement to designate a single lead agency which will assume primary responsibility for coordinating the assessment of environmental effects of proposed Federal actions, preparing and distributing such notices and statements, or obtaining such approvals, as are required by the Acts cited in paragraph (a) of this section. The procedures of the designated lead agency will be utilized in conducting the environmental assessment. In the event of disagreement between HHS and another Federal agency, HHS will reserve the right to abrogate the lead agency agreement with the other Federal agency.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.9   No applications approved.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the end of the 30-day holding period described in § 12a.4(a), HHS will notify GSA, or the landholding agency, as appropriate, if an expression of interest has been received for a certain property. Where there is no expression of interest, GSA or the landholding agency, as appropriate, will proceed with disposal in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon notice from HHS that all applications have been disapproved, or if no initial applications have been received within 75 days after an expression of interest, or no final application has been received within 45 days after an approved initial application, disposal may proceed in accordance with applicable law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.10   Utilization and enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sanctions.</I> For instances of noncompliance relating to surplus property transfers, HHS may impose, after providing an opportunity to cure to the transferee, any or all of the following sanctions in its sole discretion, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) Where property or any portion thereof was not used or is not being used for the purposes for which transferred, or is sold, leased or subleased, encumbered, disposed of, or used for purposes other than those in the approved program and plan of use, without the prior written consent of HHS, HHS may require the transferee to—
</P>
<P>(i) Place the property into immediate use for an approved purpose and extend the period of restriction in the transfer document for an additional term as determined by HHS;
</P>
<P>(ii) Hold in trust all revenues and the reasonable value of other benefits received by the transferee directly or indirectly from that use for the United States subject to the direction and control of HHS;
</P>
<P>(iii) Return title to such property to the United States or to relinquish any leasehold interest therein;
</P>
<P>(iv) Abrogate the conditions and restrictions of the transfer, as set forth in § 12a.12;
</P>
<P>(v) Make cash payments to the United States, as directed by HHS, equivalent to the current fair market rental value of the surplus property, as transferred, for each month during which the program and plan of use has not been implemented and continues to not be implemented; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other remedy that HHS determines appropriate or necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the transferee desires to place the property into temporary use to assist the homeless other than that for which the property was transferred, written approval from HHS must be obtained, and will be conditioned upon HHS's authority to permit the use and such terms as HHS may impose.
</P>
<P>(3) If HHS or the landholding agency determines that a lessee or sublessee of a transferee is in noncompliance with a term or condition of the lease, or if the lessee voluntarily surrenders the premises, HHS may require termination of the lease and impose sanctions described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reversion.</I> When HHS recommends reversion of the property for noncompliance, HHS will seek GSA's concurrence. GSA will respond to HHS's concurrence request within 30 days of its receipt. If GSA concurs, GSA will work with HHS to complete the reversion of the property. If GSA does not concur to the reversion recommendation, GSA will issue, to HHS, a written determination: stating the reason(s) for the disapproval; and acknowledging that HHS has recommended reversion and, therefore, the property is no longer within HHS's Title V program. The Federal Government will implement a response to the noncompliance that is in its best interests.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.11   Other uses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A transferee may permit the use of all or a portion of the surplus property by another eligible entity as described in § 12a.1 for homeless assistance purposes, only upon those terms and conditions HHS determines appropriate, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The transferee submits a written request to HHS explaining the purpose of and need for another eligible entity's use of the property, program plan, and other relevant information requested by HHS;
</P>
<P>(2) HHS determines that the proposed use would not substantially limit the program and plan of use by the transferee and that the use will not unduly burden the Federal Government;
</P>
<P>(3) HHS's written consent is obtained by the transferee in advance;
</P>
<P>(4) HHS approves the use instrument in advance and in writing;
</P>
<P>(5) The transferee agrees to lengthen the period of restrictions as determined by HHS; and
</P>
<P>(6) HHS advises GSA and there is no disapproval by GSA within thirty (30) days.
</P>
<P>(b) A transferee that does not follow paragraph (a) of this section will be deemed to be not in compliance with the terms and conditions of the Title V program and subject to enforcement action, including reversion of the property.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.12   Abrogation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HHS may abrogate the conditions and restrictions in the transfer document if:
</P>
<P>(1) The transferee submits to HHS a written request that HHS abrogate the conditions and restrictions in the transfer document as to all or any portion of the surplus property;
</P>
<P>(2) HHS determines the terms and conditions of the proposed abrogation and determines that the proposed abrogation is in the best interest of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(3) HHS transmits the abrogation request to GSA and there is no disapproval by GSA within 30 days after notice is given. If GSA disapproves, GSA will state, in writing, to HHS the reason(s) for the disapproval.
</P>
<P>(b) HHS abrogates the conditions and restrictions in the transfer document only upon receipt of the appropriate consideration, including cash payment, to the United States, as directed by HHS, which is based on the formula contained in the transfer document, and any other terms and conditions HHS deems appropriate to protect the interest of the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.13   Compliance inspections and reports.</HEAD>
<P>Transferees are required to allow HHS to conduct compliance inspections and to submit such compliance reports and actions as are deemed necessary by HHS. At a minimum, the transferee will be required to submit an annual utilization report regarding the operation and maintenance of the property, including current images of the entire property and such information as HHS shall require.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.14   No right of administrative review for agency decisions.</HEAD>
<P>There is no right to administrative review within HHS, including requests for reconsideration or appeal, of agency decisions on applications and other discretionary decisions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12a.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.12.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12a.15   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>Any provision of this part held to be invalid or unenforceable with respect to certain parties or circumstances shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law unless such holding is that the provision of this part is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which event the provision shall be severable from the remainder of this part and shall not affect the remainder thereof.










</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 13—IMPLEMENTATION OF THE EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT IN AGENCY PROCEEDINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 504(c)(1).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.1   Purpose of these rules.</HEAD>
<P>These rules implement section 203 of the Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504 and 504 note, for the Department of Health and Human Services. They describe the circumstances under which the Department may award attorney fees and certain other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who prevail over the Department in certain administrative proceedings (called “adversary adjudications”). The Department may reimburse parties for expenses incurred in adversary adjudications if the party prevails in the proceeding and if the Department's position in the proceeding was not substantially justified or if the action is one to enforce compliance with a statutory or regulatory requirement and the Department's demand is substantially in excess of the ultimate decision and is unreasonable when compared with that decision. They also describe what proceedings constitute adversary adjudications covered by the Act, what types of persons and entities may be eligible for an award, and what procedures and standards the Department will use to make a determination as to whether a party may receive an award. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2845, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.2   When these rules apply.</HEAD>
<P>These rules apply to adversary adjudications before the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2845, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.3   Proceedings covered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These rules apply only to adversary adjudications. For the purpose of these rules, only an adjudication required to be under 5 U.S.C. 554, in which the position of the Department or one of its components is represented by an attorney or other representative (“the agency's litigating party”) who enters an appearance and participates in the proceeding, constitutes an adversary adjudication. These rules do not apply to proceedings for the purpose of establishing or fixing a rate or for the purpose of granting, denying, or renewing a license. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the agency's litigating party enters an appearance, Department proceedings listed in appendix A to this part are covered by these rules. Also covered are any other proceedings under statutes that incorporate by reference the procedures of sections 1128(f), 1128A(c)(2), or 1842(j)(2) of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7(f), 1320a-7a(c)(2), or 1395u(j)(2). If a proceeding is not covered under either of the two previous sentences, a party may file a fee application as otherwise required by this part and may argue that the Act covers the proceeding. Any coverage issue shall be determined by the adjudicative officer and, if necessary, by the appellate authority on review.
</P>
<P>(c) If a proceeding is covered by these rules, but also involves issues excluded under paragraph (a) of this section from the coverage of these rules, reimbursement is available only for fees and expenses resulting from covered issues. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2845, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.4   Eligibility of applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for an award of attorney fees and other expenses under these regulations, the applicant must be a party, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(3), to the adversary adjudication for which it seeks an award. An applicant must show that it meets all conditions of eligibility set out in this subpart and in Subpart B. 
</P>
<P>(b) The categories of eligible applicants are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Charitable or other tax-exempt organizations described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(2) Cooperative associations as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(3) Individuals with a net worth of not more than $2 million;
</P>
<P>(4) Sole owners of unincorporated businesses if the owner has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interests, and if the business has not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(5) All other partnerships, corporations, associations, local governmental units, and public and private organizations with a net worth of not more than $7 million and with not more than 500 employees; and
</P>
<P>(6) Where an award is sought on the basis stated in § 13.5(c) of this part, small entities as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purpose of determining eligibility, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant is calculated as of the date the proceeding was initiated. The net worth of an applicant is determined by generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<P>(d) Whether an applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered as an “individual” or a “sole owner of an unincorporated business” will be determined by whether the applicant's participation in the proceeding is related primarily to individual interests or to business interests.
</P>
<P>(e) The employees of an applicant include all those persons regularly providing services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.
</P>
<P>(f) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. Any individual, corporation or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or any corporation or other entity of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, will be considered an affiliate for purposes of this part, unless the adjudicative officer determines that such treatment would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of the Act in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In addition, the adjudicative officer may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(g) An applicant is not eligible if it appears from the facts and circumstances that it has participated in the proceedings only or primarily on behalf of other persons or entities that are ineligible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2846, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.5   Standards for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An award of fees and expenses may be made either on the basis that the Department's position in the proceeding was not substantially justified or on the basis that, in a proceeding to enforce compliance with a statutory or regulatory requirement, the Department's demand substantially exceeded the ultimate decision and was unreasonable when compared with that decision. These two bases are explained in greater detail in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Awards where the Department's position was not substantially justified.</I> (1) Awards will be made on this basis only where the Department's position in the proceeding was not substantially justified. The Department's position includes, in addition to the position taken by the agency in the proceeding, the agency action or failure to act that was the basis for the proceeding. Whether the Department's position was substantially justified is to be determined on the basis of the administrative record as a whole. The fact that a party has prevailed in a proceeding does not create a presumption that the Department's position was not substantially justified. The burden of proof as to substantial justification is on the agency's litigating party, which may avoid an award by showing that its position was reasonable in law and fact.
</P>
<P>(2) When two or more matters are joined together for one hearing, each of which could have been heard separately (without regard to laws or rules fixing a jurisdictional minimum amount for claims), and an applicant has prevailed with respect to one or several of the matters, an eligible applicant may receive an award for expenses associated only with the matters on which it prevailed if the Department's position on those matters was not substantially justified.
</P>
<P>(3) Awards for fees and expenses incurred before the date on which a proceeding was initiated will be made only if the applicant can demonstrate that they were reasonably incurred in preparation for the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) Awards will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceeding or if other special circumstances make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Awards where the Department's demand was substantially excessive and unreasonable.</I> (1) Awards will be made on this basis only where the adversary adjudication arises from the Department's action to enforce a party's compliance with a statutory or regulatory requirement. An award may be made on this basis only if the Department's demand that led to the proceeding was substantially in excess of the ultimate decision in the proceeding, and that demand is unreasonable when compared with that decision, given all the facts and circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P>(2) Any award made on this basis shall be limited to the fees and expenses that are primarily related to defending against the excessive nature of the demand. An award shall not include fees and expenses that are primarily related to defending against the merits of charges, or fees and expenses that are primarily related to defending against the portion of the demand that was not excessive, to the extent that these fees and expenses are distinguishable from the fees and expenses primarily related to defending against the excessive nature of the demand.
</P>
<P>(3) Awards will be denied if the party has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or if special circumstances make an award unjust.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2846, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.6   Allowable fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Awards will be limited to the rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents and expert witnesses. If a party has already received, or is eligible to receive, reimbursement for any expenses under another statutory provision or another program allowing reimbursement, its award under these rules must be reduced by the amount the prevailing party has already received, or is eligible to receive, from the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(b) An award for the fees of an attorney or agent may not exceed $125.00 per hour, regardless of the actual rate charged by the attorney or agent. An award for the fees of an expert witness may not exceed the highest rate at which the Department pays expert witnesses, which is $24.09 per hour, regardless of the actual rates charged by the witness. These limits apply only to fees; an award may include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily charges separately for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fees sought for attorneys, agents or expert witnesses, the adjudicative officer must consider factors bearing on the request, which include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) If the attorney, agent or witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for like services; if the attorney, agent or witness is an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of service;
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily performs services;
</P>
<P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2846, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.7   Studies, exhibits, analyses, engineering reports, tests and projects.</HEAD>
<P>The reasonable cost (or the reasonable portion of the cost) for any study, exhibit, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matter prepared on behalf of a party may be awarded to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(a) The charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate payable for similar services,
</P>
<P>(b) The study or other matter was necessary to the preparation for the administrative proceeding, and
</P>
<P>(c) The study or other matter was prepared for use in connection with the administrative proceeding. No award will be made for a study or other matter which was necessary to satisfy statutory or regulatory requirements, or which would ordinarily be conducted as part of the party's business irrespective of the administrative proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Information Required from Applicants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.10   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications for an award of fees and expenses must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the applicant and the identification of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Where an award is sought on the basis stated in § 13.5(b) of this part, a declaration that the applicant believes it has prevailed, and an identification of the position of the Department that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified. Where an award is sought on the basis stated in § 13.5(c) of this part, an identification of the statutory or regulatory requirement that the applicant alleges the Department was seeking to enforce, and an identification of the Department's demand and of the document or documents containing that demand;
</P>
<P>(3) Unless the applicant is an individual, a statement of the number of its employees on the date on which the proceeding was initiated, and a brief description of the type and purpose of its organization or business. However, where an award is sought solely on the basis stated in § 13.5(c) of this part, the applicant need not state the number of its employees;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of any affiliated individuals or entities, as the term “affiliate” is defined in § 13.4(f), or a statement that none exist;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that the applicant's net worth as of the date on which the proceeding was initiated did not exceed the appropriate limits as stated in § 13.4(b) of this part. However, an applicant may omit this statement if:
</P>
<P>(i) It attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) or, in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualified under such section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) It states that it is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)); or
</P>
<P>(iii) It states that it is applying for an award solely on the basis stated in § 13.5(c) of this part, and that it is a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601, and it describes the basis for its belief that it qualifies as a small entity under that section.
</P>
<P>(6) A statement of the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought;
</P>
<P>(7) A declaration that the applicant has not received, has not applied for, and does not intend to apply for reimbursement of the cost of items listed in the Statement of Fees and Expenses under any other program or statute; or if the applicant has received or applied for or will receive or apply for reimbursement of those expenses under another program or statute, a statement of the amount of reimbursement received or applied for or intended to be applied for; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any other matters the applicant wishes the Department to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.
</P>
<P>(b) All applications must be signed by the applicant or by an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0990-0118)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2846, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.11   Net worth exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant and any affiliates (as defined in § 13.4(f) of this part) when the proceeding was initiated. This requirement does not apply to a qualified tax-exempt organization or cooperative association. Nor does it apply to a party that states that it is applying for an award solely on the basis stated in § 13.5(c) of this part. If any individual, corporation, or other entity directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or if the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest of any corporation or other entity, the exhibit must include a showing of the net worth of all such affiliates or of the applicant including the affiliates. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this part. The adjudicative officer may require an applicant to file additional information to determine its eligibility for an award. 
</P>
<P>(b) The net worth exhibit shall describe any transfers of assets from, or obligations incurred by, the applicant or any affiliate, occurring in the one year period prior to the date on which the proceeding was initiated, that reduced the net worth of the applicant and its affiliates below the applicable net worth ceiling. If there were no such transactions, the applicant shall so state.
</P>
<P>(c) Ordinarily, the net worth exhibit will be included in the public record of the proceeding. However, an applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of the exhibit and believes there are legal grounds for withholding it from disclosure may submit that portion of the exhibit directly to the adjudicative officer in a sealed envelope labeled “Confidential Financial Information,” accompanied by a motion to withhold the information from public disclosure. The motion shall describe the information sought to be withheld and explain, in detail, why it falls within one or more of the specific exemptions from mandatory disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(1)-(9), why public disclosure of the information would adversely affect the applicant, and why disclosure is not required in the public interest. The material in question shall be served on counsel representing the agency against which the applicant seeks an award, but need not be served on any other party to the proceeding. If the adjudicative officer finds that the information should not be withheld from disclosure, it shall be placed in the public record of the proceeding. Otherwise, the officer will omit the material from the public record. In that case, any decision regarding disclosure of the material (whether in response to a request from an agency or person outside the Department or on the Department's own initiative) will be made in accordance with applicable statutes and Department rules and procedures for commercial and financial records which the submitter claims are confidential or privileged. In particular, this regulation is not a basis for a promise or obligation of confidentiality.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0990-0118)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2846, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.12   Documentation of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All applicants must be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses, including the cost of any study, exhibit, analysis, report, test or other similar item, for which the applicant seeks reimbursement.
</P>
<P>(b) The documentation shall include an affidavit from each attorney, agent, or expert witness representing or appearing in behalf of the party, stating the actual time expended, the rate at which fees and other expenses were computed, a description of the specific services performed, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. Where the adversary adjudication includes covered proceedings (as described in § 13.3) as well as excluded proceedings, or two or more matters, each of which could have been heard separately, the fees and expenses shall be shown separately for each proceeding or matter, and the basis for allocating expenses among the proceedings or matters shall be indicated.
</P>
<P>(1) The affidavit shall itemize in detail the services performed by the date, number of hours per date and the services performed during those hours. In order to establish the hourly rate, the affidavit shall state the hourly rate which is billed and paid by the majority of clients during the relevant time periods.
</P>
<P>(2) If no hourly rate is paid by the majority of clients because, for instance, the attorney or agent represents most clients on a contingency basis, the attorney or agent shall provide affidavits from two attorneys or agents with similar experience, who perform similar work, stating the hourly rate which they bill and are paid by the majority of their clients during a comparable time period.
</P>
<P>(c) If the applicant seeks reimbursement of any expenses not covered by the affidavit described in paragraph (b), the documentation must also include an affidavit describing all such expenses and stating the amounts paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided.
</P>
<P>(d) The adjudicative officer may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any fees or expenses claimed, pursuant to § 13.25 of this part.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0990-0118)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2847, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Considering Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.21   Filing and service of pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>All pleadings, including applications for an award of fees, answers, comments, and other pleadings related to the applications, shall be filed in the same manner as other pleadings in the proceeding and served on all other parties and participants, except as provided in § 13.11(b) of this part concerning confidential financial information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.22   When an application may be filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant must file and serve its application no later than 30 calendar days after the Department's final disposition of the proceeding which makes the applicant a prevailing party. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this rule, final disposition means the date on which a decision or order disposing of the merits of the proceeding or any other complete resolution of the proceeding, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, becomes final and unappealable, both within the agency and to the courts.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this rule, an applicant has prevailed when the agency has made a final disposition favorable to the applicant with respect to any matter which could have been heard as a separate proceeding, regardless of whether it was joined with other matters for hearing. 
</P>
<P>(d) If review or reconsideration is sought or taken, whether within the agency or to the courts, of a decision as to which an applicant believes it has prevailed, proceedings on the application shall be stayed pending final disposition of the underlying controversy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2847, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.23   Responsive pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency's litigating party shall file an answer within 30 calendar days after service of the application or, where the proceeding is stayed as provided in § 13.22(d) of this part, within 30 calendar days after the final disposition of the underlying controversy. The answer shall either consent to the award or explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the agency's position. The adjudicative officer may for good cause grant an extension of time for filing an answer. 
</P>
<P>(b) Within 15 calendar days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant shall include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 13.25. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any party to or participant in a proceeding may file comments on an application within 30 calendar days, or on an answer within 15 calendar days after service of the application or answer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2847, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.24" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.24   Settlements.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and the agency's litigating party may agree on a proposed settlement of the award at any time prior to final action on the application. If the parties agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the application shall be filed with the proposed settlement. All settlements must be approved by the adjudicative officer and the head of the agency or office or his or her designee before becoming final.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.25" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.25   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ordinarily, a decision on an application will be made on the basis of the hearing record and pleadings related to the application. However, at the request of either the applicant or the agency's litigating party, or on his or her own initiative, the adjudicative officer may order further proceedings, including an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions, or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application, and shall be conducted as promptly as possible. In no such further proceeding shall evidence be introduced from outside the administrative record in order to prove that the Department's position was, or was not, substantially justified. 
</P>
<P>(b) A request that the adjudicative officer order additional written submissions or oral testimony shall identify the information sought and shall explain why the information is necessary to decide the issues. 
</P>
<P>(c) The adjudicative officer may impose sanctions on any party for failure to comply with his or her order to file pleadings, produce documents, or present witnesses for oral examination. These sanctions may include but are not limited to granting the application partly or completely, dismissing the application, and diminishing the award granted. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 45252, Oct. 4, 1983, as amended at 69 FR 2847, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.26" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.26   Decisions.</HEAD>
<P>The adjudicative officer shall issue an initial decision on the application as promptly as possible after the filing of the last document or conclusion of the hearing. The decision must include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and status as a prevailing party, including a finding on the net worth of the applicant. Where the adjudicative officer has determined under § 13.11(b) that the applicant's net worth information is exempted from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, the finding on net worth shall be kept confidential. The decision shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether the agency's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, an explanation of any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded, and whether any special circumstances make the award unjust.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.27" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.27   Agency review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appellate authority for any proceedings shall be the official or component that would have jurisdiction over an appeal of the merits. 
</P>
<P>(b) If either the applicant or the agency's litigating party seeks review of the adjudicative officer's decision on the fee application, it shall file and serve exceptions within 30 days after issuance of the initial decision. Within another 30 days after receipt of such exceptions, the opposing party, if it has not done so previously, may file its own exceptions to the adjudicative officer's decision. The appellate authority shall issue a final decision on the application as soon as possible or remand the application to the adjudicative officer for further proceedings. Any party that does not file and serve exceptions within the stated time limit loses the opportunity to do so.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2847, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.28" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.28   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Judicial review of final agency decisions on awards may be obtained as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.29" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.29   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>The notification to an applicant of a final decision that an award will be made shall contain the name and address of the appropriate Departmental finance office that will pay the award. An applicant seeking payment of an award shall submit to that finance officer a copy of the final decision granting the award, accompanied by a statement that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts. The Department will pay the amount awarded to the applicant within 60 days, unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication has been sought by the applicant or any other party to the proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.30   Designation of adjudicative officer.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the filing of an application pursuant to § 13.11(a), the officer who presided over the taking of evidence in the proceeding which gave rise to the application will, if available, be automatically designated as the adjudicative officer for the handling of the application. 



</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.13.5.1.1.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 13

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Proceedings covered 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Statutory authority 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applicable regulations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Office of Inspector General</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Proceedings to impose civil monetary penalties, assessments, or exclusions from Medicare and State health care programs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(c)(2); 1320b-10(c); 1395i-3(b)(3)(B)(ii), (g)(2)(A)(i); 1395<E T="03">l</E>(h)(5)(D), (i)(6); 1395m(a)(11)(A), (a)(18), (b)(5)(C), (j)(2)(A)(iii); 1395u(j)(2), (k), (<E T="03">l</E>)(3), (m)(3), (n)(3), (p)(3)(A); 1395y(b)(3)(C), (b)(6)(B); 1395cc(g); 1395dd(d)(1)(A), (B); 1395mm(i)(6)(B); 1395nn(g)(3), (4); 1395ss(d); 1395bbb(c)(1); 1396b(m)(5)(B); 1396r(b)(3)(B)(ii), (g)(2)(A)(i); 1396t(i)(3); 11131(c); 11137(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR part 1003; 42 CFR part 1005.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Appeals of exclusions from Medicare and State health care programs and/or other programs under the Social Security Act</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 1320a-7(f); 1395<E T="03">l</E>(h)(5)(D); 1395m(a)(11)(A), (b)(5)(C); 1395u(j)(2), (k), (<E T="03">l</E>)(3), (m)(3), (n)(3), (p)(3)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR part 1001; 42 CFR part 1005. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Appeal of exclusions from programs under the Social Security Act, for which services may be provided on the recommendation of a Peer Review Organization</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 1320c-5(b)(4), (5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR part 1004; 42 CFR part 1005. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Proceedings to impose civil penalties and assessments for false claims and statements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">31 U.S.C. 3803</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR part 79.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Proceedings to suspend or revoke licenses of clinical laboratories</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 263a(i); 1395w-2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR part 493, Subpart R. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Proceedings provided to a fiscal intermediary before assigning or reassigning Medicare providers to a different fiscal intermediary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 1395h(e)(1)-(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 421.114, 421.128. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Appeals of determinations that an institution or agency is not a Medicare provider of services, and appeals of terminations or nonrenewals of Medicare provider agreements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 1395cc(h); 1395dd(d)(1)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 489.53(d); 42 CFR part 498. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Proceedings before the Provider Reimbursement Review Board when Department employees appear as counsel for the intermediary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 1395oo</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR part 405, Subpart R. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Appeals of CMS determinations that an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded (ICFMR) no longer qualifies as an ICFMR for Medicaid purposes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 1396i</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR part 498. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Proceedings to impose civil monetary penalties, assessments, or exclusions from Medicare and State health care programs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(h)(2)(B)(ii); 1395<E T="03">l</E>(q)(2)(B)(i); 1395m(a)(11)(A), (c)(4)(C); 1395w-2(b)(2)(A); 1395w-4(g)(1), (g)(3)(B), (g)(4)(B)(ii); 1395nn(g)(5); 1395ss(a)(2), (p)(8), (p)(9)(C), (q)(5)(C), (r)(6)(A), (s)(3), (t)(2); 1395bbb(f)(2)(A); 1396r(h)(3)(C)(ii); 1396r-8(b)(3)(B), (C)(ii); 1396t(j)(2)(C); 1396u(h)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR part 1003. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Appeals of exclusions from Medicare and State health care programs and/or other programs under the Social Security Act</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 1395<E T="03">l</E>(q)(2)(B)(ii); 1395m(a)(11)(A), (c)(5)(C); 1395w-4(g)(1), (g)(3)(B), (g)(4)(B)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR part 498; 42 CFR 1001.107.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Food and Drug Administration</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Proceedings to withdraw approval of new drug applications</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21 U.S.C. 355(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21 CFR part 12; 21 CFR 314.200.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Proceedings to withdraw approval of new animal drug applications and medicated feed applications</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21 U.S.C. 360b(e), (m)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21 CFR part 12; 21 CFR part 514, Subpart B.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Proceedings to withdraw approval of medical device premarket approval applications</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21 U.S.C. 306e(e), (g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">21 CFR part 12.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Office for Civil Rights</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Proceedings to enforce Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color or national origin by recipients of Federal financial assistance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 2000d-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 80.9. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Proceedings to enforce section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, which prohibits discrimination on the basis of handicap by recipients of Federal financial assistance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">29 U.S.C. 794a; 42 U.S.C. 2000d-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 84.61. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Proceedings to enforce the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, which prohibits discrimination on the basis of age by recipients of Federal financial assistance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 6104(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 91.47. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Proceedings to enforce Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, which prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex in certain education programs by recipients of Federal financial assistance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 U.S.C. 1682</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 86.71.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2847, Jan. 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 15—UNIFORM RELOCATION ASSISTANCE AND REAL PROPERTY ACQUISITION FOR FEDERAL AND FEDERALLY ASSISTED PROGRAMS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 213, Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970, Pub. L. 91-646, 84 Stat. 1894 (42 U.S.C. 4633) as amended by the Surface Transportation and Uniform Relocation Assistance Act of 1987, Title IV of Pub. L. 100-17, 101 Stat. 246-256 (42 U.S.C. 4601 note). 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 15.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.14.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.1   Uniform relocation assistance and real property acquisition.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations and procedures for complying with the Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-646, 84 Stat. 1894, 42 U.S.C. 4601 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended by the Surface Transportation and Uniform Relocation Assistance Act of 1987 (Title IV of Pub. L. 100-17, 101 Stat. 246-256, 42 U.S.C. 4601 note) are set forth in 49 CFR part 24.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48026, Dec. 17, 1987 and 54 FR 8912, Mar. 2, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 16—PROCEDURES OF THE DEPARTMENTAL GRANT APPEALS BOARD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301 and secs. 1, 5, 6, and 7 of Reorganization Plan No. 1 of 1953, 18 FR 2053, 67 Stat. 631 and authorities cited in the Appendix.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 43817, Aug. 31, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 16.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.1   What this part does.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains requirements and procedures applicable to certain disputes arising under the HHS programs described in appendix A. This part is designed to provide a fair, impartial, quick and flexible process for appeal from written final decisions. This part supplements the provisions in 2 CFR parts 200 and 300.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 43817, Aug. 31, 1981, as amended at 81 FR 3012, Jan. 20, 2016; 89 FR 80070, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board</I> means the Departmental Grant Appeals Board of the Department of Health and Human Services. Reference below to an action of <I>the Board</I> means an action of the Chair, another Board member, or Board staff acting at the direction of a Board member. In certain instances, the provisions restrict action to particular Board personnel, such as the Chair or a Board member assigned to a case.
</P>
<P>(b) Other terms shall have the meaning set forth in 2 CFR parts 200 and 300, unless the context below otherwise requires.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 43817, Aug. 31, 1981, as amended at 81 FR 3012, Jan. 20, 2016; 89 FR 80070, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.3   When these procedures become available.</HEAD>
<P>Before the Board will take an appeal, three circumstances must be present:
</P>
<P>(a) The dispute must arise under a program which uses the Board for dispute resolution, and must meet any special conditions established for that program. An explanation is contained in appendix A.
</P>
<P>(b) The appellant must have received a final written decision, and must appeal that decision within 30 days after receiving it. Details of how final decisions are developed and issued, and what must be in them, are contained in 2 CFR 200.342.
</P>
<P>(c) The appellant must have exhausted any preliminary appeal process required by regulation. For example, see 42 CFR part 50 (subpart D) for Public Health Service programs. In such cases, the <I>final written decision</I> required for the Board's review is the decision resulting from the preliminary review or appeal process. appendix A contains further details.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 43817, Aug. 31, 1981, as amended at 62 FR 38218, July 17, 1997; 81 FR 3012, Jan. 20, 2016; 89 FR 80070, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.4   Summary of procedures below.</HEAD>
<P>The Board's basic process is review of a written record (which both parties are given ample opportunity to develop), consisting of relevant documents and statements submitted by both parties (see § 16.8). In addition, the Board may hold an informal conference (see § 16.10). The informal conference primarily involves questioning of the participants by a presiding Board member. Conferences may be conducted by telephone conference call. The written record review also may be supplemented by a hearing involving an opportunity for examining evidence and witnesses, cross-examination, and oral argument (see § 16.11). A hearing is more expensive and time-consuming than a determination on the written record alone or with an informal conference. Generally, therefore, the Board will schedule a hearing only if the Board determines that there are complex issues or material facts in dispute, or that the Board's review would otherwise be significantly enhanced by a hearing. Where the amount in dispute is $25,000 or less, there are special expedited procedures (see § 16.12 of this part). In all cases, the Board has the flexibility to modify procedures to ensure fairness, to avoid delay, and to accommodate the peculiar needs of a given case. The Board makes maximum feasible use of preliminary informal steps to refine issues and to encourage resolution by the parties. The Board also has the capability to provide mediation services (see § 16.18).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.5   How the Board operates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board's professional staff consists of a Chair (who is also a Board member) and full- and part-time Board members, all appointed by the Secretary; and a staff of employees and consultants who are attorneys or persons from other relevant disciplines, such as accounting.
</P>
<P>(b) The Chair will assign a Board member to have lead responsibility for each case (the “presiding Board member”). The presiding Board member will conduct the conference or hearing, if one is held. Each decision of the Board is issued by the presiding Board member and two other Board members.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board staff assists the presiding Board member, and may request information from the parties; conduct telephone conference calls to request information, to clarify issues, or to schedule events; and assist in developing decisions and other documents in a case.
</P>
<P>(d) The Chair will assure that no Board or staff member will participate in a case where his or her impartiality could reasonably be questioned.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board's powers and responsibilities are set forth in § 16.13.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.6   Who represents the parties.</HEAD>
<P>The appellant's notice of appeal, or the first subsequent submission to the Board, should specify the name, address and telephone number of the appellant's representative. In its first submission to the Board and the appellant, the respondent (i.e., the federal party to the appeal) should specify the name, address and telephone number of the respondent's representative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.7   The first steps in the appeal process: The notice of appeal and the Board's response.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As explained in 2 CFR 200.342, a prospective appellant must submit a notice of appeal to the Board within 30 days after receiving the final decision. The notice of appeal must include a copy of the final decision, a statement of the amount in dispute in the appeal, and a brief statement of why the decision is wrong.
</P>
<P>(b) Within ten days after receiving the notice of appeal, the Board will send an acknowledgment, enclose a copy of these procedures, and advise the appellant of the next steps. The Board will also send a copy of the notice of appeal, its attachments, and the Board's acknowledgment to the respondent. If the Board Chair has determined that the appeal does not meet the conditions of § 16.3 or if further information is needed to make this determination, the Board will notify the parties at this point.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 43817, Aug. 31, 1981, as amended at 81 FR 3012, Jan. 20, 2016; 89 FR 80070, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.8   The next step in the appeal process: Preparation of an appeal file and written argument.</HEAD>
<P>Except in expedited cases (generally those of $25,000 or less; see § 16.12 for details), the appellant and the respondent each participate in developing an appeal file for the Board to review. Each also submits written argument in support of its position. The responsibilities of each are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>The appellant's responsibility.</I> Within 30 days after receiving the acknowledgment of the appeal, the appellant shall submit the following to the Board (with a copy to the respondent):
</P>
<P>(1) An appeal file containing the documents supporting the claim, tabbed and organized chronologically and accompanied by an indexed list identifying each document. The appellant should include only those documents which are important to the Board's decision on the issues in the case.
</P>
<P>(2) A written statement of the appellant's argument concerning why the respondent's final decision is wrong (appellant's brief).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The respondent's responsibility.</I> Within 30 days after receiving the appellant's submission under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent shall submit the following to the Board (with a copy to the appellant):
</P>
<P>(1) A supplement to the appeal file containing any additional documents supporting the respondent's position, organized and indexed as indicated under paragraph (a) of this section. The respondent should avoid submitting duplicates of documents submitted by the appellant.
</P>
<P>(2) A written statement (respondent's brief) responding to the appellant's brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The appellant's reply.</I> Within 15 days after receiving the respondent's submission, the appellant may submit a short reply. The appellant should avoid repeating arguments already made.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cooperative efforts.</I> Whenever possible, the parties should try to develop a joint appeal file, agree to preparation of the file by one of them, agree to facts to eliminate the need for some documents, or agree that one party will submit documents identified by the other.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Voluminous documentation.</I> Where submission of all relevant documents would lead to a voluminous appeal file (for example where review of a disputed audit finding of inadequate documentation might involve thousands of receipts), the Board will consult with the parties about how to reduce the size of the file.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.9   How the Board will promote development of the record.</HEAD>
<P>The Board may, at the time it acknowledges an appeal or at any appropriate later point, request additional documents or information; request briefing on issues in the case; issue orders to show cause why a proposed finding or decision of the Board should not become final; hold preliminary conferences (generally by telephone) to establish schedules and refine issues; and take such other steps as the Board determines appropriate to develop a prompt, sound decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.10   Using a conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once the Board has reviewed the appeal file, the Board may, on its own or in response to a party's request, schedule an informal conference. The conference will be conducted by the presiding Board member. The purposes of the conference are to give the parties an opportunity to make an oral presentation and the Board an opportunity to clarify issues and question both parties about matters which the Board may not yet fully understand from the record.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Board has decided to hold a conference, the Board will consult or correspond with the parties to schedule the conference, identify issues, and discuss procedures. The Board will identify the persons who will be allowed to participate, along with the parties' representatives, in the conference. The parties can submit with their briefs under § 16.8 a list of persons who might participate with them, indicating how each person is involved in the matter. If the parties wish, they may also suggest questions or areas of inquiry which the Board may wish to pursue with each participant.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the parties and the Board otherwise agree, the following procedures apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Conferences will be recorded at Department expense. On request, a party will be sent one copy of the transcript. The presiding Board member will insure an orderly transcript by controlling the sequence and identification of speakers.
</P>
<P>(2) Only in exceptional circumstances will documents be received at a conference. Inquiry will focus on material in the appeal file. If a party finds that further documents should be in the record for the conference, the party should supplement the appeal file, submitting a supplementary index and copies of the documents to the Board and the other party not less than ten days prior to the conference.
</P>
<P>(3) Each party's representative may make an oral presentation. Generally, the only oral communications of other participants will consist of statements requested by the Board or responses to the Board's questions. The Board will allow reply comment, and may allow short closing statements. On request, the Board may allow the participants to question each other.
</P>
<P>(4) There will be no post-conference submissions, unless the Board determines they would be helpful to resolve the case. The Board may require or allow the parties to submit proposed findings and conclusions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.11   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electing a hearing.</I> If the appellant believes a hearing is appropriate, the appellant should specifically request one at the earliest possible time (in the notice of appeal or with the appeal file). The Board will approve a request (and may schedule a hearing on its own or in response to a later request) if it finds there are complex issues or material facts in dispute the resolution of which would be significantly aided by a hearing, or if the Board determines that its decisionmaking otherwise would be enhanced by oral presentations and arguments in an adversary, evidentiary hearing. The Board will also provide a hearing if otherwise required by law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preliminary conference before the hearing.</I> The Board generally will hold a prehearing conference (which may be conducted by telephone conference call) to consider any of the following: the possibility of settlement; simplifying and clarifying issues; stipulations and admissions; limitations on evidence and witnesses that will be presented at the hearing; scheduling the hearing; and any other matter that may aid in resolving the appeal. Normally, this conference will be conducted informally and off the record; however, the Board, after consulting with the parties, may reduce results of the conference to writing in a document which will be made part of the record, or may transcribe proceedings and make the transcript part of the record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where hearings are held.</I> Hearings generally are held in Washington, DC. In exceptional circumstances, the Board may hold the hearing at an HHS Regional Office or other convenient facility near the appellant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conduct of the hearing.</I> (1) The presiding Board member will conduct the hearing. Hearings will be as informal as reasonably possible, keeping in mind the need to establish an orderly record. The presiding Board member generally will admit evidence unless it is determined to be clearly irrelevant, immaterial or unduly repetitious, so the parties should avoid frequent objections to questions and documents. Both sides may make opening and closing statements, may present witnesses as agreed upon in the prehearing conference, and may cross-examine. Since the parties have ample opportunity to develop a complete appeal file, a party may introduce an exhibit at the hearing only after explaining to the satisfaction of the presiding Board member why the exhibit was not submitted earlier (for example, because the information was not available). 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may request the parties to submit written statements of witnesses to the Board and each other prior to the hearing so that the hearing will primarily be concerned with cross-examination and rebuttal.
</P>
<P>(3) False statements of a witness may be the basis for criminal prosecution under sections 287 and 1001 of Title 18 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P>(4) The hearing will be recorded at Department expense.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures after the hearing.</I> The Board will send one copy of the transcript to each party as soon as it is received by the Board. At the discretion of the Board, the parties may be required or allowed to submit post-hearing briefs or proposed findings and conclusions (the parties will be informed at the hearing). A party should note any major prejudicial transcript errors in an addendum to its post-hearing brief (or if no brief will be submitted, in a letter submitted within a time limit set by the Board).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.12   The expedited process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Where the amount in dispute is $25,000 or less, the Board will use these expedited procedures, unless the Board Chair determines otherwise under paragraph (b) of this section. If the Board and the parties agree, the Board may use these procedures in cases of more than $25,000.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> If there are unique or unusually complex issues involved, or other exceptional circumstances, the Board may use additional procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Regular expedited procedures.</I> (1) Within 30 days after receiving the Board's acknowledgment of the appeal (see § 16.7), each party shall submit to the Board and the other party any relevant background documents (organized as required under § 16.8), with a cover letter (generally not to exceed ten pages) containing any arguments the party wishes to make.
</P>
<P>(2) Promptly after receiving the parties' submissions, the presiding Board member will arrange a telephone conference call to receive the parties' oral comments in response to each other's submissions. After notice to the parties, the Board will record the call. The Board member will advise the parties whether any opportunities for further briefing, submissions or oral presentations will be established. Cooperative efforts will be encouraged (see § 16.8(d)).
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may require the parties to submit proposed findings and conclusions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special expedited procedures where there has already been review.</I> Some HHS components (for example, the Public Health Service) use a board or other relatively independent reviewing authority to conduct a formal preliminary review process which results in a written decision based on a record including documents or statements presented after reasonable notice and opportunity to present such material. In such cases, the following rules apply to appeals of $25,000 or less instead of those under paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Generally, the Board's review will be restricted to whether the decision of the preliminary review authority was clearly erroneous. But if the Board determines that the record is inadequate, or that the procedures under which the record was developed in a given instance were unfair, the Board will not be restricted this way.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 30 days after receiving the Board's acknowledgment of appeal (see § 16.7), the parties shall submit the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The appellant shall submit to the Board and the respondent a statement why the decision was clearly erroneous. Unless allowed by the Board after consultation with the respondent, the appellant shall not submit further documents.
</P>
<P>(ii) The respondent shall submit to the Board the record in the case. If the respondent has reason to believe that all materials in the record already are in the possession of the appellant, the respondent need only send the appellant a list of the materials submitted to the Board.
</P>
<P>(iii) The respondent may, if it wishes, submit a statement why the decision was not clearly erroneous.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board, in its discretion, may allow or require the parties to present further arguments or information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.13   Powers and responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to powers specified elsewhere in these procedures, Board members have the power to issue orders (including “show cause” orders); to examine witnesses; to take all steps necessary for the conduct of an orderly hearing; to rule on requests and motions, including motions to dismiss; to grant extensions of time for good reasons; to dismiss for failure to meet deadlines and other requirements; to close or suspend cases which are not ready for review; to order or assist the parties to submit relevant information; to remand a case for further action by the respondent; to waive or modify these procedures in a specific case with notice to the parties; to reconsider a Board decision where a party promptly alleges a clear error of fact or law; and to take any other action necessary to resolve disputes in accordance with the objectives of these procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.14   How Board review is limited.</HEAD>
<P>The Board shall be bound by all applicable laws and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.15   Failure to meet deadlines and other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Since one of the objectives of administrative dispute resolution is to provide a decision as fast as possible consistent with fairness, the Board will not allow parties to delay the process unduly. The Board may grant extensions of time, but only if the party gives a good reason for the delay.
</P>
<P>(b) If the appellant fails to meet any filing or procedural deadlines, appeal file or brief submission requirements, or other requirements established by the Board, the Board may dismiss the appeal, may issue an order requiring the party to show cause why the appeal should not be dismissed, or may take other action the Board considers appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) If the respondent fails to meet any such requirements, the Board may issue a decision based on the record submitted to that point or take such other measures as the Board considers appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.16   Parties to the appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The only parties to the appeal are the appellant and the respondent. If the Board determines that a third person is a real party in interest (for example, where the major impact of an audit disallowance would be on the grantee's contractor, not on the grantee), the Board may allow the third person to present the case on appeal for the appellant or to appear with a party in the case, after consultation with the parties and if the appellant does not object.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board may also allow other participation, in the manner and by the deadlines established by the Board, where the Board decides that the intervenor has a clearly identifiable and substantial interest in the outcome of the dispute, that participation would sharpen issues or otherwise be helpful in resolution of the dispute, and that participation would not result in substantial delay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.17" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.17   Ex parte communications (communications outside the record).</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party shall not communicate with a Board or staff member about matters involved in an appeal without notice to the other party. If such communication occurs, the Board will disclose it to the other party and make it part of the record after the other party has an opportunity to comment. Board members and staff shall not consider any information outside the record (see § 16.21 for what the record consists of) about matters involved in an appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) The above does not apply to the following: Communications among Board members and staff; communications concerning the Board's administrative functions or procedures; requests from the Board to a party for a document (although the material submitted in response also must be given to the other party); and material which the Board includes in the record after notice and an opportunity to comment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.18" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.18   Mediation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In cases pending before the Board.</I> If the Board decides that mediation would be useful to resolve a dispute, the Board, in consultation with the parties, may suggest use of mediation techniques and will provide or assist in selecting a mediator. The mediator may take any steps agreed upon by the parties to resolve the dispute or clarify issues. The results of mediation are not binding on the parties unless the parties so agree in writing. The Board will internally insulate the mediator from any Board or staff members assigned to handle the appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In other cases.</I> In any other grants dispute, the Board may, within the limitations of its resources, offer persons trained in mediation skills to aid in resolving the dispute. Mediation services will only be offered at the request, or with the concurrence, of a responsible federal program official in the program under which the dispute arises. The Board will insulate the mediator if any appeal subsequently arises from the dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.19" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.19   How to calculate deadlines.</HEAD>
<P>In counting days, include Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays; but if a due date would fall on a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday, then the due date is the next Federal working day. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.20   How to submit material to the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Submissions should be addressed to the Board's current mailing address: Department of Health and Human Services, Departmental Appeals Board, Appellate Division—MS 6127, 330 Independence Ave. SW., Cohen Building—Rm. G-644, Washington, DC 20201; however, submissions to the Board in certain types of cases may be made by electronic filing using DAB E-File at <I>https://dab.efile.hhs.gov.</I> Changes to the mailing address will be made available on the Board's Web site at <I>www.hhs.gov/dab/divisions/appellate.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) All submissions after the notice of appeal should identify the Board's docket number (the Board's acknowledgement under § 16.7 will specify the docket number).
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the Board otherwise specifies, parties shall submit to the Board an original and two copies of all materials. Each submission other than the notice of appeal, must include a statement that one copy of the materials has been sent to the other party, identifying when and to whom the copy was sent.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless hand delivered, all materials should be sent to the Board and the other party by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board considers material to be submitted on the date when it is postmarked or hand delivered to the Board. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 43817, Aug. 31, 1981, as amended at 81 FR 3012, Jan. 20, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.21   Record and decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each decision is issued by three Board members (see § 16.5(b)), who base their decision on a record consisting of the appeal file; other submissions of the parties; transcripts or other records of any meetings, conferences or hearings conducted by the Board; written statements resulting from conferences; evidence submitted at hearings; and orders and other documents issued by the Board. In addition, the Board may include other materials (such as evidence submitted in another appeal) after the parties are given notice and an opportunity to comment.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board will promptly notify the parties in writing of any disposition of a case and the basis for the disposition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.22   The effect of an appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Until the Board disposes of an appeal, the respondent shall take no action to implement the final decision appealed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The respondent may—
</P>
<P>(1) Suspend funding (see 2 CFR 200.339);
</P>
<P>(2) Defer or disallow other claims questioned for reasons also disputed in the pending appeal; 


</P>
<P>(3) In programs listed in appendix A, B.(a)(1), to this part implement a decision to disallow Federal financial participation claimed in expenditures reported on a statement of expenditures, by recovering, withholding or offsetting payments, if the decision is issued before the reported expenditures are included in the calculation of a subsequent grant;
</P>
<P>(4) Take other action to recover, withhold, or offset funds if specifically authorized by statute or regulation; or
</P>
<P>(5) Take action to require a State to suspend procedural disenrollments, as defined at 42 CFR 430.5, or continue the accrual of the civil money penalties a State owes under 42 CFR 430.49(c).




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 43817, Aug. 31, 1981, as amended at 81 FR 3012, Jan. 20, 2016; 88 FR 84737, Dec. 6, 2023; 89 FR 80070, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.23   How long an appeal takes.</HEAD>
<P>The Board has established general goals for its consideration of cases, as follows (measured from the point when the Board receives the first submission after the notice of appeal): 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>—For regular review based on a written record under § 16.8, 6 months. When a conference under § 16.10 is held, the goal remains at 6 months, unless a requirement for post-conference briefing in a particular case renders the goal unrealistic.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—For cases involving a hearing under § 16.11, 9 months.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—For the expedited process under § 16.12, 3 months.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>These are goals, not rigid requirements. The paramount concern of the Board is to take the time needed to review a record fairly and adequately in order to produce a sound decision. Furthermore, many factors are beyond the Board's direct control, such as unforeseen delays due to the parties' negotiations or requests for extensions, how many cases are filed, and Board resources. On the other hand, the parties may agree to steps which may shorten review by the Board; for example, by waiving the right to submit a brief, by agreeing to shorten submission schedules, or by electing the expedited process. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.15.0.1.24.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 16—What Disputes the Board Reviews
</HEAD>
<FP><I>A. What this appendix covers.</I>
</FP>
<P>This appendix describes programs which use the Board for dispute resolution, the types of disputes covered, and any conditions for Board review of final written decisions resulting from those disputes. Disputes under programs not specified in this appendix may be covered in a program regulation or in a memorandum of understanding between the Board and the head of the appropriate HHS operating component or other agency responsible for administering the program. If in doubt, call the Board. Even though a dispute may be covered here, the Board still may not be able to review it if the limits in paragraph F apply.
</P>
<FP><I>B. Mandatory grant programs.</I>
</FP>
<P>(a) The Board reviews the following types of final written decisions in disputes arising in HHS programs authorizing the award of mandatory grants:
</P>
<P>(1) Disallowances under Titles I, IV, VI, X, XIV, XVI(AABD), XIX, and XX of the Social Security Act, including penalty disallowances such as those under sections 403(g) and 1903(g) of the Act and fiscal disallowances based on quality control samples.
</P>
<P>(2) Disallowances in mandatory grant programs administered by the Public Health Service, including Title V of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P>(3) Disallowances in the programs under sections 113 and 132 of the Developmental Disabilities Act.
</P>
<P>(4) Disallowances under Title III of the Older American Act.
</P>
<P>(5) Decisions relating to repayment and withholding under block grant programs as provided in 45 CFR 96.52.
</P>
<P>(6) Decisions relating to repayment and withholding under State Legalization Impact Assistance Grants as provided in 45 CFR 402.24 and 402.25.


</P>
<P>(7) Decisions relating to suspensions of procedural disenrollments and civil money penalties under 42 CFR 430.49(c).






</P>
<P>(b) In some of these disputes, there is an option for review by the head of the granting agency prior to appeal to the Board. Where an appellant has requested review by the agency head first, the “final written decision” required by § 16.3 for purposes of Board review will generally be the agency head's decision affirming the disallowance. If the agency head declines to review the disallowance or if the appellant withdraws its request for review by the agency head, the original disallowance decision is the “final written decision.” In the latter cases, the 30-day period for submitting a notice of appeal begins with the date of receipt of the notice declining review or with the date of the withdrawal letter.
</P>
<FP><I>C. Direct, discretionary project programs.</I>
</FP>
<P>(a) The Board reviews the following types of final written decisions in disputes arising in any HHS program authorizing the award of direct, discretionary project grants or cooperative agreements:
</P>
<P>(1) A disallowance or other determination denying payment of an amount claimed under an award, or requiring return or set-off of funds already received. This does not apply to determinations of award amount or disposition of unobligated balances, or selection in the award document of an option for disposition of program-related income.
</P>
<P>(2) A termination for failure to comply with the terms of an award.
</P>
<P>(3) A denial of a noncompeting continuation award under the project period system of funding where the denial is for failure to comply with the terms of a previous award.
</P>
<P>(4) A voiding (a decision that an award is invalid because it was not authorized by statute or regulation or because it was fraudulently obtained).
</P>
<P>(b) Where an HHS component uses a preliminary appeal process (for example, the Public Health Service), the “final written decision” for purposes of Board review is the decision issued as a result of that process.
</P>
<FP><I>D. Cost allocation and rate disputes.</I>
</FP>
<P>The Board reviews final written decisions in disputes which may affect a number of HHS programs because they involve cost allocation plans or rate determinations. These include decisions related to cost allocation plans negotiated with State or local governments and negotiated rates such as indirect cost rates, fringe benefit rates, computer rates, research patient care rates, and other special rates. 
</P>
<FP><I>E. SSI agreement disputes.</I>
</FP>
<P>The Board reviews disputes in the Supplemental Security Income (SSI) program arising under agreements for Federal administration of State supplementary payments under section 1616 of the Social Security Act or mandatory minimum supplements under section 212 of Pub. L. 93-66. In these cases, the Board provides an opportunity to be heard and offer evidence at the Secretarial level of review as set out in the applicable agreements. Thus, the “final written decision” for purposes of Board review is that determination appealable to the Secretary under the agreement.
</P>
<FP><I>F. Where Board review is not available.</I>
</FP>
<P>The Board will not review a decision if a hearing under 5 U.S.C. 554 is required by statute, if the basis of the decision is a violation of applicable civil rights or nondiscrimination laws or regulations (for example, Title VI of the Civil Rights Act), or if some other hearing process is established pursuant to statute.
</P>
<FP><I>G. How the Board determines whether it will review a case.</I>
</FP>
<P>Under § 16.7, the Board Chair determines whether an appeal meets the requirements of this appendix. If the Chair finds that there is some question about this, the Board will request the written opinion of the HHS component which issued the decision. Unless the Chair determines that the opinion is clearly erroneous, the Board will be bound by the opinion. If the HHS component does not respond within a time set by the Chair, or cannot determine whether the Board clearly does or does not have jurisdiction, the Board will take the appeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 43817, Aug. 31, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 29492, July 6, 1982; 53 FR 7864, Mar. 10, 1988; 62 FR 38218, July 17, 1997; 88 FR 84737, Dec. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="17" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 17—RELEASE OF ADVERSE INFORMATION TO NEWS MEDIA
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 3, Jan. 2, 1976, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 17.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.16.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.1   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>Adverse information released by an agency means any statement or release by the Department or any principal operating component made to the news media inviting public attention to an action or a finding by the Department or principal operating component of the Department which may adversely affect persons or organizations identified therein. This part does not apply to nor is it affected by any disclosure of records to the public in response to requests made under the Freedom of Information Act (Pub. L. 90-23). The criteria for such disclosures are set forth in the Department's Public Information Regulation (45 CFR part 5). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.16.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.2   Basic policy.</HEAD>
<P>All adverse information release to news media shall be factual in content and accurate in description. Disparaging terminology not essential to the content and purpose of the publicity shall be avoided. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.16.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.3   Precautions to be taken.</HEAD>
<P>The issuing organization shall take reasonable precautions to assure that information released is accurate and that its release fulfills an authorized purpose. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.16.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.4   Regulatory investigations and trial-type proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Adverse information relating to regulatory investigations of specifically identified persons or organizations or to pending agency trial-type proceedings shall be released only in limited circumstances in accordance with the criteria outlined below: 
</P>
<P>(a) Where the Department or a principal operating component determines that there is a significant risk that the public health or safety may be impaired or substantial economic harm may occur unless the public is notified immediately, it may release information to news media as one of the means of notifying the affected public speedily and accurately. However, where the Department or principal operating component determines that public harm can be avoided by immediate discontinuance of an offending practice, a respondent shall be allowed an opportunity, where feasible, to cease the practice (pending a legal test) in lieu of release of adverse information by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where it is required in order to bring notice of pending agency adjudication to persons likely to desire to participate therein or likely to be affected by that or a related adjudication, the Department or principal operating component shall rely on the news media to the extent necessary to provide such notice even though it may be adverse to a respondent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.16.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.5   Context to be reflected.</HEAD>
<P>The authority for and the character of the information shall be made clear, where appropriate, the release shall explain the nature of any studies performed, the sources of relevant data, the areas in which administrative findings of fact were made, and whether the information is based on allegations subject to subsequent adjudication. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.16.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.6   Advance notice.</HEAD>
<P>Any respondent or prospective respondent in an agency proceeding shall, if practicable and consistent with the nature of the proceeding, be given advance notice of information to be released about the proceeding and a reasonable opportunity to prepare in advance a response to the information released. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 17.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.16.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 17.7   Retractions or corrections.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Assistant Secretary for Public Affairs finds that information released by the Department was misleading or a misstatement of fact and any person named therein requests a retraction or correction, the Department shall issue a retraction or correction in the same manner to all of the media outlets that received the original information (or as many of them as is feasible). Where information shown to be misleading or misstatement of fact has been released by a principal operating component of the Department and any person named therein requests a retraction or correction, the agency head shall issue a retraction or correction in the same manner to all of the media outlets that received the original information (or as many of them as is feasible). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="18" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 18—OFFICIAL SYMBOL, LOGO, AND SEAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 3505 and 5 U.S.C. 301.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 18.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.17.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 18.1   Description of the Symbol, Logo, and Seal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Departmental Symbol (Symbol) of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) is the key element in Department identification. It represents the American People sheltered in the wing of the American Eagle, suggesting the Department's concern and responsibility for the welfare of the people. This Symbol is the visual link which connects the graphic communications of all components and programs of the Department. It is the major design component for the Department Identifiers — the Department Logo, Seal, and Signatures.
</P>
<P>(b) The Symbol is described as follows: The outline of an American Eagle, facing left, with one of its wings stretched upward and the other wing pointed downward, is flanked on its right side by two outlines of the profile of a human head, both of which are located in between the eagle's wings. One of the profile outlines is smaller than the other and is nestled in the larger outline.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er13mr15.002.gif"/>
<P>(c) The HHS Departmental Logo (Logo) incorporates the Symbol and is described as follows: From the tip of the outstretched wing of the American Eagle in symbol to the tip of the other, downward-facing wing, the words, “DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH &amp; HUMAN SERVICES • USA” form a circular arc. The official colors of the Logo are either Black or Reflex Blue. Reflex Blue RGB Numbers: 0/0/153 (R0, G0, B153)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er13mr15.003.gif"/>
<P>(d) The HHS Departmental Seal (Seal) incorporates the Symbol and is described as follows: Starting from the tip of the downward-facing wing of the American Eagle in the HHS symbol and forming a complete circle clockwise around the HHS symbol, the words, “DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH &amp; HUMAN SERVICES • USA •” are printed, surrounded by a border composed of a solid inner ring at the base of the text and a triangular, scalloped edge at the top of the text. The official colors of the Seal are Reflex Blue and Gold [Reflex Blue RGB Numbers: 0/0/153 (R0, G0, B153); Reflex Gold RGB Numbers: 254/252/1 (R254, G252, B1)]. The Seal may also appear in Reflex Blue or Black.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er13mr15.004.gif"/>
<P>(e) The HHS Departmental symbol, logo, and seal shall each be referred to as an HHS emblem and shall collectively be referred to as HHS emblems.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 13252, Mar. 13, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 30—CLAIMS COLLECTION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3711(d).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 10409, Mar. 8, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.1   Purpose, authority, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes the standards and procedures for the Department's use in the administrative collection, offset, compromise, and suspension or termination of collection activity for claims for funds or property, as defined by 31 U.S.C. 3701(b) and this part. Covered activities include the collection of debts in any amount; the compromise and suspension or termination of collection activity of debts that do not exceed $100,000, or such higher amount as the Attorney General may prescribe, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs; and the referral of debts to the Department of the Treasury (Treasury), the Treasury-designated debt collection centers, or the Department of Justice (Justice) for collection by further administrative action or litigation, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> The Secretary is issuing the regulations in this part under the authority contained in 31 U.S.C. 3711(d). The standards and procedures prescribed in this part are authorized under the Federal Claims Collection Act, as amended, Public Law No. 89-508, 80 Stat. 308 (July 19, 1966), the Debt Collection Act of 1982, Public Law No. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749 (October 25, 1982), the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, Public Law No. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321, 1358 (April 26, 1996) and the Federal Claims Collection Standards at 31 CFR parts 900 through 904.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) The standards and procedures prescribed in this part apply to all officers and employees of the Department, including officers and employees of the various Operating Divisions and Regional Offices of the Department, charged with the collection and disposition of debts owed to the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) The standards and procedures set forth in this part will be applied except where specifically excluded herein or where a statute, regulation or contract prescribes different standards or procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) Regulations governing the use of certain debt collection procedures created under the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, including tax refund offset, administrative wage garnishment, and Federal salary offset, are contained in parts 31 through 33 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this part—
</P>
<P><I>Administrative offset</I> means withholding funds payable by the United States to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a debt.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means a department, agency, court, court administrative office, or instrumentality in the executive, judicial, or legislative branch of the Government, including Government corporations.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate official</I> means the Department official who, by statute or delegation of authority, determines the existence and amount of debt.
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means Monday through Friday. For purposes of computation, the last day of the period will be included unless it is a Federal holiday, in which case the next business day following the holiday will be considered the last day of the period.
</P>
<P><I>Claim</I> see the definition for the term “debt.” The terms “claim” and “debt” are synonymous and interchangeable.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor agency</I> means an agency to which a debt is owed, including a debt collection center acting on behalf of a creditor agency.
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means calendar day. For purposes of computation, the last day of the period will be included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday, in which case the next business day will be considered the last day of the period.
</P>
<P><I>Debt or claim</I> means an amount of funds or other property determined by an appropriate official of the Federal Government to be owed to the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency. For the purpose of administrative offset, the term includes an amount owed by an individual to a State, the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. Debts include, but are not limited to, amounts owed pursuant to: Loans insured or guaranteed by the United States; fees; leases; rents; royalties; services; sales of real or personal property; Federal salary overpayments; overpayments to program beneficiaries, contractors, providers, suppliers, and grantees; audit disallowance determinations; civil penalties and assessments; theft or loss; interest; fines and forfeitures (except those arising under the Uniform Code of Military Justice); and all other similar sources.
</P>
<P><I>Debt collection center</I> means the Department of the Treasury, or other Federal agency, subagency, unit, or division designated by the Secretary of the Treasury to collect debts owed to the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Debtor</I> means an individual, organization, association, partnership, corporation, or State or local government or subdivision indebted to the Government, or the person or entity with legal responsibility for assuming the debtor's obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Debts arising under the Social Security Act</I> are overpayments to, or contributions, reimbursements, penalties or assessments owed by, any entity, individual, or State under the Social Security Act. Such amounts include amounts owed to the Medicare program under section 1862(b) of the Social Security Act. Salary overpayments and other debts that result from the administration of the provisions of the Social Security Act are not deemed to “arise under” the Social Security Act for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent debt</I> means a debt which the debtor does not pay or otherwise resolve by the date specified in the initial demand for payment, or in an applicable written repayment agreement or other instrument, including a post-delinquency repayment agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services, and its Operating Divisions and Regional Offices.
</P>
<P><I>Disbursing official</I> means an officer or employee who has authority to disburse public money pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3321 or another law.
</P>
<P><I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of the debtor's current basic, special, incentive, retired, and retainer pay, or other authorized pay, remaining after deduction of amounts required by law to be withheld. For purposes of calculating disposable pay, legally required deductions that must be applied first include: Tax levies pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code (title 26, United States Code); properly withheld taxes, FICA, Medicare; health and life insurance premiums; and retirement contributions. Amounts deducted under garnishment orders, including child support garnishment orders, are not legally required deductions for calculating disposable pay.
</P>
<P><I>Evidence of service</I> means information retained by the Department indicating the nature of the document to which it pertains, the date of mailing of the document, and the address and name of the debtor to whom it is being sent. A copy of the dated and signed written notice provided to the debtor pursuant to this part may be considered evidence of service for purposes of this part. Evidence of service may be retained electronically so long as the manner of retention is sufficient for evidentiary purposes.
</P>
<P><I>FMS</I> means the Financial Management Service, a bureau of the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing</I> means a review of the documentary evidence to confirm the existence or amount of a debt or the terms of a repayment schedule. If the Secretary determines that the issues in dispute cannot be resolved by such a review, such as when the validity of the claim turns on the issue of credibility or veracity, the Secretary may provide an oral hearing. (See 45 CFR 33.6(c)(2) for oral hearing procedures that may be provided by the Secretary).
</P>
<P><I>IRS</I> means the Internal Revenue Service, a bureau of the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>Late charges</I> means interest, penalties, and administrative costs required or permitted to be assessed on delinquent debts.
</P>
<P><I>Legally enforceable</I> means that there has been a final agency determination that the debt, in the amount stated, is due and there are no legal bars to collection action.
</P>
<P><I>Local government</I> means a political subdivision, instrumentality, or authority of any State, the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or an Indian tribe, band or nation.
</P>
<P><I>Operating Division</I> means each separate component, agency, subagency, and unit within the Department of Health and Human Services, including, but not limited to, the Administration for Children and Families, the Administration on Aging, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, the Food and Drug Administration, the National Institutes of Health, Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, Indian Health Service, Health Resources and Services Administration, Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, and the Office of the Secretary.
</P>
<P><I>OPM</I> means the Office of Personnel Management.
</P>
<P><I>Payment authorizing agency</I> means an agency that transmits a voucher to a disbursing official for the disbursement of public money.
</P>
<P><I>Payments made under the Social Security Act</I> means payments by this Department or other agencies to beneficiaries, providers, intermediaries, physicians, suppliers, carriers, States, or other contractors or grantees under a Social Security Act program, including: Title I (Grants to States for Old-Age Assistance for the Aged); Title II (Federal Old-Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance Benefits); Title III (Grants to States for Unemployment Compensation Administration); Title IV (Grants to States for Aid and Services to Needy Families with Children and for Child-Welfare Services); Title V (Maternal and Child Health Services Block Grant); Title IX (Miscellaneous Provisions Relating to Employment Security); Title X (Grants to States for Aid to the Blind); Title XI, part B (Peer Review of the Utilization and Quality of Health Care Services); Title XII (Advances to State Unemployment Funds); Title XIV (Grants to States for Aid to Permanently and Totally Disabled); Title XVI (Grants to States for Aid to the Aged, Blind, and Disabled); Title XVII (Grants for Planning Comprehensive Action to Combat Mental Retardation); Title XVIII (Health Insurance for the Aged and Disabled); Title XIX (Grants to States for Medical Assistance Programs); Title XX (Block Grants to States for Social Services); and Title XXI (State Children's Health Insurance Program). Federal employee salaries and other payments made by the Department or other agencies in the course of administering the provisions of the Social Security Act are not deemed to be “payable under” the Social Security Act for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Private collection contractors</I> means private debt collection under contract with the Department to collect a nontax debt or claim owed to the Department. The term includes private debt collectors, collection agencies, and commercial attorneys.
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt owed by a Federal employee through deductions at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of the employee without his or her consent.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services, or the Secretary's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Taxpayer identification number</I> means the identifying number described under section 6109 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 6109). For an individual, the taxpayer identifying number is the individual's Social Security Number.
</P>
<P><I>Tax refund offset</I> means withholding or reducing a tax refund payment by an amount necessary to satisfy a debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.3   Antitrust, fraud, exception in the account of an accountable official, and interagency claims excluded.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims involving antitrust violations or fraud.</I> (1) The standards in this part relating to compromise, suspension, and termination of collection activity do not apply to any debt based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of antitrust laws, or to any debt involving fraud, presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any party having an interest in the claim, unless the Department of Justice returns a referred claim to the Department for further handling in accordance with parts 31 CFR 900 through 904 and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon identification of a debt suspected of involving an antitrust violation or fraud, a false claim, misrepresentation, or other criminal activity or misconduct, the Secretary shall refer the debt to the Office of the Inspector General for review.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon the determination of the Office of the Inspector General that a claim is based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of the antitrust laws, or involves fraud, the presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any party having an interest in the claim, the Secretary shall promptly refer the case to the Department of Justice for action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception in the account of an accountable official.</I> The standards in this part do not apply to compromise of an exception in the account of an accountable official.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interagency claims.</I> This part does not apply to claims between Federal agencies. The Department will attempt to resolve interagency claims by negotiation in accordance with EO 12146.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.4   Compromise, waiver, or disposition under other statutes not precluded.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part precludes the Department from disposing of any claim under statutes and implementing regulations other than subchapter II of chapter 37 of Title 31 of the United States Code and the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 31 CFR parts 900 through 904. Any statute and implementing regulation specifically applicable to the claims collection activities of the Department will take precedence over this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.5   Other administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>The remedies and sanctions available under this part for collecting debts are not intended to be exclusive. Nothing contained in this part precludes using any other administrative remedy which may be available for collecting debts owed to the Department, such as converting the method of payment under a grant from an advancement to a reimbursement method or revoking a grantee's letter-of-credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.6   Form of payment.</HEAD>
<P>Claims may be paid in the form of money or, when a contractual basis exists, the Department may demand the return of specific property or the performance of specific services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.7   Subdivision of claims.</HEAD>
<P>Debts may not be subdivided to avoid the monetary ceiling established by 31 U.S.C. 3711(a)(2). A debtor's liability arising from a particular transaction or contract shall be considered a single debt in determining whether the debt, exclusive of interest, penalties and administrative costs, does not exceed $100,000, or such higher amount as prescribed by the Attorney General for purposes of compromise, or suspension or termination of collection activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.8   Required administrative proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>This part does not supersede, or require omission or duplication of administrative proceedings required by contract, or other laws or regulations. See for example, 42 CFR part 50 (Public Health Service), 45 CFR part 16 (Departmental Grant Appeals Board), and 48 CFR part 33 (Federal Acquisition Regulation) and part 333 (HHS Acquisition Regulation).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.9   No private rights created.</HEAD>
<P>The standards in this part do not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by a party against the United States, the Department, its officers, or any other person, nor shall the failure of the Department to comply with any of the provisions of this part be available to any debtor as a defense.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Standards for the Administrative Collection of Debts</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.10   Collection activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Secretary shall aggressively and timely collect all debts arising out of activities of, or referred or transferred for collection actions to, the Department. Normally, an initial written demand for payment shall be made no later than 30 days after a determination by an appropriate official that a debt exists.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cooperation with other agencies.</I> The Department shall cooperate with other agencies in their debt collection activities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transfer of delinquent debts</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory transfer.</I> The Department shall transfer legally enforceable debts 180 days or more delinquent to Treasury in accordance with the requirements of 31 CFR 285.12. This requirement does not apply to any debt that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is in litigation or foreclosure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Will be disposed of under an approved asset sale program within one year of becoming eligible for sale;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has been referred to a private collection contractor for a period of time acceptable to the Secretary of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is at a debt collection center for a period of time acceptable to the Secretary of the Treasury (see paragraph (c)(2) of this section);
</P>
<P>(v) Will be collected under internal offset procedures within three years after the debt first became delinquent; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Is exempt from this requirement based on a determination by the Secretary of the Treasury that exemption for a certain class of debt is in the best interest of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permissive transfer.</I> The Secretary may refer debts less than 180 days delinquent, including debts referred to the Department by another agency, to the Treasury in accordance with the requirements of 31 CFR 285.12, or with the consent of the Treasury, to a Treasury-designated debt collection center to accomplish efficient, cost effective debt collection. Referrals to debt collection centers shall be at the discretion of, and for a time period acceptable to, the Secretary of the Treasury. Referrals may be for servicing, collection, compromise, suspension, or termination of collection action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.11   Demand for payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Written demand for payment.</I> (1) Written demand, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, shall be made promptly upon a debtor in terms that inform the debtor of the consequences of failing to cooperate with the Department to resolve the debt.
</P>
<P>(2) Normally, the demand letter will be sent no later than 30 days after the appropriate official determines that the debt exists. The demand letter shall be sent by first class mail to the debtor's last known address.
</P>
<P>(3) When necessary to protect the Government's interest, for example to prevent the running of a statute of limitations, the written demand for payment may be preceded by other appropriate action under this part, including immediate referral to Justice for litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Demand letters.</I> The specific content, timing, and number of demand letters shall depend upon the type and amount of the debt and the debtor's response, if any, to the Department's letters or telephone calls. Generally, one demand letter should suffice; however, more may be used.
</P>
<P>(1) The written demand for payment shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature and amount of the debt, including the basis for the indebtedness;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date by which payment should be made to avoid late charges and enforced collection, which generally shall be no later than 30 days from the date the demand letter is mailed;
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicable standards for imposing any interest, penalties, or administrative costs (see § 30.18);
</P>
<P>(iv) The rights, if any, the debtor may have to:
</P>
<P>(A) Seek review of the Department's determination of the debt, and for purposes of administrative wage garnishment or salary offset, to request a hearing (see 45 CFR parts 32 and 33); and
</P>
<P>(B) Enter into a reasonable repayment agreement.
</P>
<P>(v) An explanation of how the debtor may exercise any of the rights described in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) The name, address, and phone number of a contact person or office within the Department to address any debt-related matters; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The Department's remedies to enforce payment of the debt, which may include:
</P>
<P>(A) Garnishing the debtor's wages through administrative wage garnishment;
</P>
<P>(B) Offsetting any Federal payments due the debtor, including income tax refunds, salary, certain benefit payments such as Social Security, retirement, and travel reimbursements and advances;
</P>
<P>(C) Referring the debt to a private collection contractor;
</P>
<P>(D) Reporting the debt to a credit bureau or other automated database;
</P>
<P>(E) Referring the debt to Justice for litigation; and
</P>
<P>(F) Referring the debt to Treasury for any of the collection actions described in paragraphs (b)(1)(vii)(A) through (E) of this section, advising the debtor that such referral is mandatory if the debt is 180 or more days delinquent.
</P>
<P>(2) The written demand for payment should also include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The debtor's right to inspect and copy all records of the Department pertaining to the debt, or if the debtor or the debtor's representative cannot personally inspect the records, to request and receive copies of such records;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Department's willingness to discuss with the debtor alternative methods of payment;
</P>
<P>(iii) A debtor delinquent on a debt is ineligible for Government loans, loan guarantees, or loan insurance until the debtor resolves the debt;
</P>
<P>(iv) When seeking to collect statutory penalties, forfeiture or other similar types of claim, the debtor's licenses, permits, or other privileges may be suspended or revoked if failure to pay the debt is inexcusable or willful. Such suspension or revocation shall extend to programs or activities administered by the States on behalf of the Federal Government, to the extent that they affect the Federal Government's ability to collect money or funds owed by debtors;
</P>
<P>(v) Knowingly making false statements or bringing frivolous actions may subject the debtor to civil or criminal penalties under 31 U.S.C. 3729-3731, 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002, or any other applicable statutory authority, and, if the debtor is a Federal employee, to disciplinary action under 5 CFR part 752 or other applicable authority;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any amounts collected and ultimately found not to have been owed by the debtor will be refunded;
</P>
<P>(vii) For salary offset, up to 15% of the debtor's current disposable pay may be deducted every pay period until the debt is paid in full; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Dependent upon applicable statutory authority, the debtor may be entitled to consideration for a waiver.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary will retain evidence of service indicating the date of mailing of the demand letter. The evidence of service, which may include a certificate of service, may be retained electronically so long as the manner of retention is sufficient for evidentiary purposes.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to, during, or after the completion of the demand process, if the Secretary determines to pursue, or is required to pursue offset, the procedures applicable to offset should be followed (see § 30.12). The availability of funds for debt satisfaction by offset and the Secretary's determination to pursue collection by offset shall release the Secretary from the necessity of further compliance with paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Finding debtors.</I> The Secretary will use every reasonable effort to locate debtors, using such sources as telephone directories, city directories, postmasters, drivers license records, automobile title and license records in State and local government agencies, the IRS, credit reporting agencies and skip locator services. Referral of a confess-judgment note to the appropriate United States Attorney's Office for entry of judgment will not be delayed because the debtor cannot be located.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Communications from debtors.</I> The Secretary should respond promptly to communications from debtor, within 30 days where feasible, and should advise debtors who dispute debts to furnish available evidence to support their contentions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exception.</I> This section does not require duplication of any notice already contained in a written agreement, letter or other document signed by, or provided to, the debtor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.12   Administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) Administrative offset is the withholding of funds payable by the United States to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a debt.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Debts arising under the Social Security Act, except as provided in 42 U.S.C. 404;
</P>
<P>(ii) Payments made under the Social Security Act, except as provided for in 31 U.S.C. 3716(c), and implementing regulation at 31 CFR 285.4;
</P>
<P>(iii) Debts arising under, or payments made under, the Internal Revenue Code or the tariff laws of the United States;
</P>
<P>(iv) Offsets against Federal salaries to the extent these standards are inconsistent with regulations published to implement such offsets under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 U.S.C. 3716 (see 5 CFR part 550, subpart K; 31 CFR 285.7; and part 33 of this chapter);
</P>
<P>(v) Offsets under 31 U.S.C. 3728 against a judgment obtained by a debtor against the United States;
</P>
<P>(vi) Offsets or recoupments under common law, State law, or Federal statutes specifically prohibiting offsets or recoupments for particular types of debts; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Offsets in the course of judicial proceedings, including bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless otherwise provided for by contract or law, debts or payments that are not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(4) Unless otherwise provided by law, collection by administrative offset under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3716 may not be conducted more than 10 years after the Department's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Department's right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the Secretary. This limitation does not apply to debts reduced to judgment.
</P>
<P>(5) Where there is reason to believe that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, the Office of the General Counsel should be contacted for legal advice concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code, particularly 11 U.S.C. 106, 362 and 553, on pending or contemplated collections by offset.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Centralized administrative offset.</I> (1) Except as provided in the exceptions listed in § 30.10(c)(1), legally enforceable debts which are 180 days delinquent shall be referred to the Secretary of the Treasury for collection by centralized administrative offset pursuant to and in accordance with 31 CFR 901.3(b). Debts which are less than 180 days delinquent, including debts referred to the Department by another agency, also may be referred to the Secretary of the Treasury for collection by centralized administrative offset.
</P>
<P>(2) When referring delinquent debts to the Secretary of the Treasury for centralized administrative offset, the Department must certify, in a form acceptable to the Secretary of the Treasury, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The debt is past due and legally enforceable; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Department has complied with all due process requirements under 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) and paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Payments that are prohibited by law from being offset are exempt from centralized administrative offset. The Secretary of the Treasury shall exempt payments under means-tested programs from centralized administrative offset when requested in writing by the head of the payment certifying or authorizing agency. Also, the Secretary of the Treasury may exempt other classes of payments from centralized offset upon the written request of the head of the payment certifying or authorizing agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-centralized administrative offset.</I> (1) Unless otherwise prohibited by law, when centralized administrative offset under paragraph (b) of this section is not available or appropriate, the Secretary may collect a delinquent debt by conducting non-centralized administrative offset internally or in cooperation with the agency certifying or authorizing payments to the debtor.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, administrative offset may be initiated only after:
</P>
<P>(i) The debtor has been sent written notice of the type and amount of the debt, the intention of the Department to initiate administrative offset to collect the debt, and an explanation of the debtor's rights under 31 U.S.C. 3716; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The debtor has been given:
</P>
<P>(A) The opportunity to inspect and copy Department records related to the debt;
</P>
<P>(B) The opportunity for a review within the Department of the determination of indebtedness; and
</P>
<P>(C) The opportunity to make a written agreement to repay the debt.
</P>
<P>(3) The due process requirements under paragraph (c)(2) of this section may be omitted when:
</P>
<P>(i) Offset is in the nature of a recoupment, i.e., the debt and the payment to be offset arise out of the same transaction or occurrence;
</P>
<P>(ii) The debt arises under a contract as set forth in Cecile Industries, Inc. v. Cheney, 995 F.2d 1052 (Fed. Cir. 1993) (notice and other procedural protections set forth in 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) do not supplant or restrict established procedures for contractual offsets covered by the Contracts Disputes Act); or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of non-centralized administrative offset conducted under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Department first learns of the existence of the amount owed by the debtor when there is insufficient time before payment would be made to the debtor/payee to allow for prior notice and an opportunity for review. When prior notice and an opportunity for review are omitted, the Secretary shall give the debtor such notice and an opportunity for review as soon as practical and shall promptly refund any money ultimately found not to have been owed to the Government.
</P>
<P>(4) When the debtor previously has been given any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt, such as under § 30.11 of this part, the Department need not duplicate such notice and review opportunities before administrative offset may be initiated.
</P>
<P>(5) Before requesting that a payment authorizing agency to conduct non-centralized administrative offset, the Department shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide the debtor with due process as set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the payment authorizing agency written certification that the debtor owes the past due, legally enforceable delinquent debt in the amount stated, and that the Department has fully complied with this section.
</P>
<P>(6) When a creditor agency requests that the Department, as the payment authorizing agency, conduct non-centralized administrative offset, the Secretary shall comply with the request, unless the offset would not be in the best interest of the United States with respect to the program of the Department, or would otherwise be contrary to law. Appropriate use should be made of the cooperative efforts of other agencies in effecting collection by administrative offset, including salary offset.
</P>
<P>(7) When collecting multiple debts by non-centralized administrative offset, the Department will apply the recovered amounts to those debts in accordance with the best interests of the United States, as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case, particularly the applicable statute of limitations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requests to OPM to offset a debtor's anticipated or future benefit payments under the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund and the Federal Employee Retirement System.</I> Upon providing OPM written certification that a debtor has been afforded the procedures provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Department may request OPM to offset a debtor's anticipated or future benefit payments under the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (Fund) in accordance with 5 CFR part 831, subpart R, or under the Federal Employee Retirement System (FERS) in accordance with 5 CFR part 845, subpart D. Upon receipt of such a request, OPM will identify and “flag” a debtor's account in anticipation of the time when the debtor requests, or becomes eligible to receive, payments from the Fund or under FERS. This will satisfy any requirement that offset be initiated prior to the expiration of the time limitations referenced in 31 CFR 901.3(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Review requirements.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, whenever the Secretary is required to afford a debtor a review within the Department, the debtor shall be provided with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when the debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and the Secretary determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing, although the Department will carefully document all significant matters discussed at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) An oral hearing is not required with respect to debt collection systems where determinations of indebtedness rarely involve issues of credibility or veracity, and the Secretary has determined that a review of the written record is adequate to correct prior mistakes.
</P>
<P>(4) In those cases when an oral hearing is not required by this section, the Secretary shall accord the debtor a “paper hearing,” that is, a determination of the request for reconsideration based upon a review of the written record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.13   Debt reporting and use of credit reporting agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting delinquent debts.</I> (1) The Secretary will report delinquent debts over $100 to credit bureaus or other automated databases. Debts arising under the Social Security Act are excluded from paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(2) Debts owed by individuals will be reported to consumer reporting agencies pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(12).
</P>
<P>(3) Once a debt has been referred to Treasury for collection, any subsequent reporting to or updating of a credit bureau or other automated database may be handled by the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(4) Where there is reason to believe that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, the Office of the General Counsel should be contacted for legal advice concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code, particularly with respect to the applicability of the automatic stay, 11 U.S.C. 362, and the procedures for obtaining relief from such stay prior to proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If the debtor has not received prior written notice under § 30.11(b), before reporting a delinquent debt under this section, the Secretary shall provide the debtor at least 60 days written notice of the amount and nature of the debt; that the debt is delinquent and the Department intends to report the debt to a credit bureau (including the specific information that will be disclosed); that the debtor has the right to dispute the accuracy and validity of the information being disclosed; and, if a previous opportunity was not provided, that the debtor may request review within the Department of the debt or rescheduling of payment. The Secretary may disclose only the individual's name, address, and social security number and the nature, amount, status and history of the debt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of credit reporting agencies.</I> The Secretary may also use credit reporting agencies to obtain credit reports to evaluate the financial status of loan applicants, potential contractors and grantees; to determine a debtor's ability to repay a debt; and to locate debtors. In the case of an individual, the Secretary may disclose, as a routine use under 5 U.S.C 552a(b)(3), only the individual's name, address, and Social Security number and the purpose for which the information will be used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.14   Contracting with private collection contractors and with entities that locate and recover unclaimed assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the Secretary may contract with private collection contractors to recover delinquent debts, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary retains the authority to resolve disputes, compromise debts, suspend or terminate collection action, and refer debts to Justice for litigation;
</P>
<P>(2) The private collection contractor is not allowed to offer the debtor, as an incentive for payment, the opportunity to pay the debt less the private collection contractor's fee unless the Secretary has granted such authority prior to the offer;
</P>
<P>(3) The contract provides that the private collection contractor is subject to the Privacy Act of 1974 to the extent specified in 5 U.S.C. 552a(m), and to applicable Federal and State laws and regulations pertaining to debt collection practices, including but not limited to the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, 15 U.S.C. 1692; and
</P>
<P>(4) The private collection contractor is required to account for all amounts collected.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall use government-wide debt collection contracts to obtain debt collection services provided by private collection contractors. However, the Secretary may refer debts to private collection contractors pursuant to a contract between the Department and the private collection contractor only if such debts are not subject to the requirement to transfer debts to the Department of the Treasury for debt collection under 31 U.S.C. 3711(g) and 31 CFR 285.12(e).
</P>
<P>(c) Debts arising under the Social Security Act (which can be collected by private collection contractors only by Treasury after the debt has been referred to Treasury for collection) are excluded from this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary may fund private collection contractor contracts in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3718(d), or as otherwise permitted by law. A contract under paragraph (a) of this section may provide that the fee a private collection contractor charges the Department for collecting the debt is payable from the amounts collected.
</P>
<P>(e) The Department may enter into contracts for locating and recovering assets of the United States including unclaimed assets. However, before entering into a contract to recover assets of the United States that may be held by a State government or financial institution, the Department must establish procedures that are acceptable to the Secretary of Treasury.
</P>
<P>(f) The Secretary may enter into contracts for debtor asset and income search reports. In accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3718(d), such contracts may provide that the fee a contractor charges the Department for such services may be payable from the amounts recovered, unless otherwise prohibited by statute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.15   Suspension or revocation of eligibility for loans and loan guarantees, licenses, permits, or privileges.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Unless waived by the Secretary, financial assistance in the form of loans, loan guarantees, or loan insurance shall not be extended to any person delinquent on a non-tax debt owed to the United States. This prohibition does not apply to disaster loans. Grants, cooperative agreements, and contracts are not considered to be loans.
</P>
<P>(2) The authority to waive the application of this section may be delegated to the Chief Financial Officer and re-delegated only to the Deputy Chief Financial Officer.
</P>
<P>(3) States that manage Federal activities, pursuant to approval from the Secretary, should ensure that appropriate steps are taken to safeguard against issuing licenses, permits, or other privileges to debtors who fail to pay their debts to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will report to Treasury any surety that fails to honor its obligations under 31 U.S.C. 9305.
</P>
<P>(c) In non-bankruptcy cases, when seeking to collect statutory penalties, forfeitures, or other types of claims, the Secretary may suspend or revoke licenses, permits, or other privileges of a delinquent debtor if the failure to pay the debt is found to be inexcusable or willful. Such suspension or revocation will extend to programs or activities administered by the States on behalf of the Federal Government, to the extent that they affect the Federal Government's ability to collect money or funds owed by debtors.
</P>
<P>(d) Where there is reason to believe that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, before taking any action to suspend or revoke under paragraph (c) of this section, the Office of the General Counsel should be contacted for legal advice concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code, particularly 11 U.S.C. 362 and 525, which may restrict such action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.16   Liquidation of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The Secretary will liquidate security or collateral through the exercise of a power of sale in the security instrument or a non-judicial foreclosure, and apply the proceeds to the applicable debt(s), if the debtor fails to pay the debt(s) within a reasonable time after demand and if such action is in the best interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Collection from other sources, including liquidation of security or collateral, is not a prerequisite to requiring payment by a surety, insurer, or guarantor unless such action is expressly required by statute or contract.
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary will give the debtor reasonable notice of the sale and an accounting of any surplus proceeds and will comply with other requirements under law or contract.
</P>
<P>(b) Where there is reason to believe that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, the Office of the General Counsel should be contacted for legal advice concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code, particularly with respect to the applicability of the automatic stay, 11 U.S.C. 362, and the procedures for obtaining relief from such stay prior to proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.17" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.17   Collection in installments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever feasible, the total amount of a debt shall be collected in one lump sum payment. If a debtor is financially unable to pay a debt in one lump sum, either by funds or administrative offset, the Secretary may accept payment in regular installments. The Secretary will obtain financial statements from debtors who represent that they are unable to pay in one lump sum and independently verify such representations as described in § 30.22(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) When the Secretary agrees to accept payments in regular installments, a legally enforceable written agreement should be obtained from the debtor that specifies all the terms and conditions of the agreement, and that includes a provision accelerating the debt in the event of a default.
</P>
<P>(2) The size and frequency of the payments should reasonably relate to the size of the debt and the debtor's ability to pay. Whenever feasible, the installment agreement will provide for full payment of the debt, including interest and charges, in three years or less.
</P>
<P>(3) In appropriate cases, the agreement should include a provision identifying security obtained from the debtor for the deferred payments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.18" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.18   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this section, the Department shall charge interest, penalties, and administrative costs on delinquent debts owed to the United States. These charges shall continue to accrue until the debt is paid in full or otherwise resolved through compromise, termination, or waiver of the charges.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interest.</I> The Department shall charge interest on delinquent debts owed the United States as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Interest shall accrue from the date of delinquency, or as otherwise provided by law. For debts not paid by the date specified in the written demand for payment made under § 30.11, the date of delinquency is the date of mailing of the notice. The date of delinquency for an installment payment is the due date specified in the payment agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless a different rate is prescribed by statute, contract, or a repayment agreement, the rate of interest charged shall be the rate established annually by the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717. The Department may charge a higher rate if necessary to protect the rights of the United States and the Secretary has determined and documented a higher rate for delinquent debt is required to protect the Government's interests. Any such higher rate of interest charged will be based on Treasury's quarterly rate certification to the U.S. Public Health Service for delinquencies in the National Research Services Awards and the National Health Services Corps Scholarship Program. The Department publishes this rate in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> quarterly.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless prescribed by statute or contract, the rate of interest, as initially charged, shall remain fixed for the duration of the indebtedness. When a debtor defaults on a repayment agreement and seeks to enter into a new agreement, the Department may require payment of interest at a new rate that reflects the Treasury rate in effect at the time the new agreement is executed. Interest shall not be compounded, that is, interest shall not be charged on interest, penalties, or administrative costs required by this section, unless prescribed by statute or contract. If, however, the debtor defaults on a previous repayment agreement, charges that accrued but were not collected under the defaulted agreement shall be added to the principal under the new repayment agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administrative costs.</I> The Department shall assess administrative costs incurred for processing and handling delinquent debts. The calculation of administrative costs should be based on actual costs incurred or a valid estimate of the actual costs. Calculation of administrative costs shall include all direct (personnel, supplies, etc.) and indirect collection costs, including the cost of providing a hearing or any other form of administrative review requested by a debtor, and any costs charged by a collection agency under § 30.14. These charges will be assessed monthly, or per payment period, throughout the period that the debt is overdue. Such costs may also be in addition to other administrative costs if collection is being made for another Federal agency or unit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Penalty.</I> Unless otherwise established by contract, repayment agreement, or statute, the Secretary will charge a penalty of six percent a year on the amount due on a debt that is delinquent for more than 90 days. This charge shall accrue from the date of delinquency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Cost of living adjustment.</I> When there is a legitimate reason to do so, such as when calculating interest and penalties on a debt would be extremely difficult because of the age of the debt, an administrative debt may be increased by the cost of living adjustment in lieu of charging interest and penalties under this section. Administrative debt includes, but is not limited to, a debt based on fines, penalties, and overpayments, but does not include a debt based on the extension of Government credit, such as those arising from loans and loan guaranties. The cost of living adjustment is the percentage by which the Consumer Price Index for the month of June of the calendar year preceding the adjustment exceeds the Consumer Price Index for the month of June of the calendar year in which the debt was determined or last adjusted. Such increases to administrative debts shall be computed annually.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Priority.</I> When a debt is paid in partial or installment payments, amounts received shall be applied first to outstanding penalties, second to administrative charges, third to interest, and last to principal.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Waiver.</I> (1) The Secretary shall waive the collection of interest and administrative charges imposed pursuant to this section on the portion of the debt that is paid within 30 days after the date on which interest began to accrue. The Secretary may extend this 30-day period on a case-by-case basis if the Secretary determines that such action is in the best interest of the Government, or otherwise warranted by equity and good conscience.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary also may waive interest, penalties, and administrative charges charged under this section, in whole or in part, without regard to the amount of the debt, based on:
</P>
<P>(i) The criteria set forth at § 30.22(a)(1) through (4) for the compromise of debts; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A determination by the Secretary that collection of these charges is:
</P>
<P>(A) Against equity and good conscience; or
</P>
<P>(B) Not in the best interest of the United States.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Review.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, administrative review of a debt will not suspend the assessment of interest, penalties, and administrative costs. While agency review of a debt is pending, the debtor either may pay the debt or be liable for interest and related charges on the uncollected debt. When agency review results in a final determination that any amount was properly a debt and the debtor chose to retain the amount in dispute, the Secretary shall collect from the debtor the amount determined to be due, plus interest, penalties and administrative costs on such debt amount, as calculated under this section, starting from the date the debtor was first made aware of the debt and ending when the debt is repaid.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> Interest, penalties, and administrative cost charges will not be imposed on a debt for periods during which collection activity has been suspended under § 30.29(c)(1) pending agency review or consideration of waiver if statute prohibits collection of the debt during this period.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Common law or other statutory authority.</I> The Department may impose and waive interest and related charges on debts not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717 in accordance with the common law or other statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.19" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.19   Review of cost effectiveness of collection.</HEAD>
<P>Periodically, the Secretary will compare costs incurred and amounts collected. Data on costs and corresponding recovery rates for debts of different types and in various dollar ranges will be used to compare the cost effectiveness of alternative collection techniques, establish guidelines with respect to points at which costs of further collection efforts are likely to exceed recoveries, assist in evaluating offers in compromise, and establish minimum debt amounts below which collection efforts need not be taken.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.20   Taxpayer information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When attempting to locate a debtor in order to collect or compromise a debt under this part or any other authority, the Secretary may send a request to Treasury in accordance with 31 CFR 901.11 to obtain a debtor's mailing address from the records of the IRS.
</P>
<P>(b) Mailing addresses obtained under paragraph (a) of this section may be used to enforce collection of a delinquent debt and may be disclosed to other agencies and to collection agencies for collection purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Debt Compromise</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.21   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The standards set forth in this subpart apply to the compromise of debts pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3711. The Secretary may exercise such compromise authority for debts arising out of activities of, or referred or transferred for collection services to, the Department when the amount of the debt then due, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, does not exceed $100,000, or any higher amount authorized by the Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> Unless otherwise provided by law, when the principal balance of a debt, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, exceeds $100,000 or any higher amount authorized by the Attorney General, the authority to accept a compromise rests with Justice. The Secretary shall evaluate the compromise offer, using the factors set forth in this subpart. If an offer to compromise any debt in excess of $100,000 is acceptable to the Department, the Secretary shall refer the debt to the Civil Division or other appropriate litigating division in Justice using a Claims Collection Litigation Report (CCLR), which may be obtained from Justice's National Central Intake Facility. The referral shall include appropriate financial information and a recommendation for the acceptance of the compromise offer. Justice approval is not required if the Secretary rejects a compromise offer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.22   Bases for compromise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Compromise.</I> The Secretary may compromise a debt if the full amount cannot be collected based upon inability to pay, inability to collect the full debt, cost of collection, or doubt debt can be proven in court.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Inability to pay.</I> The debtor is unable to pay the full amount in a reasonable time, as verified through credit reports or other financial information. In determining a debtor's inability to pay the full amount of the debt within a reasonable time, the Secretary will obtain and verify the debtor's claim of inability to pay by using credit reports or a current financial Statement from the debtor, executed under penalty of perjury, showing the debtor's assets, liabilities, income, and expenses. The Secretary may use a Departmental financial information form or may request suitable forms from Justice or the local United States Attorney's Office. The Secretary also may consider other relevant factors such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Age and health of the debtor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Present and potential income;
</P>
<P>(iii) Inheritance prospects;
</P>
<P>(iv) The possibility that assets have been concealed or improperly transferred by the debtor; and
</P>
<P>(v) The availability of assets or income that may be realized by enforced collection proceedings.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inability to collect full debt.</I> The Government is unable to collect the debt in full within a reasonable time by enforced collection proceedings.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining the Government's ability to enforce collection, the Secretary will consider the applicable exemptions available to the debtor under State and Federal law, and may also consider uncertainty as to the price the collateral or other property will bring at a forced sale.
</P>
<P>(ii) A compromise effected under this section should be for an amount that bears a reasonable relation to the amount that can be recovered by enforced collection procedures, with regard to the exemptions available to the debtor and the time that collection will take.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cost of collection.</I> The cost of collecting the debt does not justify the enforced collection of the full amount.
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary may compromise a debt if the cost of collecting the debt does not justify the enforced collection of the full amount. The amount accepted in compromise of such cases may reflect an appropriate discount for the administrative and litigation costs of collection, with consideration given to the time it will take to effect collection. Collection costs may be a substantial factor in the settlement of small debts.
</P>
<P>(ii) In determining whether the costs of collection justify enforced collection of the full amount, the Secretary will consider whether continued collection of the debt, regardless of cost, is necessary to further an enforcement principal, such as the Government's willingness to pursue aggressively defaulting and uncooperative debtors.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Doubt debt can be proven in court.</I> There is significant doubt concerning the Government's ability to prove its case in court.
</P>
<P>(i) If there is significant doubt concerning the Government's ability to prove its case in court for the full amount claimed, either because of the legal issues involved or because of a bona fide dispute as to the facts, then the amount accepted in compromise of such cases should fairly reflect the probabilities of successful prosecution to judgment, with due regard to the availability of witnesses and other evidentiary support for the Government's claim.
</P>
<P>(ii) In determining the litigation risks involved, the Secretary will consider the probable amount of court costs and attorney fees pursuant to the Equal Access to Justice Act, 28 U.S.C. 2412, that may be imposed against the Government if it is unsuccessful in litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Installments.</I> The Secretary generally will not accept compromises payable in installments. This is not an advantageous form of compromise in terms of time and administrative expense. If, however, payment of a compromise in installments is necessary, the Secretary shall, except in the case of compromises based on paragraph (a)(4) of this section, obtain a legally enforceable written agreement providing that, in the event of default, the full original principal balance of the debt prior to compromise, less sums paid thereon, is reinstated. The Office of the General Counsel should be consulted concerning the appropriateness of including such a requirement in the case of compromises based on paragraph (a)(4) of this section. Whenever possible, the Secretary will obtain security for repayment in the manner set forth in subpart B of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.23   Enforcement policy.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may compromise statutory penalties, forfeitures, or claims established as an aid to enforcement and to compel compliance if the Department's enforcement policy, in terms of deterrence and securing compliance, present and future, will be adequately served by the Secretary's acceptance of the sum to be agreed upon.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.24" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.24   Joint and several liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When two or more debtors are jointly and severally liable, the Secretary will pursue collection against all debtors, as appropriate. The Secretary will not attempt to allocate the burden of payment between the debtors but will proceed to liquidate the indebtedness as quickly as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will ensure that a compromise agreement with one debtor does not automatically release the Department's claim against the remaining debtor(s). The amount of a compromise with one debtor shall not be considered a precedent or binding in determining the amount that will be required from other debtors jointly and severally liable on the claim.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.25" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.25   Further review of compromise offers.</HEAD>
<P>If the Secretary is uncertain whether to accept a firm, written, substantive compromise offer on a debt that is within the Secretary's delegated compromise authority, the Secretary may refer the offer to the Civil Division or other appropriate litigating division in Justice, using a CCLR accompanied by supporting data and particulars concerning the debt. Justice may act upon such an offer or return it to the Secretary with instructions or advice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.26" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.26   Consideration of tax consequences to the Government.</HEAD>
<P>In negotiating a compromise, the Secretary will consider the tax consequences to the Government. In particular, the Secretary will consider requiring a waiver of tax-loss-carry-forward and tax-loss-carry-back rights of the debtor. For information on discharge of indebtedness reporting requirements see § 30.32.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.27" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.27   Mutual release of the debtor and the Government.</HEAD>
<P>In all appropriate instances, a compromise that is accepted by the Secretary will be implemented by means of a mutual release. The terms of such mutual release shall provide that the debtor is released from further non-tax liability on the compromised debt in consideration of payment in full of the compromise amount and the Government and its officials, past and present, are released and discharged from any and all claims and causes of action arising from the same transaction that the debtor may have. In the event a mutual release is not executed when a debt is compromised, unless prohibited by law, the debtor is still deemed to have waived any and all claims and causes of action against the Government and its officials related to the transaction giving rise to the compromised debt.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Suspending and Terminating Collection Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.28" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.28   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The standards set forth in this subpart apply to the suspension or termination of collection activity pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3711 on debts that do not exceed $100,000, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, after deducting the amount of partial payments or collections, if any. Prior to referring a debt to Justice for litigation, the Secretary may suspend or terminate collection under this subpart with respect to debts arising out of activities of, or referred or transferred for collection services to, the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> (1) If, after deducting the amount of partial payments or collections, the principal amount of the debt exceeds $100,000, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, the authority to suspend or terminate rests solely with Justice.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Secretary believes that suspension or termination of any debt in excess of $100,000 may be appropriate, the Secretary shall refer the debt to the Civil Division or other appropriate litigating division in Justice, using the CCLR. The referral will specify the reasons for the Secretary's recommendation. If, prior to referral to Justice, the Secretary determines that a debt is plainly erroneous or clearly without merit, the Secretary may terminate collection activity regardless of the amount involved without obtaining Justice concurrence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.29" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.29   Suspension of collection activity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> The Secretary may suspend collection activity on a debt when:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department cannot locate the debtor;
</P>
<P>(2) The debtor's financial condition is expected to improve; or
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor has requested a waiver or review of the debt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial condition.</I> Based on the current financial condition of a debtor, the Secretary may suspend collection activity on a debt when the debtor's future prospects justify retention of the debt for periodic review and collection activity, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicable statute of limitations has not expired;
</P>
<P>(2) Future collection can be effected by administrative offset, notwithstanding the expiration of the applicable statute of limitations for litigation of claims, with due regard to the 10-year limitation for administrative offset prescribed by 31 U.S.C. 3716(e)(1); or
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor agrees to pay interest on the amount of the debt on which collection will be suspended, and such suspension is likely to enhance the debtor's ability to pay the full amount of the principal of the debt with interest at a later date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver or review.</I> (1) The Secretary shall suspend collection activity during the time required for consideration of the debtor's request for waiver or administrative review of the debt if the statute under which the request is sought prohibits the Secretary from collecting the debt during that time.
</P>
<P>(2) If the statute under which the waiver or administrative review request is sought does not prohibit collection activity pending consideration of the request, the Secretary may use discretion, on a case-by-case basis, to suspend collection. Collection action ordinarily will be suspended upon a request for waiver or review if the Secretary is prohibited by statute or regulation from issuing a refund of amounts collected prior to agency consideration of the debtor's request. However, collection will not be suspended when the Secretary determines that the request for waiver or review is frivolous or was made primarily to delay collection.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bankruptcy.</I> Upon learning that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, in most cases the Secretary must suspend collection activity on the debt, pursuant to the provisions of 11 U.S.C. 362, 1201, and 1301, unless the Secretary can clearly establish that the automatic stay has been lifted or is no longer in effect. The Office of the General Counsel should be contacted immediately for legal advice, and the Secretary will take the necessary legal steps to ensure that no funds or money are paid by the Department to the debtor until relief from the automatic stay is obtained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.30   Termination of collection activity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may terminate collection activity when:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department is unable to collect any substantial amount through its own efforts or through the efforts of others;
</P>
<P>(2) The Department is unable to locate the debtor;
</P>
<P>(3) Costs of collection are anticipated to exceed the amount recoverable;
</P>
<P>(4) The debt is legally without merit or enforcement of the debt is barred by any applicable statute of limitations;
</P>
<P>(5) The debt cannot be substantiated; or
</P>
<P>(6) The debt against the debtor has been discharged in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Collection activity will not be terminated before the Secretary has pursued all appropriate means of collection and determined, based upon the results of the collection activity, that the debt is uncollectible.
</P>
<P>(2) Termination of collection activity ceases active collection of the debt. The termination of collection activity does not preclude the Secretary from retaining a record of the account for purposes of:
</P>
<P>(i) Selling the debt, if the Secretary of the Treasury determines that such sale is in the best interest of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuing collection at a subsequent date in the event there is a change in the debtor's status or a new collection tool becomes available;
</P>
<P>(iii) Offsetting against future income or assets not available at the time of termination of collection activity; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Screening future applicants for prior indebtedness.
</P>
<P>(c) Generally, the Secretary shall terminate collection activity on a debt that has been discharged in bankruptcy, regardless of the amount. The Secretary may continue collection activity, however, subject to the provisions of the Bankruptcy Code, for any payments provided under a plan of reorganization. Offset and recoupment rights may survive the discharge of the debtor in bankruptcy and, under some circumstances, claims also may survive the discharge. For example, when the Department is a known creditor of a debtor the claims of the Department may survive a discharge if the Department did not receive formal notice of the bankruptcy proceedings. When the Department believes that it has claims or offsets that may have survived the discharge of the debtor, the Office of the General Counsel should be contacted for legal advice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.31   Exception to termination.</HEAD>
<P>When a significant enforcement policy is involved, or recovery of a judgment is a prerequisite to the imposition of administrative sanctions, the Secretary may refer debts to Justice for litigation even though termination of collection activity may otherwise be appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.32   Discharge of indebtedness; reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Before discharging a delinquent debt, also referred to as close out of the debt, the Secretary shall take all appropriate steps to collect the debt in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g)(9), and parts 30 through 33 of this chapter, including, as applicable, administrative offset; tax refund offset; Federal salary offset; credit bureau reporting; administrative wage garnishment; litigation; foreclosure; and referral to Treasury, Treasury-designated debt collection centers, or private collection contractors.
</P>
<P>(2) Discharge of indebtedness is distinct from termination or suspension of collection activity under this subpart, and is governed by the Internal Revenue Code. When collection action on a debt is suspended or terminated, the debt remains delinquent and further collection action may be pursued at a later date in accordance with the standards set forth in this part and 31 CFR parts 900 through 904.
</P>
<P>(3) When the Department discharges a debt in full or in part, further collection action is prohibited. Therefore, before discharging a debt, the Secretary must:
</P>
<P>(i) Make the determination that collection action is no longer warranted; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Terminate debt collection action.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(i), the Secretary shall use competitive procedures to sell a delinquent debt upon termination of collection action if the Secretary of the Treasury determines such a sale is in the best interests of the United States. Since the discharge of a debt precludes any further collection action, including the sale of a delinquent debt, the Secretary may not discharge a debt until the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3711(i) have been meet.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon discharge of an indebtedness, the Secretary must report the discharge to the IRS in accordance with the requirements of 26 U.S.C. 6050P and 26 CFR 1.6050P-1. The Secretary may request that Treasury or Treasury-designated debt collection centers file such a discharge report to the IRS on the Department's behalf.
</P>
<P>(d) When discharging a debt, the Secretary must request that litigation counsel release any liens of record securing the debt.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Referrals to the Department of Justice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.33   Prompt referral.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The Secretary promptly shall refer to Justice for litigation debts on which aggressive collection activity has been taken in accordance with subpart B of this part, and that cannot be compromised, or on which collection activity cannot be suspended or terminated, in accordance with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary may refer to Justice for litigation those debts arising out of activities of, or referred or transferred for collection services to, the Department.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Debts for which the principal amount is over $1,000,000, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs shall be referred to the Civil Division or other division responsible for litigating such debts at the Department of Justice, Washington DC.
</P>
<P>(2) Debts for which the principal amount is $1,000,000 or less, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs shall be referred to the Nationwide Central Intake Facility at Justice as required by the CCLR instructions.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Consistent with aggressive agency collection activity and the standards contained in this part and 31 CFR parts 900 through 904, debts shall be referred to Justice as early as possible, and, in any event, well within the period for initiating timely lawsuits against the debtors.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary shall make every effort to refer delinquent debts to Justice for litigation within one year of the date such debts last became delinquent. In the case of guaranteed or insured loans, the Secretary will make every effort to refer these delinquent debts to Justice for litigation within one year from the date the loan was presented to the Department for payment or re-insurance.
</P>
<P>(d) Justice has exclusive jurisdiction over debts referred to it pursuant to this subpart. Upon referral of a debt to Justice, the Secretary shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately terminate the use of any administrative collection activities to collect the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) Advise Justice of the collection activities utilized to date, and their result; and
</P>
<P>(3) Refrain from having any contact with the debtor and direct all debtor inquiries concerning the debt to Justice.
</P>
<P>(e) After referral of a debt under this subpart, the Secretary shall immediately notify the Department of Justice of any payments credited by the Department to the debtor's account. Pursuant to 31 CFR 904.1(b), after referral of the debt under this subpart, Justice shall notify the Secretary of any payment received from the debtor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.34   Claims Collection Litigation Report.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Unless excepted by Justice, the Secretary will complete the CCLR, accompanied by a signed Certificate of Indebtedness, to refer all administratively uncollectible claims to the Department of Justice for litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary shall complete all of the sections of the CCLR appropriate to each debt as required by the CCLR instructions, and furnish such other information as may be required in specific cases.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall indicate clearly on the CCLR the actions that the Department wishes Justice to take with respect to the referred debt. The Secretary may indicate specifically any of a number of litigation activities which Justice may pursue, including enforced collection, judgement lien only, renew judgement lien only, renew judgement lien and enforced collection, program enforcement, foreclosure only, and foreclosure and deficiency judgment.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary also shall use the CCLR to refer a debt to Justice for the purpose of obtaining approval of a proposal to compromise the debt, or to suspend or terminate administrative collection activity of the debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.35" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.35   Preservation of evidence.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary will maintain and preserve all files and records that may be needed by Justice to prove the Department's claim in court. When referring debts to Justice for litigation, certified copies of the documents that form the basis for the claim should be provided along with the CCLR. Upon its request, the original documents will be provided to Justice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.36" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.18.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.36   Minimum amount of referrals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as in paragraph (b) of this section, claims of less than $2,500 exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, or such other amount as the Attorney General may prescribe, shall not be referred for litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall not refer claims of less than the minimum amount unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Litigation to collect such smaller amount is important to ensure compliance with the policies and programs of the Department;
</P>
<P>(2) The claim is being referred solely for the purpose of securing a judgment against the debtor, which will be filed as a lien against the debtor's property pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 3201 and returned to the Department for enforcement; or
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor has the clear ability to pay the claim and the Government effectively can enforce payment, with due regard for the exemptions available to the debtor under State and Federal law and the judicial remedies available to the Government.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary should consult with the Financial Litigation Staff of the Executive Office for United States Attorneys in Justice prior to referring claims valued at less than the minimum amount.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 31—TAX REFUND OFFSET 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3720A, 31 CFR 285.2, E.O. 12866, E.O. 13258.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 70445, Dec. 18, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 31.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.19.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes the Department's standards and procedures for submitting past-due, legally enforceable debts to the Department of the Treasury for collection by tax refund offset. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> These standards and procedures are authorized under the tax refund offset provision of the Deficit Reduction Act of 1984, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, codified at 31 U.S.C. 3720A, and the implementing regulations issued by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 285.2. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part applies to all Departmental Operating Divisions and Regional Offices that administer a program that gives rise to a past-due non-tax debt owed to the United States, and to all officers or employees of the Department authorized to collect such debt. This part does not apply to any debt or claim owed to the Department of Health and Human Services by another Federal agency. 
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this part precludes the Department from pursuing other debt collection procedures, including administrative wage garnishment under part 32 of this title, to collect a debt that has been submitted to the Department of the Treasury under this part. The Department may use such debt collection procedures separately or in conjunction with the offset collection procedures of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.19.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this part, unless the context otherwise requires: 
</P>
<P><I>Administrative offset</I> means withholding funds payable by the United States (including funds payable by the United States on behalf of a State government) to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a claim. 
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means calendar day. For purposes of computation, the last day of the period will be included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal legal holiday, in which case the next business day will be considered the last day of the period. 
</P>
<P><I>Debt</I> or <I>claim</I> means an amount of money, funds, or other property determined by an appropriate official to be owed to the United States from any individual, entity, organization, association, partnership, corporation, or State or local government or subdivision, except another Federal agency. 
</P>
<P><I>Debtor</I> means an individual, organization, association, partnership, corporation, or State or local government or subdivision indebted to the Government, or the person or entity with legal responsibility for assuming the debtor's obligation. 
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services, and each of its Operating Divisions and regional offices. 
</P>
<P><I>Evidence of service</I> means information retained by the Department indicating the nature of the document to which it pertains, the date of mailing of the document, and the address and name of the debtor to whom it is being sent. A copy of the dated and signed written notice of intent to offset provided to the debtor pursuant to this part may be considered evidence of service for purposes of this regulation. Evidence of service may be retained electronically so long as the manner of retention is sufficient for evidentiary purposes. 
</P>
<P><I>FMS</I> means the Financial Management Service, a bureau within the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P><I>IRS</I> means the Internal Revenue Service, a bureau of the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P><I>Legally enforceable</I> means that there has been a final agency determination that the debt, in the amount stated, is due and there are no legal bars to collection action. 
</P>
<P><I>Operating division</I> means each separate component, within the Department of Health and Human Services, including, but not limited to, the Administration for Children and Families, Administration on Aging, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, the Food and Drug Administration, the National Institutes of Health, and the Office of the Secretary. 
</P>
<P><I>Past-due debt</I> means a debt which the debtor does not pay or otherwise resolve by the date specified in the initial demand for payment, or in an applicable written repayment agreement or other instrument, including a post-delinquency repayment agreement. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services, or the Secretary's designee within any Operating Division or Regional Office. 
</P>
<P><I>Taxpayer identifying number</I> means the identifying number described under section 6109 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 6109). For an individual, the taxpayer identifying number is the individual's social security number. 
</P>
<P><I>Tax refund offset</I> means withholding or reducing a tax refund payment by an amount necessary to satisfy a debt owed to the United States by the payee(s) of a tax refund payment. 
</P>
<P><I>Tax refund payment</I> means any overpayment of Federal taxes to be refunded to the person making the overpayment after the IRS makes the appropriate credits as provided in 26 U.S.C. 6402 for any liabilities for any tax on the part of the person who made the overpayment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.19.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.3   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any past-due, legally enforceable debt of at least $25, or such other minimum amount as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury, shall be submitted to FMS for collection by tax refund offset. 
</P>
<P>(b) FMS will compare tax refund payment records, as certified by the IRS, with records of debts submitted by the Department under this part. A match will occur when the taxpayer identification number and name of a payment certification record are the same as the taxpayer identifying number and name control of a debtor record. When a match occurs and all other requirements for tax refund offset have been met, FMS will reduce the amount of any tax refund payment payable to a debtor by the amount of any past-due legally enforceable debt. Any amounts not offset will be paid to the payee(s) listed in the payment certification record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.19.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.4   Certification and referral of debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification.</I> The Secretary shall certify to FMS that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The debt is past-due and legally enforceable in the amount submitted and that the Department will ensure that collections are properly credited to the debt; 
</P>
<P>(2) Except in the case of a judgment debt or as otherwise allowed by law, the debt is referred within ten (10) years after the Department's right of action accrues; 
</P>
<P>(3) The Department has made reasonable efforts to obtain payment of the debt, and has: 
</P>
<P>(i) Submitted the debt to FMS for collection by offset and complied with the administrative offset provision of 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) and related regulations, to the extent that collection by administrative offset is not prohibited by statute; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Notified, or made a reasonable attempt to notify, the debtor that the debt is past-due, and unless paid within 60 days of the date of the notice, the debt may be referred to Treasury for tax refund offset. For purposes of this regulation, the Department has made a reasonable attempt to notify the debtor if the agency uses the current address information contained in the Department's records related to the debt. If address validation is desired or necessary, the Department may obtain information from the IRS pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 6103(m)(2)(4) or (5). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Given the debtor at least 60 days to present evidence that all or part of the debt is not past-due or not legally enforceable, considered any evidence presented by the debtor, and determined that the debt is past-due and legally enforceable; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provided the debtor with an opportunity to make a written agreement to repay the debt; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The debt is at least $25. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referral.</I> (1) The Secretary shall submit past-due, legally enforceable debt information for tax refund offset in the time and manner prescribed by the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(2) For each debt referred under this part, the Secretary will include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) The name and taxpayer identifying number, as defined in 26 U.S.C. 6109, of the debtor responsible for the debt; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of such past-due and legally enforceable debt; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The date on which the debt became past-due; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The designation of the Department referring the debt. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Correcting and updating referral.</I> (1) After referring a debt under this part, the Secretary shall promptly notify the Department of the Treasury if: 
</P>
<P>(i) An error was made with respect to information transmitted to the Department of the Treasury; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Department receives a payment or credits a payment to the account of a debtor referred for tax refund offset; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The debt amount is otherwise incorrect. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Department shall provide the certification required under paragraph (a) of this section for any increases to amounts owed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rejection of certification.</I> If the Department of Treasury rejects a certification because it does not comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, upon notification of the rejection and the reason(s) for rejection, the Secretary will resubmit the debt with a corrected certification. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.19.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.5   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> If not previously included in the initial demand letter provided under section 30.11, at least 60 days before referring a debt for tax refund offset, the Secretary shall mail, by first class mail to the debtor's last known address, written notice informing the debtor of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and amount of the debt; 
</P>
<P>(2) The determination that the debt is past-due and legally enforceable, and unless paid within 60 days after the date of the notice, the Secretary intends to enforce collection by referring the debt the Department of the Treasury for tax refund offset; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor's rights to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Inspect and copy Department records relating to the debt; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Enter into written agreement to repay the amount of the debt; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Request review and present evidence that all or part of the debt is not past-due or not legally enforceable. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will retain evidence of service indicating the date of mailing of the notice. The notice may be retained electronically so long as the manner of retention is sufficient for evidentiary purposes 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.19.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.6   Review of Departmental records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To inspect or copy Departmental records relating to the debt, the debtor must send a written request to the address designated in the notice described in section 31.5. The request must be received by the Department within 60 days from the date of the notice. 
</P>
<P>(b) In response to a timely request as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the designated Department official shall notify the debtor of the location and time when the debtor may inspect and copy such records. If the debtor is unable to personally inspect such records as the result of geographical or other constraints, the Department will arrange to send copies of the records to the debtor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.19.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.7   Review of a determination that a debt is past-due and legally enforceable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requesting a review.</I> (1) If the debtor believes that all or part of the debt is not past-due or not legally enforceable, the debtor may request a review by the Department by sending a written request to the address provided in the notice. The written request must be received by the Department within 60 days from the date of the notice or, if the debtor has requested to inspect the records, within 30 days from the debtor's inspection of the records or the Department's mailing of the records under section 31.6(b), whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(2) The request for review must be signed by the debtor, state the amount disputed, and fully identify and explain the evidence that the debtor believes supports the debtor's position. The debtor must submit with the request any documents that the debtor wishes to be considered, or the debtor must state in the request that additional information will be submitted within the above specified time period. 
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to timely request a review will be deemed an admission by the debtor that the debt is past-due and legally enforceable, and will result in a referral of the debt to the Department of the Treasury without further action. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review.</I> Upon the timely submission of evidence by the debtor, the Department shall review the dispute and shall consider its records and any documentation and evidence submitted by the debtor. The Department shall make a determination based on the review of the written record, and shall send a written notice of its decision to the debtor. There is no administrative appeal of this decision. 
</P>
<P>(c) A debt that previously has been reviewed pursuant to this part, or that has been reduced to a judgment, will not be reconsidered under this part unless the evidence presented by the debtor disputes payments made or events occurring subsequent to the previous review or judgment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 32—ADMINISTRATIVE WAGE GARNISHMENT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3720D, 5 U.S.C. 552, 553, E.O. 12866, 12988, 13808. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 15093, Mar. 28, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 32.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes the standards and procedures for the Department to collect money from a debtor's disposable pay by means of administrative wage garnishment to satisfy delinquent non-tax debts owed to the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> These standards and procedures are authorized under the wage garnishment provisions of the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, codified at 31 U.S.C. 3720D, and the Department of the Treasury Administrative Wage Garnishment Regulations at 31 CFR 285.11. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part applies to all Departmental Operating Divisions and Regional Offices that administer a program that gives rise to a delinquent non-tax debt owed to the United States and to all officers or employees of the Department authorized to collect such debt. 
</P>
<P>(2) This part shall apply notwithstanding any provision of State law. 
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise of a debt or the suspension or termination of collection action in accordance with part 30 of this title, or other applicable law or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(4) The receipt of payments pursuant to this part does not preclude the Department from pursuing other debt collection remedies, including the offset of Federal payments to satisfy delinquent non-tax debt owed to the United States. The Department may pursue such debt collection remedies separately or in conjunction with administrative wage garnishment. 
</P>
<P>(5) This part does not apply to the collection of delinquent non-tax debts owed to the United States from the wages of Federal employees from their Federal employment. Federal pay is subject to the Federal salary offset procedures set forth in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and other applicable laws. 
</P>
<P>(6) Nothing in this part requires the Department to duplicate notices or administrative proceedings required by contract or other laws or regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this part, unless the context otherwise requires: 
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means Monday through Friday. For purposes of computation, the last day of the period will be included unless it is a Federal legal holiday, in which case the next business day following the holiday will be considered the last day of the period. 
</P>
<P><I>Certificate of service</I> means a certificate signed by an employee of the Department indicating the nature of the document to which it pertains, the date of mailing of the document, and to whom it is being sent. 
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means calendar day. For purposes of computation, the last day of the period will be included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal legal holiday, in which case the next business day will be considered the last day of the period. 
</P>
<P><I>Debt or claim</I> means an amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by the Secretary to be owed to the United States by an individual, including debt administered by a third party as an agent of the Federal Government. A debt or claim includes, but is not limited to: amounts owed on account of loans made, insured or guaranteed by the Federal Government, including any deficiency or difference between the price obtained by the Federal Government upon selling the property and the amount owed to the Federal Government; overpayments to program beneficiaries; any amount the Federal Government is authorized by statute to collect for the benefit of any person; the unpaid share of any non-Federal partner in a program involving a Federal payment, including a matching or cost-sharing payment of the non-Federal partner; any fine, civil penalty or assessment; and other amounts or money or property owed to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P><I>Debtor</I> means an individual who owes a delinquent non-tax debt to the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent debt</I> means any non-tax debt that has not been paid by the date specified in the Department's initial written demand for payment, or applicable payment agreement or instrument, unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made. For purposes of this part, “delinquent” and “overdue” have the same meaning. 
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the United States Department of I-Iealth and 1—luman Services, including each of its Operating Divisions and Regional Offices. 
</P>
<P><I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of the debtor's compensation (including, but not limited to, salary, bonuses, commissions, and vacation pay) from an employer remaining after the deduction of health insurance premiums and any amounts required by law to be withheld. For purposes of this part, “amounts required by law to be withheld” include amounts for deductions such as social security taxes and withholding taxes, but do not include any amount withheld pursuant to a court order. 
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> means a person or entity that employs the services of others and that pays their wages or salaries. The term employer includes, but is not limited to, State and local Governments, but does not include an agency of the Federal Government as defined by 31 CFR 285.11(c). 
</P>
<P><I>Garnishment</I> means the process of withholding amounts from an employee's disposable pay and paying those amounts to a creditor in satisfaction of a withholding order. 
</P>
<P><I>Hearing</I> means a review of the documentary evidence concerning the existence or amount of a debt, or the terms of a repayment schedule, provided such repayment schedule is established other than by a written agreement entered into pursuant to this part. If the hearing official determines that the issues in dispute cannot be resolved solely by review of the written record, such as when the validity of the debt turns on the issue of credibility or veracity, an oral hearing may be provided. 
</P>
<P><I>Hearing official</I> means any qualified individual, as determined by the Secretary, including a Departmental Appeals Board administrative law judge. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services, or the Secretary's designee within the Department. 
</P>
<P><I>Withholding order for purposes of this part</I> means “Wage Garnishment Order (SF329B).” Also for purposes of this part, the terms “wage garnishment order” and “garnishment order” have the same meaning as “withholding order.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.3   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, whenever a delinquent debt is owed by an individual, the Secretary, or another federal agency collecting a debt on the Department's behalf (<I>See</I> 45 CFR part 30), may initiate proceedings administratively to garnish the wages of the delinquent debtor. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary may not garnish the wages of a debtor who the Secretary knows has been involuntarily separated from employment until the debtor has been re-employed continuously for at least 12 months. The debtor has the burden of informing the Secretary of the circumstances surrounding an involuntary separation from employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.4   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notice requirements. At least 30 days before the initiation of garnishment proceedings, the Secretary shall mail, by first class mail, to the debtor's last known address a written notice informing the debtor of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and amount of the debt; 
</P>
<P>(2) The intention of the Secretary to initiate proceedings to collect the debt through deductions from pay until the debt and all accumulated interest, penalties, and administrative costs are paid in full; 
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor's right—
</P>
<P>(i) To inspect and copy Department records related to the debt; 
</P>
<P>(ii) To enter into a written repayment agreement with the Department under terms agreeable to the Department; 
</P>
<P>(iii) To a hearing, in accordance with § 32.5, concerning the existence or the amount of the debt or the terms of the proposed repayment schedule under the garnishment order, except that the debtor is not entitled to a hearing concerning the proposed repayment schedule if the terms were established by written agreement pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The time frames within which the debtor may exercise his or her rights. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will keep a copy of the dated notice. The notice may be retained electronically so long as the manner of retention is sufficient for evidentiary purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.5   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Upon timely written request of the debtor, the Secretary shall provide a hearing, which at the Department's option may be oral or written, concerning the existence or amount of the debt, or the terms of a repayment schedule established other than by written agreement under § 32.4(a)(3)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for hearing.</I> (1) The request for a hearing must be signed by the debtor, state each issue being disputed, and identify and explain with reasonable specificity all facts and evidence that the debtor believes supports the debtor's position. Supporting documentation identified by the debtor should be attached to the request. 
</P>
<P>(2) Effect of timely request. Subject to paragraph (j) of this section, if the debtor's written request is received on or before the 15th business day following the mailing of the written notice required under this part, a withholding order shall not be issued under § 32.6 until the debtor has been provided the requested hearing and a decision in accordance with paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section has been rendered. 
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to timely request a hearing. If the debtor's written request is received after the 15th business day following the mailing of the written notice required under this part, the Secretary shall provide a hearing to the debtor. However, the Secretary shall not delay the issuance of a withholding order unless the Secretary determines that the delay in submitting such request was caused by factors beyond the control of the debtor, or the Secretary receives information that the Secretary determines justifies a delay or cancellation of the withholding order. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Oral hearing.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, a debtor shall be provided a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when the hearing official determines that the issues in dispute cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, such as when the validity of the claim turns on the issue of credibility or veracity. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the hearing official determines an oral hearing is appropriate, the hearing official will establish the date, time and location of the hearing. At the debtor's option, the oral hearing may be conducted in person or by telephone conference. The hearing official will notify the debtor of the date, time, and in the case of an in-person hearing, the location of the hearing. All travel expenses incurred by the debtor in connection with an in-person hearing will be borne by the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Paper hearing.</I> (1) If the hearing official determines an oral hearing is not required by this section, the hearing official shall afford the debtor a paper hearing, that is, the issues in dispute will be decided based upon a review of the written record. 
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing official shall notify the debtor of the deadline for the submission of additional evidence if necessary for a review of the record. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Burden of proof.</I> (1) The Secretary has the initial burden of proving the existence or amount of the debt. 
</P>
<P>(2) Thereafter, if the debtor disputes the existence or amount of the debt, the debtor must present by a preponderance of the evidence that no debt exists or that the amount is incorrect. When challenging the terms of a repayment schedule, the debtor must establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the terms of the repayment schedule are unlawful, would cause financial hardship to the debtor, or that collection of the debt may not be pursued due to operation of law. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Record.</I> The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing provided under this part. A hearing is not required to be a formal evidentiary-type hearing, but witnesses who testify in an oral hearing must do so under oath or affirmation. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Date of decision.</I> (1) The hearing official shall issue a written decision, as soon as practicable, but no later than sixty (60) days after the date on which the request for the hearing was received by the Department. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the hearing official is unable to provide the debtor with a hearing and render a decision within 60 days after the receipt of the request for such hearing: 
</P>
<P>(i) A withholding order may not be issued until the hearing is held and a decision is rendered; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A withholding order previously issued to the debtor's employer must be suspended beginning on the 61st day after the receipt of the hearing request and continuing until a hearing is held and a decision is rendered. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Content of decision.</I> The written decision shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the facts presented; 
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of any repayment schedule, if applicable. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Final agency action.</I> The hearing official's decision will be the final agency action for the purposes of judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act. 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Failure to appear.</I> In the absence of good cause shown, a debtor who fails to appear at a hearing will be deemed as not having timely filed a request for a hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.6   Withholding order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless the Secretary receives information that the Secretary determines justifies a delay or cancellation of a withholding order, the Secretary shall send, by first class mail, an SF-329A “Letter to Employer &amp; Important Notice to Employer,” an SF-329B “Wage Garnishment Order,” an SF-329C “Wage Garnishment Worksheet,” and an SF-329D “Employer Certification,” to the debtor's employer within 30 days after the debtor fails to make a timely request for a hearing, <I>i.e.,</I> within 15 business days after mailing the notice required under this part, or, if the timely request for a hearing is made by the debtor, within 30 days after a final decision is made by the Secretary to proceed with garnishment. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary shall keep a copy of the dated letter to the employer and a copy of the wage garnishment order. The certificate of service may be retained electronically so long as the manner of retention is sufficient for evidentiary purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.7   Certification by employer.</HEAD>
<P>The employer must complete and return the SF-329D, “Employer Certification” to the Department within 20 days of receipt. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.8   Amounts withheld.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After receipt of a withholding order issued under this part, the employer shall deduct from all disposable pay paid to the debtor during each pay period the amount of garnishment described in paragraph (b) of this section. The employer may use the SF-329C “Wage Garnishment Worksheet” to calculate the amount to be deducted from the debtor's disposable pay. 
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the amount of garnishment shall be the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount indicated on the garnishment order up to 15% of the debtor's disposable pay; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The amount set forth in 15 U.S.C. 1673(a)(2) (Maximum allowable garnishment). The amount set forth at 15 U.S.C. 1673(a)(2) is the amount by which a debtor's disposable pay exceeds an amount equivalent to thirty times the minimum wage. <I>See</I> 29 CFR 870.10. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, when a debtor's pay is subject to multiple withholding orders, unless otherwise provided by Federal law, withholding orders issued pursuant to this part shall have priority over other withholding orders that are served later in time. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the foregoing, withholding orders for family support shall have priority over withholding orders issued under this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) If amounts are being withheld from a debtor's pay pursuant to a withholding order served on an employer before a withholding order issued pursuant to this part, or if a withholding order for family support is served on an employer at any time, the amounts withheld pursuant to a withholding order issued under this part shall be the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The amount calculated under paragraph (b) of this section, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An amount equal to 25% of the debtor's disposable pay less the amount(s) withheld under the withholding order(s) with priority. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the debtor owes more than one debt to the Department, the Secretary may issue multiple withholding orders provided that the total amount garnished from the debtor's pay for such orders does not exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) An amount greater than that set forth in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section may be withheld upon the written consent of the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(f) The employer shall promptly pay to the Department all amounts withheld in accordance with the withholding order issued pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) The employer is not required to vary its normal pay and disbursement cycles in order to comply with the withholding order. 
</P>
<P>(h) Any assignment or allotment by an employee shall be void to the extent it interferes with or prohibits execution of the withholding order issued under this part, except for any assignment or allotment made pursuant to a family support judgment or order. 
</P>
<P>(i) The employer shall withhold the appropriate amount from the debtor's wages for each pay period until the employer receives notification from the Secretary to discontinue wage withholding. 
</P>
<P>(j) The withholding order, SF-329B “Wage Garnishment Order,” sent to the employer under § 32.6, requires the employer to commence wage withholding on the first pay day after the employer receives the order. However, if the first pay day is within 10 days after receipt of the order, the employer may begin deductions on the second pay day. 
</P>
<P>(k) An employer may not discharge, refuse to employ, or take disciplinary action against any debtor as a result of the issuance of a withholding order under this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 15093, Mar. 28, 2003; 68 FR 24052, May 6, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.9   Financial hardship.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A debtor whose wages are subject to a withholding order may, at any time, request a review by the Department of the amount garnished, based on materially changed circumstances such as disability, divorce, or catastrophic illness which result in financial hardship. 
</P>
<P>(b) A debtor requesting such a review under paragraph (a) of this section shall submit the basis for claiming that the current amount of garnishment results in a financial hardship to the debtor, along with supporting documentation. The Secretary shall consider any information submitted in accordance with this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a financial hardship is found, the Secretary shall downwardly adjust, by an amount and for a period of time established by the Secretary, the amount garnished to reflect the debtor's financial condition. The Secretary will notify the employer of any adjustments to the amount to be withheld. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.10   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the hearing official, pursuant to a hearing under this part, determines that a debt is not legally due and owing to the United States, the Secretary shall promptly refund any amount collected by means of administrative wage garnishment. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required by Federal law or contract, refunds under this part shall not bear interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.11   Ending garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once the Department has fully recovered the amounts owed by the debtor, including interest, penalties, and administrative costs assessed pursuant to and in accordance with part 30 of this title, the Secretary shall send the debtor's employer notification to discontinue wage withholding. 
</P>
<P>(b) At least annually, the Secretary shall review its debtors' accounts to ensure that garnishment has been terminated for accounts that have been paid in full. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.20.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.12   Right of action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The employer of a debtor subject to wage withholding pursuant to this part shall pay to the Department as directed in a withholding order issued under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary may bring suit against an employer for any amount that the employer fails to withhold from wages owed and payable to a debtor in accordance with §§ 32.6 and 32.8, plus attorney's fees, costs, and, if applicable, punitive damages. 
</P>
<P>(c) A suit under this section may not be filed before the termination of the collection action involving a particular debtor, unless earlier filing is necessary to avoid expiration of any applicable statute of limitations period. For purposes of this section, “termination of collection action” occurs when the Secretary has terminated collection action in accordance with part 30 of this title, or other applicable law or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding deemed to occur if from a debtor whose paragraph (c) of this section, termination of the collection action will be a period of one (1) year the Department does not receive any payments wages were subject to a garnishment order issued under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 33—SALARY OFFSET 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 5514; 5 CFR Part 550, Subpart K.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 10421, Mar. 8, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 33.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.1   Purpose, authority, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes the Department's standards and procedures for the collection of debts owed by Federal employees to the United States through involuntary salary offset.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> 5 U.S.C. 5514; 5 CFR part 550, subpart K.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part applies to internal and Government-wide collections of debts owed by Federal employees by administrative offset from the current pay account of the debtor without his or her consent.
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures contained in this part do not apply to any case where an employee consents to collection through deduction(s) from the employee's pay account, or to debts arising under the Internal Revenue Code or the tariff laws of the United States, or where another statute explicitly provides for, or prohibits, collection of a debt by salary offset (e.g., travel advances in 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses in 5 U.S.C. 4108).
</P>
<P>(3) This part does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of an erroneous payment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, or 32 U.S.C. 716, or in any way questioning the amount or validity of a debt, in the manner prescribed by the Secretary. Similarly, this part does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of the collection of a debt under any other applicable statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise of the debt, or the suspension or termination of collection actions, in accordance with part 30 of this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this part—
</P>
<P><I>Administrative offset</I> means withholding funds payable by the United States to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a debt owed by the payee.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means an executive department or agency; a military department; the United States Postal Service; the Postal Rate Commission; the United States Senate; the United States House of Representatives; and court, court administrative office, or instrumentality in the judicial or legislative branches of the Government; or a Government Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor agency</I> means the agency to which the debt is owed, including a debt collection center when acting on behalf of a creditor agency in matters pertaining to the collection of a debt.
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means calendar day. For purposes of computation, the last day of the period will be included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday, in which case the next business day will be considered the last day of the period.
</P>
<P><I>Debt</I> means an amount determined by an appropriate official to be owed to the United States from sources which include loans insured or guaranteed by the United States and all other amounts due the United States from fees, leases, rents, royalties, services, sales of real or personal property, overpayments, penalties, damages, interest, fines and forfeitures (except those arising under the Uniform Code of Military Justice), and all other similar sources.
</P>
<P><I>Debt collection center</I> means the Department of the Treasury or other Government agency or division designated by the Secretary of the Treasury with authority to collect debts on behalf of creditor agencies in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g).
</P>
<P><I>Debtor</I> means a Federal employee who owes a debt to the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent debt</I> means a debt which the debtor does not pay or otherwise resolve by the date specified in the initial demand for payment, or in an applicable written repayment agreement or other instrument, including a post-delinquency repayment agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services, its Staff Divisions, Operating Divisions, and Regional Offices.
</P>
<P><I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of the debtor's current basic, special, incentive, retired, and retainer pay, or other authorized pay, remaining after deduction of amounts required by law to be withheld. For purposes of calculating disposable pay, legally required deductions that must be applied first include: Tax levies pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code (title 26, United States Code); properly withheld taxes, FICA, Medicare; health and life insurance premiums; and retirement contributions. Amounts deducted under garnishment orders, including child support garnishment orders, are not legally required deductions for calculating disposable pay.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any individual currently employed by an agency, as defined in this section, including seasonal and temporary employees and current members of the Armed Forces or a Reserve of the Armed Forces (Reserves).
</P>
<P><I>Evidence of service</I> means information retained by the Department indicating the nature of the document to which it pertains, the date of mailing the document, and the address and name of the debtor to whom it is being sent. A copy of the dated and signed written notice of intent to offset provided to the debtor pursuant to this part may be considered evidence of service for purposes of this part. Evidence of service may be retained electronically so long as the manner of retention is sufficient for evidentiary purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing</I> means a review of the documentary evidence to confirm the existence or amount of a debt or the terms of a repayment schedule. If the Secretary determines that the issues in dispute cannot be resolved by such a review, such as when the validity of the claim turns on the issue of credibility or veracity, the Secretary may provide an oral hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing official</I> means a Departmental Appeals Board administrative law judge or appropriate alternate as outlined in § 33.7(a)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Paying agency</I> means the agency employing the individual and authorizing the payment of his or her current pay.
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 owed by a federal employee through deductions at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of the employee without his or her consent.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services, or the Secretary's designee within any Staff Division, Operating Division or Regional Office.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver</I> means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or non-recovery of a debt owed by an employee to this Department or another agency as required or permitted by 5 U.S.C. 5584, 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or any other law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.3   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a delinquent debt is owed to the Department by an employee, the Secretary may, subject to paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, involuntarily offset the amount of the debt from the employee's disposable pay.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless provided by another statute pertaining to a particular type of debt (e.g., 42 U.S.C. 292r, Health professionals education, 42 U.S.C. 297b, Nurse education), the Department may not initiate salary offset to collect a debt more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Government's right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official or officials of the Government who were charged with the responsibility to discover and collect such debts.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, prior to initiating collection through salary offset under this part, the Secretary must first provide the employee with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Written notice of intent to offset as described in § 33.4; and
</P>
<P>(2) An opportunity to petition for a hearing, and, if a hearing is provided, to receive a written decision from the hearing official within 60 days on the following issues:
</P>
<P>(i) The determination of the Department concerning the existence or amount of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The repayment schedule, unless it was established by written agreement between the employee and Department.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of paragraph (c) of this section do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any adjustment to pay arising out of an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a federal benefits program requiring periodic deduction from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less;
</P>
<P>(2) A routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is made to correct an overpayment of pay attributable to clerical or administrative errors or delays in processing pay documents, if the overpayment occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment and, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and point of contact for contesting such adjustment; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any adjustment to collect a debt amounting to $50 or less, if, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.4   Notice requirements before offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 30 days before the initiation of salary offset under this part, the Secretary shall mail, by first class mail, to the employee's last known address, a written notice informing the debtor of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary has reviewed the records relating to the debt and has determined that a debt is owed, the amount of the debt, and the facts giving rise to the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary's intention to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's current disposable pay account until the debt and all accumulated interest, penalties, and administrative costs are paid in full;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount, stated either as a fixed dollar amount or as a percentage of pay not to exceed 15 percent of disposable pay, the frequency, the commencement date, and the duration of the intended deductions;
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the Department's policies concerning the assessment of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, stating that such assessments must be made unless waived in accordance with 31 CFR 901.9 and § 30.18 of this title;
</P>
<P>(5) The employee's right to inspect and copy all records of the Department pertaining to the debt or, if the employee or the employee's representative cannot personally inspect the records, to request and receive copies of such records;
</P>
<P>(6) If not previously provided, the opportunity to establish a schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt through offset, or to enter into an agreement to establish a schedule for repayment of the debt in lieu of offset, provided the agreement is in writing, signed by both the employee and the Department, and documented in the Department's files;
</P>
<P>(7) The right to a hearing conducted by an impartial hearing official with respect to the existence and amount of the debt, or the repayment schedule, so long as a petition is filed by the employee as prescribed in § 33.6;
</P>
<P>(8) Time limitations and other procedures or conditions for inspecting Department records pertaining to the debt, establishing an alternative repayment agreement, and requesting a hearing;
</P>
<P>(9) The name, address, and telephone number of the person or office within the Department who may be contacted concerning the procedures for inspecting Department records, establishing an alternative repayment agreement, and requesting a hearing;
</P>
<P>(10) The name and address of the office within the Department to which the petition for a hearing should be sent, which generally will be the Operating Division or Staff Division responsible for collecting the debt;
</P>
<P>(11) A timely and properly filed petition for a hearing will stay the commencement of the collection proceeding;
</P>
<P>(12) The Department will initiate action to effect salary offset not less than 30 days from the date of mailing the notice of intent, unless the employee properly files a timely petition for a hearing,
</P>
<P>(13) A final decision on a hearing, if one is requested, will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(14) Knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations or evidence may subject the employee to:
</P>
<P>(i) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under chapter 75 of title 5, United States Code; part 752 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations; or any other applicable statutes or regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Penalties under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729-3731, or under any other applicable statutory authority; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002, or under any other applicable statutory authority;
</P>
<P>(15) Any other rights and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made;
</P>
<P>(16) Unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, amounts paid on or deducted for the debt, which are later waived or found not owed to the United States, will be promptly refunded to the employee; and
</P>
<P>(17) Proceedings with respect to such debt are governed by 5 U.S.C. 5514.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will retain evidence of service indicating the date of mailing of the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.5   Review of department records relating to the debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To inspect or copy Department records relating to the debt, the employee must send a written request to the Department official or office designated in the notice of intent to offset stating his or her intention. The written request must be received by the Department within 15 days from the employee's receipt of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) In response to a timely request as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the designated Department official shall notify the employee of the location and time when the employee may inspect and copy such records. If the employee or employee's representative is unable to personally inspect such records as the result of geographical or other constraints, the Department shall arrange to send copies of such records to the employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.6   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Petitions for hearing.</I> (1) To request a hearing concerning the existence or amount of the debt or the offset schedule established by the Department, the employee must send a written petition to the office designated in the notice of intent to offset, see § 33.4(a)(10), within 15 days of receipt of the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) The petition must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be signed by the employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, that the employee believes support his or her position; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify whether an oral or paper hearing is requested. If an oral hearing is requested, the request should explain why the matter cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence alone.
</P>
<P>(3) The timely filing of a petition for hearing shall stay any further collection proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to timely request.</I> (1) If the petition for hearing is filed after the 15-day period provided for in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Secretary may grant the request if the employee can establish that the delay was the result of circumstances beyond the employee's control, or that the employee failed to receive actual notice of the filing deadline.
</P>
<P>(2) An employee waives the right to a hearing, and will have his or her disposable pay offset in accordance with the offset schedule established by the Department, if the employee:
</P>
<P>(i) Fails to file a timely request for a hearing, unless such failure is excused; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Fails to appear at an oral hearing, of which the employee was notified, unless the hearing official determines that the failure to appear was due to circumstances beyond the employee's control.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of hearings</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> After the employee requests a hearing, the hearing official shall notify the employee of the form of the hearing to be provided. If the hearing will be oral, the notice shall set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing. If the hearing will be a review of the written record, the employee shall be notified that he or she should submit evidence and arguments in writing to the hearing official by a specified date, after which the record shall be closed. The date specified shall give the employee reasonable time to submit documentation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oral hearing.</I> An employee who requests an oral hearing shall be provided an oral hearing if the hearing official determines that the matter cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone because an issue of credibility or veracity is involved. Where an oral hearing is appropriate, the hearing is not an adversarial adjudication and need not take the form of an evidentiary hearing, i.e., the rules of evidence need not apply. <I>Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Informal conferences with the hearing official in which the employee and agency representative will be given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and arguments;
</P>
<P>(ii) Informal meetings in which the hearing official interviews the employee; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Formal written submissions with an opportunity for oral presentations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Paper hearing.</I> If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, the hearing official will make the determination based upon a review of the available written record.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Record.</I> The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing conducted under this part. Witnesses who testify in oral hearings will do so under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Written decision.</I> (1) Date of decision. The hearing officer shall issue a written opinion stating his or her decision, based upon documentary evidence and information developed at the hearing, as soon as practicable after the hearing, but not later than sixty (60) days after the date on which the hearing petition was received by the creditor agency, unless the employee requested a delay in the proceedings, in which case the 60-day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed. The recipient of an employee's request for a hearing must forward the request expeditiously to the Departmental Appeals Board so as to not jeopardize the Boards's ability to issue a decision within this 60-day period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of decision.</I> The written decision shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the facts presented to support the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions, including a determination whether the employee's petition for hearing was baseless and resulted from an intent to delay creditor agency collection activity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The terms of any repayment schedule, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to appear.</I> In the absence of good cause shown, an employee who fails to appear at a hearing shall be deemed, for the purpose of this part, to admit the existence and amount of the debt as described in the notice of intent. If the representative of the creditor agency fails to appear, the hearing official shall proceed with the hearing as scheduled and make a determination based upon oral testimony presented and the documentary evidence submitted by both parties. With the agreement of both parties, the hearing official shall schedule a new hearing date, and both parties shall be given reasonable notice of the time and place of the new hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.7   Obtaining the services of a hearing official.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) When the Department is the creditor agency, the office designated in § 33.4(a)(10) shall schedule a hearing, if one is requested by an employee, before a hearing official.
</P>
<P>(2) When the Department cannot provide a prompt and appropriate hearing before an administrative law judge or a hearing official furnished pursuant to another lawful arrangement, the office designated in § 33.4(a)(10) may:
</P>
<P>(i) When the debtor is not an employee of the Department, contact an agent of the employee's paying agency designated in 5 CFR part 581, appendix A, to arrange for a hearing official; or
</P>
<P>(ii) When the debtor is an employee of the Department, contact an agent of any agency designated in 5 CFR part 581, appendix A, to arrange for a hearing official.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) When another agency is the creditor agency, it is the responsibility of that agency to arrange for a hearing if one is requested. The Department will provide a hearing official upon the request of a creditor agency when the debtor is employed by the Department and the creditor agency cannot provide a prompt and appropriate hearing before a hearing official furnished pursuant to another lawful arrangement.
</P>
<P>(2) Services rendered to a creditor agency under paragraph (b)(1) of this section will be provided on a fully reimbursable basis pursuant to the Economy Act of 1932, as amended, 31 U.S.C. 1535.
</P>
<P>(c) The determination of a hearing official designated under this section is considered to be an official certification regarding the existence and amount of the debt for purposes of executing salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and this part. A creditor agency may make a certification to the Secretary of the Treasury under 5 CFR 550.1108 or a paying agency under 5 CFR 550.1109 regarding the existence and amount of the debt based on the certification of a hearing official. If a hearing official determines that a debt may not be collected via salary offset, but the creditor agency finds that the debt is still valid, the creditor agency may still seek collection of the debt through other means, such as offset of other Federal payments or litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.8   Voluntary repayment agreement in lieu of salary offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In response to the notice of intent to offset, the employee may propose to establish an alternative schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt by submitting a written request to the Department official designated in the notice of intent to offset. An employee who wishes to repay the debt without salary offset shall also submit a proposed written repayment agreement. The proposal shall admit the existence of the debt, and the agreement must be in such form that it is legally enforceable. The agreement must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be signed by both the employee and the Department;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify all the terms of the arrangement for payment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Contain a provision accelerating the debt in the event of default by the employee, but such an increase may not result in a deduction that exceeds 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay unless the employee has agreed in writing to deduction of a greater amount.
</P>
<P>(2) Any proposal under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be received by the Department within 30 days of the date of the notice of intent to offset.
</P>
<P>(b) In response to a timely request as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the designated Department official shall notify the employee whether the proposed repayment schedule is acceptable. It is within the Secretary's discretion to accept a proposed alternative repayment schedule, and to set the necessary terms of a voluntary repayment agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) No voluntary repayment agreement will be binding on the Secretary unless it is in writing and signed by both the Secretary and the employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.9   Special review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Department employee subject to salary offset or a voluntary repayment agreement may, at any time, request a special review by the Secretary of the amount of the salary offset or voluntary repayment installments, based on materially changed circumstances, such as, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In determining whether an offset would prevent the employee from meeting essential subsistence expenses, e.g., food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care, the employee shall submit a detailed statement and supporting documents for the employee, his or her spouse, and dependents indicating:
</P>
<P>(i) Income from all sources;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets and liabilities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Number of dependents;
</P>
<P>(iv) Food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical expenses; and
</P>
<P>(v) Exceptional and unusual expenses, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) When requesting a special review under this section, the employee shall file an alternative proposed offset or payment schedule and a statement, with supporting documents as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, stating why the current salary offset or payments result in an extreme financial hardship to the employee.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Secretary shall evaluate the statement and supporting documents, and determine whether the original offset or repayment schedule imposes extreme financial hardship on the employee.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the request and supporting documents, the Secretary shall notify the employee in writing of such determination, including, if appropriate, a revised offset or repayment schedule.
</P>
<P>(d) If the special review results in a revised offset or repayment schedule, the Secretary shall provide a new certification to the paying agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.10   Procedures for salary offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method and source of deductions.</I> Unless the employee and the Secretary have agreed to an alternative repayment arrangement under § 33.8, a debt shall be collected in lump sum or by installment deductions at officially established pay intervals from an employee's current pay account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation on amount of deduction.</I> Ordinarily, the size of installment deductions must bear a reasonable relationship to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. However, the amount deducted for any pay period must not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made, unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount, as outlined in § 33.8.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of deductions.</I> (1) Lump sum. If the amount of the debt is equal to or less than 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay for an officially established pay interval, the debt generally will be collected in one lump-sum deduction.
</P>
<P>(2) If the employee is deemed financially unable to pay in one lump-sum or the amount of the debt exceeds 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay for an officially established pay interval, the debt shall be collected in installments. Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, installment deductions must be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of active duty or employment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When deductions may begin.</I> (1) Deductions will begin on the date stated in the notice of intent, unless an alternative repayment agreement under § 33.8 has been accepted or the employee has filed a timely request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the employee files a timely petition for hearing as provided in § 33.6, deductions will begin after the hearing official has provided the employee with a hearing and a final written decision has been rendered in favor of the Department.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Liquidation from final check.</I> If an employee retires, resigns, or the period of employment ends before collection of the debt is completed, the remainder of the debt will be offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 from subsequent payments of any nature (e.g., final salary payment or lump-sum leave) due the employee from the paying agency as of the date of separation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recovery from other payments due a separated employee.</I> If the debt cannot be satisfied by offset from any final payment due the employee on the date of separation, the Secretary will liquidate the debt, where appropriate, by administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 from later payments of any kind due the former employee (e.g., lump sum leave payment).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.11   Salary offset when the Department is the creditor agency but not the paying agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Centralized administrative offset.</I> (1) Under 31 U.S.C. 3716, the Department shall notify the Secretary of the Treasury of all past-due, legally enforceable debts which are 180 days delinquent for purposes of collection by centralized administrative offset. This includes debts which the Department seeks to recover from the pay account of an employee of another agency via salary offset. The Secretary of the Treasury and other Federal disbursing officials will match payments, including Federal salary payments, against these debts. Where a match occurs, and all the requirements for offset have been met, the payments will be offset to collect the debt.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to offset of the pay account of an employee, the Department must comply with the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 5514; 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, and this part. Specific procedures for notifying the Secretary of the Treasury of a debt for purposes of collection by administrative offset, including salary offset, are contained in 31 CFR parts 285 and 901 and part 30 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-centralized administrative offset.</I> When salary offset through centralized administrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section is not possible, the Department may attempt to collect a debt through non-centralized administrative offset in accordance with part 30 of this title.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Format of the request.</I> Upon completion of the procedures established in this part and pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5514, the Department shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Certify in writing to the paying agency that the employee owes the debt, the amount and basis of the debt, the date on which payment(s) is due, the date the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, and that the Departmental regulations implementing 5 U.S.C. 5514 have been approved by the Office of Personnel Management.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the collection is to be made in installments, advise the paying agency of the number of installments to be collected, the amount or percentage of disposable pay to be collected in each installment, and the commencement date of the installments, if a date other than the next officially established pay period is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unless the employee has consented in writing to the salary deductions or signed a statement acknowledging receipt of the required procedures and this written consent or statement is forwarded to the paying agency, advise the paying agency of the action(s) taken under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and this part, and give the date(s) the action(s) was taken.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requesting recovery from current paying agency.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the Department shall submit a certified debt claim containing the information specified in paragraph (a) of this section, and an installment agreement, or other instruction on the payment schedule, if applicable, to the employee's paying agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employee is in the process of separating from the Federal Government, the Department shall submit the certified debt claim to the employee's paying agency for collection as provided in § 33.10(e). The paying agency must certify the total amount of its collection on the debt and send a copy of the certification to the employee and another copy to the Department. If the paying agency's collection does not fully satisfy the debt, and the paying agency is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund, or other similar payments that may be due the employee from other Federal Government sources, the paying agency will provide written notification of the outstanding debt to the agency responsible for making such payments to the employee, stating the employee owes a debt, the amount of the debt, and that the provisions of this section have been fully complied with. The Department must submit a properly certified claim to the agency responsible for making such payments before the collection can be made.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employee is already separated and all payments due from the employee's former paying agency have been paid, the Department may request, unless otherwise prohibited, that money due and payable to the employee from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (5 CFR 831.1801 or 5 CFR 845.401) or other similar funds, be administratively offset to collect the debt. See 31 U.S.C. 3716 and 31 CFR 901.3.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the employee transfers to another paying agency, the Department must submit a properly certified debt claim to the new paying agency before collection can be resumed; however, the Department need not repeat the due process procedures described in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and this part. The Department shall review the debt to ensure that collection is resumed by the new paying agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.12   Salary offset when the Department is the paying agency but not the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Format of the request.</I> (1) When the Department is the paying agency and another agency is the creditor agency, the creditor agency must certify, in writing, to the Department that the employee owes the debt, the amount and basis of the debt, the date on which payment(s) is due, the date the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, and that the creditor agency's regulations implementing 5 U.S.C. 5514 have been approved by the Office of Personnel Management.
</P>
<P>(2) If the collection is to be made in installments, the creditor agency must also advise the Department of the number of installments to be collected, the amount or percentage of disposable pay to be collected in each installment, and the commencement date of the installments, if a date other than the next officially established pay period is required.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless the employee has consented in writing to the salary deductions or signed a statement acknowledging receipt of the required procedures and the written consent or statement is forwarded to the Department, the creditor agency must advise the Department of the action(s) taken under 5 U.S.C. § 5514, and give the date(s) the action(s) was taken.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for recovery.</I> (1) Complete claim. When the Department receives a properly certified debt claim from a creditor agency, deductions should be scheduled to begin prospectively at the next officially established pay interval. The employee must receive written notice as described in § 33.10 that the Department has received a certified debt claim from the creditor agency, including the amount, and written notice of the date deductions from salary will commence and the amount of such deductions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Incomplete claim.</I> When the Department receives an incomplete debt claim from a creditor agency, the Secretary shall return the debt claim with a notice that procedures under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, must be provided and a properly certified debt claim received before action will be taken to collect from the employee's current pay account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review.</I> The Secretary is not required or authorized to review the merits of the determination with respect to the amount or validity of the debt certified by the creditor agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employees separating.</I> If an employee begins separation action before the Department collects the total debt due the creditor agency, the following actions will be taken:
</P>
<P>(1) To the extent possible, the balance owed the creditor agency will be liquidated from a final salary check, or other final payments of any nature due the employee from the Department;
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary will certify the total amount of the Department's collection on the debt and send a copy of the certification to the employee and another copy to the creditor agency; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the Department's collection does not fully satisfy the debt, and the Secretary is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund, or other similar payments that may be due the employee from other Federal Government sources, the Secretary will provide written notification of the outstanding debt to the agency responsible for making such payments to the employee. The written notification shall state that the employee owes a debt, the amount of the debt, and that the provisions of this section have been fully complied with. The Department shall furnish a copy of this written notification to the creditor agency so that it can file a properly certified debt claim with the agency responsible for making such payments.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employees who transfer to another paying agency.</I> If, after the creditor agency has submitted a debt claim to the Department, the employee transfers from the Department to a different paying agency before the debt is collected in full, the Secretary shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Certify the total amount of the collection made on the debt; and
</P>
<P>(2) Furnish a copy of the certification to the employee and another copy to the creditor agency along with notice of the employee's transfer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.13   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>Debts owed to the Department shall be assessed interest, penalties and administrative costs in accordance with 45 CFR 30.18.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.14   Non-waiver of rights.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's involuntary payment of all or any portion of a debt collected under this part shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights which the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of law or contract, unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.15   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary shall promptly refund any amounts paid or deducted under this part when:
</P>
<P>(1) A debt is waived or otherwise found not owing to the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) The employee's paying agency is directed by administrative or judicial order to refund amount deducted from the employee's current pay.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required or permitted by law or contract, refunds shall not bear interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.21.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.16   Additional administrative collection action.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this part is intended to preclude the use of any other appropriate administrative remedy.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 34—CLAIMS FILED UNDER THE MILITARY PERSONNEL AND CIVILIAN EMPLOYEES ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3721.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 13257, Mar. 22, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 34.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.22.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes polices and procedures for handling claims not in excess of $40,000.00 filed by employees against the Department of Health and Human Services under the Military Personnel and Civilian Employees Claims (MPCE) Act of 1964, 31 U.S.C. 3721, for damage to, or loss of, property against the Department. Under the MPCE Act, the Secretary may approve claims made against the Government by a federal government employee for damage to or loss of personal property that is incident to employment when the loss or damage is not due to any negligence on the part of employee. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to all Departmental Operating Divisions and Regional Offices that process and review claims under the MPCE Act. Nothing in this part shall be construed to bar other types of claims that are payable under other statutory authority such as, but not limited to, the Federal Tort Claims Act (28 U.S.C. 2671-2680). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.22.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this part, unless the context otherwise requires:
</P>
<P><I>Claim</I> means any claim filed by or on behalf of an employee for damage to, or loss of, property that is incident to the claimant's employment. This definition includes claims where the claimant is not the legal owner of the property in question, but has obtained authorization from the legal owner to posses or control the property. 
</P>
<P><I>Claimant</I> means an employee who has filed a claim with the Department under the MPCE Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Damage or loss</I> means total or partial destruction or loss of the item claimed. 
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an officer or employee of the Department. 
</P>
<P><I>Quarters</I> means a house, apartment or other residence assigned by the government to an employee of the Department. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.22.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.3   Filing procedures and time limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file a claim.</I> A claim may be filed by the following individuals: 
</P>
<P>(1) An employee; 
</P>
<P>(2) An authorized agent or representative of an employee or employee's estate, regardless of whether the claim arose before or concurrent with an employee's death; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A former employee or his authorized agent or representative if damage or loss occurred prior to the separation from the Department. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> A claim submitted under this part must be presented in writing to the Claims Officer (<I>See</I> paragraph (c) of this section). Claims may be submitted on a HHS-481 form, Employee Claim for Loss or Damage to Personal Property. All claims must be signed by the claimant or his authorized agent or representative. The HHS-Form can be obtained from the Claims Officer or downloaded from the Program Support Center's webpage at <I>www.psc.gov.</I> All claims must include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Name and address of the claimant; 
</P>
<P>(2) The office in which the claimant was employed at the time of loss, current office, if different, and telephone number; 
</P>
<P>(3) Date of loss or damage; 
</P>
<P>(4) Amount of claim; 
</P>
<P>(5) Description of the property, including but not limited to type, design, model number, date acquired, value when acquired, value when lost, and estimation of repair or replacement cost; 
</P>
<P>(6) Description of incident; and 
</P>
<P>(7) If property was insured when loss or damage occurred, a statement indicating whether a claim was filed with an insurance carrier. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file your claim.</I> (1) Claimants employed with the Regional Offices should submit claims to the Chief Regional Counsel, Office of the General Counsel, within the claimant's Region. 
</P>
<P>(2) All other claimants must submit claims to the Office of the General Counsel, General Law Division, Claims and Employment Law Branch, 330 Independence Ave., SW., Room 4760, Cohen Building, Washington, DC 20201. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Evidence required.</I> You must submit the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Not less than two itemized signed estimates for the cost of repairs, or an itemized bill of repair for the damaged property; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the event the property is not economically repairable or is totally lost or destroyed, proof of this fact, its market value before or after loss, purchase price, and date of acquisition of the property; 
</P>
<P>(3) Proof of ownership or right to recover for the damage such as a receipt; 
</P>
<P>(4) Police/incident report; 
</P>
<P>(5) If property is insured, insurance information, such as insurance carrier, type of coverage, deductible, and whether claim has been filed and/or paid; 
</P>
<P>(6) Travel orders, if applicable; 
</P>
<P>(7) Any citations or traffic tickets, if applicable; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Any other evidence required by the claims officer not specified above. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time limit.</I> (1) A claim filed under this section must be filed in writing with the Department within two years from the date of the incident. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the claim accrues in the time of war or in the time of armed conflict in which any armed forces of the United States are engaged or if such a war or armed conflict occurs within two years after the claim accrues, and if good cause is shown, the claim shall be presented no more than two years after that cause ceases to exist, or two years after the war or armed conflict is terminated, whichever is earlier. 
</P>
<P>(3) All required evidence in support of a claim submitted under this section must be forwarded to the claims officer within sixty days after request. Failure to do so will be deemed as an abandonment of the claim and the claim will be disallowed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.22.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.4   Allowable claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What you can claim.</I> (1) Claims for damage or loss may be allowed where possession of the property was lawful and reasonable under circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(2) Claims for property damage or loss by fire, flood, hurricane, theft, or other serious occurrence may be allowed when the property is located inside: 
</P>
<P>(i) Quarters that have been assigned or provided by the government; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Quarters outside the United States whether assigned by the government or not, except when a civilian employee outside the U.S. is a local inhabitant. 
</P>
<P>(3) Claims for damage to, or loss of, property may be allowed when caused by: 
</P>
<P>(i) Marine, air disaster, enemy action or threat thereof, or other extraordinary risks incurred incident to the performance of official duties by the claimant; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Efforts by the claimant to save human life or government property. 
</P>
<P>(4) Property used for the benefit of the government. Claims may be allowed for damage to, or loss of, property used for the benefit of the government at the request, or with the knowledge and consent of, superior authority. 
</P>
<P>(5) Claims for clothing and accessories may be allowed when loss or damage was caused by faulty or defective equipment or furnishings owned or managed by the Department. 
</P>
<P>(6) Claims for stolen property, only if it is determined that the claimant exercised due care in protecting his property and there is clear evidence that a burglary or theft occurred. 
</P>
<P>(7) Claims for automobiles, only when required to perform official business or parked on a government-owned or operated parking lot or garage incident to employment. This subsection does not include claims for damage or loss when traveling between place of residence and duty station, or when the loss or damage was caused by the negligence of a third party. If the automobile is a total loss, the maximum amount allowed is the value of the vehicle at the time of loss as determined by the National Automobile Dealer Association Appraisal Guide or similar publications. 
</P>
<P>(8) Claims for any other meritorious claims in exceptional cases may be allowed by the Claims Officer. 
</P>
<P>(9) Transportation or travel losses. Damage or loss of personal property, including baggage and household items, while being transported by a carrier, agent or agency of the government, or private conveyance, may be allowed only if the property is shipped under orders or in connection with travel orders. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.22.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.5   Unallowable claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What you cannot claim.</I> (1) Claims for money or currency, such as intangible property (<I>i.e.</I> bankbooks, check, money orders, promissory notes, stock certificates, etc.). 
</P>
<P>(2) Worn-out or unserviceable property. 
</P>
<P>(3) Easily pilferable articles, such as jewelry, cameras, watches, and binoculars when they are shipped with household goods by a moving company or unaccompanied baggage. This does not apply to checked property or property in personal custody of the claimant or his agent provided proper security measures have been taken. 
</P>
<P>(4) Government property. 
</P>
<P>(5) Appraisal or estimate fees. 
</P>
<P>(6) Automobiles, except when required to perform official business or parked on a government-owned or operated parking lot or garage incident to employment. 
</P>
<P>(7) Loss or damage caused in whole or in part by the negligent or wrongful act of the claimant or his agent or employee. 
</P>
<P>(8) Claims under $30.00. 
</P>
<P>(9) Stolen property when it's determined that claimant failed to exercise due care in protecting his or her property. 
</P>
<P>(10) Sales tax. Reimbursements for the payment of sales tax incurred in connection with repairs or replacing an item will not be allowed. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.22.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.6   Reconsideration or appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for reconsideration or appeal shall be forwarded to the Associate General Counsel, General Law Division, Office of the General Counsel, within sixty days from the date of the Claims Officer's decision along with any new evidence supporting the claim. 
</P>
<P>(b) A voucher or a supplemental voucher will be prepared by the Claims Officer if it is determined that the claimant's request for reconsideration should be allowed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.22.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.7   Payment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For all claims that are approved in whole or part, the claims officer shall prepare and mail a payment voucher to the claimant. 
</P>
<P>(b) This voucher shall be mailed to the claimant with appropriate instructions. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of the signed payment voucher, the claims officer shall sign and forward the signed voucher to the office where the claimant is or was employed for processing. 
</P>
<P>(d) Upon receipt of the signed payment voucher, the office in which the claimant is or was employed will submit the voucher for transmission to the Treasury Department for issuance of a check in the sum allowed. 
</P>
<P>(e) Funds paid for settlement of allowed claims shall be made from appropriations of the office in which the claimant is or was employed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.22.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.8   Computation of award and settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amount awarded on any item of property shall not exceed the adjusted cost of the item based on the cost of replacing it with a similar one of the same quality minus the appropriate depreciation rate. The amount normally payable on property damaged beyond economical repair shall not exceed its depreciated value. If the cost of repairs is less than the depreciated value it shall be considered economically repairable and the costs of repairs shall be the amount payable. 
</P>
<P>(b) Depreciation in value of an item shall be determined by considering the type of article involved, its replacement cost, condition when lost or damaged beyond economical repair, and the time elapsed between the date of acquisition and the date of accrual of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, settlements of claims under the MPCE Act are final and conclusive. The acceptance of a settlement constitutes a complete release of any claim against the United States and any employee of the government whose act or omission gave rise to the claim by reason of the same claim. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.22.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.9   Claims involving carriers or insurers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Carriers.</I> (1) If property is damaged, lost or destroyed while being shipped pursuant to authorized travel orders, the owner shall file a written claim for reimbursement against the carrier no later than nine months from the date of delivery or should have been made according to the terms of the contract. It shall be filed before or concurrent with submitting a claim against the government under this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) The demand shall be made against the responsible carrier if more than one contract was issued, a separate demand shall be made against the last carrier on each such document, unless claimant knows which carrier was in possession of the property when the damage or loss occurred. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Insurers.</I> (1) If property which is damaged, lost, or destroyed incident to the claimant's service is insured in whole or in part, the claimant shall inform the Claims Officer whether a claim was made with the insurance carrier. 
</P>
<P>(2) The claimant shall inform the claims officer if he or she received a reimbursement from the insurance carrier for the item that was damaged or lost. The exact amount of the reimbursement must be reported. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the claimant receives a reimbursement for the lost or damaged property from an insurance carrier, the maximum amount that can be recovered from the Department is the difference between an appropriate award under this regulation and the amount recovered from the insurance carrier. The claimant is responsible for submitting to the Department documentation that identifies the exact amount of the reimbursement.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="35" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 35—TORT CLAIMS AGAINST THE GOVERNMENT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 1(a), 80 Stat. 306; 28 U.S.C. 2672; 28 CFR Part 14. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>32 FR 14101, Oct. 11, 1967, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.1   Scope of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part shall apply only to claims asserted under the Federal Tort Claims Act, as amended, 28 U.S.C. sections 2671-2680, accruing on or after January 18, 1967, for money damages against the United States for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or death caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of any employee of the Department of Health and Human Services while acting within the scope of his office or employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2   Administrative claim; when presented; place of filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of the regulations in this part, a claim shall be deemed to have been presented when the Department of Health and Human Services receives, at a place designated in paragraph (b) of this section, an executed Standard Form 95 or other written notification of an incident accompanied by a claim for money damages in a sum certain for damage to or loss of property, for personal injury, or for death, alleged to have occurred by reason of the incident. A claim which should have been presented to the Department but which was mistakenly addressed to or filed with another Federal agency, shall be deemed to be presented to the Department as of the date that the claim is received by the Department. A claim mistakenly addressed to or filed with the Department shall forthwith be transferred to the appropriate Federal agency, if ascertainable, or returned to the claimant. 
</P>
<P>(b) A claim presented in compliance with paragraph (a) of this section may be amended by the claimant at any time prior to final action by the Department Claims Officer or prior to the exercise of the claimant's option to bring suit under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a). Amendments shall be submitted in writing and signed by the claimant or his duly authorized agent or legal representative. Upon the timely filing of an amendment to a pending claim, the Department shall have 6 months in which to make a final disposition of the claim as amended and the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) shall not accrue until 6 months after the filing of an amendment. 
</P>
<P>(c) Forms may be obtained and claims may be filed, with the office, local, regional, or headquarters, of the constituent organization having jurisdiction over the employee involved in the accident or incident, or with the Department of Health and Human Services Claims Officer, Washington, DC 20201. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 14101, Oct. 11, 1967, as amended at 35 FR 4517, Mar. 13, 1970] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.3   Administrative claim; who may file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim for injury to or loss of property may be presented by the owner of the property interest which is the subject of the claim, his duly authorized agent, or his legal representative. 
</P>
<P>(b) A claim for personal injury may be presented by the injured person, his duly authorized agent, or his legal representative. 
</P>
<P>(c) A claim based on death may be presented by the executor or administrator of the decedent's estate or by any other person legally entitled to assert such a claim under applicable state law. 
</P>
<P>(d) A claim for loss wholly compensated by an insurer with the rights of a subrogee may be presented by the insurer. A claim for loss partially compensated by an insurer with the rights of a subrogee may be presented by the insurer or the insured individually, as their respective interests appear, or jointly. Whenever an insurer presents a claim asserting the rights of a subrogee, he shall present with his claim appropriate evidence that he has the rights of a subrogee. 
</P>
<P>(e) A claim presented by an agent or legal representative shall be presented in the name of the claimant, be signed by the agent or legal representative, show the title or legal capacity of the person signing, and be accompanied by evidence of his authority to present a claim on behalf of the claimant as agent, executor, administrator, parent, guardian, or other representative. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.4   Administrative claims; evidence and information to be submitted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Death.</I> In support of a claim based on death, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information: 
</P>
<P>(1) An authenticated death certificate or other competent evidence showing cause of death, date of death, and age of the decedent. 
</P>
<P>(2) Decedent's employment or occupation at time of death, including his monthly or yearly salary or earnings (if any), and the duration of his last employment or occupation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Full names, addresses, birth dates, kinship, and marital status of the decedent's survivors, including identification of those survivors who were dependent for support upon the decedent at the time of his death. 
</P>
<P>(4) Degree of support afforded by the decedent to each survivor dependent upon him for support at the time of his death. 
</P>
<P>(5) Decedent's general physical and mental condition before death. 
</P>
<P>(6) Itemized bills for medical and burial expenses incurred by reason of the incident causing death, or itemized receipts of payments for such expenses. 
</P>
<P>(7) If damages for pain and suffering prior to death are claimed, a physician's detailed statement specifying the injuries suffered, duration of pain and suffering, any drugs administered for pain and the decedent's physical condition in the interval between injury and death. 
</P>
<P>(8) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on either the responsibility of the United States for the death or the damages claimed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal injury.</I> In support of a claim for personal injury, including pain and suffering, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A written report by his attending physician or dentist setting forth the nature and extent of the injury, nature and extent of treatment, any degree of temporary or permanent disability, the prognosis, period of hospitalization, and any diminished earning capacity. In addition, the claimant may be required to submit to a physical or mental examination by a physician employed or designated by the Department or the constituent organization. A copy of the report of the examining physician shall be made available to the claimant upon the claimant's written request provided that claimant has, upon request, furnished the report referred to in the first sentence of this subparagraph and has made or agrees to make available to the Department or the operating agency any other physician's reports previously or thereafter made of the physical or mental condition which is the subject matter of his claim. 
</P>
<P>(2) Itemized bills for medical, dental, and hospital expenses incurred, or itemized receipts of payment for such expenses. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the prognosis reveals the necessity for future treatment, a statement of expected duration of and expenses for such treatment. 
</P>
<P>(4) If a claim is made for loss of time from employment, a written statement from his employer showing actual time lost from employment, whether he is a full or part-time employee, and wages or salary actually lost. 
</P>
<P>(5) If a claim is made for loss of income and the claimant is self-employed, documentary evidence showing the amount of earnings actually lost. 
</P>
<P>(6) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on either the responsibility of the United States for the personal injury or the damages claimed. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Property damage.</I> In support of a claim for damage to or loss of property, real or personal, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Proof of ownership. 
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed statement of the amount claimed with respect to each item of property. 
</P>
<P>(3) An itemized receipt of payment for necessary repairs or itemized written estimates of the cost of such repairs. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement listing date of purchase, purchase price, market value of the property as of date of damage, and salvage value, where repair is not economical. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing either on the responsibility of the United States for the injury to or loss of property or the damages claimed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limit.</I> All evidence required to be submitted by this section shall be furnished by the claimant within a reasonable time. Failure of a claimant to furnish evidence necessary to a determination of his claim within three months after a request therefor has been mailed to his last known address may be deemed an abandonment of the claim. The claim may be thereupon disallowed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.5   Investigation, examination, and determination of claims.</HEAD>
<P>When a claim is received, the constituent agency out of whose activities the claim arose shall make such investigation as may be necessary or appropriate for a determination of the validity of the claim and thereafter shall forward the claim, together with all pertinent material, and a recommendation based on the merits of the case, with regard to allowance or disallowance of the claim, to the Department Claims Officer to whom authority has been delegated to adjust, determine, compromise and settle all claims hereunder. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.6   Final denial of claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Final denial of an administrative claim shall be in writing and sent to the claimant, his attorney, or legal representative by certified or registered mail. The notification of final denial may include a statement of the reasons for the denial and shall include a statement that, if the claimant is dissatisfied with the Department's action, he may file suit in an appropriate U.S. District Court not later than 6 months after the date of mailing of the notification. 
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to the commencement of suit and prior to the expiration of the 6-month period after the date of mailing, by certified or registered mail of notice of final denial of the claim as provided in 28 U.S.C. 2401(b), a claimant, his duly authorized agent, or legal representative, may file a written request with the Department for reconsideration of a final denial of a claim under paragraph (a) of this section. Upon the timely filing of a request for reconsideration the Department shall have 6 months from the date of filing in which to make a final disposition of the claim and the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) to bring suit shall not accrue until 6 months after the filing of a request for reconsideration. Final Department action on a request for reconsideration shall be effected in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 14101, Oct. 11, 1967, as amended at 35 FR 4517, Mar. 13, 1970] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.7   Payment of approved claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon allowance of his claim, claimant or his duly authorized agent shall sign the voucher for payment, Standard Form 1145, before payment is made. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the claimant is represented by an attorney, the voucher for payment (SF 1145) shall designate both the claimant and his attorney as “payees.” The check shall be delivered to the attorney whose address shall appear on the voucher. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.8   Release.</HEAD>
<P>Acceptance by the claimant, his agent or legal representative, of any award, compromise or settlement made hereunder, shall be final and conclusive on the claimant, his agent or legal representative and any other person on whose behalf or for whose benefit the claim has been presented, and shall constitute a complete release of any claim against the United States and against any employee of the Government whose act or omission gave rise to the claim, by reason of the same subject matter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.9   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>A person who files a false claim or makes a false or fraudulent statement in a claim against the United States may be liable to a fine of not more than $10,000 or to imprisonment of not more than 5 years, or both (18 U.S.C. 287.1001), and, in addition, to a forfeiture of $2,000 and a penalty of double the loss or damage sustained by the United States (31 U.S.C. 231). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.23.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.10   Limitation on Department's authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An award, compromise or settlement of a claim hereunder in excess of $25,000 shall be effected only with the prior written approval of the Attorney General or his designee. For the purposes of this paragraph, a principal claim and any derivative or subrogated claim shall be treated as a single claim. 
</P>
<P>(b) An administrative claim may be adjusted, determined, compromised or settled hereunder only after consultation with the Department of Justice when, in the opinion of the Department: 
</P>
<P>(1) A new precedent or a new point of law is involved; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A question of policy is or may be involved; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The United States is or may be entitled to indemnity or contribution from a third party and the Department is unable to adjust the third party claim; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The compromise of a particular claim, as a practical matter, will or may control the disposition of a related claim in which the amount to be paid may exceed $25,000. 
</P>
<P>(c) An administrative claim may be adjusted, determined, compromised or settled only after consultation with the Department of Justice when it is learned that the United States or an employee, agent or cost plus contractor of the United States is involved in litigation based on a claim arising out of the same incident or transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="36" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 36—INDEMNIFICATION OF HHS EMPLOYEES


</HEAD>

<DIV8 N="§ 36.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.24.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.1   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Health and Human Services may indemnify, in whole or in part, its employees (which for the purpose of this regulation includes former employees) for any verdict, judgment or other monetary award which is rendered against any such employee, provided that the conduct giving rise to the verdict, judgment or award was taken within the scope of his or her employment with the Department and that such indemnification is in the interest of the United States, as determined by the Secretary, or his or her designee, in his or her discretion.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of Health and Human Services may settle or compromise a personal damage claim against its employee by the payment of available funds, at any time, provided the alleged conduct giving rise to the personal damage claim was taken within the scope of employment and that such settlement or compromise is in the interest of the United States, as determined by the Secretary, or his or her designee, in his or her discretion.
</P>
<P>(c) Absent exceptional circumstances, as determined by the Secretary or his or her designee, the Department will not entertain a request either to agree to indemnify or to settle a personal damage claim before entry of an adverse verdict, judgment or monetary award.
</P>
<P>(d) When an employee of the Department of Health and Human Services becomes aware that an action has been filed against the employee in his or her individual capacity as a result of conduct taken within the scope of his or her employment, the employee should immediately notify the Department that such an action is pending.
</P>
<P>(e) The employee may, thereafter, request either (1) indemnification to satisfy a verdict, judgment or award entered against the employee or (2) payment to satisfy the requirements of a settlement proposal. The employee shall submit a written request, with documentation including copies of the verdict, judgment, award or settlement proposal, as appropriate, to the head of his employing component, who shall thereupon submit to the General Counsel, in a timely manner, a recommended disposition of the request. The General Counsel shall also seek the views of the Department of Justice. The General Counsel shall forward the request, the employing component's recommendation and the General Counsel's recommendation to the Secretary for decision.
</P>
<P>(f) Any payment under this section either to indemnify a Department of Health and Human Services employee or to settle a personal damage claim shall be contingent upon the availability of appropriated funds of the employing component of the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Authority: 5 U.S.C. 301)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 11280, Apr. 6, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="46" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 46—PROTECTION OF HUMAN SUBJECTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 42 U.S.C. 289(a); 42 U.S.C. 300v-1(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>The Department of Health and Human Services issued a notice of waiver regarding the requirements set forth in part 46, relating to protection of human subjects, as they pertain to demonstration projects, approved under section 1115 of the Social Security Act, which test the use of cost—sharing, such as deductibles, copayment and coinsurance, in the Medicaid program. For further information see 47 FR 9208, Mar. 4, 1982.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Basic HHS Policy for Protection of Human Research Subjects</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 7259, 7273, Jan. 19, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 46.101" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.101   To what does this policy apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as detailed in § 46.104, this policy applies to all research involving human subjects conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by any Federal department or agency that takes appropriate administrative action to make the policy applicable to such research. This includes research conducted by Federal civilian employees or military personnel, except that each department or agency head may adopt such procedural modifications as may be appropriate from an administrative standpoint. It also includes research conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by the Federal Government outside the United States. Institutions that are engaged in research described in this paragraph and institutional review boards (IRBs) reviewing research that is subject to this policy must comply with this policy.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Department or agency heads retain final judgment as to whether a particular activity is covered by this policy and this judgment shall be exercised consistent with the ethical principles of the Belmont Report.
<SU>62</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>62</SU> The National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral Research.- Belmont Report. Washington, DC: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. 1979.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Department or agency heads may require that specific research activities or classes of research activities conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by the Federal department or agency but not otherwise covered by this policy comply with some or all of the requirements of this policy.
</P>
<P>(e) Compliance with this policy requires compliance with pertinent federal laws or regulations that provide additional protections for human subjects.
</P>
<P>(f) This policy does not affect any state or local laws or regulations (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe) that may otherwise be applicable and that provide additional protections for human subjects.
</P>
<P>(g) This policy does not affect any foreign laws or regulations that may otherwise be applicable and that provide additional protections to human subjects of research.
</P>
<P>(h) When research covered by this policy takes place in foreign countries, procedures normally followed in the foreign countries to protect human subjects may differ from those set forth in this policy. In these circumstances, if a department or agency head determines that the procedures prescribed by the institution afford protections that are at least equivalent to those provided in this policy, the department or agency head may approve the substitution of the foreign procedures in lieu of the procedural requirements provided in this policy. Except when otherwise required by statute, Executive Order, or the department or agency head, notices of these actions as they occur will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or will be otherwise published as provided in department or agency procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) Unless otherwise required by law, department or agency heads may waive the applicability of some or all of the provisions of this policy to specific research activities or classes of research activities otherwise covered by this policy, provided the alternative procedures to be followed are consistent with the principles of the Belmont Report.
<SU>63</SU>
<FTREF/> Except when otherwise required by statute or Executive Order, the department or agency head shall forward advance notices of these actions to the Office for Human Research Protections, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), or any successor office, or to the equivalent office within the appropriate Federal department or agency, and shall also publish them in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or in such other manner as provided in department or agency procedures. The waiver notice must include a statement that identifies the conditions under which the waiver will be applied and a justification as to why the waiver is appropriate for the research, including how the decision is consistent with the principles of the Belmont Report.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>63</SU> <I>Id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(j) Federal guidance on the requirements of this policy shall be issued only after consultation, for the purpose of harmonization (to the extent appropriate), with other Federal departments and agencies that have adopted this policy, unless such consultation is not feasible.
</P>
<P>(k) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(l) Compliance dates and transition provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pre-2018 Requirements.</I> For purposes of this section, the <I>pre-2018 Requirements</I> means this subpart as published in the 2016 edition of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>2018 Requirements.</I> For purposes of this section, the <I>2018 Requirements</I> means the Federal Policy for the Protection of Human Subjects requirements contained in this subpart. The general compliance date for the 2018 Requirements is January 21, 2019. The compliance date for § 46.114(b) (cooperative research) of the 2018 Requirements is January 20, 2020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Research subject to pre-2018 requirements.</I> The pre-2018 Requirements shall apply to the following research, unless the research is transitioning to comply with the 2018 Requirements in accordance with paragraph (l)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Research initially approved by an IRB under the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which IRB review was waived pursuant to § 46.101(i) of the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which a determination was made that the research was exempt under § 46.101(b) of the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transitioning research.</I> If, on or after July 19, 2018, an institution planning or engaged in research otherwise covered by paragraph (l)(3) of this section determines that such research instead will transition to comply with the 2018 Requirements, the institution or an IRB must document and date such determination.
</P>
<P>(i) If the determination to transition is documented between July 19, 2018, and January 20, 2019, the research shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Beginning on the date of such documentation through January 20, 2019, comply with the pre-2018 Requirements, except that the research shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Section 46.102(l) of the 2018 Requirements (definition of research) (instead of § 46.102(d) of the pre-2018 Requirements);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Section 46.103(d) of the 2018 Requirements (revised certification requirement that eliminates IRB review of application or proposal) (instead of § 46.103(f) of the pre-2018 Requirements); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Section 46.109(f)(1)(i) and (iii) of the 2018 Requirements (exceptions to mandated continuing review) (instead of § 46.103(b), as related to the requirement for continuing review, and in addition to § 46.109, of the pre-2018 Requirements); and
</P>
<P>(B) Beginning on January 21, 2019, comply with the 2018 Requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the determination to transition is documented on or after January 21, 2019, the research shall, beginning on the date of such documentation, comply with the 2018 Requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Research subject to 2018 Requirements.</I> The 2018 Requirements shall apply to the following research:
</P>
<P>(i) Research initially approved by an IRB on or after January 21, 2019;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which IRB review is waived pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section on or after January 21, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which a determination is made that the research is exempt on or after January 21, 2019.
</P>
<P>(m) Severability: Any provision of this part held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this part and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to other persons not similarly situated or to other dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 7259, 7273, Jan. 19, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 28518, June 19, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.102" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.102   Definitions for purposes of this policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification</I> means the official notification by the institution to the supporting Federal department or agency component, in accordance with the requirements of this policy, that a research project or activity involving human subjects has been reviewed and approved by an IRB in accordance with an approved assurance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clinical trial</I> means a research study in which one or more human subjects are prospectively assigned to one or more interventions (which may include placebo or other control) to evaluate the effects of the interventions on biomedical or behavioral health-related outcomes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Department or agency head</I> means the head of any Federal department or agency, for example, the Secretary of HHS, and any other officer or employee of any Federal department or agency to whom the authority provided by these regulations to the department or agency head has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal department or agency</I> refers to a federal department or agency (the department or agency itself rather than its bureaus, offices or divisions) that takes appropriate administrative action to make this policy applicable to the research involving human subjects it conducts, supports, or otherwise regulates (<I>e.g.,</I> the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, the U.S. Department of Defense, or the Central Intelligence Agency).
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Human subject</I> means a living individual about whom an investigator (whether professional or student) conducting research:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtains information or biospecimens through intervention or interaction with the individual, and uses, studies, or analyzes the information or biospecimens; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtains, uses, studies, analyzes, or generates identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intervention</I> includes both physical procedures by which information or biospecimens are gathered (<I>e.g.,</I> venipuncture) and manipulations of the subject or the subject's environment that are performed for research purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interaction</I> includes communication or interpersonal contact between investigator and subject.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Private information</I> includes information about behavior that occurs in a context in which an individual can reasonably expect that no observation or recording is taking place, and information that has been provided for specific purposes by an individual and that the individual can reasonably expect will not be made public (<I>e.g.,</I> a medical record).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Identifiable private information</I> is private information for which the identity of the subject is or may readily be ascertained by the investigator or associated with the information.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>An identifiable biospecimen</I> is a biospecimen for which the identity of the subject is or may readily be ascertained by the investigator or associated with the biospecimen.
</P>
<P>(7) Federal departments or agencies implementing this policy shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon consultation with appropriate experts (including experts in data matching and re-identification), reexamine the meaning of “identifiable private information,” as defined in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, and “identifiable biospecimen,” as defined in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. This reexamination shall take place within 1 year and regularly thereafter (at least every 4 years). This process will be conducted by collaboration among the Federal departments and agencies implementing this policy. If appropriate and permitted by law, such Federal departments and agencies may alter the interpretation of these terms, including through the use of guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon consultation with appropriate experts, assess whether there are analytic technologies or techniques that should be considered by investigators to generate “identifiable private information,” as defined in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, or an “identifiable biospecimen,” as defined in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. This assessment shall take place within 1 year and regularly thereafter (at least every 4 years). This process will be conducted by collaboration among the Federal departments and agencies implementing this policy. Any such technologies or techniques will be included on a list of technologies or techniques that produce identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens. This list will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> after notice and an opportunity for public comment. The Secretary, HHS, shall maintain the list on a publicly accessible Web site.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Institution</I> means any public or private entity, or department or agency (including federal, state, and other agencies).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>IRB</I> means an institutional review board established in accord with and for the purposes expressed in this policy.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>IRB approval</I> means the determination of the IRB that the research has been reviewed and may be conducted at an institution within the constraints set forth by the IRB and by other institutional and federal requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Legally authorized representative</I> means an individual or judicial or other body authorized under applicable law to consent on behalf of a prospective subject to the subject's participation in the procedure(s) involved in the research. If there is no applicable law addressing this issue, <I>legally authorized representative</I> means an individual recognized by institutional policy as acceptable for providing consent in the nonresearch context on behalf of the prospective subject to the subject's participation in the procedure(s) involved in the research.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Minimal risk</I> means that the probability and magnitude of harm or discomfort anticipated in the research are not greater in and of themselves than those ordinarily encountered in daily life or during the performance of routine physical or psychological examinations or tests.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Public health authority</I> means an agency or authority of the United States, a state, a territory, a political subdivision of a state or territory, an Indian tribe, or a foreign government, or a person or entity acting under a grant of authority from or contract with such public agency, including the employees or agents of such public agency or its contractors or persons or entities to whom it has granted authority, that is responsible for public health matters as part of its official mandate.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Research</I> means a systematic investigation, including research development, testing, and evaluation, designed to develop or contribute to generalizable knowledge. Activities that meet this definition constitute research for purposes of this policy, whether or not they are conducted or supported under a program that is considered research for other purposes. For example, some demonstration and service programs may include research activities. For purposes of this part, the following activities are deemed not to be research:
</P>
<P>(1) Scholarly and journalistic activities (<I>e.g.,</I> oral history, journalism, biography, literary criticism, legal research, and historical scholarship), including the collection and use of information, that focus directly on the specific individuals about whom the information is collected.
</P>
<P>(2) Public health surveillance activities, including the collection and testing of information or biospecimens, conducted, supported, requested, ordered, required, or authorized by a public health authority. Such activities are limited to those necessary to allow a public health authority to identify, monitor, assess, or investigate potential public health signals, onsets of disease outbreaks, or conditions of public health importance (including trends, signals, risk factors, patterns in diseases, or increases in injuries from using consumer products). Such activities include those associated with providing timely situational awareness and priority setting during the course of an event or crisis that threatens public health (including natural or man-made disasters).
</P>
<P>(3) Collection and analysis of information, biospecimens, or records by or for a criminal justice agency for activities authorized by law or court order solely for criminal justice or criminal investigative purposes.
</P>
<P>(4) Authorized operational activities (as determined by each agency) in support of intelligence, homeland security, defense, or other national security missions.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Written,</I> or <I>in writing,</I> for purposes of this part, refers to writing on a tangible medium (<I>e.g.,</I> paper) or in an electronic format.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.103" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.103   Assuring compliance with this policy—research conducted or supported by any Federal department or agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each institution engaged in research that is covered by this policy, with the exception of research eligible for exemption under § 46.104, and that is conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, shall provide written assurance satisfactory to the department or agency head that it will comply with the requirements of this policy. In lieu of requiring submission of an assurance, individual department or agency heads shall accept the existence of a current assurance, appropriate for the research in question, on file with the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office, and approved for Federal-wide use by that office. When the existence of an HHS-approved assurance is accepted in lieu of requiring submission of an assurance, reports (except certification) required by this policy to be made to department and agency heads shall also be made to the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office. Federal departments and agencies will conduct or support research covered by this policy only if the institution has provided an assurance that it will comply with the requirements of this policy, as provided in this section, and only if the institution has certified to the department or agency head that the research has been reviewed and approved by an IRB (if such certification is required by § 46.103(d)).
</P>
<P>(b) The assurance shall be executed by an individual authorized to act for the institution and to assume on behalf of the institution the obligations imposed by this policy and shall be filed in such form and manner as the department or agency head prescribes.
</P>
<P>(c) The department or agency head may limit the period during which any assurance shall remain effective or otherwise condition or restrict the assurance.
</P>
<P>(d) Certification is required when the research is supported by a Federal department or agency and not otherwise waived under § 46.101(i) or exempted under § 46.104. For such research, institutions shall certify that each proposed research study covered by the assurance and this section has been reviewed and approved by the IRB. Such certification must be submitted as prescribed by the Federal department or agency component supporting the research. Under no condition shall research covered by this section be initiated prior to receipt of the certification that the research has been reviewed and approved by the IRB.
</P>
<P>(e) For nonexempt research involving human subjects covered by this policy (or exempt research for which limited IRB review takes place pursuant to § 46.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), or (d)(7) or (8)) that takes place at an institution in which IRB oversight is conducted by an IRB that is not operated by the institution, the institution and the organization operating the IRB shall document the institution's reliance on the IRB for oversight of the research and the responsibilities that each entity will undertake to ensure compliance with the requirements of this policy (<I>e.g.,</I> in a written agreement between the institution and the IRB, by implementation of an institution-wide policy directive providing the allocation of responsibilities between the institution and an IRB that is not affiliated with the institution, or as set forth in a research protocol).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.104" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.104   Exempt research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise required by law or by department or agency heads, research activities in which the only involvement of human subjects will be in one or more of the categories in paragraph (d) of this section are exempt from the requirements of this policy, except that such activities must comply with the requirements of this section and as specified in each category.
</P>
<P>(b) Use of the exemption categories for research subject to the requirements of subparts B, C, and D: Application of the exemption categories to research subject to the requirements of 45 CFR part 46, subparts B, C, and D, is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Subpart B.</I> Each of the exemptions at this section may be applied to research subject to subpart B if the conditions of the exemption are met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subpart C.</I> The exemptions at this section do not apply to research subject to subpart C, except for research aimed at involving a broader subject population that only incidentally includes prisoners.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subpart D.</I> The exemptions at paragraphs (d)(1), (4), (5), (6), (7), and (8) of this section may be applied to research subject to subpart D if the conditions of the exemption are met. Paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section only may apply to research subject to subpart D involving educational tests or the observation of public behavior when the investigator(s) do not participate in the activities being observed. Paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section may not be applied to research subject to subpart D.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) Except as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the following categories of human subjects research are exempt from this policy:
</P>
<P>(1) Research, conducted in established or commonly accepted educational settings, that specifically involves normal educational practices that are not likely to adversely impact students' opportunity to learn required educational content or the assessment of educators who provide instruction. This includes most research on regular and special education instructional strategies, and research on the effectiveness of or the comparison among instructional techniques, curricula, or classroom management methods.
</P>
<P>(2) Research that only includes interactions involving educational tests (cognitive, diagnostic, aptitude, achievement), survey procedures, interview procedures, or observation of public behavior (including visual or auditory recording) if at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any disclosure of the human subjects' responses outside the research would not reasonably place the subjects at risk of criminal or civil liability or be damaging to the subjects' financial standing, employability, educational advancement, or reputation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects can readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, and an IRB conducts a limited IRB review to make the determination required by § 46.111(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Research involving benign behavioral interventions in conjunction with the collection of information from an adult subject through verbal or written responses (including data entry) or audiovisual recording if the subject prospectively agrees to the intervention and information collection and at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(A) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(B) Any disclosure of the human subjects' responses outside the research would not reasonably place the subjects at risk of criminal or civil liability or be damaging to the subjects' financial standing, employability, educational advancement, or reputation; or
</P>
<P>(C) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects can readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, and an IRB conducts a limited IRB review to make the determination required by § 46.111(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purpose of this provision, benign behavioral interventions are brief in duration, harmless, painless, not physically invasive, not likely to have a significant adverse lasting impact on the subjects, and the investigator has no reason to think the subjects will find the interventions offensive or embarrassing. Provided all such criteria are met, examples of such benign behavioral interventions would include having the subjects play an online game, having them solve puzzles under various noise conditions, or having them decide how to allocate a nominal amount of received cash between themselves and someone else.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the research involves deceiving the subjects regarding the nature or purposes of the research, this exemption is not applicable unless the subject authorizes the deception through a prospective agreement to participate in research in circumstances in which the subject is informed that he or she will be unaware of or misled regarding the nature or purposes of the research.
</P>
<P>(4) Secondary research for which consent is not required: Secondary research uses of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, if at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens are publicly available;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information, which may include information about biospecimens, is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, the investigator does not contact the subjects, and the investigator will not re-identify subjects;
</P>
<P>(iii) The research involves only information collection and analysis involving the investigator's use of identifiable health information when that use is regulated under 45 CFR parts 160 and 164, subparts A and E, for the purposes of “health care operations” or “research” as those terms are defined at 45 CFR 164.501 or for “public health activities and purposes” as described under 45 CFR 164.512(b); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The research is conducted by, or on behalf of, a Federal department or agency using government-generated or government-collected information obtained for nonresearch activities, if the research generates identifiable private information that is or will be maintained on information technology that is subject to and in compliance with section 208(b) of the E-Government Act of 2002, 44 U.S.C. 3501 note, if all of the identifiable private information collected, used, or generated as part of the activity will be maintained in systems of records subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and, if applicable, the information used in the research was collected subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) Research and demonstration projects that are conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, or otherwise subject to the approval of department or agency heads (or the approval of the heads of bureaus or other subordinate agencies that have been delegated authority to conduct the research and demonstration projects), and that are designed to study, evaluate, improve, or otherwise examine public benefit or service programs, including procedures for obtaining benefits or services under those programs, possible changes in or alternatives to those programs or procedures, or possible changes in methods or levels of payment for benefits or services under those programs. Such projects include, but are not limited to, internal studies by Federal employees, and studies under contracts or consulting arrangements, cooperative agreements, or grants. Exempt projects also include waivers of otherwise mandatory requirements using authorities such as sections 1115 and 1115A of the Social Security Act, as amended.
</P>
<P>(i) Each Federal department or agency conducting or supporting the research and demonstration projects must establish, on a publicly accessible Federal Web site or in such other manner as the department or agency head may determine, a list of the research and demonstration projects that the Federal department or agency conducts or supports under this provision. The research or demonstration project must be published on this list prior to commencing the research involving human subjects.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) Taste and food quality evaluation and consumer acceptance studies:
</P>
<P>(i) If wholesome foods without additives are consumed, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If a food is consumed that contains a food ingredient at or below the level and for a use found to be safe, or agricultural chemical or environmental contaminant at or below the level found to be safe, by the Food and Drug Administration or approved by the Environmental Protection Agency or the Food Safety and Inspection Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture.
</P>
<P>(7) Storage or maintenance for secondary research for which broad consent is required: Storage or maintenance of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens for potential secondary research use if an IRB conducts a limited IRB review and makes the determinations required by § 46.111(a)(8).
</P>
<P>(8) Secondary research for which broad consent is required: Research involving the use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens for secondary research use, if the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens was obtained in accordance with § 46.116(a)(1) through (4), (a)(6), and (d);
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation of informed consent or waiver of documentation of consent was obtained in accordance with § 46.117;
</P>
<P>(iii) An IRB conducts a limited IRB review and makes the determination required by § 46.111(a)(7) and makes the determination that the research to be conducted is within the scope of the broad consent referenced in paragraph (d)(8)(i) of this section; and (iv) The investigator does not include returning individual research results to subjects as part of the study plan. This provision does not prevent an investigator from abiding by any legal requirements to return individual research results.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.105-46.106" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.105-46.106   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.107" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.107   IRB membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each IRB shall have at least five members, with varying backgrounds to promote complete and adequate review of research activities commonly conducted by the institution. The IRB shall be sufficiently qualified through the experience and expertise of its members (professional competence), and the diversity of its members, including race, gender, and cultural backgrounds and sensitivity to such issues as community attitudes, to promote respect for its advice and counsel in safeguarding the rights and welfare of human subjects. The IRB shall be able to ascertain the acceptability of proposed research in terms of institutional commitments (including policies and resources) and regulations, applicable law, and standards of professional conduct and practice. The IRB shall therefore include persons knowledgeable in these areas. If an IRB regularly reviews research that involves a category of subjects that is vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons, consideration shall be given to the inclusion of one or more individuals who are knowledgeable about and experienced in working with these categories of subjects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each IRB shall include at least one member whose primary concerns are in scientific areas and at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas.
</P>
<P>(c) Each IRB shall include at least one member who is not otherwise affiliated with the institution and who is not part of the immediate family of a person who is affiliated with the institution.
</P>
<P>(d) No IRB may have a member participate in the IRB's initial or continuing review of any project in which the member has a conflicting interest, except to provide information requested by the IRB.
</P>
<P>(e) An IRB may, in its discretion, invite individuals with competence in special areas to assist in the review of issues that require expertise beyond or in addition to that available on the IRB. These individuals may not vote with the IRB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.108" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.108   IRB functions and operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to fulfill the requirements of this policy each IRB shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Have access to meeting space and sufficient staff to support the IRB's review and recordkeeping duties;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare and maintain a current list of the IRB members identified by name; earned degrees; representative capacity; indications of experience such as board certifications or licenses sufficient to describe each member's chief anticipated contributions to IRB deliberations; and any employment or other relationship between each member and the institution, for example, full-time employee, part-time employee, member of governing panel or board, stockholder, paid or unpaid consultant;
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and follow written procedures for:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting its initial and continuing review of research and for reporting its findings and actions to the investigator and the institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining which projects require review more often than annually and which projects need verification from sources other than the investigators that no material changes have occurred since previous IRB review; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring prompt reporting to the IRB of proposed changes in a research activity, and for ensuring that investigators will conduct the research activity in accordance with the terms of the IRB approval until any proposed changes have been reviewed and approved by the IRB, except when necessary to eliminate apparent immediate hazards to the subject.
</P>
<P>(4) Establish and follow written procedures for ensuring prompt reporting to the IRB; appropriate institutional officials; the department or agency head; and the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office, or the equivalent office within the appropriate Federal department or agency of
</P>
<P>(i) Any unanticipated problems involving risks to subjects or others or any serious or continuing noncompliance with this policy or the requirements or determinations of the IRB; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any suspension or termination of IRB approval.
</P>
<P>(b) Except when an expedited review procedure is used (as described in § 46.110), an IRB must review proposed research at convened meetings at which a majority of the members of the IRB are present, including at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas. In order for the research to be approved, it shall receive the approval of a majority of those members present at the meeting.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.109" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.109   IRB review of research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An IRB shall review and have authority to approve, require modifications in (to secure approval), or disapprove all research activities covered by this policy, including exempt research activities under § 46.104 for which limited IRB review is a condition of exemption (under § 46.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), and (d)(7), and (8)).
</P>
<P>(b) An IRB shall require that information given to subjects (or legally authorized representatives, when appropriate) as part of informed consent is in accordance with § 46.116. The IRB may require that information, in addition to that specifically mentioned in § 46.116, be given to the subjects when in the IRB's judgment the information would meaningfully add to the protection of the rights and welfare of subjects.
</P>
<P>(c) An IRB shall require documentation of informed consent or may waive documentation in accordance with § 46.117.
</P>
<P>(d) An IRB shall notify investigators and the institution in writing of its decision to approve or disapprove the proposed research activity, or of modifications required to secure IRB approval of the research activity. If the IRB decides to disapprove a research activity, it shall include in its written notification a statement of the reasons for its decision and give the investigator an opportunity to respond in person or in writing.
</P>
<P>(e) An IRB shall conduct continuing review of research requiring review by the convened IRB at intervals appropriate to the degree of risk, not less than once per year, except as described in § 46.109(f).
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Unless an IRB determines otherwise, continuing review of research is not required in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Research eligible for expedited review in accordance with § 46.110;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research reviewed by the IRB in accordance with the limited IRB review described in § 46.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), or (d)(7) or (8);
</P>
<P>(iii) Research that has progressed to the point that it involves only one or both of the following, which are part of the IRB-approved study:
</P>
<P>(A) Data analysis, including analysis of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, or
</P>
<P>(B) Accessing follow-up clinical data from procedures that subjects would undergo as part of clinical care.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) An IRB shall have authority to observe or have a third party observe the consent process and the research.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.110" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.110   Expedited review procedures for certain kinds of research involving no more than minimal risk, and for minor changes in approved research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of HHS has established, and published as a Notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a list of categories of research that may be reviewed by the IRB through an expedited review procedure. The Secretary will evaluate the list at least every 8 years and amend it, as appropriate, after consultation with other federal departments and agencies and after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for public comment. A copy of the list is available from the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An IRB may use the expedited review procedure to review the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Some or all of the research appearing on the list described in paragraph (a) of this section, unless the reviewer determines that the study involves more than minimal risk;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minor changes in previously approved research during the period for which approval is authorized; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which limited IRB review is a condition of exemption under § 46.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), and (d)(7) and (8).
</P>
<P>(2) Under an expedited review procedure, the review may be carried out by the IRB chairperson or by one or more experienced reviewers designated by the chairperson from among members of the IRB. In reviewing the research, the reviewers may exercise all of the authorities of the IRB except that the reviewers may not disapprove the research. A research activity may be disapproved only after review in accordance with the nonexpedited procedure set forth in § 46.108(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Each IRB that uses an expedited review procedure shall adopt a method for keeping all members advised of research proposals that have been approved under the procedure.
</P>
<P>(d) The department or agency head may restrict, suspend, terminate, or choose not to authorize an institution's or IRB's use of the expedited review procedure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.111" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.111   Criteria for IRB approval of research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to approve research covered by this policy the IRB shall determine that all of the following requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) Risks to subjects are minimized:
</P>
<P>(i) By using procedures that are consistent with sound research design and that do not unnecessarily expose subjects to risk, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever appropriate, by using procedures already being performed on the subjects for diagnostic or treatment purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) Risks to subjects are reasonable in relation to anticipated benefits, if any, to subjects, and the importance of the knowledge that may reasonably be expected to result. In evaluating risks and benefits, the IRB should consider only those risks and benefits that may result from the research (as distinguished from risks and benefits of therapies subjects would receive even if not participating in the research). The IRB should not consider possible long-range effects of applying knowledge gained in the research (<I>e.g.,</I> the possible effects of the research on public policy) as among those research risks that fall within the purview of its responsibility.
</P>
<P>(3) Selection of subjects is equitable. In making this assessment the IRB should take into account the purposes of the research and the setting in which the research will be conducted. The IRB should be particularly cognizant of the special problems of research that involves a category of subjects who are vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons.
</P>
<P>(4) Informed consent will be sought from each prospective subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, in accordance with, and to the extent required by, § 46.116.
</P>
<P>(5) Informed consent will be appropriately documented or appropriately waived in accordance with § 46.117.
</P>
<P>(6) When appropriate, the research plan makes adequate provision for monitoring the data collected to ensure the safety of subjects.
</P>
<P>(7) When appropriate, there are adequate provisions to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary of HHS will, after consultation with the Office of Management and Budget's privacy office and other Federal departments and agencies that have adopted this policy, issue guidance to assist IRBs in assessing what provisions are adequate to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) For purposes of conducting the limited IRB review required by § 46.104(d)(7)), the IRB need not make the determinations at paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, and shall make the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(i) Broad consent for storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens is obtained in accordance with the requirements of § 46.116(a)(1)-(4), (a)(6), and (d);
</P>
<P>(ii) Broad consent is appropriately documented or waiver of documentation is appropriate, in accordance with § 46.117; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If there is a change made for research purposes in the way the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens are stored or maintained, there are adequate provisions to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(b) When some or all of the subjects are likely to be vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons, additional safeguards have been included in the study to protect the rights and welfare of these subjects.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.112" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.112   Review by institution.</HEAD>
<P>Research covered by this policy that has been approved by an IRB may be subject to further appropriate review and approval or disapproval by officials of the institution. However, those officials may not approve the research if it has not been approved by an IRB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.113" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.113   Suspension or termination of IRB approval of research.</HEAD>
<P>An IRB shall have authority to suspend or terminate approval of research that is not being conducted in accordance with the IRB's requirements or that has been associated with unexpected serious harm to subjects. Any suspension or termination of approval shall include a statement of the reasons for the IRB's action and shall be reported promptly to the investigator, appropriate institutional officials, and the department or agency head.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.114" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.114   Cooperative research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cooperative research projects are those projects covered by this policy that involve more than one institution. In the conduct of cooperative research projects, each institution is responsible for safeguarding the rights and welfare of human subjects and for complying with this policy.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Any institution located in the United States that is engaged in cooperative research must rely upon approval by a single IRB for that portion of the research that is conducted in the United States. The reviewing IRB will be identified by the Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the research or proposed by the lead institution subject to the acceptance of the Federal department or agency supporting the research.
</P>
<P>(2) The following research is not subject to this provision:
</P>
<P>(i) Cooperative research for which more than single IRB review is required by law (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which any Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the research determines and documents that the use of a single IRB is not appropriate for the particular context.
</P>
<P>(c) For research not subject to paragraph (b) of this section, an institution participating in a cooperative project may enter into a joint review arrangement, rely on the review of another IRB, or make similar arrangements for avoiding duplication of effort.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.115" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.115   IRB records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An institution, or when appropriate an IRB, shall prepare and maintain adequate documentation of IRB activities, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Copies of all research proposals reviewed, scientific evaluations, if any, that accompany the proposals, approved sample consent forms, progress reports submitted by investigators, and reports of injuries to subjects.
</P>
<P>(2) Minutes of IRB meetings, which shall be in sufficient detail to show attendance at the meetings; actions taken by the IRB; the vote on these actions including the number of members voting for, against, and abstaining; the basis for requiring changes in or disapproving research; and a written summary of the discussion of controverted issues and their resolution.
</P>
<P>(3) Records of continuing review activities, including the rationale for conducting continuing review of research that otherwise would not require continuing review as described in § 46.109(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all correspondence between the IRB and the investigators.
</P>
<P>(5) A list of IRB members in the same detail as described in § 46.108(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(6) Written procedures for the IRB in the same detail as described in § 46.108(a)(3) and (4).
</P>
<P>(7) Statements of significant new findings provided to subjects, as required by § 46.116(c)(5).
</P>
<P>(8) The rationale for an expedited reviewer's determination under § 46.110(b)(1)(i) that research appearing on the expedited review list described in § 46.110(a) is more than minimal risk.
</P>
<P>(9) Documentation specifying the responsibilities that an institution and an organization operating an IRB each will undertake to ensure compliance with the requirements of this policy, as described in § 46.103(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The records required by this policy shall be retained for at least 3 years, and records relating to research that is conducted shall be retained for at least 3 years after completion of the research. The institution or IRB may maintain the records in printed form, or electronically. All records shall be accessible for inspection and copying by authorized representatives of the Federal department or agency at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.116" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.116   General requirements for informed consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> General requirements for informed consent, whether written or oral, are set forth in this paragraph and apply to consent obtained in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section. Broad consent may be obtained in lieu of informed consent obtained in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section only with respect to the storage, maintenance, and secondary research uses of identifiable private information and identifiable biospecimens. Waiver or alteration of consent in research involving public benefit and service programs conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local officials is described in paragraph (e) of this section. General waiver or alteration of informed consent is described in paragraph (f) of this section. Except as provided elsewhere in this policy:
</P>
<P>(1) Before involving a human subject in research covered by this policy, an investigator shall obtain the legally effective informed consent of the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(2) An investigator shall seek informed consent only under circumstances that provide the prospective subject or the legally authorized representative sufficient opportunity to discuss and consider whether or not to participate and that minimize the possibility of coercion or undue influence.
</P>
<P>(3) The information that is given to the subject or the legally authorized representative shall be in language understandable to the subject or the legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(4) The prospective subject or the legally authorized representative must be provided with the information that a reasonable person would want to have in order to make an informed decision about whether to participate, and an opportunity to discuss that information.
</P>
<P>(5) Except for broad consent obtained in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Informed consent must begin with a concise and focused presentation of the key information that is most likely to assist a prospective subject or legally authorized representative in understanding the reasons why one might or might not want to participate in the research. This part of the informed consent must be organized and presented in a way that facilitates comprehension.
</P>
<P>(ii) Informed consent as a whole must present information in sufficient detail relating to the research, and must be organized and presented in a way that does not merely provide lists of isolated facts, but rather facilitates the prospective subject's or legally authorized representative's understanding of the reasons why one might or might not want to participate.
</P>
<P>(6) No informed consent may include any exculpatory language through which the subject or the legally authorized representative is made to waive or appear to waive any of the subject's legal rights, or releases or appears to release the investigator, the sponsor, the institution, or its agents from liability for negligence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic elements of informed consent.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section, in seeking informed consent the following information shall be provided to each subject or the legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the study involves research, an explanation of the purposes of the research and the expected duration of the subject's participation, a description of the procedures to be followed, and identification of any procedures that are experimental;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any reasonably foreseeable risks or discomforts to the subject;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any benefits to the subject or to others that may reasonably be expected from the research;
</P>
<P>(4) A disclosure of appropriate alternative procedures or courses of treatment, if any, that might be advantageous to the subject;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement describing the extent, if any, to which confidentiality of records identifying the subject will be maintained;
</P>
<P>(6) For research involving more than minimal risk, an explanation as to whether any compensation and an explanation as to whether any medical treatments are available if injury occurs and, if so, what they consist of, or where further information may be obtained;
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of whom to contact for answers to pertinent questions about the research and research subjects' rights, and whom to contact in the event of a research-related injury to the subject;
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that participation is voluntary, refusal to participate will involve no penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled, and the subject may discontinue participation at any time without penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled; and
</P>
<P>(9) One of the following statements about any research that involves the collection of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that identifiers might be removed from the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens and that, after such removal, the information or biospecimens could be used for future research studies or distributed to another investigator for future research studies without additional informed consent from the subject or the legally authorized representative, if this might be a possibility; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the subject's information or biospecimens collected as part of the research, even if identifiers are removed, will not be used or distributed for future research studies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional elements of informed consent.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section, one or more of the following elements of information, when appropriate, shall also be provided to each subject or the legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the particular treatment or procedure may involve risks to the subject (or to the embryo or fetus, if the subject is or may become pregnant) that are currently unforeseeable;
</P>
<P>(2) Anticipated circumstances under which the subject's participation may be terminated by the investigator without regard to the subject's or the legally authorized representative's consent;
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional costs to the subject that may result from participation in the research;
</P>
<P>(4) The consequences of a subject's decision to withdraw from the research and procedures for orderly termination of participation by the subject;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that significant new findings developed during the course of the research that may relate to the subject's willingness to continue participation will be provided to the subject;
</P>
<P>(6) The approximate number of subjects involved in the study;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that the subject's biospecimens (even if identifiers are removed) may be used for commercial profit and whether the subject will or will not share in this commercial profit;
</P>
<P>(8) A statement regarding whether clinically relevant research results, including individual research results, will be disclosed to subjects, and if so, under what conditions; and
</P>
<P>(9) For research involving biospecimens, whether the research will (if known) or might include whole genome sequencing (<I>i.e.,</I> sequencing of a human germline or somatic specimen with the intent to generate the genome or exome sequence of that specimen).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Elements of broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.</I> Broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens (collected for either research studies other than the proposed research or nonresearch purposes) is permitted as an alternative to the informed consent requirements in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. If the subject or the legally authorized representative is asked to provide broad consent, the following shall be provided to each subject or the subject's legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) The information required in paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(5), and (b)(8) and, when appropriate, (c)(7) and (9) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) A general description of the types of research that may be conducted with the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens. This description must include sufficient information such that a reasonable person would expect that the broad consent would permit the types of research conducted;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens that might be used in research, whether sharing of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens might occur, and the types of institutions or researchers that might conduct research with the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the period of time that the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens may be stored and maintained (which period of time could be indefinite), and a description of the period of time that the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens may be used for research purposes (which period of time could be indefinite);
</P>
<P>(5) Unless the subject or legally authorized representative will be provided details about specific research studies, a statement that they will not be informed of the details of any specific research studies that might be conducted using the subject's identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, including the purposes of the research, and that they might have chosen not to consent to some of those specific research studies;
</P>
<P>(6) Unless it is known that clinically relevant research results, including individual research results, will be disclosed to the subject in all circumstances, a statement that such results may not be disclosed to the subject; and
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of whom to contact for answers to questions about the subject's rights and about storage and use of the subject's identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, and whom to contact in the event of a research-related harm.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Waiver or alteration of consent in research involving public benefit and service programs conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local officials</I>—(1) <I>Waiver.</I> An IRB may waive the requirement to obtain informed consent for research under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section. If an individual was asked to provide broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens in accordance with the requirements at paragraph (d) of this section, and refused to consent, an IRB cannot waive consent for the storage, maintenance, or secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alteration.</I> An IRB may approve a consent procedure that omits some, or alters some or all, of the elements of informed consent set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section. An IRB may not omit or alter any of the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section. If a broad consent procedure is used, an IRB may not omit or alter any of the elements required under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for waiver and alteration.</I> In order for an IRB to waive or alter consent as described in this subsection, the IRB must find and document that:
</P>
<P>(i) The research or demonstration project is to be conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local government officials and is designed to study, evaluate, or otherwise examine:
</P>
<P>(A) Public benefit or service programs;
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for obtaining benefits or services under those programs;
</P>
<P>(C) Possible changes in or alternatives to those programs or procedures; or
</P>
<P>(D) Possible changes in methods or levels of payment for benefits or services under those programs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The research could not practicably be carried out without the waiver or alteration.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>General waiver or alteration of consent</I>—(1) <I>Waiver.</I> An IRB may waive the requirement to obtain informed consent for research under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section. If an individual was asked to provide broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens in accordance with the requirements at paragraph (d) of this section, and refused to consent, an IRB cannot waive consent for the storage, maintenance, or secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alteration.</I> An IRB may approve a consent procedure that omits some, or alters some or all, of the elements of informed consent set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section. An IRB may not omit or alter any of the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section. If a broad consent procedure is used, an IRB may not omit or alter any of the elements required under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for waiver and alteration.</I> In order for an IRB to waive or alter consent as described in this subsection, the IRB must find and document that:
</P>
<P>(i) The research involves no more than minimal risk to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(ii) The research could not practicably be carried out without the requested waiver or alteration;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the research involves using identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, the research could not practicably be carried out without using such information or biospecimens in an identifiable format;
</P>
<P>(iv) The waiver or alteration will not adversely affect the rights and welfare of the subjects; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whenever appropriate, the subjects or legally authorized representatives will be provided with additional pertinent information after participation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Screening, recruiting, or determining eligibility.</I> An IRB may approve a research proposal in which an investigator will obtain information or biospecimens for the purpose of screening, recruiting, or determining the eligibility of prospective subjects without the informed consent of the prospective subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, if either of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The investigator will obtain information through oral or written communication with the prospective subject or legally authorized representative, or
</P>
<P>(2) The investigator will obtain identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens by accessing records or stored identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Posting of clinical trial consent form.</I> (1) For each clinical trial conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, one IRB-approved informed consent form used to enroll subjects must be posted by the awardee or the Federal department or agency component conducting the trial on a publicly available Federal Web site that will be established as a repository for such informed consent forms.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the clinical trial determines that certain information should not be made publicly available on a Federal Web site (<I>e.g.</I> confidential commercial information), such Federal department or agency may permit or require redactions to the information posted.
</P>
<P>(3) The informed consent form must be posted on the Federal Web site after the clinical trial is closed to recruitment, and no later than 60 days after the last study visit by any subject, as required by the protocol.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Preemption.</I> The informed consent requirements in this policy are not intended to preempt any applicable Federal, state, or local laws (including tribal laws passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe) that require additional information to be disclosed in order for informed consent to be legally effective.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Emergency medical care.</I> Nothing in this policy is intended to limit the authority of a physician to provide emergency medical care, to the extent the physician is permitted to do so under applicable Federal, state, or local law (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.117" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.117   Documentation of informed consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, informed consent shall be documented by the use of a written informed consent form approved by the IRB and signed (including in an electronic format) by the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative. A written copy shall be given to the person signing the informed consent form.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the informed consent form may be either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A written informed consent form that meets the requirements of § 46.116. The investigator shall give either the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative adequate opportunity to read the informed consent form before it is signed; alternatively, this form may be read to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(2) A short form written informed consent form stating that the elements of informed consent required by § 46.116 have been presented orally to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, and that the key information required by § 46.116(a)(5)(i) was presented first to the subject, before other information, if any, was provided. The IRB shall approve a written summary of what is to be said to the subject or the legally authorized representative. When this method is used, there shall be a witness to the oral presentation. Only the short form itself is to be signed by the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative. However, the witness shall sign both the short form and a copy of the summary, and the person actually obtaining consent shall sign a copy of the summary. A copy of the summary shall be given to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, in addition to a copy of the short form.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An IRB may waive the requirement for the investigator to obtain a signed informed consent form for some or all subjects if it finds any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) That the only record linking the subject and the research would be the informed consent form and the principal risk would be potential harm resulting from a breach of confidentiality. Each subject (or legally authorized representative) will be asked whether the subject wants documentation linking the subject with the research, and the subject's wishes will govern;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the research presents no more than minimal risk of harm to subjects and involves no procedures for which written consent is normally required outside of the research context; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the subjects or legally authorized representatives are members of a distinct cultural group or community in which signing forms is not the norm, that the research presents no more than minimal risk of harm to subjects and provided there is an appropriate alternative mechanism for documenting that informed consent was obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases in which the documentation requirement is waived, the IRB may require the investigator to provide subjects or legally authorized representatives with a written statement regarding the research.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.118" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.118   Applications and proposals lacking definite plans for involvement of human subjects.</HEAD>
<P>Certain types of applications for grants, cooperative agreements, or contracts are submitted to Federal departments or agencies with the knowledge that subjects may be involved within the period of support, but definite plans would not normally be set forth in the application or proposal. These include activities such as institutional type grants when selection of specific projects is the institution's responsibility; research training grants in which the activities involving subjects remain to be selected; and projects in which human subjects' involvement will depend upon completion of instruments, prior animal studies, or purification of compounds. Except for research waived under § 46.101(i) or exempted under § 46.104, no human subjects may be involved in any project supported by these awards until the project has been reviewed and approved by the IRB, as provided in this policy, and certification submitted, by the institution, to the Federal department or agency component supporting the research.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.119" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.119   Research undertaken without the intention of involving human subjects.</HEAD>
<P>Except for research waived under § 46.101(i) or exempted under § 46.104, in the event research is undertaken without the intention of involving human subjects, but it is later proposed to involve human subjects in the research, the research shall first be reviewed and approved by an IRB, as provided in this policy, a certification submitted by the institution to the Federal department or agency component supporting the research, and final approval given to the proposed change by the Federal department or agency component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.120" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.120   Evaluation and disposition of applications and proposals for research to be conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The department or agency head will evaluate all applications and proposals involving human subjects submitted to the Federal department or agency through such officers and employees of the Federal department or agency and such experts and consultants as the department or agency head determines to be appropriate. This evaluation will take into consideration the risks to the subjects, the adequacy of protection against these risks, the potential benefits of the research to the subjects and others, and the importance of the knowledge gained or to be gained.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of this evaluation, the department or agency head may approve or disapprove the application or proposal, or enter into negotiations to develop an approvable one.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.121" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.121   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.122" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.122   Use of Federal funds.</HEAD>
<P>Federal funds administered by a Federal department or agency may not be expended for research involving human subjects unless the requirements of this policy have been satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.123" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.123   Early termination of research support: Evaluation of applications and proposals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The department or agency head may require that Federal department or agency support for any project be terminated or suspended in the manner prescribed in applicable program requirements, when the department or agency head finds an institution has materially failed to comply with the terms of this policy.
</P>
<P>(b) In making decisions about supporting or approving applications or proposals covered by this policy the department or agency head may take into account, in addition to all other eligibility requirements and program criteria, factors such as whether the applicant has been subject to a termination or suspension under paragraph (a) of this section and whether the applicant or the person or persons who would direct or has/have directed the scientific and technical aspects of an activity has/have, in the judgment of the department or agency head, materially failed to discharge responsibility for the protection of the rights and welfare of human subjects (whether or not the research was subject to federal regulation).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.124" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.1.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.124   Conditions.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to any research project or any class of research projects the department or agency head of either the conducting or the supporting Federal department or agency may impose additional conditions prior to or at the time of approval when in the judgment of the department or agency head additional conditions are necessary for the protection of human subjects.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Additional Protections for Pregnant Women, Human Fetuses and Neonates Involved in Research</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 56778, Nov. 13, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 46.201" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.201   To what do these regulations apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this subpart applies to all research involving pregnant women, human fetuses, neonates of uncertain viability, or nonviable neonates conducted or supported by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS). This includes all research conducted in DHHS facilities by any person and all research conducted in any facility by DHHS employees. 
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>pre-2018 Requirements</I> means 45 CFR part 46, subpart A, as revised October 1, 2016. The <I>2018 Requirements</I> means 45 CFR part 46, subpart A, as revised October 1, 2018.
</P>
<P>(1) For research subject to the pre-2018 Requirements and this subpart, the exemptions at § 46.101(b)(1) through (6) of the pre-2018 Requirements are applicable to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) For research subject to the 2018 Requirements and this subpart, the exemptions at § 46.104(d)(1) through (8) of the 2018 Requirements may be applied.


</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of § 46.101(c) through (i) are applicable to this subpart. Reference to State or local laws in this subpart and in § 46.101(f) is intended to include the laws of federally recognized American Indian and Alaska Native Tribal Governments. 
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of this subpart are in addition to those imposed under the other subparts of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 56778, Nov. 13, 2001, as amended at 89 FR 84825, Oct. 24, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.202" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions in § 46.102 of the pre-2018 Requirements and the 2018 Requirements, as applicable, shall be applicable to this subpart as well. In addition, as used in this subpart:


</P>
<P>(a) Dead fetus means a fetus that exhibits neither heartbeat, spontaneous respiratory activity, spontaneous movement of voluntary muscles, nor pulsation of the umbilical cord. 
</P>
<P>(b) Delivery means complete separation of the fetus from the woman by expulsion or extraction or any other means. 
</P>
<P>(c) Fetus means the product of conception from implantation until delivery. 
</P>
<P>(d) Neonate means a newborn. 
</P>
<P>(e) Nonviable neonate means a neonate after delivery that, although living, is not viable. 
</P>
<P>(f) Pregnancy encompasses the period of time from implantation until delivery. A woman shall be assumed to be pregnant if she exhibits any of the pertinent presumptive signs of pregnancy, such as missed menses, until the results of a pregnancy test are negative or until delivery. 
</P>
<P>(g) Secretary means the Secretary of Health and Human Services and any other officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services to whom authority has been delegated. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Viable,</I> as it pertains to the neonate, means being able, after delivery, to survive (given the benefit of available medical therapy) to the point of independently maintaining heartbeat and respiration. The Secretary may from time to time, taking into account medical advances, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> guidelines to assist in determining whether a neonate is viable for purposes of this subpart. If a neonate is viable then it may be included in research only to the extent permitted and in accordance with the requirements of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, as applicable, and subpart D of this part.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 56778, Nov. 13, 2001, as amended at 89 FR 84825, Oct. 24, 2024] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.203" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.203   Duties of IRBs in connection with research involving pregnant women, fetuses, and neonates.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to other responsibilities assigned to IRBs under this part, each IRB shall review research covered by this subpart and approve only research which satisfies the conditions of all applicable sections of this subpart and the other subparts of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.204" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.204   Research involving pregnant women or fetuses.</HEAD>
<P>Pregnant women or fetuses may be involved in research if all of the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(a) Where scientifically appropriate, preclinical studies, including studies on pregnant animals, and clinical studies, including studies on nonpregnant women, have been conducted and provide data for assessing potential risks to pregnant women and fetuses; 
</P>
<P>(b) The risk to the fetus is caused solely by interventions or procedures that hold out the prospect of direct benefit for the woman or the fetus; or, if there is no such prospect of benefit, the risk to the fetus is not greater than minimal and the purpose of the research is the development of important biomedical knowledge which cannot be obtained by any other means; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any risk is the least possible for achieving the objectives of the research; 
</P>
<P>(d) If the research holds out the prospect of direct benefit to the pregnant woman, the prospect of a direct benefit both to the pregnant woman and the fetus, or no prospect of benefit for the woman nor the fetus when risk to the fetus is not greater than minimal and the purpose of the research is the development of important biomedical knowledge that cannot be obtained by any other means, her consent is obtained in accord with the informed consent provisions of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(e) If the research holds out the prospect of direct benefit solely to the fetus then the consent of the pregnant woman and the father is obtained in accord with the informed consent provisions of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, as applicable, except that the father's consent need not be obtained if he is unable to consent because of unavailability, incompetence, or temporary incapacity or the pregnancy resulted from rape or incest;
</P>
<P>(f) Each individual providing consent under paragraph (d) or (e) of this section is fully informed regarding the reasonably foreseeable impact of the research on the fetus or neonate; 
</P>
<P>(g) For children as defined in § 46.402(a) who are pregnant, assent and permission are obtained in accord with the provisions of subpart D of this part; 
</P>
<P>(h) No inducements, monetary or otherwise, will be offered to terminate a pregnancy; 
</P>
<P>(i) Individuals engaged in the research will have no part in any decisions as to the timing, method, or procedures used to terminate a pregnancy; and 
</P>
<P>(j) Individuals engaged in the research will have no part in determining the viability of a neonate. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 56778, Nov. 13, 2001, as amended at 89 FR 84825, Oct. 24, 2024] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.205" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.205   Research involving neonates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Neonates of uncertain viability and nonviable neonates may be involved in research if all of the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) Where scientifically appropriate, preclinical and clinical studies have been conducted and provide data for assessing potential risks to neonates. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each individual providing consent under paragraph (b)(2) or (c)(5) of this section is fully informed regarding the reasonably foreseeable impact of the research on the neonate. 
</P>
<P>(3) Individuals engaged in the research will have no part in determining the viability of a neonate. 
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of paragraph (b) or (c) of this section have been met as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Neonates of uncertain viability.</I> Until it has been ascertained whether or not a neonate is viable, a neonate may not be involved in research covered by this subpart unless the following additional conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The IRB determines that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The research holds out the prospect of enhancing the probability of survival of the neonate to the point of viability, and any risk is the least possible for achieving that objective, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The purpose of the research is the development of important biomedical knowledge which cannot be obtained by other means and there will be no added risk to the neonate resulting from the research; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The legally effective informed consent of either parent of the neonate or, if neither parent is able to consent because of unavailability, incompetence, or temporary incapacity, the legally effective informed consent of either parent's legally authorized representative is obtained in accord with the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, as applicable, except that the consent of the father or his legally authorized representative need not be obtained if the pregnancy resulted from rape or incest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonviable neonates.</I> After delivery nonviable neonate may not be involved in research covered by this subpart unless all of the following additional conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) Vital functions of the neonate will not be artificially maintained; 
</P>
<P>(2) The research will not terminate the heartbeat or respiration of the neonate; 
</P>
<P>(3) There will be no added risk to the neonate resulting from the research; 
</P>
<P>(4) The purpose of the research is the development of important biomedical knowledge that cannot be obtained by other means; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The legally effective informed consent of both parents of the neonate is obtained in accord with the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, as applicable, except that the waiver and alteration provisions of § 46.116 of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements do not apply. However, if either parent is unable to consent because of unavailability, incompetence, or temporary incapacity, the informed consent of one parent of a nonviable neonate will suffice to meet the requirements of this paragraph (c)(5), except that the consent of the father need not be obtained if the pregnancy resulted from rape or incest. The consent of a legally authorized representative of either or both of the parents of a nonviable neonate will not suffice to meet the requirements of this paragraph (c)(5).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Viable neonates.</I> A neonate, after delivery, that has been determined to be viable may be included in the research only to the extent permitted by and in accord with the requirements of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, as applicable, and subpart D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 56778, Nov. 13, 2001, as amended at 89 FR 84825, Oct. 24, 2024] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.206" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.206   Research involving, after delivery, the placenta, the dead fetus or fetal material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Research involving, after delivery, the placenta; the dead fetus; macerated fetal material; or cells, tissue, or organs excised from a dead fetus, shall be conducted only in accord with any applicable Federal, State, or local laws and regulations regarding such activities. 
</P>
<P>(b) If information associated with material described in paragraph (a) of this section is recorded for research purposes in a manner that living individuals can be identified, directly or through identifiers linked to those individuals, those individuals are research subjects and all pertinent subparts of this part are applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.207" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.207   Research not otherwise approvable which presents an opportunity to understand, prevent, or alleviate a serious problem affecting the health or welfare of pregnant women, fetuses, or neonates.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary will conduct or fund research that the IRB does not believe meets the requirements of § 46.204 or § 46.205 only if: 
</P>
<P>(a) The IRB finds that the research presents a reasonable opportunity to further the understanding, prevention, or alleviation of a serious problem affecting the health or welfare of pregnant women, fetuses or neonates; and 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary, after consultation with a panel of experts in pertinent disciplines (for example: science, medicine, ethics, law) and following opportunity for public review and comment, including a public meeting announced in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> has determined either: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the research in fact satisfies the conditions of § 46.204, as applicable; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The research presents a reasonable opportunity to further the understanding, prevention, or alleviation of a serious problem affecting the health or welfare of pregnant women, fetuses or neonates; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The research will be conducted in accord with sound ethical principles; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Informed consent will be obtained in accord with the informed consent provisions of subpart A and other applicable subparts of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Additional Protections Pertaining to Biomedical and Behavioral Research Involving Prisoners as Subjects</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 53655, Nov. 16, 1978, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 46.301" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.301   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this subpart are applicable to all biomedical and behavioral research conducted or supported by the Department of Health and Human Services involving prisoners as subjects. 
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed as indicating that compliance with the procedures set forth herein will authorize research involving prisoners as subjects, to the extent such research is limited or barred by applicable State or local law. 
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of this subpart are in addition to those imposed under the other subparts in this part and includes the pre-2018 Requirements and the 2018 Requirements, as applicable. The <I>pre-2018 Requirements</I> means 45 CFR part 46, subpart A, as revised October 1, 2016. The <I>2018 Requirements</I> means 45 CFR part 46, subpart A, as revised October 1, 2018.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 53655, Nov. 16, 1978, as amended at 89 FR 84825, Oct. 24, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.302" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.302   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Inasmuch as prisoners may be under constraints because of their incarceration which could affect their ability to make a truly voluntary and uncoerced decision whether or not to participate as subjects in research, it is the purpose of this subpart to provide additional safeguards for the protection of prisoners involved in activities to which this subpart is applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.303" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.303   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services and any other officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services to whom authority has been delegated. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>DHHS</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prisoner</I> means any individual involuntarily confined or detained in a penal institution. The term is intended to encompass individuals sentenced to such an institution under a criminal or civil statute, individuals detained in other facilities by virtue of statutes or commitment procedures which provide alternatives to criminal prosecution or incarceration in a penal institution, and individuals detained pending arraignment, trial, or sentencing. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Minimal risk</I> is the probability and magnitude of physical or psychological harm that is normally encountered in the daily lives, or in the routine medical, dental, or psychological examination of healthy persons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.304" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.304   Composition of Institutional Review Boards where prisoners are involved.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to satisfying the requirements in § 46.107 of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, as applicable, an Institutional Review Board, carrying out responsibilities with respect to this subpart, shall also meet the following specific requirements:


</P>
<P>(a) A majority of the Board (exclusive of prisoner members) shall have no association with the prison(s) involved, apart from their membership on the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) At least one member of the Board shall be a prisoner, or a prisoner representative with appropriate background and experience to serve in that capacity, except that where a particular research project is reviewed by more than one Board only one Board need satisfy this requirement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 53655, Nov. 16, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 8386, Jan. 26, 1981; 89 FR 84826, Oct. 24, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.305" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.305   Additional duties of the Institutional Review Boards where prisoners are involved.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to all other responsibilities prescribed for Institutional Review Boards under this part, the Board shall review research covered by this subpart and approve such research only if it finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The research under review represents one of the categories of research permissible under § 46.306(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(2) Any possible advantages accruing to the prisoner through his or her participation in the research, when compared to the general living conditions, medical care, quality of food, amenities and opportunity for earnings in the prison, are not of such a magnitude that his or her ability to weigh the risks of the research against the value of such advantages in the limited choice environment of the prison is impaired;
</P>
<P>(3) The risks involved in the research are commensurate with risks that would be accepted by nonprisoner volunteers;
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures for the selection of subjects within the prison are fair to all prisoners and immune from arbitrary intervention by prison authorities or prisoners. Unless the principal investigator provides to the Board justification in writing for following some other procedures, control subjects must be selected randomly from the group of available prisoners who meet the characteristics needed for that particular research project; 
</P>
<P>(5) The information is presented in language which is understandable to the subject population;
</P>
<P>(6) Adequate assurance exists that parole boards will not take into account a prisoner's participation in the research in making decisions regarding parole, and each prisoner is clearly informed in advance that participation in the research will have no effect on his or her parole; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Where the Board finds there may be a need for follow-up examination or care of participants after the end of their participation, adequate provision has been made for such examination or care, taking into account the varying lengths of individual prisoners' sentences, and for informing participants of this fact. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall carry out such other duties as may be assigned by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) The institution shall certify to the Secretary, in such form and manner as the Secretary may require, that the duties of the Board under this section have been fulfilled. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.306" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.306   Permitted research involving prisoners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nonexempt biomedical or behavioral research conducted or supported by DHHS may involve prisoners as subjects only if:


</P>
<P>(1) The institution responsible for the conduct of the research has certified to the Secretary that the Institutional Review Board has approved the research under § 46.305 of this subpart; and 
</P>
<P>(2) In the judgment of the Secretary the proposed research involves solely the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Study of the possible causes, effects, and processes of incarceration, and of criminal behavior, provided that the study presents no more than minimal risk and no more than inconvenience to the subjects; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Study of prisons as institutional structures or of prisoners as incarcerated persons, provided that the study presents no more than minimal risk and no more than inconvenience to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(iii) Research on conditions particularly affecting prisoners as a class (for example, vaccine trials and other research on hepatitis which is much more prevalent in prisons than elsewhere; and research on social and psychological problems such as alcoholism, drug addiction and sexual assaults) provided that the study may proceed only after the Secretary has consulted with appropriate experts including experts in penology medicine and ethics, and published notice, in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> of his intent to approve such research; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Research on practices, both innovative and accepted, which have the intent and reasonable probability of improving the health or well-being of the subject. In cases in which those studies require the assignment of prisoners in a manner consistent with protocols approved by the IRB to control groups which may not benefit from the research, the study may proceed only after the Secretary has consulted with appropriate experts, including experts in penology medicine and ethics, and published notice, in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> of his intent to approve such research.
</P>
<P>(b) Biomedical or behavioral research conducted or supported by DHHS shall not involve prisoners except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For research subject to the pre-2018 Requirements and this subpart, except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, biomedical or behavioral research conducted or supported by DHHS shall not involve prisoners as subjects.
</P>
<P>(2) For research subject to the 2018 Requirements and this subpart, except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section or for research that is exempt pursuant to § 46.104(b)(2) and (d)(1) through (8) of the 2018 Requirements, biomedical or behavioral research conducted or supported by DHHS shall not involve prisoners as subjects.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 53655, Nov. 16, 1978, as amended at 89 FR 84826, Oct. 24, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Additional Protections for Children Involved as Subjects in Research</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 9818, Mar. 8, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 46.401" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.401   To what does this subpart apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>pre-2018 Requirements</I> means 45 CFR part 46, subpart A, as revised October 1, 2016. The <I>2018 Requirements</I> means 45 CFR part 46, subpart A, as revised October 1, 2018.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart applies to all research involving children as subjects, conducted or supported by the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(1) This includes research conducted by Department employees, except that each head of an Operating Division of the Department may adopt such nonsubstantive, procedural modifications as may be appropriate from an administrative standpoint.
</P>
<P>(2) It also includes research conducted or supported by the Department of Health and Human Services outside the United States, but in appropriate circumstances, the Secretary may, under § 46.101(i) of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, waive the applicability of some or all of the requirements of this subpart for research of this type.
</P>
<P>(c) The application of the exemptions to this subpart is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For research subject to the pre-2018 Requirements and this subpart, the exemptions at § 46.101(b)(1) and (b)(3) through (6) of the pre-2018 Requirements are applicable to this subpart. The exemption at § 46.101(b)(2) of the pre-2018 Requirements regarding educational tests also is applicable to this subpart. However, the exemption at § 46.101(b)(2) for research involving survey or interview procedures or observations of public behavior does not apply to research covered by this subpart, except for research involving observation of public behavior when the investigator(s) do not participate in the activities being observed.
</P>
<P>(2) For research subject to the 2018 Requirements and this subpart, the exemptions at § 46.104(d)(1), (4), (5), (6), (7), and (8) of the 2018 Requirements are applicable to this subpart. The exemptions at § 46.104(d)(2)(i) and (ii) of the 2018 Requirements may only apply to research subject to this subpart that involves educational tests or the observation of public behavior when the investigator(s) do not participate in the activities being observed. The exemptions at § 46.104(d)(2)(iii) and (d)(3) of the 2018 Requirements may not be applied to research subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) The exceptions, additions, and provisions for waiver as they appear in § 46.101(c) through (i) of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements are applicable to this subpart.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 84826, Oct. 24, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.402" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.402   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions in § 46.102 of the pre-2018 Requirements and the 2018 Requirements, as applicable, shall be applicable to this subpart as well. In addition, as used in this subpart:


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Children</I> are persons who have not attained the legal age for consent to treatments or procedures involved in the research, under the applicable law of the jurisdiction in which the research will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assent</I> means a child's affirmative agreement to participate in research. Mere failure to object should not, absent affirmative agreement, be construed as assent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permission</I> means the agreement of parent(s) or guardian to the participation of their child or ward in research.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Parent</I> means a child's biological or adoptive parent.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Guardian</I> means an individual who is authorized under applicable State or local law to consent on behalf of a child to general medical care. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 9818, Mar. 8, 1983, as amended at 89 FR 84826, Oct. 24, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.403" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.403   IRB duties.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to other responsibilities assigned to IRBs under this part, each IRB shall review research covered by this subpart and approve only research which satisfies the conditions of all applicable sections of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.404" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.404   Research not involving greater than minimal risk.</HEAD>
<P>HHS will conduct or fund research in which the IRB finds that no greater than minimal risk to children is presented, only if the IRB finds that adequate provisions are made for soliciting the assent of the children and the permission of their parents or guardians, as set forth in § 46.408.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.405" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.405   Research involving greater than minimal risk but presenting the prospect of direct benefit to the individual subjects.</HEAD>
<P>HHS will conduct or fund research in which the IRB finds that more than minimal risk to children is presented by an intervention or procedure that holds out the prospect of direct benefit for the individual subject, or by a monitoring procedure that is likely to contribute to the subject's well-being, only if the IRB finds that:
</P>
<P>(a) The risk is justified by the anticipated benefit to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(b) The relation of the anticipated benefit to the risk is at least as favorable to the subjects as that presented by available alternative approaches; and
</P>
<P>(c) Adequate provisions are made for soliciting the assent of the children and permission of their parents or guardians, as set forth in § 46.408.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.406" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.406   Research involving greater than minimal risk and no prospect of direct benefit to individual subjects, but likely to yield generalizable knowledge about the subject's disorder or condition.</HEAD>
<P>HHS will conduct or fund research in which the IRB finds that more than minimal risk to children is presented by an intervention or procedure that does not hold out the prospect of direct benefit for the individual subject, or by a monitoring procedure which is not likely to contribute to the well-being of the subject, only if the IRB finds that:
</P>
<P>(a) The risk represents a minor increase over minimal risk;
</P>
<P>(b) The intervention or procedure presents experiences to subjects that are reasonably commensurate with those inherent in their actual or expected medical, dental, psychological, social, or educational situations;
</P>
<P>(c) The intervention or procedure is likely to yield generalizable knowledge about the subjects' disorder or condition which is of vital importance for the understanding or amelioration of the subjects' disorder or condition; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Adequate provisions are made for soliciting assent of the children and permission of their parents or guardians, as set forth in § 46.408.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.407" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.407   Research not otherwise approvable which presents an opportunity to understand, prevent, or alleviate a serious problem affecting the health or welfare of children.</HEAD>
<P>HHS will conduct or fund research that the IRB does not believe meets the requirements of § 46.404, § 46.405, or § 46.406 only if:
</P>
<P>(a) The IRB finds that the research presents a reasonable opportunity to further the understanding, prevention, or alleviation of a serious problem affecting the health or welfare of children; and 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary, after consultation with a panel of experts in pertinent disciplines (for example: science, medicine, education, ethics, law) and following opportunity for public review and comment, has determined either: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the research in fact satisfies the conditions of § 46.404, § 46.405, or § 46.406, as applicable, or 
</P>
<P>(2) The following:
</P>
<P>(i) The research presents a reasonable opportunity to further the understanding, prevention, or alleviation of a serious problem affecting the health or welfare of children; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The research will be conducted in accordance with sound ethical principles; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate provisions are made for soliciting the assent of children and the permission of their parents or guardians, as set forth in § 46.408. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.408" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.408   Requirements for permission by parents or guardians and for assent by children.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the determinations required under other applicable sections of this subpart, the IRB shall determine that adequate provisions are made for soliciting the assent of the children, when in the judgment of the IRB the children are capable of providing assent. In determining whether children are capable of assenting, the IRB shall take into account the ages, maturity, and psychological state of the children involved. This judgment may be made for all children to be involved in research under a particular protocol, or for each child, as the IRB deems appropriate. If the IRB determines that the capability of some or all of the children is so limited that they cannot reasonably be consulted or that the intervention or procedure involved in the research holds out a prospect of direct benefit that is important to the health or well-being of the children and is available only in the context of the research, the assent of the children is not a necessary condition for proceeding with the research. Even where the IRB determines that the subjects are capable of assenting, the IRB may still waive the assent requirement under circumstances in which consent may be waived in accord with § 46.116 of the pre-2018 Requirements or of the 2018 Requirements, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the determinations required under other applicable sections of this subpart, the IRB shall determine, in accordance with and to the extent that consent is required by § 46.116 of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, as applicable, that adequate provisions are made for soliciting the permission of each child's parents or guardian. Where parental permission is to be obtained, the IRB may find that the permission of one parent is sufficient for research to be conducted under § 46.404 or § 46.405. Where research is covered by §§ 46.406 and 46.407 and permission is to be obtained from parents, both parents must give their permission unless one parent is deceased, unknown, incompetent, or not reasonably available, or when only one parent has legal responsibility for the care and custody of the child.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the provisions for waiver contained in § 46.116 of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, as applicable, if the IRB determines that a research protocol is designed for conditions or for a subject population for which parental or guardian permission is not a reasonable requirement to protect the subjects (for example, neglected or abused children), it may waive the consent requirements in § 46.116 of the pre-2018 Requirements or 2018 Requirements, as applicable, and paragraph (b) of this section, provided an appropriate mechanism for protecting the children who will participate as subjects in the research is substituted, and provided further that the waiver is not inconsistent with Federal, State, or local law. The choice of an appropriate mechanism would depend upon the nature and purpose of the activities described in the protocol, the risk and anticipated benefit to the research subjects, and their age, maturity, status, and condition.
</P>
<P>(d) Permission by parents or guardians shall be documented in accordance with and to the extent required by § 46.117 of the pre-2018 Requirements or the 2018 Requirements, as applicable.


</P>
<P>(e) When the IRB determines that assent is required, it shall also determine whether and how assent must be documented. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 9818, Mar. 8, 1983, as amended at 89 FR 84826, Oct. 24, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.409" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.409   Wards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Children who are wards of the state or any other agency, institution, or entity can be included in research approved under § 46.406 or § 46.407 only if such research is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Related to their status as wards; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Conducted in schools, camps, hospitals, institutions, or similar settings in which the majority of children involved as subjects are not wards. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the research is approved under paragraph (a) of this section, the IRB shall require appointment of an advocate for each child who is a ward, in addition to any other individual acting on behalf of the child as guardian or in loco parentis. One individual may serve as advocate for more than one child. The advocate shall be an individual who has the background and experience to act in, and agrees to act in, the best interests of the child for the duration of the child's participation in the research and who is not associated in any way (except in the role as advocate or member of the IRB) with the research, the investigator(s), or the guardian organization.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Registration of Institutional Review Boards</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 2405, Jan. 15, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 46.501" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.501   What IRBs must be registered?</HEAD>
<P>Each IRB that is designated by an institution under an assurance of compliance approved for federalwide use by the Office for Human Research Protections (OHRP) under § 46.103(a) and that reviews research involving human subjects conducted or supported by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) must be registered with HHS. An individual authorized to act on behalf of the institution or organization operating the IRB must submit the registration information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.502" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.502   What information must be provided when registering an IRB?</HEAD>
<P>The following information must be provided to HHS when registering an IRB:
</P>
<P>(a) The name, mailing address, and street address (if different from the mailing address) of the institution or organization operating the IRB(s); and the name, mailing address, phone number, facsimile number, and electronic mail address of the senior officer or head official of that institution or organization who is responsible for overseeing activities performed by the IRB.
</P>
<P>(b) The name, mailing address, phone number, facsimile number, and electronic mail address of the contact person providing the registration information.
</P>
<P>(c) The name, if any, assigned to the IRB by the institution or organization, and the IRB's mailing address, street address (if different from the mailing address), phone number, facsimile number, and electronic mail address.
</P>
<P>(d) The name, phone number, and electronic mail address of the IRB chairperson.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The approximate numbers of:
</P>
<P>(i) All active protocols; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Active protocols conducted or supported by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) For purpose of this regulation, an “active protocol” is any protocol for which the IRB conducted an initial review or a continuing review at a convened meeting or under an expedited review procedure during the preceding twelve months.
</P>
<P>(f) The approximate number of full-time equivalent positions devoted to the IRB's administrative activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.503" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.503   When must an IRB be registered?</HEAD>
<P>An IRB must be registered before it can be designated under an assurance approved for federalwide use by OHRP under § 46.103(a). IRB registration becomes effective when reviewed and accepted by OHRP. The registration will be effective for 3 years. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.504" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.504   How must an IRB be registered?</HEAD>
<P>Each IRB must be registered electronically through <I>http://ohrp.cit.nih.gov/efile</I> unless an institution or organization lacks the ability to register its IRB(s) electronically. If an institution or organization lacks the ability to register an IRB electronically, it must send its IRB registration information in writing to OHRP. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.505" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.25.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.505   When must IRB registration information be renewed or updated?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each IRB must renew its registration every 3 years.
</P>
<P>(b) The registration information for an IRB must be updated within 90 days after changes occur regarding the contact person who provided the IRB registration information or the IRB chairperson. The updated registration information must be submitted in accordance with § 46.504.
</P>
<P>(c) Any renewal or update that is submitted to, and accepted by, OHRP begins a new 3-year effective period.
</P>
<P>(d) An institution's or organization's decision to disband a registered IRB which it is operating also must be reported to OHRP in writing within 30 days after permanent cessation of the IRB's review of HHS-conducted or -supported research.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="50" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 50—U.S. EXCHANGE VISITOR PROGRAM—REQUEST FOR WAIVER OF THE TWO-YEAR FOREIGN RESIDENCE REQUIREMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>75 Stat. 527 (22 U.S.C. 2451 <I>et seq.</I>); 84 Stat. 116 (8 U.S.C. 1182(e)).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 9900, Mar. 16, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 50.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.26.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.1   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>Under the authority of Mutual Educational and Cultural Exchange Act of 1961 (75 Stat. 527) and the Immigration and Nationality Act as amended (84 Stat. 116), the Department of Health and Human Services is an “interested United States Government agency” with the authority to request the Department of State to recommend to the Attorney General waiver of the two-year foreign residence requirement for Exchange Visitors under the Mutual Educational and Cultural Exchange Program. HHS eligibility requirement criteria for waivers are in addition to and independent of the existing waiver and visa criteria established by the Immigration and Naturalization Service (INS), the Department of State, and the Department of Labor. The waiver regulations described in this part do not relieve alien physicians seeking a waiver of the 2-year foreign residence requirement from complying with the terms and conditions imposed on their admission to the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 77695, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.26.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.2   Exchange Visitor Waiver Review Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment.</I> The Exchange Visitor Waiver Review Board is established to carry out the Department's responsibilities under the Exchange Visitor Program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Functions.</I> The Exchange Visitor Waiver Review Board is responsible for making thorough and equitable evaluations of applications submitted by institutions, acting on behalf of Exchange Visitors, to HHS for a favorable recommendation to the Department of State that the two-year foreign residence requirement for Exchange Visitors under the Exchange Visitor Program be waived. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Membership.</I> The Exchange Visitor Waiver Review Board consists of no fewer than three members and two alternates, of whom no fewer than three will consider any particular application. The Director of the Office of Global Health Affairs, Office of the Secretary, is an ex officio member of the Board and serves as its Chairman. The Director may designate a staff member of the Office of the Secretary to serve as member and Chairman of the Board in the Director's absence. The Assistant Secretary for Health appoints two regularly assigned members and two alternates to consider applications concerning health, biomedical research, and related fields. The Chairman may request the heads of operating divisions of the Department to appoint additional members to consider applications in other fields of interest to the Department. The Board may obtain expert advisory opinions from other sources. The Board may establish a workgroup from the operating divisions of the Department to consider applications for waivers based on the need for the delivery of health care services to underserved populations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9900, Mar. 16, 1984, as amended at 67 FR 77695, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.26.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy for waivers.</I> The Department of Health and Human Services endorses the philosophy that Exchange Visitors are committed to return home for at least two years after completing their program. This requirement was imposed to prevent the Program from becoming a stepping stone to immigration and to ensure that Exchange Visitors make available to their home countries their new knowledge and skills obtained in the United States. The Department will request waivers for the delivery of health care service to carry out the Department's mission to increase access to care for the nation's most medically underserved individuals. However, in keeping with the philosophy of the Program, the Exchange Visitor Waiver Review Board may determine the appropriate numbers and geographic areas for waivers for the delivery of health care service. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for waivers.</I> The Exchange Visitor Waiver Review Board carefully applies stringent and restrictive criteria to its consideration of requests that it support waivers for Exchange Visitors. Each application is evaluated individually based on the facts available. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver for members of Exchange Visitor's family.</I> Where a decision is made to request a waiver for an Exchange Visitor, a waiver will also be requested for the spouse and children, if any, if they have J-2 visa status. When both members of a married couple are Exchange Visitors in their own right (<I>i.e.,</I> each has J-1 visa status), separate applications must be submitted for each of them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 77696, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.26.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.4   Waivers for research.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether to request a waiver for an Exchange Visitor engaged in the conduct of research, the Board considers the following key factors: 
</P>
<P>(a) The program or activity at the applicant institution or organization in which the Exchange Visitor is employed must be of high priority and of national or international significance in an area of interest to the Department. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Exchange Visitor must be needed as an integral part of the program or activity, or of an essential component thereof, so that loss of his/her services would necessitate discontinuance of the program, or a major phase of it. Specific evidence must be provided on how the loss or unavailability of the individual's services would adversely affect the initiation, continuance, completion, or success of the program or activity. The applicant organization/institution must clearly demonstrate that a suitable replacement for the Exchange Visitor cannot be found through recruitment or any other means. The Board will not request a waiver when the principal problem appears to be one of administrative, budgetary, or program inconvenience to the institution or other employer. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Exchange Visitor must possess outstanding qualifications, training and experience well beyond the usually expected accomplishments at the graduate, postgraduate, and residency levels, and must clearly demonstrate the capability to make original and significant contributions to the program. The Board will not request a waiver simply because an individual has specialized training or experience or is occupying a senior staff position in a university, hospital, or other institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 77696, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.26.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.5   Waivers for the delivery of health care service.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether to request a waiver for an Exchange Visitor to deliver health care service, the Board will consider information from and coordinate with State Departments of Public Health (or the equivalent), other “interested government agencies” which request waivers, and other relevant agencies. The Board requires the following criteria for requests for waivers for the delivery of health care service: 
</P>
<P>(a) The Exchange Visitor must submit a statement that he or she does not have pending and will not submit any other “interested government agency” waiver request while HHS processes the waiver request being submitted. 
</P>
<P>(b) Waivers are limited to primary care physicians and general psychiatrists who have completed their primary care or psychiatric residency training programs no more than12 months before the date of commencement of employment under the contract described in subparagraph (d). This 12-month eligibility limitation is to ensure that the physicians' primary care training is current and they are not engaged in subspecialty training. This HHS eligibility requirement relates only to eligibility for an HHS waiver request and does not relieve physicians of the responsibility to maintain lawful status. Alien physicians are strongly encouraged to begin the waiver process as early as they possibly can while still in the residency training program. Early filing of the waiver request by the alien physician, coupled with timely processing of the request by the relevant government agencies, will facilitate the timely completion of the waiver process before the authorized J-1 admission expires, and the physician's subsequent application for change of nonimmigrant status from J-1 to H-1B. 
</P>
<P>(c) Primary care physicians are defined as: physicians practicing general internal medicine, pediatrics, family practice or obstetrics/gynecology willing to work in a primary care Health Professional Shortage Area (HPSA) or Medically Underserved Area or Population (MUA/P); and general psychiatrists who are willing to work in a Mental Health HPSA. Note: these HHS eligibility criteria for waivers are in addition to and independent of the existing waiver and visa criteria established by the Immigration and Naturalization Service (INS), the Department of State, and the Department of Labor. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Exchange Visitor must have entered a contract with the applicant employer. This contract must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Require the Exchange Visitor to provide primary medical care in a facility physically located in an HHS-designated primary care HPSA or MUA/P, or general psychiatric care in a Mental Health HPSA. 
</P>
<P>(2) Require the Exchange Visitor to complete a term of employment of not less than three years providing primary care health services for not less than 40 hours per week. 
</P>
<P>(3) Require the Exchange Visitor to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Be licensed by the State where he or she will practice; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Have completed a residency in one of the following specialties: family practice, general pediatrics, obstetrics/gynecology, general internal medicine, or general psychiatry; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Be either board certified or board eligible in the relevant primary care discipline. 
</P>
<P>(4) Be terminable only for cause until completion of the three-year commitment, except that, with the agreement of the alien physician, the employer may assign the contract to another eligible employer with the prior approval of HHS and compliance with all applicable INS and Department of Labor requirements. Prior to approving an assignment of the contract, HHS will review and consider the health care needs of the alien physician's current and proposed new locations, as well as the reasons for the request. 
</P>
<P>(5) Not contain a restrictive covenant or non-compete clause which prevents or discourages the physician from continuing to practice in any HHS-designated primary care HPSA or MUA/P or Mental Health HPSA after the period of obligation under the contract has expired. 
</P>
<P>(6) Provide that any amendment to the contract complies with all applicable Federal statutes, regulations and HHS policy. 
</P>
<P>(7) Be consistent with all applicable Federal statutes, regulations and HHS policy. 
</P>
<P>(e) The facility or practice sponsoring the physician: 
</P>
<P>(1) Must provide health services to individuals without discriminating against them because either they are unable to pay for those services or payment for those health services will be made under Medicare or Medicaid. 
</P>
<P>(2) May charge no more than the usual and customary rate prevailing in the geographic area in which the services are provided. 
</P>
<P>(3) Must provide care on a sliding fee scale for persons at or below 200 percent of poverty income level. Persons with third-party insurance may be charged the full fee for service. 
</P>
<P>(4) Must post a notice in a conspicuous location in the patient waiting area at the practice site to notify patients of the charges for service as required in this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(5) Must provide evidence that the applicant facility made unsuccessful efforts to recruit a physician who is a United States physician for the position to be filled by the Exchange Visitor. 
</P>
<P>(6) Must provide a statement by the head of the facility to confirm the facility is located in a specific, designated HPSA or MUA/P, and that it provides medical care to Medicaid and Medicare eligible patients and to the uninsured indigent. 
</P>
<P>(f) The employer and the alien physician must submit information to the Secretary at the times and in the manner that the Secretary may reasonably require.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 77696, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.26.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.6   Procedures for submission of application to HHS.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Exchange Visitor Waiver Review Board will review applications submitted by private or non-federal institutions, organizations, or agencies or by a component agency of HHS. The Board will not accept applications submitted by Exchange Visitors or, unless under extenuating and exceptional circumstances, other U.S. Government Agencies. 
</P>
<P>(b) Applications, instruction sheets and information are available from the Executive Secretary, Exchange Visitor Waiver Review Board. An authorized official of the applicant institution (educational institution, hospital, laboratory, corporation, etc.) must sign the completed application. The applicant institution must send the completed application to the address indicated on the instruction sheet.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 77697, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.26.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.7   Personal hardship, persecution and visa extension considerations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is <I>not</I> within the Department's jurisdiction to consider applications for waiver based on:
</P>
<P>(1) Exceptional hardship to the exchange visitor's American or legally resident alien spouse or child; or
</P>
<P>(2) The alien's unwillingness to return to the country of his/her nationality or last residence on the grounds that he/she or family members would be subject to persecution on account of race, religion or political opinion.
</P>
<P>(b) Likewise, this Department is not responsible for considering requests to extend visas.
</P>
<P>(c) Inquiries concerning the above should be directed to the District Office of the Immigration and Naturalization Service which has jurisdiction over the exchange visitor's place of residence in the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9900, Mar. 16, 1984. Redesignated at 67 FR 77696, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.26.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.8   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>If an alien physician acquires H-1B nonimmigrant status following approval by the INS of a request for waiver, then he or she becomes subject not only to the terms and conditions of the waiver, but also the terms and conditions of the H-1B nonimmigrant status. Failure to comply with those conditions will make that physician subject to removal from the United States by the INS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 77697, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="51" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 51—CRITERIA FOR EVALUATING COMPREHENSIVE PLAN TO REDUCE RELIANCE ON ALIEN PHYSICIANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 212, Immigration and Nationality Act, Pub. L. 82-114, as amended by Pub. L. 97-116, 95 Stat. 1611 (8 U.S.C. 1182(j)(2)(A)).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 2539, Jan. 20, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 51.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.27.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this regulation is to establish criteria for review and evaluation of the comprehensive plans of Graduate Medical Education Programs to reduce reliance on alien physicians, as required by the Immigration and Nationality Act Amendments of 1981, Pub. L. 97-116, for the waiver of certain requirements for exchange visitors who are coming to the United States to participate in programs of graduate medical education or training. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.27.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.2   Application.</HEAD>
<P>Materials covering procedures for applying for substantial disruption waivers (including the comprehensive plan) may be obtained from the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates, 3624 Market Street, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19104.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Explanatory Note:</HED>
<P>The Department of State entered into an agreement with the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates in 1971 whereby the latter was designated the authority to administer the issuance of the Form IAP-66 in all cases involving the admission, certification, transfer or extension of stay for foreign physicians in exchange visitor status who are receiving graduate medical education or training. The Commission was further designated the authority (<E T="04">Federal Register,</E> Volume 44, No. 59, March 26, 1979), to process waiver requests under the “substantial disruption” provision of Pub. L. 94-484, as amended, within criteria to be provided by the United States Information Agency on advice from the Department of Health and Human Services (formerly Department of Health, Education, and Welfare).</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.27.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.3   Who is eligible to apply?</HEAD>
<P>Sponsors which had alien physicians in their exchange visitor programs on January 10, 1978, are eligible to apply. For purposes of this regulation, the term “program” relates to a graduate medical education program having an exchange visitor program for physicians participating in graduate medical education or training. An “exchange visitor program” is a program of a sponsor, designed to promote interchange of persons, knowledge and skills, and the interchange of developments in the field of education, the arts and sciences, and is concerned with one or more categories of participants to promote mutual understanding between the people of the United States and the people of other countries. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.27.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.4   How will the plans be evaluated?</HEAD>
<P>After consultation with the Federal Substantial Disruption Waiver Board (seven Federal representatives charged with the responsibility of reviewing substantial disruption waiver applications), the Secretary of Health and Human Services will make recommendations to the Director, United States Information Agency, for the purpose of granting waivers. The Secretary will consider the following factors in determining whether or not a plan is satisfactory: 
</P>
<P>(a) The extent of the specific problems that the program or institution anticipates without a waiver, including, for example, 
</P>
<P>(1) Curtailment of services currently provided, 
</P>
<P>(2) Downgrading of medical care currently being provided, 
</P>
<P>(3) Reduction in the number of inpatients and outpatients receiving care, 
</P>
<P>(4) Inadequate medical coverage for population served, or 
</P>
<P>(5) Inadequate supervision of junior residents. 
</P>
<P>(b) The adequacy of the alternative resources and methods (including use of physician assistants (as defined in 42 CFR 57.802), nurse practitioners (as defined in 42 CFR 57.2402), and other non-physician providers) that have been considered and have been and will be applied to reduce such disruption in the delivery of health services, especially in primary medical care manpower shortage areas, as established under section 332 of the Public Health Service Act, and for medicaid patients. This may include, for example: 
</P>
<P>(1) Greater reliance on fully licensed physicians, and on physician assistants, nurse practitioners and other non-physician personnel in an expanded role in the delivery of health care, such as admission patient histories, making patient rounds, recording patient progress notes, doing the initial and follow-up evaluation of patients, performing routine laboratory and related studies, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Utilization of the team approach to health care delivery (individuals functioning as an integral part of an interprofessional team of health personnel organized under the leadership of a physician working toward more efficient and/or more effective delivery of health services). 
</P>
<P>(c) The extent to which changes (including improvement of educational and medical services) have been considered and which have been or will be applied to make the program more attractive to graduates of medical schools who are citizens of the United States, as demonstrated, for example, by:
</P>
<P>(1) Adding additional services to the existing programs to provide a broader educational experience for residents,
</P>
<P>(2) Expanding affiliations with other residency programs to offer a broader experience for residents,
</P>
<P>(3) Expanding undergraduate clerkships to provide a broader educational experience.
</P>
<P>(4) Creating or modifying administrative units which will provide broader clinical experiences, or
</P>
<P>(5) Initiating research projects.
</P>
<P>(d) The adequacy of the recruitment efforts which have been and will be undertaken to attract graduates of medical schools who are citizens of the United States, as demonstrated, for example, by:
</P>
<P>(1) Broad-based advertisement of the program and of the institution through notices in journals, contacts with medical schools, etc.
</P>
<P>(2) Forming committees for the purpose of recruiting U.S. citizens.
</P>
<P>(3) Working with national organizations which are involved with medical students and U.S. graduate medical trainees, e.g., the American Medical Student Association and the Physician National House Staff Association, to attract U.S. citizens.
</P>
<P>(e) The extent to which the program on a year-by-year basis has phased down its dependence upon aliens who are graduates of foreign medical schools so that the program will not be dependent upon the admission to the program of any additional such aliens after December 31, 1983. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="57" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 57—VOLUNTEER SERVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 223, 58 Stat. 683, as amended by 81 Stat. 539: 42 U.S.C. 217b. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>34 FR 13868, Aug. 29, 1969, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 57.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.28.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to the acceptance of volunteer and uncompensated services for use in the operation of any health care facility of the Department or in the provision of health care. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 57.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.28.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in the regulations in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P><I>Volunteer services</I> are services performed by individuals (hereafter called volunteers) whose services have been offered to the Government and accepted under a formal agreement on a without compensation basis for use in the operation of a health care facility or in the provision of health care. 
</P>
<P><I>Health care</I> means services to patients in Department facilities, beneficiaries of the Federal Government, or individuals or groups for whom health services are authorized under the programs of the Department. 
</P>
<P><I>Health care facility</I> means a hospital, clinic, health center, or other facility established for the purpose of providing health care. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 57.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.28.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.3   Volunteer service programs.</HEAD>
<P>Programs for the use of volunteer services may be established by the Secretary, or his designee, to broaden and strengthen the delivery of health services, contribute to the comfort and well being of patients in Department hospitals or clinics, or expand the services required in the operation of a health care facility. Volunteers may be used to supplement, but not to take the place of, personnel whose services are obtained through the usual employment procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 57.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.28.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.4   Acceptance and use of volunteer services.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary, or his designee, shall establish requirements for: Accepting volunteer services from individuals or groups of individuals, using volunteer services, giving appropriate recognition to volunteers, and maintaining records of volunteer services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 57.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.28.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 57.5   Services and benefits available to volunteers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following provisions of law may be applicable to volunteers whose services are offered and accepted under the regulations in this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) Subchapter I of Chapter 81 of Title 5 of the United States Code relating to medical services for work related injuries; 
</P>
<P>(2) Title 28 of the United States Code relating to tort claims; 
</P>
<P>(3) Section 7903 of Title 5 of the United States Code relating to protective clothing and equipment; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Section 5703 of Title 5 of the United States Code relating to travel and transportation expenses. 
</P>
<P>(b) Volunteers may also be provided such other benefits as are authorized by law or by administrative action of the Secretary or his designee. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="60" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 60—NATIONAL PRACTITIONER DATA BANK
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 11101-11152; 42 U.S.C. 1396r-2; 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7e
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.1   The National Practitioner Data Bank.</HEAD>
<P>The Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 (HCQIA), as amended, title IV of Public Law 99-660 (42 U.S.C. 11101 <I>et seq.</I>) (hereinafter referred to as “title IV”), authorizes the Secretary to establish (either directly or by contract) a National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB) to collect and release certain information relating to the professional competence and conduct of physicians, dentists, and other health care practitioners. Section 1921 of the Social Security Act (hereinafter referred to as “section 1921”), as amended, (42 U.S.C. 1396r-2) expanded the requirements under the NPDB and requires each state to adopt a system of reporting to the Secretary adverse licensure or certification actions taken against health care practitioners, health care entities, providers, and suppliers, as well as certain final adverse actions taken by state law and fraud enforcement agencies against health care practitioners, providers, and suppliers. Section 1128E of the Social Security Act (hereinafter referred to as “section 1128E”), as amended, (42 U.S.C. 1320a-7e) authorizes the Secretary to implement a national healthcare fraud and abuse data collection program for the reporting and disclosing of certain final adverse actions taken by Federal Government agencies and health plans against health care practitioners, providers, and suppliers. Information from section 1921 and section 1128E is to be reported and distributed through the NPDB. The regulations in this part set forth the reporting and disclosure requirements for the NPDB, as well as procedures to dispute the accuracy of information contained in the NPDB.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, 78 FR 25860, May 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part establish reporting requirements applicable to hospitals, health care entities, Boards of Medical Examiners, and professional societies of health care practitioners which take adverse licensure or professional review actions; state licensing or certification authorities, peer review organizations, and private accreditation entities that take licensure or certification actions or negative actions or findings against health care practitioners, health care entities, providers, or suppliers; entities (including insurance companies) making payments as a result of medical malpractice actions or claims; and Federal government agencies, state law and fraud enforcement agencies and health plans that take final adverse actions against health care practitioners, providers, and suppliers. They also establish procedures to enable individuals or entities to obtain information from the NPDB or to dispute the accuracy of NPDB information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, 78 FR 25860, May 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Adversely affecting</I> means reducing, restricting, suspending, revoking, or denying clinical privileges or membership in a health care entity.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliated or associated</I> refers to health care entities with which a subject of a final adverse action has a business or professional relationship. This includes, but is not limited to, organizations, associations, corporations, or partnerships. This also includes a professional corporation or other business entity composed of a single individual.
</P>
<P><I>Board of Medical Examiners, or Board,</I> means a body or subdivision of such body which is designated by a state for the purpose of licensing, monitoring, and disciplining physicians or dentists. This term includes a Board of Osteopathic Examiners or its subdivision, a Board of Dentistry or its subdivision, or an equivalent body as determined by the state. Where the Secretary, pursuant to section 423(c)(2) of the HCQIA (42 U.S.C. 11112(c)), has designated an alternate entity to carry out the reporting activities of § 60.12 of this part due to a Board's failure to comply with § 60.8 of this part, the term Board of Medical Examiners or Board refers to this alternate entity.
</P>
<P><I>Civil judgment</I> means a court-ordered action rendered in a Federal or state court proceeding, other than a criminal proceeding. This reporting requirement does not include Consent Judgments that have been agreed upon and entered to provide security for civil settlements in which there was no finding or admission of liability.
</P>
<P><I>Clinical privileges</I> means the authorization by a health care entity to a health care practitioner for the provision of health care services, including privileges and membership on the medical staff.
</P>
<P><I>Criminal conviction</I> means a conviction as described in section 1128(i) of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P><I>Dentist</I> means a doctor of dental surgery, doctor of dental medicine, or the equivalent who is legally authorized to practice dentistry by a state (or who, without authority, holds himself or herself out to be so authorized).
</P>
<P><I>Exclusion</I> means a temporary or permanent debarment of an individual or entity from participation in any Federal or state health-related program, in accordance with which items or services furnished by such person or entity will not be reimbursed under any Federal or state health-related program.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Government agency</I> includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The U.S. Department of Justice;
</P>
<P>(2) The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services;
</P>
<P>(3) Federal law enforcement agencies, including law enforcement investigators;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other Federal agency that either administers or provides payment for the delivery of health care services, including, but not limited to the U.S. Department of Defense and the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs; and
</P>
<P>(5) Federal agencies responsible for the licensing and certification of health care practitioners, providers, and suppliers.
</P>
<P><I>Formal peer review process</I> means the conduct of professional review activities through formally adopted written procedures which provide for adequate notice and an opportunity for a hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Formal proceeding</I> means a proceeding held before a state licensing or certification authority, peer review organization, or private accreditation entity that maintains defined rules, policies, or procedures for such a proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Health care entity</I> means, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) A hospital;
</P>
<P>(2) An entity that provides health care services, and engages in professional review activity through a formal peer review process for the purpose of furthering quality health care, or a committee of that entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) A professional society or a committee or agent thereof, including those at the national, state, or local level, of health care practitioners that engages in professional review activity through a formal peer review process, for the purpose of furthering quality health care.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (2) of this definition, an entity includes: a health maintenance organization which is licensed by a state or determined to be qualified as such by the Department of Health and Human Services; and any group or prepaid medical or dental practice which meets the criteria of paragraph (2).
</P>
<P><I>Health care practitioner, licensed health care practitioner, licensed practitioner, or practitioner</I> means an individual who is licensed or otherwise authorized by a state to provide health care services (or any individual who, without authority, holds himself or herself out to be so licensed or authorized).
</P>
<P><I>Health care provider</I> means, for purposes of this part, a provider of services as defined in section 1861(u) of the Social Security Act; any organization (including a health maintenance organization, preferred provider organization or group medical practice) that provides health care services and follows a formal peer review process for the purpose of furthering quality health care, and any other organization that, directly or through contracts, provides health care services.
</P>
<P><I>Health care supplier</I> means, for purposes of this part, a provider of medical and other health care services as described in section 1861(s) of the Social Security Act; or any individual or entity, other than a provider, who furnishes, whether directly or indirectly, or provides access to, health care services, supplies, items, or ancillary services (including, but not limited to, durable medical equipment suppliers, manufacturers of health care items, pharmaceutical suppliers and manufacturers, health record services [such as medical, dental, and patient records], health data suppliers, and billing and transportation service suppliers). The term also includes any individual or entity under contract to provide such supplies, items, or ancillary services; health plans as defined in this section (including employers that are self-insured); and health insurance producers (including but not limited to agents, brokers, solicitors, consultants, and reinsurance intermediaries).
</P>
<P><I>Health plan</I> means, for purposes of this part, a plan, program or organization that provides health benefits, whether directly, through insurance, reimbursement or otherwise, and includes but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) A policy of health insurance;
</P>
<P>(2) A contract of a service benefit organization;
</P>
<P>(3) A membership agreement with a health maintenance organization or other prepaid health plan;
</P>
<P>(4) A plan, program, agreement, or other mechanism established, maintained, or made available by a self-insured employer or group of self-insured employers, a health care practitioner, provider, or supplier group, third-party administrator, integrated health care delivery system, employee welfare association, public service group or organization or professional association;
</P>
<P>(5) An insurance company, insurance service, or insurance organization that is licensed to engage in the business of selling health care insurance in a state and which is subject to state law which regulates health insurance; and
</P>
<P>(6) An organization that provides benefit plans whose coverage is limited to outpatient prescription drugs.
</P>
<P><I>Hospital</I> means, for purposes of this part, an entity described in paragraphs (1) and (7) of section 1861(e) of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P><I>Medical malpractice action or claim</I> means a written complaint or claim demanding payment based on a health care practitioner's provision of or failure to provide health care services, and includes the filing of a cause of action based on the law of tort, brought in any state or Federal court or other adjudicative body.
</P>
<P><I>Negative action or finding</I> by a Federal or State licensing or certification authority, peer review organization, or private accreditation entity means:
</P>
<P>(1) A final determination of denial or termination of an accreditation status from a private accreditation entity that indicates a risk to the safety of a patient(s) or quality of health care services;
</P>
<P>(2) Any recommendation by a peer review organization to sanction a health care practitioner; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any negative action or finding that, under the state's law, is publicly available information and is rendered by a licensing or certification authority, including but not limited to, limitations on the scope of practice, liquidations, injunctions, and forfeitures. This definition also includes final adverse actions rendered by a Federal or state licensing or certification authority, such as exclusions, revocations, or suspension of license or certification, that occur in conjunction with settlements in which no finding of liability has been made (although such a settlement itself is not reportable under the statute). This definition excludes administrative fines or citations and corrective action plans and other personnel actions, unless they are:
</P>
<P>(i) Connected to the delivery of health care services; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Taken in conjunction with other adverse licensure or certification actions such as revocation, suspension, censure, reprimand, probation, or surrender.
</P>
<P><I>Organization name</I> means the subject's business or employer at the time the underlying acts occurred. If more than one business or employer is applicable, the one most closely related to the underlying acts should be reported as the “organization name,” with the others being reported as “affiliated or associated health care entities.”
</P>
<P><I>Organization type</I> means a description of the nature of that business or employer.
</P>
<P><I>Other adjudicated actions or decisions</I> means formal or official final actions taken against a health care practitioner, provider, or supplier by a Federal governmental agency, a state law or fraud enforcement agency, or a health plan, which include the availability of a due process mechanism, and are based on acts or omissions that affect or could affect the payment, provision, or delivery of a health care item or service. For example, a formal or official final action taken by a Federal governmental agency, a state law or fraud enforcement agency, or a health plan may include, but is not limited to, a personnel-related action such as suspensions without pay, reductions in pay, reductions in grade for cause, terminations, or other comparable actions. A hallmark of any valid adjudicated action or decision is the availability of a due process mechanism. The fact that the subject elects not to use the due process mechanism provided by the authority bringing the action is immaterial, as long as such a process is available to the subject before the adjudicated action or decision is made final. In general, if an “adjudicated action or decision” follows an agency's established administrative procedures (which ensure that due process is available to the subject of the final adverse action), it would qualify as a reportable action under this definition. This definition specifically excludes clinical privileging actions taken by Federal Government agencies or state law and fraud enforcement agencies and similar paneling decisions made by health plans. This definition does not include overpayment determinations made by Federal or state government programs, their contractors or health plans, and it does not include denial of claims determinations made by Federal Government agencies, state law or fraud enforcement agencies, or health plans. This definition also does not include business or administrative decisions taken by health plans that result in contract terminations unrelated to health care fraud or abuse or quality of care (e.g., when a practitioner's contract is terminated because the practitioner no longer practices at a facility in the health plan's network, or a health plan terminates all provider contracts in a certain geographic area because it ceases business operations in that area). For health plans that are not government entities, an action taken following adequate notice and the opportunity for a hearing that meets the standards of due process set out in section 412(b) of the HCQIA (42 U.S.C. 11112(b)) also would qualify as a reportable action under this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Peer review organization</I> means, for purposes of this part, an organization with the primary purpose of evaluating the quality of patient care practices or services ordered or performed by health care practitioners measured against objective criteria which define acceptable and adequate practice through an evaluation by a sufficient number of health care practitioners in such an area to ensure adequate peer review. The organization has due process mechanisms available to health care practitioners. This definition excludes utilization and quality control peer review organizations described in Part B of Title XI of the Social Security Act (referred to as QIOs) and other organizations funded by the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) to support the QIO program.
</P>
<P><I>Physician</I> means, for purposes of this part, a doctor of medicine or osteopathy legally authorized to practice medicine or surgery by a state (or who, without authority, holds himself or herself out to be so authorized).
</P>
<P><I>Private accreditation entity</I> means an entity or organization that:
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluates and seeks to improve the quality of health care provided by a health care entity, provider, or supplier;
</P>
<P>(2) Measures a health care entity's, provider's, or supplier's performance based on a set of standards and assigns a level of accreditation;
</P>
<P>(3) Conducts ongoing assessments and periodic reviews of the quality of health care provided by a health care entity, provider, or supplier; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has due process mechanisms available to health care entities, providers, or suppliers.
</P>
<P><I>Professional review action</I> means an action or recommendation of a health care entity:
</P>
<P>(1) Taken in the course of professional review activity;
</P>
<P>(2) Based on the professional competence or professional conduct of an individual health care practitioner which affects or could affect adversely the health or welfare of a patient or patients; and
</P>
<P>(3) Which adversely affects or may adversely affect the clinical privileges or membership in a professional society of the health care practitioner.
</P>
<P>(4) This term excludes actions which are primarily based on:
</P>
<P>(i) The health care practitioner's association, or lack of association, with a professional society or association;
</P>
<P>(ii) The health care practitioner's fees or the health care practitioner's advertising or engaging in other competitive acts intended to solicit or retain business;
</P>
<P>(iii) The health care practitioner's participation in prepaid group health plans, salaried employment, or any other manner of delivering health services whether on a fee-for-service or other basis;
</P>
<P>(iv) A health care practitioner's association with, supervision of, delegation of authority to, support for, training of, or participation in a private group practice with, a member or members of a particular class of health care practitioner or professional; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any other matter that does not relate to the competence or professional conduct of a health care practitioner.
</P>
<P><I>Professional review activity</I> means an activity of a health care entity with respect to an individual health care practitioner:
</P>
<P>(1) To determine whether the health care practitioner may have clinical privileges with respect to, or membership in, the entity;
</P>
<P>(2) To determine the scope or conditions of such privileges or membership; or
</P>
<P>(3) To change or modify such privileges or membership.
</P>
<P><I>Quality Improvement Organization</I> means a utilization and quality control peer review organization (as defined in part B of title XI of the Social Security Act) that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is composed of a substantial number of the licensed doctors of medicine and osteopathy engaged in the practice of medicine or surgery in the area and who are representative of the practicing physicians in the area, designated by the Secretary under section 1153, with respect to which the entity shall perform services under this part, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has available to it, by arrangement or otherwise, the services of a sufficient number of licensed doctors of medicine or osteopathy engaged in the practice of medicine or surgery in such area to assure that adequate peer review of the services provided by the various medical specialties and subspecialties can be assured;
</P>
<P>(2) Is able, in the judgment of the Secretary, to perform review functions required under section 1154 in a manner consistent with the efficient and effective administration of this part and to perform reviews of the pattern of quality of care in an area of medical practice where actual performance is measured against objective criteria which define acceptable and adequate practice; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has at least one individual who is a representative of consumers on its governing body.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services and any other officer or employee of the Department of Health and Human Services to whom the authority involved has been delegated.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means the fifty states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>State law or fraud enforcement agency</I> includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) A state law enforcement agency;
</P>
<P>(2) A state Medicaid fraud control unit (as defined in section 1903(q) of the Social Security Act); and
</P>
<P>(3) A state agency administering (including those providing payment for services) or supervising the administration of a state health care program (as defined in section 1128(h) of the Social Security Act).
</P>
<P><I>State licensing or certification agency</I> includes, but is not limited to, any authority of a state (or of a political subdivision thereof) responsible for the licensing or certification of health care practitioners (or any peer review organization or private accreditation entity reviewing the services provided by health care practitioners), health care entities, providers, or suppliers. Examples of such state agencies include Departments of Professional Regulation, Health, Social Services (including State Survey and Certification and Medicaid Single State agencies), Commerce, and Insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Voluntary surrender of license or certification</I> means a surrender made after a notification of investigation or a formal official request by a Federal or state licensing or certification authority for a health care practitioner, health care entity, provider, or supplier to surrender the license or certification (including certification agreements or contracts for participation in Federal or state health care programs). The definition also includes those instances where a health care practitioner, health care entity, provider, or supplier voluntarily surrenders a license or certification (including program participation agreements or contracts) in exchange for a decision by the licensing or certification authority to cease an investigation or similar proceeding, or in return for not conducting an investigation or proceeding, or in lieu of a disciplinary action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, 78 FR 25860, May 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reporting of Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.4   How information must be reported.</HEAD>
<P>Information must be reported to the NPDB as required under §§ 60.7, 60.8, 60.9, 60.10, 60.11, 60.12, 60.13, 60.14, 60.15 and 60.16 in such form and manner as the Secretary may prescribe.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.5   When information must be reported.</HEAD>
<P>Information required under §§ 60.7, 60.8, and 60.12 must be submitted to the NPDB within 30 days following the action to be reported, beginning with actions occurring on or after September 1, 1990; information required under § 60.11 must be submitted to the NPDB within 30 days following the action to be reported, beginning with actions occurring on or after January 1, 1992; and information required under §§ 60.9, 60.10, 60.13, 60.14, 60.15, and 60.16 must be submitted to the NPDB within 30 days following the action to be reported, beginning with actions occurring on or after August 21, 1996. Persons or entities responsible for submitting reports of malpractice payments (§ 60.7), negative actions or findings (§ 60.11), or adverse actions (§ 60.12) must additionally provide to their respective state authorities a copy of the report they submit to the NPDB. Following is the list of reportable actions:
</P>
<P>(a) Malpractice payments (§ 60.7);
</P>
<P>(b) Licensure and certification actions (§§ 60.8, 60.9, and 60.10);
</P>
<P>(c) Negative actions or findings (§ 60.11);
</P>
<P>(d) Adverse actions (§ 60.12);
</P>
<P>(e) Health Care-related Criminal Convictions (§ 60.13);
</P>
<P>(f) Health Care-related Civil Judgments (§ 60.14);
</P>
<P>(g) Exclusions from Federal or state health care programs (§ 60.15); and
</P>
<P>(h) Other adjudicated actions of decisions (§ 60.16).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, 78 FR 25860, May 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.6   Reporting errors, omissions, revisions or whether an action is on appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Persons and entities are responsible for the accuracy of information which they report to the NPDB. If errors or omissions are found after information has been reported, the person or entity which reported it must send an addition or correction to the NPDB and, in the case of reports made under § 60.12 of this part, also to the Board of Medical Examiners, as soon as possible. The NPDB will not accept requests for readjudication of the case by the NPDB, and will not examine the underlying merits of a reportable action.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual or entity which reports information on licensure or certification, negative actions or findings, clinical privileges, criminal convictions, civil or administrative judgments, exclusions, or adjudicated actions or decisions under § 60.8, § 60.9, § 60.10, § 60.11, § 60.12, § 60.13, § 60.14, § 60.15, or § 60.16 must also report any revision of the action originally reported. Revisions include, but are not limited to, reversal of a professional review action or reinstatement of a license. In the case of actions reported under § 60.9, § 60.10, § 60.13, § 60.14, § 60.15 or § 60.16, revisions also include whether an action is on appeal. Revisions are subject to the same time constraints and procedures of § 60.5, § 60.8, § 60.9, § 60.10, § 60.11, § 60.12, § 60.13, § 60.14, § 60.15, or § 60.16 as applicable to the original action which was reported.
</P>
<P>(c) The subject will be sent a copy of all reports, including revisions and corrections to the report.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon receipt of a report, the subject:
</P>
<P>(1) Can accept the report as written;
</P>
<P>(2) May provide a statement to the NPDB that will be permanently appended to the report, either directly or through a designated representative; (The NPDB will distribute the statement to queriers, where identifiable, and to the reporting entity and the subject of the report. Only the subject can, upon request, make changes to the statement. The NPDB will not edit the statement; however the NPDB reserves the right to redact personal identifying and offensive language that does not change the factual nature of the statement.); or
</P>
<P>(3) May follow the dispute process in accordance with § 60.21.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, 78 FR 25860, May 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.7   Reporting medical malpractice payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must report.</I> Each entity, including an insurance company, which makes a payment under an insurance policy, self-insurance, or otherwise, for the benefit of a health care practitioner in settlement of or in satisfaction in whole or in part of a claim or a judgment against such health care practitioner for medical malpractice, must report information as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section to the NPDB and to the appropriate state licensing board(s) in the state in which the act or omission upon which the medical malpractice claim was based. For purposes of this section, the waiver of an outstanding debt is not construed as a “payment” and is not required to be reported.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information must be reported.</I> Entities described in paragraph (a) of this section must report the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to the health care practitioner for whose benefit the payment is made:
</P>
<P>(i) Name,
</P>
<P>(ii) Work address,
</P>
<P>(iii) Home address, if known,
</P>
<P>(iv) Social Security Number, if known, and if obtained in accordance with section 7 of the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a note),
</P>
<P>(v) Date of birth,
</P>
<P>(vi) Name of each professional school attended and year of graduation,
</P>
<P>(vii) For each professional license: the license number, the field of licensure, and the name of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(viii) Drug Enforcement Administration registration number, if known, and
</P>
<P>(ix) Name of each hospital with which he or she is affiliated, if known;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to the reporting entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Name and address of the entity making the payment,
</P>
<P>(ii) Name, title, and telephone number of the responsible official submitting the report on behalf of the entity, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Relationship of the reporting entity to the health care practitioner for whose benefit the payment is made;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to the judgment or settlement resulting in the payment:
</P>
<P>(i) Where an action or claim has been filed with an adjudicative body, identification of the adjudicative body and the case number,
</P>
<P>(ii) Date or dates on which the act(s) or omission(s) which gave rise to the action or claim occurred,
</P>
<P>(iii) Date of judgment or settlement,
</P>
<P>(iv) Amount paid, date of payment, and whether payment is for a judgment or a settlement,
</P>
<P>(v) Description and amount of judgment or settlement and any conditions attached thereto, including terms of payment,
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the acts or omissions and injuries or illnesses upon which the action or claim was based,
</P>
<P>(vii) Classification of the acts or omissions in accordance with a reporting code adopted by the Secretary, and
</P>
<P>(viii) Other information as required by the Secretary from time to time after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and after an opportunity for public comment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any entity that fails to report information on a payment required to be reported under this section is subject to a civil money penalty not to exceed the amount specified at 42 CFR 1003.103(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interpretation of information.</I> A payment in settlement of a medical malpractice action or claim shall not be construed as creating a presumption that medical malpractice has occurred.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, 78 FR 25860, May 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.8   Reporting licensure actions taken by Boards of Medical Examiners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What actions must be reported.</I> Each Board of Medical Examiners must report to the NPDB any action based on reasons relating to a physician's or dentist's professional competence or professional conduct:
</P>
<P>(1) Which revokes or suspends (or otherwise restricts) a physician's or dentist's license,
</P>
<P>(2) Which censures, reprimands, or places on probation a physician or dentist, or
</P>
<P>(3) Under which a physician's or dentist's license is surrendered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information that must be reported.</I> The Board must report the following information for each action:
</P>
<P>(1) The physician's or dentist's name,
</P>
<P>(2) The physician's or dentist's work address,
</P>
<P>(3) The physician's or dentist's home address, if known,
</P>
<P>(4) The physician's or dentist's Social Security number or Individual Tax Identification Number (ITIN), if known, and if obtained in accordance with section 7 of the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a note),
</P>
<P>(5) National Provider Identifier (NPI),
</P>
<P>(6) The physician's or dentist's date of birth,
</P>
<P>(7) Name of each professional school attended by the physician or dentist and year of graduation,
</P>
<P>(8) For each professional license, the physician's or dentist's license number, the field of licensure and the name of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(9) The physician's or dentist's Drug Enforcement Administration registration number, if known,
</P>
<P>(10) A description of the acts or omissions or other reasons for the action taken,
</P>
<P>(11) A description of the Board action, the date the action was taken, its effective date and duration,
</P>
<P>(12) Classification of the action in accordance with a reporting code adopted by the Secretary, and
</P>
<P>(13) Other information as required by the Secretary from time to time after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and after an opportunity for public comment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sanctions.</I> If, after notice of noncompliance and providing opportunity to correct noncompliance, the Secretary determines that a Board has failed to submit a report as required by this section, the Secretary will designate another qualified entity for the reporting of information under § 60.12 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.9   Reporting licensure and certification actions taken by states.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What actions must be reported.</I> Each state is required to adopt a system of reporting to the NPDB actions, as listed below, which are taken against a health care practitioner, health care entity, provider, or supplier (all as defined in § 60.3 of this part). The actions taken must be as a result of formal proceedings (as defined in § 60.3). The actions which must be reported are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any adverse action taken by the licensing or certification authority of the state as a result of a formal proceeding, including revocation or suspension of a license, or certification agreement or contract for participation in a government health care program (and the length of any such suspension), reprimand, censure, or probation;
</P>
<P>(2) Any dismissal or closure of the formal proceeding by reason of the health care practitioner, health care entity, provider, or supplier surrendering the license or certification agreement or contract for participation in a government health care program, or leaving the state or jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(3) Any other loss of license or loss of the certification agreement or contract for participation in a government health care program, or the right to apply for, or renew, a license or certification agreement or contract of the health care practitioner, health care entity, provider or supplier, whether by operation of law, voluntary surrender, nonrenewal (excluding non-renewals due to nonpayment of fees, retirement, or change to inactive status), or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(4) Any negative action or finding by such authority, organization, or entity regarding the health care practitioner, health care entity, provider, or supplier.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information must be reported.</I> Each state must report the following information (not otherwise reported under § 60.8 of this part):
</P>
<P>(1) If the subject is an individual, personal identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Name,
</P>
<P>(ii) Social Security Number or ITIN, if known, and if obtained in accordance with section 7 of the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a note),
</P>
<P>(iii) Home address or address of record,
</P>
<P>(iv) Sex, and
</P>
<P>(v) Date of birth.
</P>
<P>(2) If the subject is an individual, employment or professional identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Organization name and type,
</P>
<P>(ii) Occupation and specialty, if applicable,
</P>
<P>(iii) National Provider Identifier (NPI),
</P>
<P>(iv) Name of each professional school attended and year of graduation, and
</P>
<P>(v) With respect to the professional license (including professional certification and registration) on which the reported action was taken, the license number, the field of licensure, and the name of the state or territory in which the license is held.
</P>
<P>(3) If the subject is an organization, identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Name,
</P>
<P>(ii) Business address,
</P>
<P>(iii) Federal Employer Identification Number (FEIN), or Social Security Number when used by the subject as a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN),
</P>
<P>(iv) The NPI,
</P>
<P>(v) Type of organization, and
</P>
<P>(vi) With respect to the license (including certification and registration) on which the reported action was taken, the license and the name of the state or territory in which the license is held.
</P>
<P>(4) For all subjects:
</P>
<P>(i) A narrative description of the acts or omissions and injuries upon which the reported action was based,
</P>
<P>(ii) Classification of the acts or omissions in accordance with a reporting code adopted by the Secretary,
</P>
<P>(iii) Classification of the action taken in accordance with a reporting code adopted by the Secretary, and the amount of any monetary penalty resulting from the reported action,
</P>
<P>(iv) The date the action was taken, its effective date and duration,
</P>
<P>(v) Name of the agency taking the action,
</P>
<P>(vi) Name and address of the reporting entity, and
</P>
<P>(vii) The name, title and telephone number of the responsible official submitting the report on behalf of the reporting entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What information may be reported, if known.</I> Reporting entities described in paragraph (a) of this section may voluntarily report, if known, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) If the subject is an individual, personal identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Other name(s) used,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other address,
</P>
<P>(iii) FEIN, when used by the individual as a TIN, and
</P>
<P>(iv) If deceased, date of death.
</P>
<P>(2) If the subject is an individual, employment or professional identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Other state professional license number(s), field(s) of licensure, and the name(s) of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other numbers assigned by Federal or state agencies, including, but not limited to DEA registration number(s), Unique Physician Identification Number(s) (UPIN), and Medicaid and Medicare provider number(s),
</P>
<P>(iii) Name(s) and address(es) of any health care entity with which the subject is affiliated or associated, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Nature of the subject's relationship to each associated or affiliated health care entity.
</P>
<P>(3) If the subject is an organization, identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Other name(s) used,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other address(es) used,
</P>
<P>(iii) Other FEIN(s) or Social Security Number(s) used,
</P>
<P>(iv) Other NPI(s) used,
</P>
<P>(v) Other state license number(s) and the name(s) of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(vi) Other numbers assigned by Federal or state agencies, including, but not limited to DEA registration number(s), Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) number(s), Food and Drug Administration (FDA) number(s), and Medicaid and Medicare provider number(s),
</P>
<P>(vii) Names and titles of principal officers and owners,
</P>
<P>(viii) Name(s) and address(es) of any health care entity with which the subject is affiliated or associated, and
</P>
<P>(ix) Nature of the subject's relationship to each associated or affiliated health care entity.
</P>
<P>(4) For all subjects:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the subject will be automatically reinstated.
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of appeal, if any.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access to documents.</I> Each state must provide the Secretary (or an entity designated by the Secretary) with access to the documents underlying the actions described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, as may be necessary for the Secretary to determine the facts and circumstances concerning the actions and determinations for the purpose of carrying out section 1921.
</P>
<P>(e) Sanctions for failure to report. The Secretary will provide for a publication of a public report that identifies failures to report information on adverse actions as required to be reported under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.10   Reporting Federal licensure and certification actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What actions must be reported.</I> Federal licensing and certification agencies must report to the NPDB the following final adverse actions that are taken against a health care practitioner, physician, dentist, provider, or supplier (regardless of whether the final adverse action is the subject of a pending appeal):
</P>
<P>(1) Formal or official actions, such as revocation or suspension of a license or certification agreement or contract for participation in government health care programs (and the length of any such suspension), reprimand, censure or probation,
</P>
<P>(2) Any dismissal or closure of the proceedings by reason of the health care practitioner, provider, or supplier surrendering their license or certification agreement or contract for participation in government health care programs, or leaving the state or jurisdiction,
</P>
<P>(3) Any other loss of the license or loss of the certification agreement or contract for participation in government health care programs, or the right to apply for, or renew, a license or certification agreement or contract of the health care practitioner, provider, or supplier, whether by operation of law, voluntary surrender, nonrenewal (excluding non-renewals due to nonpayment of fees, retirement, or change to inactive status), or otherwise, and
</P>
<P>(4) Any other negative action or finding by such Federal agency that is publicly available information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information must be reported.</I> Each Federal agency described in paragraph (a) of this section must report the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) If the subject is an individual, personal identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Name,
</P>
<P>(ii) Social Security Number or ITIN,
</P>
<P>(iii) Home address or address of record,
</P>
<P>(iv) Sex, and
</P>
<P>(v) Date of birth.
</P>
<P>(2) If the subject is an individual, employment or professional identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Organization name and type,
</P>
<P>(ii) Occupation and specialty, if applicable,
</P>
<P>(iii) National Provider Identifier (NPI),
</P>
<P>(iv) Name of each professional school attended and year of graduation, and
</P>
<P>(v) With respect to the state professional license (including professional certification and registration) on which the reported action was taken, the license number, the field of licensure, and the name of the state or territory in which the license is held.
</P>
<P>(3) If the subject is an organization, identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Name,
</P>
<P>(ii) Business address,
</P>
<P>(iii) Federal Employer Identification Number (FEIN), or Social Security Number (or ITIN) when used by the subject as a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN),
</P>
<P>(iv) The NPI,
</P>
<P>(v) Type of organization, and
</P>
<P>(vi) With respect to the state license (including certification and registration) on which the reported action was taken, the license and the name of the state or territory in which the license is held.
</P>
<P>(4) For all subjects:
</P>
<P>(i) A narrative description of the acts or omissions and injuries upon which the reported action was based,
</P>
<P>(ii) Classification of the acts or omissions in accordance with a reporting code adopted by the Secretary,
</P>
<P>(iii) Classification of the action taken in accordance with a reporting code adopted by the Secretary, and the amount of any monetary penalty resulting from the reported action,
</P>
<P>(iv) The date the action was taken, its effective date and duration,
</P>
<P>(v) Name of the agency taking the action,
</P>
<P>(vi) Name and address of the reporting entity, and
</P>
<P>(vii) The name, title, and telephone number of the responsible official submitting the report on behalf of the reporting entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What information may be reported, if known.</I> Reporting entities described in paragraph (a) of this section may voluntarily report, if known, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) If the subject is an individual, personal identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Other name(s) used,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other address,
</P>
<P>(iii) FEIN, when used by the individual as a TIN, and
</P>
<P>(iv) If deceased, date of death.
</P>
<P>(2) If the subject is an individual, employment or professional identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Other state professional license number(s), field(s) of licensure, and the name(s) of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other numbers assigned by Federal or state agencies, including, but not limited to DEA registration number(s), Unique Physician Identification Number(s) (UPIN), and Medicaid and Medicare provider number(s),
</P>
<P>(iii) Name(s) and address(es) of any health care entity with which the subject is affiliated or associated, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Nature of the subject's relationship to each associated or affiliated health care entity.
</P>
<P>(3) If the subject is an organization, identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Other name(s) used,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other address(es) used,
</P>
<P>(iii) Other FEIN(s) or Social Security Number(s) used,
</P>
<P>(iv) Other NPI(s) used,
</P>
<P>(v) Other state license number(s) and the name(s) of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(vi) Other numbers assigned by Federal or state agencies, including, but not limited to DEA registration number(s), Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) number(s), Food and Drug Administration (FDA) number(s), and Medicaid and Medicare provider number(s),
</P>
<P>(vii) Names and titles of principal officers and owners,
</P>
<P>(viii) Name(s) and address(es) of any health care entity with which the subject is affiliated or associated, and
</P>
<P>(ix) Nature of the subject's relationship to each associated or affiliated health care entity.
</P>
<P>(4) For all subjects:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the subject will be automatically reinstated.
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of appeal, if any.
</P>
<P>(d) Sanctions for failure to report. The Secretary will provide for a publication of a public report that identifies those agencies that have failed to report information on adverse actions as required to be reported under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.11   Reporting negative actions or findings taken by peer review organizations or private accreditation entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What actions must be reported.</I> Peer review organizations and private accreditation entities are required to report any negative actions or findings (as defined in § 60.3 of this part) which are taken against a health care practitioner, health care entity, provider, or supplier to the NPDB and provide a copy to the appropriate state licensing or certification agency. The health care practitioner, health care entity, provider, or supplier must be licensed or otherwise authorized by the state to provide health care services. The actions taken must be as a result of formal proceedings (as defined in § 60.3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information must be reported.</I> Each peer review organization and private accreditation entity must report the information as required in § 60.9(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What information may be reported, if known.</I> Each peer review organization and private accreditation entity should report, if known, the information as described in § 60.9(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access to documents.</I> Each peer review organization and private accreditation entity must provide the Secretary (or an entity designated by the Secretary) with access to the documents underlying the actions described in this section as may be necessary for the Secretary to determine the facts and circumstances concerning the actions and determinations for the purpose of carrying out section 1921.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.12   Reporting adverse actions taken against clinical privileges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting by health care entities to the NPDB</I>—(1) <I>Actions that must be reported and to whom the report must be made.</I> Each health care entity must report to the NPDB and provide a copy of the report to the Board of Medical Examiners in the state in which the health care entity is located the following actions:
</P>
<P>(i) Any professional review action that adversely affects the clinical privileges of a physician or dentist for a period longer than 30 days,
</P>
<P>(ii) Acceptance of the surrender of clinical privileges or any restriction of such privileges by a physician or dentist:
</P>
<P>(A) While the physician or dentist is under investigation by the health care entity relating to possible incompetence or improper professional conduct, or
</P>
<P>(B) In return for not conducting such an investigation or proceeding, or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a health care entity which is a professional society, when it takes a professional review action concerning a physician or dentist.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Voluntary reporting on other health care practitioners.</I> A health care entity may report to the NPDB information as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section concerning actions described in paragraph (a)(1) in this section with respect to other health care practitioners.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>What information must be reported.</I> The health care entity must report the following information concerning actions described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section with respect to a physician or dentist:
</P>
<P>(i) Name,
</P>
<P>(ii) Work address,
</P>
<P>(iii) Home address, if known,
</P>
<P>(iv) Social Security Number, if known, and if obtained in accordance with section 7 of the Privacy Act of 1974,
</P>
<P>(v) Date of birth,
</P>
<P>(vi) Name of each professional school attended and year of graduation,
</P>
<P>(vii) For each professional license: the license number, the field of licensure, and the name of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(viii) DEA registration number, if known,
</P>
<P>(ix) A description of the acts or omissions or other reasons for privilege loss, or, if known, for surrender,
</P>
<P>(x) Action taken, date the action was taken, and effective date of the action, and
</P>
<P>(xi) Other information as required by the Secretary from time to time after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and after an opportunity for public comment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting by the Board of Medical Examiners to the NPDB.</I> Each Board must report any known instances of a health care entity's failure to report information as required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section. In addition, each Board of Medical Examiners must simultaneously report this information to the appropriate state licensing board in the state in which the health care entity is located, if the Board of Medical Examiners is not such licensing board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sanctions</I>—(1) <I>Health care entities.</I> If the Secretary has reason to believe that a health care entity has substantially failed to report information in accordance with this section, the Secretary will conduct an investigation. If the investigation shows that the health care entity has not complied with this section, the Secretary will provide the entity with a written notice describing the noncompliance, giving the health care entity an opportunity to correct the noncompliance, and stating that the entity may request, within 30 days after receipt of such notice, a hearing with respect to the noncompliance. The request for a hearing must contain a statement of the material factual issues in dispute to demonstrate that there is cause for a hearing. These issues must be both substantive and relevant. The hearing will be held in the Washington, DC, metropolitan area. The Secretary will deny a hearing if:
</P>
<P>(i) The request for a hearing is untimely,
</P>
<P>(ii) The health care entity does not provide a statement of material factual issues in dispute, or
</P>
<P>(iii) The statement of factual issues in dispute is frivolous or inconsequential.
</P>
<P>In the event that the Secretary denies a hearing, the Secretary will send a written denial to the health care entity setting forth the reasons for denial. If a hearing is denied, or, if as a result of the hearing the entity is found to be in noncompliance, the Secretary will publish the name of the health care entity in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In such case, the immunity protections provided under section 411(a) of HCQIA will not apply to the health care entity for professional review activities that occur during the 3-year period beginning 30 days after the date of publication of the entity's name in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Board of Medical Examiners.</I> If, after notice of noncompliance and providing opportunity to correct noncompliance, the Secretary determines that a Board of Medical Examiners has failed to report information in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, the Secretary will designate another qualified entity for the reporting of this information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.13   Reporting Federal or state criminal convictions related to the delivery of a health care item or service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must report.</I> Federal and state prosecutors must report criminal convictions against health care practitioners, providers, and suppliers related to the delivery of a health care item or service (regardless of whether the conviction is the subject of a pending appeal).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information must be reported.</I> Entities described in paragraph (a) of this section must report the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) If the subject is an individual, personal identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Name,
</P>
<P>(ii) Social Security Number (or ITIN) (states must report this information, if known, and if obtained in accordance with section 7 of the Privacy Act of 1974),
</P>
<P>(iii) Home address or address of record,
</P>
<P>(iv) Sex, and
</P>
<P>(v) Date of birth.
</P>
<P>(2) If the subject is an individual, that individual's employment or professional identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Organization name and type,
</P>
<P>(ii) Occupation and specialty, if applicable, and
</P>
<P>(iii) National Provider Identifier (NPI).
</P>
<P>(3) If the subject is an organization, identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Name,
</P>
<P>(ii) Business address,
</P>
<P>(iii) Federal Employer Number (FEIN), or Social Security Number (or ITIN) when used by the subject as a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN),
</P>
<P>(iv) The NPI, and
</P>
<P>(v) Type of organization.
</P>
<P>(4) For all subjects:
</P>
<P>(i) A narrative description of the acts or omissions and injuries upon which the reported action was based,
</P>
<P>(ii) Classification of the acts or omissions in accordance with a reporting code adopted by the Secretary,
</P>
<P>(iii) Name and location of court or judicial venue in which the action was taken,
</P>
<P>(iv) Docket or court file number,
</P>
<P>(v) Type of action taken,
</P>
<P>(vi) Statutory offense(s) and count(s),
</P>
<P>(vii) Name of primary prosecuting agency (or the plaintiff in civil actions),
</P>
<P>(viii) Date of sentence or judgment,
</P>
<P>(ix) Length of incarceration, detention, probation, community service, or suspended sentence,
</P>
<P>(x) Amounts of any monetary judgment, penalty, fine, assessment, or restitution,
</P>
<P>(xi) Other sentence, judgment, or orders,
</P>
<P>(xii) If the action is on appeal,
</P>
<P>(xiii) Name and address of the reporting entity, and
</P>
<P>(xiv) The name, title, and telephone number of the responsible official submitting the report on behalf of the reporting entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What information may be reported, if known.</I> Entities described in paragraph (a) of this section and each state should report, if known, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) If the subject is an individual, personal identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Other name(s) used,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other address(es), and
</P>
<P>(iii) FEIN, when used by the individual as a TIN.
</P>
<P>(2) If the subject is an individual, that individual's employment or professional identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) State professional license (including professional certification and registration) number(s), field(s) of licensure, and the name(s) of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other numbers assigned by Federal or state agencies, including, but not limited to DEA registration number(s), Unique Physician Identification Number(s) (UPIN), and Medicaid and Medicare provider number(s);
</P>
<P>(iii) Name(s) and address(es) of any health care entity with which the subject is affiliated or associated, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Nature of the subject's relationship to each associated or affiliated health care entity.
</P>
<P>(3) If the subject is an organization, identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Other name(s) used,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other address(es) used,
</P>
<P>(iii) Other FEIN(s) or Social Security Numbers(s) (or ITINs) used,
</P>
<P>(iv) Other NPI(s) used,
</P>
<P>(v) State license (including certification and registration) number(s) and the name(s) of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(vi) Other numbers assigned by Federal or state agencies, including, but not limited to DEA registration number(s), Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) number(s), Food and Drug Administration (FDA) number(s), and Medicaid and Medicare provider number(s),
</P>
<P>(vii) Names and titles of principal officers and owners,
</P>
<P>(viii) Name(s) and address(es) of any health care entity with which the subject is affiliated or associated, and
</P>
<P>(ix) Nature of the subject's relationship to each associated or affiliated health care entity.
</P>
<P>(4) For all subjects:
</P>
<P>(i) Prosecuting agency's case number,
</P>
<P>(ii) Investigative agencies involved,
</P>
<P>(iii) Investigative agencies case or file number(s), and
</P>
<P>(iv) The date of appeal, if any.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access to documents.</I> Each state must provide the Secretary (or an entity designated by the Secretary) with access to the documents underlying the actions described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, as may be necessary for the Secretary to determine the facts and circumstances concerning the actions and determinations for the purpose of carrying out section 1921.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sanctions for failure to report.</I> The Secretary will provide for publication of a public report that identifies those agencies that have failed to report information on criminal convictions as required to be reported under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, 78 FR 25860, May 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.14   Reporting civil judgments related to the delivery of a health care item or service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must report.</I> Federal and state attorneys and health plans must report civil judgments against health care practitioners, providers, or suppliers related to the delivery of a health care item or service (regardless of whether the civil judgment is the subject of a pending appeal). If a government agency is party to a multi-claimant civil judgment, it must assume the responsibility for reporting the entire action, including all amounts awarded to all the claimants, both public and private. If there is no government agency as a party, but there are multiple health plans as claimants, the health plan which receives the largest award must be responsible for reporting the total action for all parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information must be reported.</I> Entities described in paragraph (a) of this section must report the information as required in § 60.13(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What information may be reported, if known.</I> Entities described in paragraph (a) of this section should report, if known the information as described in § 60.13(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access to documents.</I> Each state must provide the Secretary (or an entity designated by the Secretary) with access to the documents underlying the actions described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, as may be necessary for the Secretary to determine the facts and circumstances concerning the actions and determinations for the purpose of carrying out section 1921.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sanctions for failure to report.</I> Any health plan that fails to report information on a civil judgment required to be reported under this section will be subject to a civil money penalty (CMP) of not more than $25,000 for each such adverse action not reported. Such penalty will be imposed and collected in the same manner as CMPs under subsection (a) of section 1128A of the Social Security Act. The Secretary will provide for publication of a public report that identifies those government agencies that have failed to report information on civil judgments as required to be reported under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.15   Reporting exclusions from participation in Federal or state health care programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must report.</I> Federal Government agencies and state law and fraud enforcement agencies must report health care practitioners, providers, or suppliers excluded from participating in Federal or state health care programs, including exclusions that were made in a matter in which there was also a settlement that is not reported because no findings or admissions of liability have been made (regardless of whether the exclusion is the subject of a pending appeal).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information must be reported.</I> Entities described in paragraph (a) of this section must report the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) If the subject is an individual, personal identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Name,
</P>
<P>(ii) Social Security Number (or ITIN) (state law and fraud enforcement agencies must report this information if known, and if obtained in accordance with section 7 of the Privacy Act of 1974),
</P>
<P>(iii) Home address or address of record,
</P>
<P>(iv) Sex, and
</P>
<P>(v) Date of birth.
</P>
<P>(2) If the subject is an individual, that individual's employment or professional identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Organization name and type,
</P>
<P>(ii) Occupation and specialty, if applicable, and
</P>
<P>(iii) National Provider Identifier (NPI).
</P>
<P>(3) If the subject is an organization, identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Name,
</P>
<P>(ii) Business address,
</P>
<P>(iii) Federal Employer Identification Number (FEIN) or Social Security Number (or ITIN) when used by the subject as a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN),
</P>
<P>(iv) The NPI, and
</P>
<P>(v) Type of organization.
</P>
<P>(4) For all subjects:
</P>
<P>(i) A narrative description of the acts or omissions and injuries upon which the reported action was based,
</P>
<P>(ii) Classification of the acts or omissions in accordance with a reporting code adopted by the Secretary,
</P>
<P>(iii) Classification of the action taken in accordance with a reporting code adopted by the Secretary, and the amount of any monetary penalty resulting from the reported action,
</P>
<P>(iv) The date the action was taken, its effective date and duration,
</P>
<P>(v) If the action is on appeal,
</P>
<P>(vi) Name of the agency taking the action,
</P>
<P>(vii) Name and address of the reporting entity, and
</P>
<P>(viii) The name, title, and telephone number of the responsible official submitting the report on behalf of the reporting entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What information may be reported, if known.</I> Entities described in paragraph (a) of this section should report, if known, the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) If the subject is an individual, personal identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Other name(s) used,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other address(es),
</P>
<P>(iii) FEIN, when used by the individual as a TIN,
</P>
<P>(iv) Name of each professional school attended and year of graduation, and
</P>
<P>(v) If deceased, date of death.
</P>
<P>(2) If the subject is an individual, that individual's employment or professional identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) State professional license (including professional registration and certification) number(s), field(s) of licensure, and the name(s) of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other numbers assigned by Federal or state agencies, including, but not limited to DEA registration number(s), Unique Physician Identification Number(s) (UPIN), and Medicaid and Medicare provider number(s),
</P>
<P>(iii) Name(s) and address(es) of any health care entity with which the subject is affiliated or associated, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Nature of the subject's relationship to each associated or affiliated health care entity.
</P>
<P>(3) If the subject is an organization, identifiers, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Other name(s) used,
</P>
<P>(ii) Other address(es) used,
</P>
<P>(iii) Other FEIN(s) or Social Security Numbers(s) (or ITINs) used,
</P>
<P>(iv) Other NPI(s) used,
</P>
<P>(v) State license (including registration and certification) number(s) and the name(s) of the state or territory in which the license is held,
</P>
<P>(vi) Other numbers assigned by Federal or state agencies, including, but not limited to DEA registration number(s), Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) number(s), Food and Drug Administration (FDA) number(s), and Medicaid and Medicare provider number(s),
</P>
<P>(vii) Names and titles of principal officers and owners,
</P>
<P>(viii) Name(s) and address(es) of any health care entity with which the subject is affiliated or associated, and
</P>
<P>(ix) Nature of the subject's relationship to each associated or affiliated health care entity.
</P>
<P>(4) For all subjects:
</P>
<P>(i) If the subject will be automatically reinstated, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of appeal, if any.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access to documents.</I> Each state must provide the Secretary (or an entity designated by the Secretary) with access to the documents underlying the actions described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, as may be necessary for the Secretary to determine the facts and circumstances concerning the actions and determinations for the purpose of carrying out section 1921.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sanctions for failure to report.</I> The Secretary will provide for publication of a public report that identifies those government agencies that have failed to report information on exclusions or debarments as required to be reported under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, 78 FR 25860, May 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.16   Reporting other adjudicated actions or decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who must report.</I> Federal Government agencies, state law or fraud enforcement agencies, and health plans must report other adjudicated actions or decisions as defined in § 60.3 of this part related to the delivery, payment or provision of a health care item or service against health care practitioners, providers, and suppliers (regardless of whether the other adjudicated action or decision is subject to a pending appeal).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information must be reported.</I> Entities described in paragraph (a) of this section must report the information as required in § 60.15(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What information may be reported, if known.</I> Entities described in paragraph (a) of this section should report, if known, the information as described in § 60.15(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access to documents.</I> Each state must provide the Secretary (or an entity designated by the Secretary) with access to the documents underlying the actions described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, as may be necessary for the Secretary to determine the facts and circumstances concerning the actions and determinations for the purpose of carrying out section 1921.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sanctions for failure to report.</I> Any health plan that fails to report information on another adjudicated action or decision required to be reported under this section will be subject to a civil money penalty (CMP) of not more than $25,000 for each such action not reported. Such penalty will be imposed and collected in the same manner as CMPs under subsection (a) of section 1128A of the Social Security Act. The Secretary will provide for publication of a public report that identifies those government agencies that have failed to report information on other adjudicated actions as required to be reported under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Disclosure of Information by the National Practitioner Data Bank</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.17" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.17   Information which hospitals must request from the National Practitioner Data Bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When information must be requested.</I> Each hospital, either directly or through an authorized agent, must request information from the NPDB concerning a health care practitioner, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) At the time a health care practitioner applies for a position on its medical staff (courtesy or otherwise) or for clinical privileges at the hospital; and
</P>
<P>(2) Every 2 years for any health care practitioner who is on its medical staff (courtesy or otherwise) or has clinical privileges at the hospital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to request information.</I> Any hospital which does not request the information as required in paragraph (a) of this section is presumed to have knowledge of any information reported to the NPDB concerning this health care practitioner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reliance on the obtained information.</I> Each hospital may rely upon the information provided by the NPDB to the hospital. A hospital shall not be held liable for this reliance unless the hospital has knowledge that the information provided was false.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, 78 FR 25860, May 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.18" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.18   Requesting information from the National Practitioner Data Bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may request information and what information may be available.</I> Information in the NPDB will be available, upon request, to the persons or entities, or their authorized agents, as described below:
</P>
<P>(1) Information reported under §§ 60.7, 60.8, and 60.12 of this part is available to:
</P>
<P>(i) A hospital that requests information concerning a health care practitioner who is on its medical staff (courtesy or otherwise) or has clinical privileges at the hospital,
</P>
<P>(ii) A health care practitioner who requests information concerning himself or herself,
</P>
<P>(iii) A State Medical Board of Examiners or other state authority that licenses health care practitioners,
</P>
<P>(iv) A health care entity which has entered or may be entering into an employment or affiliation relationship with a health care practitioner, or to which the health care practitioner has applied for clinical privileges or appointment to the medical staff,
</P>
<P>(v) An attorney, or individual representing himself or herself, who has filed a medical malpractice action or claim in a state or Federal court or other adjudicative body against a hospital, and who requests information regarding a specific health care practitioner who is also named in the action or claim. This information will be disclosed only upon the submission of evidence that the hospital failed to request information from the NPDB, as required by § 60.17(a) of this part, and may be used solely with respect to litigation resulting from the action or claim against the hospital,
</P>
<P>(vi) A health care entity with respect to professional review activity, and
</P>
<P>(vii) A person or entity requesting statistical information, in a form which does not permit the identification of any individual or entity.
</P>
<P>(2) Information reported under §§ 60.9, 60.10, 60.11, 60.13, 60.14, 60.15, and 60.16 of this part is available to the agencies, authorities, and officials listed below that request information on licensure or certification actions, any other negative actions or findings, or final adverse actions concerning an individual practitioner, health care entity, provider, or supplier. These agencies, authorities, and officials may obtain data for the purposes of determining the fitness of individuals to provide health care services, protecting the health and safety of individuals receiving health care through programs administered by the requesting agency, and protecting the fiscal integrity of these programs.
</P>
<P>(i) Agencies administering (including those providing payment for services) Federal health care programs, including private entities administering such programs under contract,
</P>
<P>(ii) State licensing or certification agencies and Federal agencies responsible for the licensing and certification of health care practitioners, providers, or suppliers,
</P>
<P>(iii) State agencies administering or supervising the administration of state health care programs (as defined in 42 U.S.C. 1128(h)),
</P>
<P>(iv) State law or fraud enforcement agencies,
</P>
<P>(v) Law enforcement officials and agencies such as:
</P>
<P>(A) United States Attorney General,
</P>
<P>(B) United States Chief Postal Inspector,
</P>
<P>(C) United States Inspectors General;
</P>
<P>(D) United States Attorneys,
</P>
<P>(E) United States Comptroller General,
</P>
<P>(F) United States Drug Enforcement Administration,
</P>
<P>(G) United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission, or
</P>
<P>(H) Federal Bureau of Investigation,
</P>
<P>(vi) Utilization and quality control peer review organizations described in part B of title XI and to appropriate entities with contracts under section 1154(a)(4)(C) of the Social Security Act with respect to eligible organizations reviewed under the contracts, but only with respect to information provided pursuant to §§ 60.9, 60.10, and 60.11 of this part, as well as information provided pursuant to §§ 60.13, 60.14, 60.15, and 60.16 of this part by Federal agencies and health plans,
</P>
<P>(vii) Hospitals and other health care entities (as defined in section 431 of the Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986), with respect to health care practitioners who have entered (or may be entering) into employment or affiliation relationships with, or have applied for clinical privileges or appointments to the medical staff of such hospitals or other health care entities, but only with respect to information provided pursuant to §§ 60.9, 60.10, and 60.11, as well as information provided pursuant to §§ 60.13, 60.14, 60.15, and 60.16 by Federal agencies and health plans,
</P>
<P>(viii) Health plans,
</P>
<P>(ix) A health care practitioner, health care entity, provider, or supplier who requests information concerning himself, herself, or itself, and
</P>
<P>(x) A person or entity requesting statistical information, in a form which does not permit the identification of any individual or entity. (For example, researchers may use statistical information to identify the total number of nurses with adverse licensure actions in a specific state. Similarly, researchers may use statistical information to identify the total number of health care entities denied accreditation.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures for obtaining NPDB information.</I> Persons and entities may obtain information from the NPDB by submitting a request in such form and manner as the Secretary may prescribe. These requests are subject to fees as described in § 60.19 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20484, Apr. 5, 2013, 78 FR 25860, May 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.19" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.19   Fees applicable to requests for information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy on fees.</I> The fees described in this section apply to all requests for information from the NPDB. The amount of such fees will be sufficient to recover the full costs of operating the NPDB. The actual fees will be announced by the Secretary in periodic notices in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> However, for purposes of verification and dispute resolution at the time the report is accepted, the NPDB will provide a copy—at the time a report has been submitted, automatically, without a request and free of charge, of the record to the health care practitioner, entity, provider, or supplier who is the subject of the report and to the reporter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for determining the fee.</I> The amount of each fee will be determined based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct and indirect personnel costs, including salaries and fringe benefits such as medical insurance and retirement,
</P>
<P>(2) Physical overhead, consulting, and other indirect costs (including materials and supplies, utilities, insurance, travel, and rent and depreciation on land, buildings, and equipment),
</P>
<P>(3) Agency management and supervisory costs,
</P>
<P>(4) Costs of enforcement, research, and establishment of regulations and guidance,
</P>
<P>(5) Use of electronic data processing equipment to collect and maintain information—the actual cost of the service, including computer search time, runs and printouts, and
</P>
<P>(6) Any other direct or indirect costs related to the provision of services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessing and collecting fees.</I> The Secretary will announce through notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> from time to time the methods of payment of NPDB fees. In determining these methods, the Secretary will consider efficiency, effectiveness, and convenience for the NPDB users and the Department. Methods may include: credit card, electronic fund transfer, and other methods of electronic payment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.20   Confidentiality of National Practitioner Data Bank information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitations on disclosure.</I> Information reported to the NPDB is considered confidential and shall not be disclosed outside the Department of Health and Human Services, except as specified in §§ 60.17, 60.18, and 60.21 of this part. Persons and entities receiving information from the NPDB, either directly or from another party, must use it solely with respect to the purpose for which it was provided. The Data Bank report may not be disclosed, but nothing in this section will prevent the disclosure of information by a party from its own files used to create such reports where disclosure is otherwise authorized under applicable state or Federal law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Penalty for violations.</I> Any person who violates paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to a civil money penalty of up to $11,000 for each violation. This penalty will be imposed pursuant to procedures at 42 CFR part 1003.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.21   How to dispute the accuracy of National Practitioner Data Bank information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may dispute the NPDB information.</I> The NPDB will routinely mail or transmit electronically to the subject a copy of the report filed in the NPDB. In addition, as indicated in § 60.18, the subject may also request a copy of such report. The subject of the report or a designated representative may dispute the accuracy of a report concerning himself, herself, or itself as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures for disputing a report with the reporting entity.</I> (1) If the subject disagrees with the reported information, the subject must request in the format as determined by the Secretary that the NPDB enter the report into “disputed status.”
</P>
<P>(2) The NPDB will send the report, with a notation that the report has been placed in “disputed status,” to queriers (where identifiable), the reporting entity and the subject of the report.
</P>
<P>(3) The subject must attempt to enter into discussion with the reporting entity to resolve the dispute. If the reporting entity revises the information originally submitted to the NPDB, the NPDB will notify the subject and all entities to whom reports have been sent that the original information has been revised. If the reporting entity does not revise the reported information, or does not respond to the subject within 60 days, the subject may request that the Secretary review the report for accuracy. The Secretary will decide whether to correct the report within 30 days of the request. This time frame may be extended for good cause. The subject also may provide a statement to the NPDB, either directly or through a designated representative that will permanently append the report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for requesting a review of a disputed report.</I> (1) The subject must request, in the format as determined by the Secretary, that the Secretary review the report for accuracy. The subject must return this request to the NPDB along with appropriate materials that support the subject's position. The Secretary will only review the accuracy of the reported information, and will not consider the merits or appropriateness of the action or the due process that the subject received.
</P>
<P>(2) After the review, if the Secretary:
</P>
<P>(i) Concludes that the information is accurate and reportable to the NPDB, the Secretary will inform the subject and the NPDB of the determination. The Secretary will include a brief statement (Secretarial Statement) in the report that describes the basis for the decision. The report will be removed from “disputed status.” The NPDB will distribute the corrected report and statement(s) to previous queriers (where identifiable), the reporting entity and the subject of the report.
</P>
<P>(ii) Concludes that the information contained in the report is inaccurate, the Secretary will inform the subject of the determination and direct the NPDB or the reporting entity to revise the report. The Secretary will include a brief statement (Secretarial Statement) in the report describing the findings. The NPDB will distribute the corrected report and statement(s) to previous queriers (where identifiable), the reporting entity and the subject of the report.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determines that the disputed issues are outside the scope of the Department's review, the Secretary will inform the subject and the NPDB of the determination. The Secretary will include a brief statement (Secretarial Statement) in the report describing the findings. The report will be removed from “disputed status.” The NPDB will distribute the report and the statement(s) to previous queriers (where identifiable), the reporting entity and the subject of the report.
</P>
<P>(iv) Determines that the adverse action was not reportable and therefore should be removed from the NPDB, the Secretary will inform the subject and direct the NPDB to void the report. The NPDB will distribute a notice to previous queriers (where identifiable), the reporting entity and the subject of the report that the report has been voided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.29.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.22   Immunity.</HEAD>
<P>Individuals, entities or their authorized agents, and the NPDB shall not be held liable in any civil action filed by the subject of a report unless the individual, entity, or authorized agent submitting the report has actual knowledge of the falsity of the information contained in the report.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="63" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 63—GRANT PROGRAMS ADMINISTERED BY THE OFFICE OF THE ASSISTANT SECRETARY FOR PLANNING AND EVALUATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 602, Community Services Act (42 U.S.C. 2942); sec. 1110, Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1310). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 23295, May 29, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Except to the extent inconsistent with an applicable Federal statute the regulations in this part apply to all grant awards of Federal assistance made by the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation or his designee, hereinafter referred to in this part as the Assistant Secretary. Such grants include those under section 232 of the Community Services Act (42 U.S.C. 2835), section 1110 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1310), section 392A of the Communications Act of 1934, and such other authority as may be delegated to the Assistant Secretary for policy research activities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions to applicability.</I> The award and administration of contracts and cooperative agreements by the Assistant Secretary shall not be covered by this subchapter. Contracts entered into by the Assistant Secretary shall be subject to the regulations in CFR Title 48, Chapter 3. Generally, the Assistant Secretary will select between grant and contract procedures and instruments, both with regard to the solicitation process and with respect to unsolicited proposals, on the basis of criteria set forth in the proposed revision of 45 CFR 75.201(a) published at 39 FR 27469 at any subsequent revision thereof. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Objectives</I>—(1) <I>Policy research.</I> The overall objective of policy research activities is to obtain information, as it relates to the mission of the Department of Health and Human Services, about the basic causes of and methods for preventing and eliminating poverty and dependency and about improved methods for delivering human resources services. Such information is obtained through the conduct of basic and applied research, statistical analyses, and demonstrations and evaluations which have demonstrated a high probability of impacting on the formulation or modification of major Departmental policies and programs. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Telecommunications demonstrations.</I> The overall objective of the Telecommunications Demonstration Program is to promote the development of nonbroadcast telecommunications facilities and services for the transmission, distribution, and delivery of health, education, and social service information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 23295, May 29, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 36149, July 13, 1977; 85 FR 72911, Nov. 16, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.2   Eligibility for award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Groups and organizations eligible.</I> Except where otherwise prohibited by law, any public or nonprofit private agency, institution, or organization which is found by the Assistant Secretary to be authorized and qualified by educational, scientific, or other relevant competence to carry out a proposed project in accordance with the regulations of this subchapter shall be eligible to receive a grant under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Project eligible</I>—(1) <I>Policy research.</I> Any project found by the Assistant Secretary to be a research, pilot, evaluation, or demonstration project within the meaning of this section and § 63.1 shall be eligible for an award. Eligible projects may include planning, policy modeling or research utilization studies; experiments; demonstrations; field investigations; statistical data collections or analyses; or other types of investigation or studies, or combinations thereof, and may either be limited to one aspect of a problem or subject, or may consist of two or more related problems or subjects for concurrent or consecutive investigation and may involve multiple disciplines, facilities, and resources. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Telecommunications demonstrations.</I> Any projects which meet the special criteria in § 63.6(c) shall be eligible for a telecommunications demonstration grant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 23295, May 29, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 36149, July 13, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.3   Program announcements and solicitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In each fiscal year the Assistant Secretary may from time to time solicit applications through one or more general or specialized program announcements. Such announcements will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as notices and will include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A clear statement of the type(s) of applications requested; 
</P>
<P>(2) A specified plan, time(s) of application, and criteria for reviewing and approving applications; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any grant terms or conditions of general applicability (other than those set forth in this part) which are necessary (i) to meet the statutory requirements of applicable legislation, (ii) to assure or protect the advancement of the project, or (iii) to conserve grant funds. 
</P>
<P>(b) Applications for grants: Any applicant eligible for grant assistance may submit on or before such cutoff date or dates as the Assistant Secretary may announce in program solicitations, an application containing such pertinent information and in accordance with the forms and instructions as prescribed herein and additional forms and instructions as may be specified by the Assistant Secretary. Such application shall be executed by the applicant or an official or representative of the applicant duly authorized to make such application. The Assistant Secretary may require any party eligible for assistance under this subchapter to submit a preliminary proposal for review and approval prior to the acceptance of an application submitted under these provisions. 
</P>
<P>(c) All applications and preliminary proposals should be addressed to: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Grants Officer, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation, Department of Health and Human Services, 330 Independence Avenue, SW, Room 5027, Washington, DC 20201.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.4   Cooperative arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Eligible parties may enter into cooperative arrangements with other eligible parties, including those in another State, to apply for assistance. 
</P>
<P>(b) A joint application made by two or more applicants for assistance under this subchapter may have separate budgets corresponding to the programs, services and activities performed by each of the joint applicants or may have a combined budget. If joint applications present separate budgets, the Assistant Secretary may make separate awards, or may award a single grant authorizing separate amounts for each of the joint applicants. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of each cooperative arrangement authorized under paragraph (a) of this section and receiving assistance, except where the Assistant Secretary makes separate awards under paragraph (b) of this section all such applicants (1) shall be deemed to be joint legal recipients of the grant award and (2) shall be jointly and severally responsible for administering the project assisted under such grant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.5   Effective date of approved grant.</HEAD>
<P>Federal financial participation is normally available only with respect to obligations incurred subsequent to the effective date of an approved project. The effective date of the project will be set forth in the notification of grant award. Grantees may be reimbursed for costs resulting from obligations incurred before the effective date of the grant award if such costs are authorized by the Assistant Secretary in the notification of grant award or subsequently in writing, and otherwise would be allowable as costs of the grant under the applicable regulations and grant terms and conditions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.6   Evaluation of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review procedures.</I> All applications filed in accordance with § 63.3 shall be evaluated by the Assistant Secretary through officers, employees, and such experts or consultants engaged for this purpose as he/she determines are specially qualified in the areas of research pursued by this office. The evaluation criteria below will be supplemented each fiscal year by a program announcement outlining priorities and objectives for policy research, and by other general or specialized solicitations. Such supplements may modify the criteria in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section to provide greater specificity or otherwise improve their applicability to a given announcement or solicitation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for evaluation of Policy Research Projects.</I> Review of applications under paragraph (a) of this section will take into account such factors as: 
</P>
<P>(1) Scientific merit and the significance of the project in relation to policy objectives; 
</P>
<P>(2) Feasibility of the project; 
</P>
<P>(3) Soundness of research design, statistical technique, and procedures and methodology; 
</P>
<P>(4) Theoretical and technical soundness of the proposed plan of operation including consideration of the extent to which: 
</P>
<P>(i) The objectives of the proposed project are sharply defined, clearly stated, and capable of being attained by the proposed procedures; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The objectives of the proposed project show evidence of contributing to the achievement of policy objectives; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provisions are made for adequate evaluation of the effectiveness of the project and for determining the extent to which the objectives are accomplished; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Appropriate provisions are made for satisfactory inservice training connected with project services. 
</P>
<P>(5) Expected potential for utilizing the results of the proposed project in other projects or programs for similar purposes; 
</P>
<P>(6) Sufficiency of size, scope, and duration of the project so as to secure productive results; 
</P>
<P>(7) Adequacy of qualifications and experience, including managerial, of personnel; 
</P>
<P>(8) Adequacy of facilities and other resources; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Reasonableness of estimated cost in relation to anticipated results. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for evaluation of Telecommunications Demonstrations Projects.</I> Review of applications for Telecommunications Demonstrations grants will take into account such factors as are listed in paragraphs (c) (1) through (10) of this section. Each applicant must include in the application, prior to final evaluation by the Assistant Secretary, documentation indicating specifically and separately how and to what extent each of these criteria have been or will be met: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the project for which application is made demonstrates innovative methods or techniques of utilizing nonbroadcast telecommunications equipment or facilities to satisfy the purpose of this authority; 
</P>
<P>(2) That the project will have original research value which will demonstrate to other potential users that such methods or techniques are feasible and cost-effective; 
</P>
<P>(3) That the services to be provided are responsive to local needs as identified and assessed by the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(4) That the applicant has assessed existing telecommunications facilities (if any) in the proposed service area and explored their use of interconnection in conjunction with the project; 
</P>
<P>(5) That there is significant local commitment (e.g., evidence of support, participation, and contribution by local institutions and agencies) to the proposed project, indicating that it fulfills local needs, and gives some promise that operational systems will result from successful demonstrations and will be supported by service recipients or providers; 
</P>
<P>(6) That demonstrations and related activities assisted under this section will remain under the administration and control of the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(7) That the applicant has the managerial and technical capability to carry out the project for which the application is made; 
</P>
<P>(8) That the facilities and equipment acquired or developed pursuant to the applications will be used substantially for the transmission, distribution, and delivery of health, education, or social service information, and that use of such facilities and equipment may be shared among these and additional public or other services; 
</P>
<P>(9) That the provision has been made to submit a summary and factual evaluation of the results of the demonstration at least annually for each year in which funds are received, in the form of a report suitable for dissemination to groups representative of national health, education, and social service telecommunications interests; and, 
</P>
<P>(10) That the project has potential for stimulating cooperation and sharing among institutions and agencies, both within and across disciplines. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicant's performance on prior award.</I> Where the applicant has previously received an award from the Department of Health and Human Services, the applicant's compliance or noncompliance with requirements applicable to such prior award as reflected in past written evaluation reports, memoranda on performance, and completeness of required submissions: <I>Provided,</I> That in any case where the Assistant Secretary proposes to deny assistance based upon the applicant's noncompliance with requirements applicable to a prior award, he shall do so only after affording the applicant reasonable notice and an opportunity to rebut the proposed basis for denial of assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 23295, May 29, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 36149, July 13, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.7   Disposition of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval, disapproval, or deferral.</I> On the basis of the review of an application pursuant to § 63.6 the Assistant Secretary will either (1) approve the application in whole or in part, for such amount of funds and subject to such conditions as he/she deems necessary or desirable for the completion of the approved project, (2) disapprove the application, or (3) defer action on the application for such reasons as lack of funds or a need for further review. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of disposition.</I> The Assistant Secretary will notify the applicant in writing of the disposition of its application. A signed notification of grant award will be issued to notify the applicant of an approved project application. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.8   Supplemental regulations and grant conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grants under section 232 of the Community Services Act.</I> (1) Any grants awarded with funds appropriated under section 232 of the Community Services Act shall be subject to the following regulations issued by the Director of the Community Services Administration (formerly the Office of Economic Opportunity):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45 CFR 1060.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Income Poverty Guidelines.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45 CFR 1060.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Limitation on Benefits to Those Voluntarily Poor.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45 CFR 1067.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Suspension and Termination of Assistance.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45 CFR 1068.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Grantee Compliance with IRS Requirements for Withheld Federal Income and Social Security Taxes.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45 CFR 1069.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Employee Participation in Direct Action.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45 CFR 1069.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Limitations with Respect to Unlawful Demonstrations, Rioting, and Civil Disturbances.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45 CFR 1070.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Public Access to Grantee Information.)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>No other portions of Chapter X of this title are applicable to such grants. 
</FP>
<P>(2) Grants awarded with funds appropriated under section 232 of the Community Services Act shall also be subject to the applicable statutory requirements in sections 242, 243, and 244, and title VI of the Community Services Act. The Assistant Secretary will advise grantees of the nature of these requirements at or prior to the time of award. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the event that any provision of this part is inconsistent with a provision of law or a regulation referenced in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section with respect to any grant funded under section 232 of the Community Services Act, the provision of this part shall, to the extent of any such inconsistency, not be effective. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grants under other statutory authority.</I> Grants awarded by the Assistant Secretary may be subject to regulations, other than those set forth in this part, which have been issued under the authority of statutes authorizing particular awards. In such a case, that fact will be set forth in the program announcement soliciting applications for such grants published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to § 63.3. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other regulations applicable to grants under this part.</I> Federal financial assistance provided under this part shall be subject to the following additional regulations except as otherwise provided in this part: 


</P>
<P>(1) Title 2 CFR parts 200 and 300, establishing uniform administrative requirements, cost principles and audit requirements for Federal awards.




</P>
<P>(2) Part 80 of this title, effectuating the provisions of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Part 16 of this title, establishing a Departmental Grant Appeals Board for the resolution of specified post-award grant disputes. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 23295, May 29, 1975, as amended at 81 FR 3012, Jan. 20, 2016; 89 FR 80070, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Financial Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.16   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth supplemental financial provisions which apply to all grants awarded by the Assistant Secretary, except as specified in § 63.23 of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 23295, May 29, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 36149, July 13, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.17" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.17   Amount of award.</HEAD>
<P>Federal assistance shall be provided only to meet allowable costs incurred by the award recipient in carrying out an approved project in accordance with the authorizing legislation and the regulations of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.18" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.18   Limitations on costs.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of the award shall be set forth in the grant award document. The total cost to the Government will not exceed the amount set forth in the grant award document or any modification thereof approved by the Assistant Secretary which meets the requirements of applicable statutes and regulations. The Government shall not be obligated to reimburse the grantee for costs incurred in excess of such amount unless and until the Assistant Secretary has notified the grantee in writing that such amount has been increased and has specified such increased amount in a revised grant award document. Such revised amount shall thereupon constitute the maximum cost to the Government for the performance of the grant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.19" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.19   Budget revisions and minor deviations.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to § 74.102(d) of this title, paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of that section are waived. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.20   Period during which grant funds may be obligated.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amount of the grant award shall remain available for obligation by the grantee during the period specified in the grant award or until otherwise terminated. Such period may be extended by revision of the grant with or without additional funds pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section where otherwise permitted by law. 
</P>
<P>(b) When it is determined that special or unusual circumstances will delay the completion of the project beyond the period for obligation, the grantee must in writing request the Assistant Secretary to extend such period and must indicate the reasons therefor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.21   Obligation and liquidation by grantee.</HEAD>
<P>Obligations will be considered to have been incurred by a grantee on the basis of documentary evidence of binding commitments for the acquisition of goods or property or for the performance of work, except that funds for personal services, for services performed by public utilities, for travel, and for the rental of facilities, shall be considered to have been obligated as of the time such services were rendered, such travel was performed, and such rented facilities were used, respectively. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.22   Cost sharing.</HEAD>
<P>Policy Research funds shall not be used to pay any recipient of a grant for the conduct of a research project an amount equal to as much as the entire cost of the project. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.23   Telecommunications Demonstration Grants.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this section apply only to grants awarded under authority of 392A of the Communications Act of 1934. 
</P>
<P>(a) Funds provided under the Telecommunications Demonstrations Program shall be available to support the planning, development, and acquisition or leasing of facilities and equipment necessary to the demonstration. However, funds shall not be available for the construction, remodeling, or repair of structures to house facilities or equipment acquired or developed with such funds, except that such funds may be used for minor remodeling which is necessary for and incident to the installation of such facilities or equipment. 
</P>
<P>(b) Funds shall not be available for the development of programming materials or content. 
</P>
<P>(c) The funding of any demonstration under this authority shall continue for not more than three years from the date of the original grant or contract. 
</P>
<P>(1) Applications for assistance under the Act may project goals and activities over a period of up to three years. Approval of a multi-year project is intended to offer the project a reasonable degree of stability over time and to facilitiate additional long range planning. 
</P>
<P>(2) Applications proposing a multi-year project must be accompanied by an explanation of the need for multi-year support, an overview of the objectives and activities proposed, and budget estimates to attain these objectives in any proposed subsequent year. 
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to the availability of funds, an application for assistance to continue a project during the project period will be reviewed on a non-competitive basis to determine— 
</P>
<P>(i) If the award recipient has complied with the award terms and conditions, the Act, and applicable regulations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The effectiveness of the project to date in terms of progress toward its goals, or the constructive changes proposed as a result of the ongoing evaluation of the project; and, 
</P>
<P>(iii) If continuation of the project would be in the best interests of the Government. 
</P>
<P>(d) The use of equipment in demonstration projects shall be subject to the rules and regulations of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC), and grant funds may not be expended or obligated for purchase, lease, or use of such equipment prior to appropriate and necessary coordination by the grantee with the Commission. In particular: 
</P>
<P>(1) For any project requiring a new or modification of an existing authorization(s) from the FCC, application(s) to the FCC for such authorization(s) must have been tendered for filing prior to the closing date established by any solicitation for grant applications offered under the Telecommunications Demonstration Program. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the project is to be associated with an existing telecommunications activity requiring an FCC authorization, such operating authority for that activity must be current and valid. 
</P>
<P>(3) For any project requiring a new or modification of an existing authorization(s) from the FCC, the applicant must file with the Secretary of Health and Human Services a copy of each FCC application and any amendments thereto. 
</P>
<P>(4) For any project requiring a new or modification of an existing authorization(s) from the FCC, the applicant must tender for filing with the FCC a copy of the application to the Secretary for a telecommunications demonstration grant. 
</P>
<P>(5) If the applicant fails to file required applications by the closing date established by the solicitation for grant applications, or if the FCC returns as substantially incomplete or deficient, dismisses, or denies an application required for the project, or any part thereof, or for the operation of any facility with which the project is associated, the Secretary may return the application for Federal assistance. 
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of this program, the term “non-broadcast telecommunications facilities” includes but is not limited to, cable television systems, communications satellite systems and related terminal equipment, and other methods of transmitting, emitting, or receiving images and sounds or intelligence by means of wire, radio, optical, electromagnetic, and other means (including non-broadcast utilization of telecommunications equipment normally associated with broadcasting use). 
</P>
<P>(f) Each applicant shall provide such information as the Assistant Secretary deems necessary to make a Federal assessment of the impact of the project on the quality of the human environment in accordance with section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (including the National Historical Preservation Act and other environmental acts). (42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 36149, July 13, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Special Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.30   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth supplemental special provisions which apply to all grants awarded by the Assistant Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.31   Protection of human subjects.</HEAD>
<P>All grants made pursuant to this part are subject to the specific provisions of part 46 of this subtitle relating to the protection of human subjects. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.32   Data collection instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section “Child” means an individual who has not attained the legal age of consent to participate in research as determined under the applicable law of the jurisdiction in which such research is to be conducted. 
</P>
<P>“Data-collection instruments” means tests, questionnaires, inventories, interview schedules or guides, rating scales, and survey plans or any other forms which are used to collect information on substantially identical items from 10 or more respondents. 
</P>
<P>“Respondents” means individuals or organizations from whom information is collected. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This section does not apply to instruments which deal solely with (1) functions of technical proficiency, such as scholastic aptitude or school achievement, or (2) routine demographic information. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protection of privacy.</I> (1) No project supported under this part may involve the use of data collection instruments which constitute invasion of personal privacy through inquiries regarding such matters as religion, sex, race, or politics. 
</P>
<P>(2) A grantee which proposes to use a data collection instrument shall set forth in the grant application an explanation of the safeguards which will be used to restrict the use and disclosure of information so obtained to purposes directly connected with the project, including provisions for the destruction of such instruments where no longer needed for the purposes of the project. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Clearance of instruments.</I> (1) Grantees will not be required to submit data-collection instruments to the Assistant Secretary or obtain the Assistant Secretary's approval for the use of these instruments, except where the notification of grant award specifically so provides. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a grantee is required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section to submit data-collection instruments for the approval of the Assistant Secretary or if a grantee wishes the Assistant Secretary to review a data-collection instrument, the grantee shall submit seven copies of the document to the Assistant Secretary along with seven copies of the Office of Management and Budget's standard form No. 83 and seven copies of the Supporting Statement as required in the “Instructions for Requesting OMB Approval under the Federal Reports Act” (Standard form No. 83A). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Responsibility for collection of information.</I> A grantee shall not in any way represent or imply (either in a letter of transmittal, in the data-gathering instruments themselves, or in any other manner) that the information is being collected by or for the Federal Government or any department, agency or instrumentality thereof. Basic responsibility for the study and the data-gathering instruments rests with the grantee. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Parental consent.</I> In the case of any survey using data-collection instruments in which children are involved as respondents, the grantee, in addition to observing the other requirements contained in this section, and in part 46 of this subtitle as appropriate, shall provide assurances satisfactory to the Assistant Secretary that informed consent will be obtained from the parents of each such respondent prior to the use of such instruments, except that a waiver from the requirements of this paragraph for specific data-collection activities may be granted upon the written request by the grantee and a determination by the Assistant Secretary that a waiver is necessary in order to fully carry out the purposes of the grant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.33   Treatment of animals.</HEAD>
<P>If animals are utilized in any project receiving assistance, the applicant for such assistance shall provide assurances satisfactory to the Assistant Secretary that such animals will be provided with proper care and humane treatment; in accordance with the Animal Welfare Act (7 U.S.C. 2131 <I>et seq.</I>) and regulations set forth in (9 CFR parts 1, 2, 3, 4). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.34   Principal investigators.</HEAD>
<P>The principal investigator(s) designated in successful grant applications as responsible for the conduct of the approved project, shall not be replaced without the prior approval of the Assistant Secretary or his designee. Failure to seek and acquire such approval may result in the grant award being terminated in accordance with the procedures set forth in 2 CFR 200.340 of this subtitle or such other regulations as may be indicated in the grant terms and conditions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 23295, May 29, 1975, as amended at 81 FR 3012, Jan. 20, 2016; 89 FR 80070, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.35" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.35   Dual compensation.</HEAD>
<P>If a project staff member or consultant of one grantee is involved simultaneously in two or more projects supported by any funds either under this part or otherwise, he/she may not be compensated for more than 100 percent of his/her time from any funds during any part of the period of dual involvement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.36" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.36   Fees to Federal employees.</HEAD>
<P>The grantee shall not use funds from any sources to pay a fee to, or travel expenses of, employees of the Federal Government for lectures, attending program functions, or any other activities in connection with the grant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.37" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.37   Leasing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>In the case of a project involving the leasing of a facility, the grantee shall demonstrate that it will have the right to occupy, to operate, and, if necessary, to maintain and improve the leased facility during the proposed period of the project. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.38" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.38   Publications.</HEAD>
<P>Any publication or presentation resulting from or primarily related to Federal financial assistance under this part shall contain an acknowledgement essentially as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The activity which is the subject of this report was supported in whole or part by a grant from the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation, Department of Health and Human Services. However, the opinions expressed herein do not necessarily reflect the position or policy of that Office and no official endorsement by that Office should be inferred.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.39" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.30.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.39   Religious worship or instruction.</HEAD>
<P>Federal funds shall not be used for the making of any payment for religious worship or instruction, or for the construction, operation, or maintenance of so much of any facility as is used or to be used for sectarian instruction or as a place for religious instruction. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="73" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 73—STANDARDS OF CONDUCT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 7369, Jan. 23, 1981, as amended at 90 FR 40978, Aug. 22, 2025, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.101" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Health and Human Services Standards of Conduct (Standards) prescribe employee rules of conduct and procedure and provide for disciplinary action for the violation of the Standards and other rules, regulations, or laws governing Department employees. These Standards are separate from and additional to the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch (5 CFR part 2635), the Supplemental Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Department of Health and Human Services (5 CFR part 5501), the Supplemental Financial Disclosure Requirements for Employees of the Department of Health and Human Services (5 CFR part 5502), the Employee Responsibilities and Conduct regulations (5 CFR part 735), and the Executive Branch Financial Disclosure regulations (5 CFR part 2634).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.102" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Commissioned officer</I> means either a commissioned officer of the Regular Corps or a commissioned officer of the Ready Reserve Corps of the Public Health Service.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> and <I>HHS</I> mean the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an officer of the Department or an individual who is employed by the Department. Status as an employee is unaffected by pay or leave status. The term includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Special Government employees;
</P>
<P>(2) Commissioned officers of the Public Health Service on active or inactive duty;
</P>
<P>(3) An HHS employee who is assigned to a non-Federal entity under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act of 1970, as amended (5 U.S.C. 3371-3376), whether on leave without pay or on detail; and
</P>
<P>(4) A non-Federal employee who is appointed to an HHS position or who is serving on detail to HHS under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act of 1970, as amended.
</P>
<P>(5) An HHS employee who is detailed to another Executive Branch agency or elsewhere within the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign government</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any unit of foreign government authority, including any foreign national, State, local, and municipal government, and their foreign equivalents;
</P>
<P>(2) Any international or multinational organization whose membership is composed of any unit of foreign government described in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any agent or representative of any such unit described in paragraph (1) of this definition or any organization described in paragraph (2) of this definition, while acting as such agent or representative.
</P>
<P><I>Gift</I> means a monetary or non-monetary present (other than a decoration) offered by or received from a foreign government.
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Inspector General</I> means the Office of Inspector General at the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Minimal value</I> means a retail value in the United States at the time of acceptance that is at or below the dollar value established by the General Services Administration pursuant to the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act, 5 U.S.C. 7342(a)(5). This value is published by the General Services Administration in a Federal Management Regulation Bulletin at <I>www.gsa.gov/personalpropertypolicy.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Severe forms of trafficking in persons</I> has the meaning given at 22 U.S.C. 7102(11):
</P>
<P>(1) Sex trafficking in which a commercial sex act is induced by force, fraud, or coercion or in which the person induced to perform such act has not attained 18 years of age; or
</P>
<P>(2) The recruitment, harboring, transportation, provision, or obtaining of a person for labor or services, through the use of force, fraud, or coercion for the purpose of subjection to involuntary servitude, peonage, debt bondage or slavery.
</P>
<P><I>Sex trafficking</I> has the meaning given at 22 U.S.C. 7102(12): the recruitment, harboring, transportation, provision, obtaining, patronizing, or soliciting of a person for the purpose of a commercial sex act.
</P>
<P><I>Special Government employee</I> means an officer or employee who, as specified in 18 U.S.C. 202(a), is retained, designated, appointed, or employed to perform temporary duties either on a full-time or intermittent basis, with or without compensation, on no more than 130 days during any consecutive 365-day period.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.103" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.103   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise indicated (see subpart D of this part), the Standards of this part apply to all employees as defined in § 73.102.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Conduct on the Job</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.201" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.201   Courtesy and consideration for others.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee's conduct on the job is, in all respects, of concern to the Federal Government. Courtesy, consideration, and promptness in dealing with the public must be shown in carrying out official responsibilities, and actions that deny the dignity of individuals or conduct that is disrespectful to others must be avoided. Employees must recognize that inattention to matters of common courtesy can adversely affect the quality of service the Department is responsible for providing. Where appropriate, courtesy to the public should be included in the standards for evaluating employee performance.
</P>
<P>(b) Of equal importance is the requirement that courtesy be shown in day-by-day interaction with co-workers. Employees must be polite to and considerate of other employees and must respect their needs and concerns in the work environment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.202" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.202   Support of Department programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a Department program is based on law, Executive order, or regulation, every employee has a positive obligation to make the program function as efficiently and economically as possible and to support it as long as it is a part of recognized public policy. An employee may, therefore, properly make an address explaining a Department program, citing its achievements, defending it against uninformed or unjust criticism, or soliciting views for improving it.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee must not, either directly or indirectly, use appropriated funds to initiate or support grassroots lobbying efforts aimed at influencing constituents to urge a Member of Congress to favor or oppose pending legislation, subject to such exceptions as are recognized to 18 U.S.C. 1913 or similar appropriation riders. This requirement does not apply to the official handling, through the proper channels, of matters relating to legislation in which the Department has an interest. Moreover, when authorized by an employee's supervisor, an employee is not prohibited from:
</P>
<P>(1) Testifying, on request, as a representative of the Department on pending legislation or proposals before congressional committees; or
</P>
<P>(2) Assisting congressional committees in drafting bills or reports on request, when it is clear that the employee is serving solely as a technical expert under the direction of committee leadership.
</P>
<P>(c) All employees must be familiar with regulations and published instructions that relate to their official duties and responsibilities and must comply with those directives. This includes carrying out proper orders from officials authorized to give them.
</P>
<P>(d) Employees are required to assist the Inspector General and other HHS investigative officials in the performance of their duties and functions. This requirement includes providing statements and evidence to investigators of the Inspector General or other HHS investigators authorized to conduct investigations into potential violations.
</P>
<P>(e) In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 7211, employees, individually or collectively, may petition Congress or a Member of Congress and may furnish information to either House of Congress or to a committee or Member thereof, when acting in their personal capacities and not using Government time, funds, or property.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.203" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.203   Use of Government funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee must not:
</P>
<P>(1) Improperly use official travel;
</P>
<P>(2) Improperly use payroll and other vouchers and documents on which Government payments are based;
</P>
<P>(3) Take or fail to account for funds with which the employee is entrusted in the employee's official position; or
</P>
<P>(4) Take other Government funds for personal use.
</P>
<P>Violations of these prohibitions carry criminal penalties.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, employees must avoid wasteful actions or behavior in the performance of their assigned duties.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.204" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.204   Use of Government property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee must not directly or indirectly use, or allow the use of, Government property of any kind, including property leased to the Government, for other than officially approved activities or authorized purposes. An employee to whom Government property has been entrusted or issued, including equipment, supplies, and other property, has a positive duty to protect and conserve these public assets.
</P>
<P>(b) Employees may have limited personal use of HHS information and information technology resources, including HHS email, systems, instant messaging tools, and Government-furnished equipment (<I>e.g.,</I> laptops and mobile devices) only when the personal use will:
</P>
<P>(1) Involve no more than minimal additional expense to the Government;
</P>
<P>(2) Be minimally disruptive to personnel productivity;
</P>
<P>(3) Not interfere with the mission or operations of the Department;
</P>
<P>(4) Not violate the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch, the Supplemental Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Department of Health and Human Services, the Hatch Act, or other applicable law or regulation; and
</P>
<P>(5) Comport with all applicable HHS directives and policies governing the use of information technology, including, but not limited to, the following Departmental issuance: HHS Rules of Behavior for the Use of HHS Information and IT Resources Policy or its successive iteration in effect at the time of the use.
</P>
<P>(c) Employees may drive or use Government passenger motor vehicles or aircraft only on official business. In accordance with 31 U.S.C. 1349(b), the use of a passenger motor vehicle or aircraft owned or leased by the Government for non-official purposes may result in suspension for at least one month or removal from the Federal service.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.205" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.205   Conduct in Federal buildings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) While on Government-owned or Government-leased property or on duty for the Government, an employee must not conduct or participate in any gambling activity, including operating a gambling device, conducting a lottery or pool, participating in a game for money or property, or selling or purchasing a numbers slip or ticket.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee must not, while in or on Government-owned or Government-leased property or while on duty for the Government, solicit alms (including money and non-monetary items) and contributions, engage in commercial soliciting and vending, display or distribute commercial advertisements, or collect private debts.
</P>
<P>(c) The prohibitions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not preclude:
</P>
<P>(1) Activities necessitated by an employee's law enforcement duties;
</P>
<P>(2) Participation in federally sponsored fundraising activities conducted pursuant to 5 CFR part 950, or similar HHS-approved activities; or
</P>
<P>(3) Buying a lottery ticket at an authorized State lottery outlet for a lottery authorized by State law and conducted by an agency of a State within that State.
</P>
<P>(d) The General Services Administration's Federal Management Regulations on “Conduct on Federal Property,” codified under 41 CFR part 102-74, subpart C, apply to all property under the control of the General Services Administration, and those regulations are also applicable to all buildings and space under the control of this Department. The General Services Administration regulations prohibit, among other things, gambling, being intoxicated, and possession, distribution, or use of narcotic or dangerous drugs on the premises.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.206" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.206   Other prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>Employees must avoid any action, irrespective of whether it is specifically prohibited by this part, that might result in or create the appearance of:
</P>
<P>(a) Impeding Government efficiency or economy; or
</P>
<P>(b) Making a Government decision outside of official channels.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Counter Trafficking in Persons Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.301" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.301   Prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>Severe forms of trafficking in persons (<I>i.e.,</I> human trafficking), as defined in § 73.102, is a public health issue that impacts individuals, families, and communities. Human trafficking for labor or commercial sex are federal crimes and include punishment up to life in prison (18 U.S.C. chapter 77). All Department employees are prohibited from engaging in severe forms of trafficking in persons during duty and non-duty hours.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.302" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.302   Training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HHS plays a vital role in efforts to counter trafficking in persons worldwide and federal law requires that all federal employees be sensitized to human trafficking and have the tools necessary to prevent, recognize and address human trafficking offenses. All Department employees are required to complete HHS-prescribed training.
</P>
<P>(1) All Department employees of record on the effective date of this part will complete initial training to raise overall awareness of human trafficking and its various manifestations, including labor and sex trafficking, and to inform employees of their obligations under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) All Department employees hired after the effective date of this part must complete initial human trafficking training within 90 days of appointment.
</P>
<P>(3) All Department employees must complete refresher human trafficking training every two years.
</P>
<P>(b) Supervisors are required ensure that subordinates complete all required training. Employees who fail to complete required training may be deemed in violation of this policy and may be subject to disciplinary action as addressed in subpart F of this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.303" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.303   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>All Department employees must report to the HHS Office of the Inspector General and agency trafficking in persons point of contact any suspected cases of severe forms of trafficking in persons and any suspected misconduct, waste, fraud, or abuse relating to severe forms of trafficking in persons (<I>e.g.,</I> procuring a commercial sex act, using forced labor, denying access to immigration documents, using misleading recruitment of employees) that involve:
</P>
<P>(a) HHS personnel; or
</P>
<P>(b) HHS programs or other efforts funded by HHS or programs that involve HHS personnel; or
</P>
<P>(c) The Department's contractors, sub-awardees, grantees, or cooperative agreement recipients. Employees who fail to report actual or suspected severe trafficking in persons cases may be deemed in violation of this policy and may be subject to disciplinary action as addressed in subpart F of this part.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 40978, Aug. 22, 2025; 90 FR 43158, Sept. 8, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Gifts, Travel, and Employment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.401" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.401   Gifts and decorations from foreign governments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee may not request or otherwise encourage the tender of a gift or decorations from a foreign government or official of a foreign government.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee may accept from a foreign government:
</P>
<P>(1) A gift which is in the nature of medical treatment or an educational scholarship;
</P>
<P>(2) A tangible gift of minimal value, as defined in § 73.102, tendered or received as a mark of courtesy;
</P>
<P>(3) A tangible gift of more than minimal value when it appears that to refuse the gift would be likely to cause offense or embarrassment or otherwise adversely affect the foreign relations of the United States. However, the acceptance of such a gift would be on behalf of the United States and the gift would become the property of the United States. Employees should refer to internal Department guides for information regarding the disposition of a gift accepted under these circumstances.
</P>
<P>(4) An employee may accept from a foreign government gifts of travel or expenses for travel (such as transportation, food, and lodging) taking place entirely outside the United States of more than minimal value, as defined in § 73.102, if such acceptance is appropriate, consistent with the interests of the United States, and approved by the travel approving authority) in accordance with the HHS Travel Policy Manual.
</P>
<P>(5) An employee may accept, retain, and wear a decoration tendered in recognition of active field service in time of combat operations or awarded for other outstanding or unusually meritorious performance, subject to the approval of the Secretary or the Secretary's designee.
</P>
<P>(c) An employee's spouse (unless they are separated) and dependents (within the meaning of section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) are also subject to the regulations in this section. However, if a member of an employee's family and household is employed by another agency of the Government, the offer or acceptance of a gift shall be treated under the regulations of that agency.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.402" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.402   Acceptance of travel and subsistence.</HEAD>
<P>Employees may accept and may utilize accommodations, subsistence, and travel in cash or in-kind from a non-Federal source in connection with official travel for attendance at meetings, conferences, training in nongovernmental facilities or for performing advisory services, only if approved in accordance with the provisions of the HHS Travel Policy Manual. (5 U.S.C. 4111; 31 U.S.C. 1353; 42 U.S.C. 3506.)




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.403" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.403   Payments to special Government employees from two sources.</HEAD>
<P>The Department may not pay per diem to a special Government employee who also receives per diem pay for the same day from another Government agency (whether from within or from outside the Department). Erroneous payments in contravention of this provision will be subject to collection, and any special Government employee who willfully collects double payments may be barred from further employment.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Political Activity</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.501" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.501   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this subpart apply to the commissioned officers of the Public Health Service on active or inactive duty, other than the Assistant Secretary for Health and the Surgeon General. For purposes of this subpart, these commissioned officers are referred to as “covered employees.” Commissioned officers serving in the Ready Reserve Corps, not on active or inactive duty, should avoid inferences that their political activities imply or appear to imply official sponsorship, approval, or endorsement by the Department. All Department employees, including commissioned officers of the Public Health Service on active or inactive duty, are subject to the criminal provisions governing political activity contained in chapter 29 of title 18, United States Code (18 U.S.C. 592-611).
</P>
<P>(b) An employee who is appointed by the President by and with the advice and consent of the Senate to serve in the position of Assistant Secretary for Health or Surgeon General of the Public Health Service, who may serve simultaneously as a commissioned officer of the Public Health Service, is not covered by this subpart. The Assistant Secretary for Health and the Surgeon General of the Public Health Service are executive agency employees:
</P>
<P>(1) The duties and responsibilities of whose positions continue outside normal duty hours and while away from the normal duty post; and
</P>
<P>(2) Who are appointed by the President by and with the advice and consent of the Senate (PAS) whose positions are located within the United States and who determine policies to be pursued by the United States in the nationwide administration of Federal laws; and, as such, irrespective of the appointees' status as commissioned officers, the Assistant Secretary for Health and the Surgeon General of the Public Health Service are subject to the political activity restrictions contained in subchapter III of chapter 73 of title 5, United States Code, and the implementing regulations in 5 CFR parts 733 and 734, that are applicable to other PAS positions within the Department, except the Inspector General.
</P>
<P>(c) Each employee covered under this subpart is individually responsible for refraining from prohibited political activity and is accountable for political activity by another person acting as the employee's agent or under the employee's direction or control if the employee is thus accomplishing indirectly what the employee may not lawfully do directly and openly.
</P>
<P>(d) Each employee covered under this subpart is subject to the subpart's restrictions, even where the covered employee is on paid leave, compensatory time off, credit hours, time off as an incentive award, or excused or authorized absence (including leave without pay), and even where the employee's resignation has been accepted. A separated employee who has received a lump-sum payment for annual leave is not subject to the restrictions during the period covered by the lump-sum payment or thereafter if the payment has ended the individual's employment with the Federal Government and provided the individual does not return to Federal employment during that period. A covered employee is subject to the prohibitions contained in this subpart for 24 hours per day and is not permitted to take annual leave or a leave of absence to work with a political candidate, committee, or organization, or to become a candidate for office with the understanding that the employee will resign the employee's position if nominated or elected.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.502" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.502   Permitted activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expression of an employee's individual opinion.</I> Each employee covered under this subpart retains the right to participate in any of the following political activities, as long as the activity is not performed in concert with a political party, a partisan political group, or a candidate for partisan political office:
</P>
<P>(1) Express the employee's opinion as an individual privately and publicly on political subjects and candidates;
</P>
<P>(2) Display a political picture, sign, sticker, badge, or button, as long as these items are displayed in accordance with the provisions of § 73.403(a);
</P>
<P>(3) Sign a political petition as an individual;
</P>
<P>(4) Be politically active in connection with a question that is not specifically identified with a political party, such as a constitutional amendment, referendum, approval of a municipal ordinance, or any other question or issue of a similar character; and
</P>
<P>(5) Otherwise participate fully in public affairs, except as prohibited by other Federal law, in a manner that does not compromise the employee's efficiency or integrity as an employee or the neutrality, efficiency, or integrity of the agency or instrumentality of the United States Government where the employee is employed.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may purchase airtime on a radio or television station personally to endorse a partisan political candidate. However, the employee may not endorse such a candidate in a commercial or program that is sponsored by the candidate's campaign committee, a political party, or a partisan political group.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may address a political convention or rally but not on behalf of, or at the request of, a political party, a partisan political group, or an individual who is running for the nomination or as a candidate for election to partisan political office.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may print at the employee's own expense one thousand fliers that state that employee's personal opinion that a partisan political candidate is the best suited for the job. The employee may distribute the fliers at a shopping mall on the weekend. However, the employee may not distribute fliers printed by the candidate's campaign committee, a political party, or a partisan political group.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may place in the employee's yard a sign supporting a candidate for partisan political office.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may stand outside of a political party convention with a homemade sign that states the employee's individual opinion that one of the candidates for nomination is the best qualified candidate.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may wear a button with a partisan political theme when the employee is not on duty or at the place of work, provided that the employee is not in uniform.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>Participation in elections.</I> Each employee covered under this subpart retains the right to:
</P>
<P>(1) Register and vote in any election;
</P>
<P>(2) Take an active part, in accordance with the provisions of § 73.404 and subject to the prohibitions in §§ 73.403 and 73.405, as an independent candidate, or in support of an independent candidate, in a partisan election in localities designated as permissible for such activities by the Office of Personnel Management pursuant to 5 CFR 733.107.
</P>
<P>(3) Take an active part, as a candidate or in support of a candidate, in a nonpartisan election; and
</P>
<P>(4) Serve as an election judge or clerk, or in a similar position, to perform nonpartisan duties as prescribed by State or local law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Participation in political organizations.</I> Each employee covered under this subpart retains the right to:
</P>
<P>(1) Participate in the nonpartisan activities of a civic, community, social, labor, or professional organization, or of a similar organization;
</P>
<P>(2) Be a member of a political party or other partisan political group and participate in its activities to the extent consistent with this subpart and Federal law;
</P>
<P>(3) Attend a political convention, rally, fund-raising function, or other political gathering; and
</P>
<P>(4) Make a financial contribution to a political party, to a partisan political group, or to the campaign committee of a candidate for partisan political office.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may attend a political convention or rally solely as a spectator. However, the employee may not participate in demonstrations or parades that are sponsored by a political party, a partisan political group, or an individual who is running for nomination to be a candidate for partisan political office.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may attend a political party's annual barbecue, but an employee may not organize, distribute invitations to, or sell tickets to the barbecue.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(d) <I>Campaigning for a spouse or family member.</I> An employee covered under this subpart who is the spouse or family member of either a candidate for partisan political office, or a candidate for political party office, may appear in photographs of the candidate's family that might appear in a political advertisement, a broadcast, campaign literature, or similar material. A spouse or a family member who is a covered employee also may attend political functions with the candidate. However, the spouse or family member may not distribute campaign literature or solicit, accept, or receive political contributions.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 9 to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee who is the spouse of a candidate for partisan political office may stand in the receiving line and sit at the head table during a political dinner honoring the spouse.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 10 to paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee who is the daughter or son of a candidate for partisan political office may appear in a family photograph that is printed in a campaign flier, but the employee may not distribute the flier at a campaign rally.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.503" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.503   Prohibited activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Participation in political activities while on duty, in uniform, in any room or building occupied in the discharge of official duties or using a Federal vehicle; prohibition.</I> An employee covered under this subpart may not participate in political activities:
</P>
<P>(1) While the employee is on duty;
</P>
<P>(2) While the employee is wearing a uniform, badge, insignia, or other similar item that identifies the employing agency or instrumentality or the position of the employee;
</P>
<P>(3) While the employee is in any room or building occupied in the discharge of official duties by an individual employed or holding office in the Government of the United States or any agency or instrumentality of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(4) While using a Government-owned or Government-leased vehicle or while using a privately owned vehicle in the discharge of official duties.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee who uses the employee's privately owned vehicle on a recurrent basis for official business may place a partisan political bumper sticker on the vehicle, as long as the bumper sticker is covered while the vehicle is being used for official duties.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee who uses the employee's privately owned vehicle on official business must cover any partisan political bumper sticker while the vehicle is being used for official duties if the vehicle is clearly identified as being on official business.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee who uses the employee's privately owned vehicle only on an occasional basis to drive to another Federal agency for a meeting, or to take a training course, is not required to cover a partisan political bumper sticker on the vehicle.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may not place a partisan political bumper sticker on any Government-owned or Government-leased vehicle.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may place a bumper sticker on the employee's privately owned vehicle and park the vehicle in a parking lot of an agency or instrumentality of the United States Government or in a non-Federal facility for which the employee receives a subsidy from the employing agency or instrumentality.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>):</HED><PSPACE>A covered employee may not wear partisan political buttons or display partisan political pictures, signs, stickers, or badges while the employee is on duty or at the place of work.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use of official authority; prohibition.</I> An employee covered under this subpart may not use the employee's official authority or influence for the purpose of interfering with or affecting the result of an election.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Participation in political management and political campaigning; prohibitions.</I> An employee covered under this subpart may not take an active part in political management or in a political campaign, except as permitted by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Participation in political organizations; prohibitions.</I> An employee covered under this subpart may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Serve as an officer of a political party; as a member of a national, State, or local committee of a political party; or as an officer or member of a committee of a partisan political group; or
</P>
<P>(2) Be a candidate for any of the positions listed in paragraph (e)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Organize or reorganize a political party organization or partisan political group;
</P>
<P>(4) Serve as a delegate, alternate, or proxy to a political party convention; or
</P>
<P>(5) Address a convention, caucus, rally, or similar gathering of a political party or partisan political group in support of or in opposition to a candidate for partisan political office or political party office, if the address is done in concert with a candidate, political party, or partisan political group.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Participation in political fundraising; prohibitions.</I> An employee covered under this subpart may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Solicit, accept, or receive political contributions; or
</P>
<P>(2) Organize, sell tickets to, promote, or actively participate in a fundraising activity of a candidate for partisan political office, of a political party, or of a partisan political group.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Participation in political campaigning; prohibitions.</I> An employee covered under this subpart may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Take an active part in managing the political campaign of a candidate for partisan political office or a candidate for political party office;
</P>
<P>(2) Campaign for partisan political office;
</P>
<P>(3) Canvass for votes in support of or in opposition to a candidate for partisan political office or a candidate for political party office, if the canvassing is done in concert with a candidate, a political party, or partisan political group;
</P>
<P>(4) Endorse or oppose a candidate for partisan political office or a candidate for political party office in a political advertisement, broadcast, campaign literature, or similar material if the endorsement or opposition is done in concert with a candidate, political party, or partisan political group; or
</P>
<P>(5) Initiate or circulate a partisan nominating petition.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Participation in elections; prohibitions.</I> An employee covered under this subpart may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Be a candidate for partisan political office;
</P>
<P>(2) Act as recorder, watcher, challenger, or similar officer at polling places in concert with a political party, a partisan political group, or a candidate for partisan political office;
</P>
<P>(3) Drive voters to polling places in concert with a political party, a partisan political group, or a candidate for partisan political office.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.504" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.504   Designated localities—permitted local political activities for covered employees who reside in a municipality or political subdivision designated by the Office of Personnel Management.</HEAD>
<P>An employee covered under this subpart who resides in a municipality or political subdivision designated by the Office of Personnel Management under 5 CFR 733.107 may:
</P>
<P>(a) Run as an independent candidate for election to partisan political office in elections for local office in the municipality or political subdivision;
</P>
<P>(b) Solicit, accept, or receive a political contribution as, or on behalf of, an independent candidate for partisan political office in elections for local office in the municipality or political subdivision;
</P>
<P>(c) Solicit, accept, or receive uncompensated volunteer services as, or on behalf of, an independent candidate for local partisan political office, in connection with the local elections of the municipality or subdivision; and
</P>
<P>(d) Take an active part in other political activities associated with elections for local partisan political office and in managing the campaigns of candidates for election to local partisan political office in the municipality or political subdivision, but only as an independent candidate or on behalf of, or in opposition to, an independent candidate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.505" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.505   Designated localities—prohibited local political activities for covered employees who reside in a municipality or political subdivision designated by the Office of Personnel Management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee covered under this subpart who resides in a municipality or political subdivision designated by the Office of Personnel Management under 5 CFR 733.107 may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Run as the representative of a political party for local partisan political office;
</P>
<P>(2) Solicit, accept, or receive a political contribution on behalf of an individual who is a candidate for local partisan political office and who represents a political party;
</P>
<P>(3) Knowingly solicit a political contribution from any Federal employee;
</P>
<P>(4) Accept or receive a political contribution from a subordinate;
</P>
<P>(5) Solicit, accept, or receive uncompensated volunteer services on behalf of an individual who is a candidate for local partisan political office and who represents a political party;
</P>
<P>(6) Solicit, accept, or receive uncompensated volunteer services from a subordinate for any political purpose; or
</P>
<P>(7) Take an active part in other political activities associated with elections for local partisan political office, when that participation occurs on behalf of a political party, a partisan political group, or a candidate for local partisan political office who represents a political party.
</P>
<P>(b) An employee covered under this section may not participate in political activities:
</P>
<P>(1) While on duty;
</P>
<P>(2) While wearing a uniform, badge, or insignia that identifies the employing agency or instrumentality or the position of the employee;
</P>
<P>(3) While in any room or building occupied in the discharge of official duties by an individual employed or holding office in the Government of the United States or any agency or instrumentality of the United States;
</P>
<P>(4) While using a Government-owned or Government-leased vehicle; or
</P>
<P>(5) While using a privately owned vehicle in the discharge of official duties.
</P>
<P>(c) Candidacy for, and service in, a partisan political office must not result in neglect of, or interference with, the performance of the duties of the employee.
</P>
<P>(d) Candidacy for, and service in, a partisan political office must not create a conflict of interest or an apparent conflict of interest.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.506" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.506   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee covered under this subpart who violates the regulatory prohibitions contained in this subpart may be subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Disciplinary action consisting of removal, reduction in grade, debarment from Federal employment for a period not to exceed 5 years, suspension, or reprimand;
</P>
<P>(2) An assessment of a civil penalty not to exceed $1,000; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any combination of the penalties described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2). In assessing a penalty, the discretion of the Surgeon General of the Public Health Service must be guided by applicable precedents of the Merit Systems Protection Board in its adjudication of cases arising under the Hatch Act Reform Amendments of 1993, as amended (5 U.S.C. 7321-7326).
</P>
<P>(b) An employee covered under this subpart who violates any criminal or civil statute relating to political activity, including any criminal or civil counterpart to the regulatory prohibitions contained in this subpart, may be subject to the penalties specified in the applicable statute.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Disciplinary Action</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.601" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.601   Disciplinary action.</HEAD>
<P>Violations of the regulations contained in this part and parts 735, 2634, 2635, 5501, and 5502 of title 5 of the Code of Federal Regulations may be cause for disciplinary action, which may be in addition to any penalty prescribed by law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Reporting Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.701" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.701   Responsibility for reporting possible criminal violations.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who has information that the employee reasonably believes indicates a possible offense against the United States by an employee of the Department, or any other individual working on behalf of the Department, must immediately report the information to the employee's supervisor, to any management official, or directly to the Inspector General. Offenses covered by the preceding sentence include, but are not limited to, bribery, fraud, perjury, conflicts of interest, misuse of funds, equipment, or facilities, and other conduct by a government officer or employee, grantee, contractor, or other person that is prohibited by title 18 of the United States Code. Employees and supervisors must refer to part 752-1-50 of the Department's Instruction 752, Corrective Action, Discipline and Adverse Actions, or successive Departmental guidance, for procedures regarding the reporting and handling of such information.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.702" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.702   Responsibility for reporting allegations of misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>An employee who has information that the employee reasonably believes indicates the existence of an activity constituting:
</P>
<P>(a) A possible violation of a rule or regulation of the Department;
</P>
<P>(b) A possible violation of any noncriminal ethics statute or rule or regulation;
</P>
<P>(c) Mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, or abuse of authority; or
</P>
<P>(d) A substantial and specific danger to the public health and safety must immediately report this information to the employee's supervisor, any management official of the Department, or in the case of paragraph (c) of this section and this paragraph (d), directly to the Inspector General. This section does not cover employee grievances, equal employment opportunity complaints, classification appeals, or other matters for which a formal government-wide review system has been established by the Federal Government.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.703" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.31.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.703   Prohibition of reprisals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employee authorized to take, direct others to take, recommend, or approve any personnel action must not, with respect to this authority, take or threaten to take any action against any employee as a reprisal for making a complaint or for providing any information pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Employees who believe that they have been threatened with a personnel action, any other action, or harassment, or believe that they have been harmed by any action as a reprisal for having made a complaint or providing information pursuant to this subpart may request the Inspector General to review their allegations. Whenever the Inspector General has reason to believe that the allegations may be true, the Inspector General must refer the matter to the Assistant Secretary for Administration (ASA) for appropriate action. The ASA may order a stay of any personnel action if the ASA determines that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the personnel action is being taken as a reprisal for making a complaint or for providing information pursuant to this subpart.












</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="74-75" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 74-75 [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="77" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 77—REMEDIAL ACTIONS APPLICABLE TO LETTER OF CREDIT ADMINISTRATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 781, Jan. 7, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 77.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.33.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 77.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Letters of credit with the United States Treasury, issued by the Department to States or other grantees and contractors, are a convenient means for disbursing Federal funds to recipients of grant awards or contracts (recipient organizations) under the programs of this and other Executive Departments. The sound and efficient operation of the letter-of-credit system is dependent in large part upon the honesty, good faith, and responsible financial management of recipient organizations that receive funds pursuant to letters of credit. This part sets forth conditions that may prompt the Department to seek remedial action against a recipient organization operating under a letter of credit and the procedures that will be used to reach a final decision regarding the taking of remedial actions against a recipient organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 77.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.33.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 77.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to all recipient organizations under any program administered by the Department through which the organization receives Federal funds under a letter of credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 77.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.33.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 77.3   Conditions that may give rise to remedial actions.</HEAD>
<P>If the Department determines that any of the following conditions is present in a recipient organization's administration of a letter of credit, it may take remedial actions against the organization:
</P>
<P>(a) A recipient organization draws Federal funds through its letter of credit in excess of the aggregate grant award or contract authority currently available to it.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient organization draws Federal funds for a particular program in excess of currently available grant award or contract authority for that program, even though the organization may not have exceeded its aggregate grant award or contract authority.
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient organization fails to file timely all reports and other data required by the Department in connection with its grant awards, contracts, or letter of credit.
</P>
<P>(d) A recipient organization accumulates, through its letter of credit or otherwise, excess amounts of Federal funds relative to its actual and immediate disbursement requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) A recipient organization's cash management system fails to comply with generally accepted accounting principles or Departmental regulations or demonstrates irregularities, misrepresentations, fraud, or abuse in its operation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 77.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.33.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 77.4   Remedial actions.</HEAD>
<P>If, after the conclusion of the procedures set forth in § 77.5 or § 77.6 the Department finds that one or more of the conditions set forth in § 77.3 is or has been present, the Department may take the following remedial actions against a recipient organization's use of its letter of credit:
</P>
<P>(a) The Department may place special limits, restrictions, or controls upon the recipient organization's use of its letter of credit.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department may require more frequent or more detailed financial reporting from the recipient organization.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department may suspend, reduce, or terminate the recipient organization's use of its letter of credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 77.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.33.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 77.5   Remedial action procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 77.6, the Department will use the following procedures whenever it seeks the remedial action specified in § 77.4.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notice.</I> Prior to taking remedial action, the Department will provide the recipient organization written notice of its intended action setting forth both the legal and factual reasons therefor. Notice may be provided by certified or express mail, TWX, telegram, delivery, or similar means.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opportunity to respond.</I> (1) The recipient organization has 30 days after receipt of the notice in which to submit to the Department a written statement setting forth any legal and factual reasons why it believes the proposed remedial action would be inappropriate. If no response is received by the Department within the 30-day period, the Department may make the proposed remedial action effective immediately. If a response opposing the taking of remedial action is received from the recipient organization within the 30-day period, no remedial action will be taken until a final decision has been reached under paragraph (c) of this section. (2) The Department may prepare a written reply to the recipient organization's response. Any such reply will be forwarded to the deciding official together with the notice sent to the recipient organization and the organization's response, and a copy of the reply will be served on the recipient organization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Departmental decision.</I> The Department's decision to take remedial action under this part will be made by an official of the Department who had no involvement with the initial determination to seek remedial action. The deciding official may affirm, reverse, or modify the initial determination. In making the decision, the official will consider only the notice provided by the Department, the recipient organization's statement, the Department's reply, together with any other documents attached to them, and statements at any informal conference held pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section. The official's decision will be provided to the recipient organization in writing and will constitute the Department's final administrative action on the matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Informal conference.</I> If, in the judgment of the official designated to make a final decision, it would materially enhance his ability to resolve the matters in dispute, he may convene an informal conference to question or hear an oral presentation by the parties. If an informal conference is convened it will be transcribed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of decision.</I> The decision in a proceeding under this section affects only the recipient organization's obligations related to its letter of credit and does not determine the organization's ultimate liability with respect to improperly spent funds or other misconduct.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 77.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.33.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 77.6   Emergency procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Should the Department determine that it cannot adequately protect assets of the Federal government available to a recipient organization under its letter of credit without taking remedial action prior to the procedures specified in § 77.5, it may immediately take remedial action subject to the subsequent completion of those procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the Department has taken remedial action as described in paragraph (a) of this section, it will notify the recipient organization orally of the remedial action within one business day of its imposition and in writing within seven business days of its imposition. The written notice will conform to that described in § 77.5(a).
</P>
<P>(c) After receipt of the written notice, the recipient organization will have the same opportunity to respond as described in § 77.5(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) The Department will issue a final decision in writing no later than twenty days following receipt of any response submitted by the recipient organization. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="78" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 78—CONDITIONS FOR WAIVER OF DENIAL OF FEDERAL BENEFITS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 5301 of Pub. L. 100-690, the Anti-Drug Abuse Act of 1988, 102 Stat. 4310, 21 U.S.C. 853a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 29592, June 28, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 78.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.34.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 78.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part is applicable to any decision to deny Federal benefits, under authority of 21 U.S.C. 853a, to an individual convicted of a Federal or State offense involving distribution or possession of a controlled substance as defined by the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 78.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.34.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 78.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of denying Federal benefits under 21 U.S.C. 853a:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Deemed to be rehabilitated</I> means that an individual has abstained from the illicit use of a controlled substance for the period of at least 180 days immediately prior to and including the date of sentencing provided that such abstinence is documented by the results of periodic urine drug testing conducted during that period; and provided further that such drug testing is conducted using an immunoassay test approved by the Food and Drug Administration for commercial distribution or, in the case of a State offense, either using an immunoassay test approved by the Food and Drug Administration for commercial distribution or pursuant to standards approved by the State.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Long-term treatment program or long-term drug treatment program</I> means any drug abuse treatment program of 180 days or more where the provider has been accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Organizations, the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, or the Council on Accreditation of Services for Families and Children, or licensed or otherwise approved by the State to provide drug abuse treatment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 78.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.34.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 78.3   Benefits not denied to rehabilitated offenders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No individual convicted of any Federal or State offense involving the distribution of controlled substances shall be denied Federal benefits relating to long-term drug treatment programs for addiction under 21 U.S.C. 853a(a)(2) if:
</P>
<P>(1) The individual declares himself or herself to be an addict and submits to a long-term treatment program for addiction as defined by § 78.2(b), provided that in the determination of the sentencing court there is a reasonable body of evidence to substantiate the individual's declaration that such individual is an addict; or
</P>
<P>(2) The individual is, in the determination of the sentencing court, deemed to be rehabilitated as defined by § 78.2(a).
</P>
<P>(b) No individual convicted of any Federal or State offense involving the possession of controlled substances shall be denied any Federal benefit, or otherwise subject to penalties and conditions, under 21 U.S.C. 853a(b)(2) if:
</P>
<P>(1) The individual declares himself or herself to be an addict and submits to a long-term treatment program for addiction as defined by § 78.2(b), provided that in the determination of the sentencing court there is a reasonable body of evidence to substantiate the individual's declaration that such individual is an addict; or
</P>
<P>(2) The individual is, in the determination of the sentencing court, deemed to be rehabilitated as defined by § 78.2(a).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="79" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 79—PROGRAM FRAUD CIVIL REMEDIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3801-3812.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 11659, Apr. 8, 1988, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 79.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.1   Basis and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This part implements the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986, Pub. L. 99-509, §§ 6101-6104, 100 Stat. 1874 (October 21, 1986), to be codified at 31 U.S.C. 3801-3812, 31 U.S.C. 3809 of the statute requires each authority head to promulgate regulations necessary to implement the provisions of the statute.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part (1) establishes administrative procedures for imposing civil penalties and assessments against persons who make, submit, or present, or cause to be made, submitted, or presented, false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to authorities or to their agents, and (2) specifies the hearing and appeal rights of persons subject to allegations of liability for such penalties and assessments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>ALJ</I> means an Administrative Law Judge in the authority appointed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105 or detailed to the authority pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3344.
</P>
<P><I>Authority</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Authority head</I> means the Departmental Grant Appeals Board of the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit</I> means, in the context of <I>statement,</I> anything of value, including but not limited to any advantage, preference, privilege, license, permit, favorable decision, ruling, status, or loan guarantee.
</P>
<P><I>Claim</I> means any request, demand, or submission—
</P>
<P>(a) Made to the authority for property, services, or money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits);
</P>
<P>(b) Made to a recipient of property, services, or money from the authority or to a party to a contract with the authority—
</P>
<P>(1) For property or services if the United States—
</P>
<P>(i) Provided such property or services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided any portion of the funds for the purchase of such property or services; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Will reimburse such recipient or party for the purchase of such property or services; or
</P>
<P>(2) For the payment of money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits) if the United States—
</P>
<P>(i) Provided any portion of the money requested or demanded; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Will reimburse such recipient or party for any portion of the money paid on such request or demand: or
</P>
<P>(c) Made to the authority which has the effect of decreasing an obligation to pay or account for property, services, or money.
</P>
<P><I>Complaint</I> means the administrative complaint served by the reviewing official on the defendant under § 79.7.
</P>
<P><I>Defendant</I> means any person alleged in a complaint under § 79.7 to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 79.3.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person.
</P>
<P><I>Initial decision</I> means the written decision of the ALJ required by § 79.10 or § 79.37, and includes a revised initial decision issued following a remand or a motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P><I>Investigating official</I> means the Inspector General of the Department of Health and Human Services or an officer or employee of the Office of the Inspector General designated by the Inspector General and serving in a position for which the rate of basic pay is not less than the minimum rate of basic pay for grade GS-16 under the General Schedule.
</P>
<P><I>Knows or has reason to know,</I> means that a person, with respect to a claim or statement—
</P>
<P>(a) Has actual knowledge that the claim or statement is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(b) Acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement; or
</P>
<P>(c) Acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement.
</P>
<P><I>Makes,</I> wherever it appears, shall include the terms presents, submits, and causes to be made, presented, or submitted. As the context requires, <I>making</I> or <I>made,</I> shall likewise include the corresponding forms of such terms.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, association or private organization, and includes the plural of that term.
</P>
<P><I>Representative</I> means an attorney who is a member in good standing of the bar of any State, Territory, or possession of the United States or of the District of Columbia or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P><I>Reviewing official</I> means the General Counsel of the Department or his or her designee who is—
</P>
<P>(a) Not subject to supervision by, or required to report to, the investigating official;
</P>
<P>(b) Not employed in the organizational unit of the authority in which the investigating official is employed; and
</P>
<P>(c) Serving in a position for which the rate of basic pay is not less than the minimum rate of basic pay for grade GS-16 under the General Schedule.
</P>
<P><I>Statement</I> means any representation, certification, affirmation, document, record, or accounting or bookkeeping entry made—
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to a claim or to obtain the approval or payment of a claim (including relating to eligibility to make a claim); or
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to (including relating to eligibility for)—
</P>
<P>(1) A contract with, or a bid or proposal for a contract with; or
</P>
<P>(2) A grant, loan, or benefit from, the authority, or any State, political subdivision of a State, or other party, if the United States Government provides any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit, or if the Government will reimburse such State, political subdivision, or party for any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit,


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.3   Basis for civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, any person who makes a claim that the person knows or has reason to know—
</P>
<P>(i) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes, or is supported by, any written statement which asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes, or is supported by, any written statement that—
</P>
<P>(A) Omits a material fact;
</P>
<P>(B) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent as a result of such omission; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is a statement in which the person making such statement has a duty to include such material fact; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Is for payment for the provision of property or services which the person has not provided as claimed, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $5,500 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> for each such claim.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The amounts specified in this section are updated annually, as adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-140), as amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (section 701 of Pub. L. 114-74). Annually adjusted amounts are published at 45 CFR part 102.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Each voucher, invoice, claim form, or other individual request or demand for property, services, or money constitutes a separate claim.
</P>
<P>(3) A claim shall be considered made to the authority, recipient, or party when such claim is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any State or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of the authority, recipient, or party.
</P>
<P>(4) Each claim for property, services, or money is subject to a civil penalty regardless of whether such property, services, or money is actually delivered or paid.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Government has made any payment (including transferred property or provided services) on a claim, a person subject to a civil penalty under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall also be subject to an assessment of not more than twice the amount of such claim or that portion thereof that is determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1). Such assessment shall be in lieu of damages sustained by the Government because of such claim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statements.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, any person who makes a written statement that—
</P>
<P>(i) The person knows or has reason to know—
</P>
<P>(A) Asserts a material fact which is false, factitious, or fraudulent; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is false, factitious, or fraudulent because it omits a material fact that the person making the statement has a duty to include in such statement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains, or is accompanied by, an express certification or affirmation of the truthfulness and accuracy of the contents of the statement, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $5,500 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> for each such statement.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The amounts specified in this section are updated annually, as adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-140), as amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (section 701 of Pub. L. 114-74). Annually adjusted amounts are published at 45 CFR part 102.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Each representation, certification, or affirmation constitutes a separate statement.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement shall be considered made to the authority when such statement is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any State or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of the authority.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applications for certain benefits.</I> (1) In the case of any claim or statement made by any individual relating to any of the benefits listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section received by such individual, such individual may be held liable for penalties and assessments under this section only if such claim or statement is made by such individual in making application for such benefits with respect to such individual's eligibility to receive such benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, the term <I>benefits</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Benefits under the supplemental security income program under title XVI of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Old age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits under title II of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Benefits under title XVIII of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Aid to families with dependent children under a State plan approved under section 402(a) of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P>(v) Medical assistance under a State plan approved under section 1902(a) of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P>(vi) Benefits under title XX of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P>(vii) Benefits under section 336 of the Older Americans Act; or,
</P>
<P>(viii) Benefits under the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Act of 1981, which are intended for the personal use of the individual who receives the benefits or for a member of the individual's family.
</P>
<P>(d) No proof of specific intent to defraud is required to establish liability under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim or statement under this section, each such person may be held liable for a civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(f) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim under this section on which the Government has made payment (including transferred property or provided services), an assessment may be imposed against any such person or jointly and severally against any combination of such persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 11659, Apr. 8, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 52301, Oct. 7, 1996; 81 FR 61565, Sept. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.4   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an investigating official concludes that a subpoena pursuant to the authority conferred by 31 U.S.C. 3804(a) is warranted—
</P>
<P>(1) The subpoena so issued shall notify the person to whom it is addressed of the authority under which the subpoena is issued and shall identify the records or documents sought;
</P>
<P>(2) The investigating official may designate a person to act on his or her behalf to receive the documents sought; and
</P>
<P>(3) The person receiving such subpoena shall be required to tender to the investigating official, or the person designated to receive the documents, a certification that—
</P>
<P>(i) The documents sought have been produced;
</P>
<P>(ii) Such documents are not available and the reasons therefor; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Such documents suitably identified, have been withheld based upon the assertion of an identified privilege.
</P>
<P>(b) If the investigating official concludes that an action under the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act may be warranted, the investigating official shall submit a report containing the findings and conclusions of such investigation to the reviewing official.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall preclude or limit an investigating official's discretion to refer allegations directly to the Department of Justice for suit under the False Claims Act or other civil relief, or to defer or postpone a report or referral to the reviewing official to avoid interference with a criminal investigation or prosecution.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section modifies any responsibility of an investigating official to report violations of criminal law to the Attorney General.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.5   Review by the reviewing official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, based on the report of the investigating official under § 79.4(b), the reviewing official determines that there is adequate evidence to believe that a person is liable under § 79.3, the reviewing official shall transmit to the Attorney General a written notice of the reviewing official's attention to issue a complaint under § 79.7.
</P>
<P>(b) Such notice shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reviewing official's reasons for issuing a complaint;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement specifying the evidence that supports the allegations of liability;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the claims or statements upon which the allegations of liability are based;
</P>
<P>(4) An estimate of the amount of money, or the value of property, services, or other benefits, requested or demanded in violation of § 79.3 of this part;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claims or statements known by the reviewing official or the investigating official; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.6   Prerequisites for issuing a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The reviewing official may issue a complaint under § 79.7 only if—
</P>
<P>(1) The Department of Justice approves the issuance of a complaint in a written statement described in 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of allegations of liability under § 79.3(a) with respect to a claim, the reviewing official determines that, with respect to such claim or a group of related claims submitted at the same time such claim is submitted (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section), the amount of money, or the value of property or services, demanded or requested in violation of § 79.3(a) does not exceed $150,000.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section, a related group of claims submitted at the same time shall include only those claims arising from the same transaction (e.g., grant, loan, application, or contract) that are submitted simultaneously as part of a single request, demand, or submission. 
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the reviewing official's authority to join in a single complaint against a person claims that are unrelated or were not submitted simultaneously, regardless of the amount of money, or the value of property or services, demanded or requested. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.7   Complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On or after the date the Department of Justice approves the issuance of a complaint in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), the reviewing official may serve a complaint on the defendant, as provided in § 79.8.
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint shall state—
</P>
<P>(1) The allegations of liability against the defendant, including the statutory basis for liability, an identification of the claims or statements that are the basis for the alleged liability, and the reasons why liability allegedly arises from such claims or statements; 
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum amount of penalties and assessments for which the defendant may be held liable; 
</P>
<P>(3) Instructions for filing an answer to request a hearing, including a specific statement of the defendant's right to request a hearing by filing an answer and to be represented by a representative; and 
</P>
<P>(4) That failure to file an answer as set forth in § 79.9 will result in the imposition of the maximum amount of penalties and assessments without right to appeal, as provided in § 79.10.
</P>
<P>(c) At the same time the reviewing official serves the complaint, he or she shall serve the defendant with a copy of these regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.8   Service of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of a complaint must be made by certified or registered mail or by delivery in any manner authorized by Rule 4(d) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure. Service is complete upon receipt. 
</P>
<P>(b) Proof of service, stating the name and address of the person on whom the complaint was served, and the manner and date of service, may be made by—
</P>
<P>(1) Affidavit of the individual serving the complaint by delivery;
</P>
<P>(2) A United States Postal Service return receipt card acknowledging receipt; or
</P>
<P>(3) Written acknowledgment of receipt by the defendant or his or her representative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.9   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The defendant may request a hearing by filing an answer with the reviewing official within 30 days of service of the complaint. An answer shall be deemed to be a request for hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) In the answer, the defendant—
</P>
<P>(1) Shall admit or deny each of the allegations of liability made in the complaint;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall state any defense on which the defendant intends to rely;
</P>
<P>(3) May state any reasons why the defendant contends that the penalties and assessments should be less than the statutory maximum; and
</P>
<P>(4) Shall state the name, address, and telephone number of the person authorized by the defendant to act as defendant's representative, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant is unable to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section within the time provided, the defendant, before that time expires, may file with the reviewing official a general answer denying liability and requesting a hearing, and a request for an extension of time within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. As provided in § 79.11, the reviewing official shall file promptly with the ALJ the complaint, the general answer denying liability, and the request for an extension of time. For good cause shown, the ALJ may grant the defendant up to 30 additional days within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.10   Default upon failure to file an answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the defendant does not file an answer within the time prescribed in § 79.9(a), the reviewing official may refer the complaint to the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the referral of the complaint, the ALJ shall promptly serve on the defendant in the manner prescribed in § 79.8, a notice that an initial decision will be issued under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall assume the facts alleged in the complaint to be true and, if such facts establish liability under § 79.3, the ALJ shall issue an initial decision imposing the maximum amount of penalties and assessments allowed under the statute.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as otherwise provided in this section, by failing to file a timely answer, the defendant waives any right to further review of the penalties and assessments imposed under paragraph (c) of this section, and the initial decision shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after it is issued.
</P>
<P>(e) If, before such an initial decision becomes final, the defendant files a motion with the ALJ seeking to reopen on the grounds that extraordinary circumstances prevented the defendant from filing an answer, the initial decision shall be stayed pending the ALJ's decision on the motion.
</P>
<P>(f) If, on such motion, the defendant can demonstrate extraordinary circumstances excusing the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ shall withdraw the initial decision in paragraph (c) of this section, if such a decision has been issued, and shall grant the defendant an opportunity to answer the complaint.
</P>
<P>(g) A decision of the ALJ denying a defendant's motion under paragraph (e) of this section is not subject to reconsideration under § 79.38. 
</P>
<P>(h) The defendant may appeal to the authority head the decision denying a motion to reopen by filing a notice of appeal with the authority head within 15 days after the ALJ denies the motion. The timely filing of a notice of appeal shall stay the initial decision until the authority head decides the issue.
</P>
<P>(i) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the authority head, the ALJ shall forward the record of the proceeding to the authority head.
</P>
<P>(j) The authority head shall decide expeditiously whether extraordinary circumstances excuse the defendant's failure to file a timely answer based solely on the record before the ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(k) If the authority head decides that extraordinary circumstances excuse the defendant's failure to file a timely answer, the authority head shall remand the case to the ALJ with instructions to grant the defendant an opportunity to answer.
</P>
<P>(l) If the authority head decides that the defendant's failure to file a timely answer is not excused, the authority head shall reinstate the initial decision of the ALJ, which shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after the authority head issues such decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.11   Referral of complaint and answer to the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of an answer, the reviewing official shall file the complaint and answer with the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.12   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the ALJ receives the complaint and answer, the ALJ shall promptly serve a notice of hearing upon the defendant in the manner prescribed by § 79.8. At the same time, the ALJ shall send a copy of such notice to the representative for the Government.
</P>
<P>(b) Such notice shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) The tentative time and place, and the nature of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) The legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held;
</P>
<P>(3) The matters of fact and law to be asserted;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the procedures for the conduct of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(5) The name, address, and telephone number of the representative of the Government and of the defendant, if any; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such other matters as the ALJ deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.13   Parties to the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parities to the hearing shall be the defendant and the authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3730(c)(5), a private plaintiff under the False Claims Act may participate in these proceedings to the extent authorized by the provisions of that Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.14   Separation of functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigating official, the reviewing official, and any employee or agent of the authority who takes part in investigating, preparing, or presenting a particular case may not, in such case or a factually related case—
</P>
<P>(1) Participate in the hearing as the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(2) Participate or advise in the initial decision or the review of the initial decision by the authority head, except as a witness or a representative in public proceedings; or
</P>
<P>(3) Make the collection of penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ shall not be responsible to, or subject to the supervision or direction of, the investigating official or the reviewing official.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the representative for the Government may be employed anywhere in the authority, including in the offices of either the investigating official or the reviewing official. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.15   Ex parte contacts.</HEAD>
<P>No party or person (except employees of the ALJ's office) shall communciate in any way with the ALJ on any matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a person or party from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.16   Disqualification of reviewing official or ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A reviewing official or ALJ in a particular case may disqualify himself or herself at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) A party may file with the ALJ a motion for disqualification of a reviewing official or an ALJ. Such motion shall be accompanied by an affidavit alleging personal bias or other reason for disqualification.
</P>
<P>(c) Such motion and affidavit shall be filed promptly upon the party's discovery of reasons requiring disqualification, or such objections shall be deemed waived.
</P>
<P>(d) Such affidavit shall state specific facts that support the party's belief that personal bias or other reason for disqualification exists and the time and circumstances of the party's discovery of such facts. It shall be accompanied by a certificate of the representative of record that it is made in good faith.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon the filing of such a motion and affidavit, the ALJ shall proceed no further in the case until he or she resolves the matter of disqualification in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) If the ALJ determines that a reviewing official is disqualified, the ALJ shall dismiss the complaint without prejudice.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ disqualifies himself or herself, the case shall be reassigned promptly to another ALJ.
</P>
<P>(3) If the ALJ denies a motion to disqualify, the authority head may determine the matter only as part of his or her review of the initial decision upon appeal, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.17" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.17   Rights of parties.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise limited by this part, all parties may—
</P>
<P>(a) Be accompanied, represented, and advised by a representative;
</P>
<P>(b) Participate in any conference held by the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(c) Conduct discovery;
</P>
<P>(d) Agree to stipulations of fact or law, which shall be made part of the record;
</P>
<P>(e) Present evidence relevant to the issues at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(f) Present and cross-examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(g) Present oral arguments at the hearing as permitted by the ALJ; and
</P>
<P>(h) Submit written briefs and proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law after the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.18" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.18   Authority of the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid delay, maintain order, and assure that a record of the proceeding is made.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ has the authority to—
</P>
<P>(1) Set and change the date, time, and place of the hearing upon reasonable notice to the parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(3) Hold conferences to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) Administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(5) Issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents at depositions or at hearings;
</P>
<P>(6) Rule on motions and other procedural matters;
</P>
<P>(7) Regulate the scope and timing of discovery;
</P>
<P>(8) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of representatives and parties;
</P>
<P>(9) Examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(10) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence;
</P>
<P>(11) Upon motion of a party, take official notice of facts;
</P>
<P>(12) Upon motion of a party, decide cases, in whole or in part, by summary judgment where there is no disputed issue of material fact;
</P>
<P>(13) Conduct any conference, argument, or hearing on motions in person or by telephone; and
</P>
<P>(14) Exercise such other authority as is necessary to carry out the responsibilities of the ALJ under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ does not have the authority to find Federal statutes or regulations invalid. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.19" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.19   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may schedule prehearing conferences as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the motion of any party, the ALJ shall schedule at least one prehearing conference at a reasonable time in advance of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ may use prehearing conferences to discuss the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplication of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) The necessity or desirability of amendments to the pleadings, including the need for a more definite statement;
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations and admissions of fact__, or as to the contents and authenticity of documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the parties can agree to submission of the case on a stipulated record;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether a party chooses to waive appearance at an oral hearing and to submit only documentary evidence (subject to the objection of other parties) and written argument;
</P>
<P>(6) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(7) Scheduling dates for the exchange of witness lists and of proposed exhibits;
</P>
<P>(8) Discovery;
</P>
<P>(9) The time and place for the hearing; and
</P>
<P>(10) Such other matters as may tend to expedite the fair and just disposition of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may issue an order containing all matters agreed upon by the parties or ordered by the ALJ at a prehearing conference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.20   Disclosure of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant may review any relevant and material documents, transcripts, records, and other materials that relate to the allegations set out in the complaint and upon which the findings and conclusions of the investigating official under § 79.4(b) are based, unless such documents are subject to a privilege under Federal law. Upon payment of fees for duplication, the defendant may obtain copies of such documents.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant also may obtain a copy of all exculpatory information in the possession of the reviewing official or investigating official relating to the allegations in the complaint, even if it is contained in a document that would otherwise be privileged. If the document would otherwise be privileged, only that portion containing exculpatory information must be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice sent to the Attorney General from the reviewing official as described in § 79.5 is not discoverable under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) The defendant may file a motion to compel disclosure of the documents subject to the provisions of this section. Such a motion may only be filed with the ALJ following the filing of an answer pursuant to § 79.9.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.21   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following types of discovery are authorized:
</P>
<P>(1) Requests for production of documents for inspection and copying;
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for admission of the contents or authenticity of any relevant document or of the truth of any revelant fact;
</P>
<P>(3) Written interrogatories; and
</P>
<P>(4) Depositions.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section and §§ 79.22 and 79.23, the term <I>documents</I> includes information, documents, reports, answers, records, accounts, papers, and other data and documentary evidence. Nothing contained herein shall be interpreted to require the creation of a document.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless mutually agreed to by the parties, discovery is available only as ordered by the ALJ. The ALJ shall regulate the timing of discovery.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions for discovery.</I> (1) A party seeking discovery may file a motion with the ALJ. Such a motion shall be accompanied by a copy of the requested discovery, or in the case of depositions, a summary of the scope of the proposed deposition.
</P>
<P>(2) Within ten days of service, a party may file an opposition to the motion and/or a motion for protective order as provided in § 79.24.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ may grant a motion for discovery only if he or she finds that the discovery sought—
</P>
<P>(i) Is necessary for the expeditious, fair, and reasonable consideration of the issues;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not unduly costly or burdensome;
</P>
<P>(iii) Will not unduly delay the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not seek privileged information.
</P>
<P>(4) The burden of showing that discovery should be allowed is on the party seeking discovery.
</P>
<P>(5) The ALJ may grant discovery subject to a protective order under § 79.24.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depositions.</I> (1) If a motion for deposition is granted, the ALJ shall issue a subpoena for the deponent, which may require the deponent to produce documents. The subpoena shall specify the time and place at which the deposition will be held.
</P>
<P>(2) The party seeking to depose shall serve the subpoena in the manner prescribed in § 79.8.
</P>
<P>(3) The deponent may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena or a motion for a protective order within ten days of service.
</P>
<P>(4) The party seeking to depose shall provide for the taking of a verbatim transcript of the deposition, which it shall make available to all other parties for inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(f) Each party shall bear its own costs of discovery.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.22   Exchange of witness lists, statements and exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 15 days before the hearing or at such other time as may be ordered by the ALJ, the parties shall exchange witness lists, copies of prior statements of proposed witnesses, and copies of proposed hearing exhibits, including copies of any written statements that the party intends to offer in lieu of live testimony in accordance with § 79.33(b). At the time the above documents are exchanged, any party that intends to rely on the transcript of deposition testimony in lieu of live testimony at the hearing, if permitted by the ALJ, shall provide each party with a copy of the specific pages of the transcript it intends to introduce into evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) If a party objects, the ALJ shall not admit into evidence the testimony of any witness whose name does not appear on the witness list or any exhibit not provided to the opposing party as provided above unless the ALJ finds good cause for the failure or that there is no prejudice to the objecting party.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless another party objects within the time set by the ALJ, documents exchanged in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed to be authentic for the purpose of admissibility at the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.23   Subpoenas for attendance at hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party wishing to procure the appearance and testimony of any individual at the hearing may request that the ALJ issue a subpoena. 
</P>
<P>(b) A subpoena requiring the attendance and testimony of an individual may also require the individual to produce documents at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) A party seeking a subpoena shall file a written request therefor not less than 15 days before the date fixed for the hearing unless otherwise allowed by the ALJ for good cause shown. Such request shall specify any documents to be produced and shall designate the witnesses and describe the address and location thereof with sufficient particularity to permit such witnesses to be found. 
</P>
<P>(d) The subpoena shall specify the time and place at which the witness is to appear and any documents the witness is to produce. 
</P>
<P>(e) The party seeking the subpoena shall serve it in the manner prescribed in § 79.8, except that a subpoena on a party or upon an individual under the control of a party may be served as prescribed in § 79.26(b). 
</P>
<P>(f) A party or the individual to whom the subpoena is directed may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena within ten days after service or on or before the time specified in the subpoena for compliance if it is less than ten days after service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.24" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.24   Protective order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party or a prospective witness or deponent may file a motion for a protective order with respect to discovery sought by an opposing party or with respect to the hearing, seeking to limit the availability or disclosure of evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) In issuing a protective order, the ALJ may make any order which justice requires to protect a party or person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense, including one or more of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the discovery not be had; 
</P>
<P>(2) That the discovery may be had only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place; 
</P>
<P>(3) That the discovery may be had only through a method of discovery other than that requested: 
</P>
<P>(4) That certain matters not be inquired into, or that the scope of discovery be limited to certain matters;
</P>
<P>(5) That discovery be conducted with no one present except persons designated by the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(6) That the contents of discovery or evidence be sealed;
</P>
<P>(7) That a deposition after being sealed be opened only by order of the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(8) That a trade secret or other confidential research, development, commercial information, or facts pertaining to any criminal investigation, proceeding, or other administrative investigation not be disclosed or be disclosed only in a designated way; or
</P>
<P>(9) That the parties simultaneously file specified documents or information enclosed in sealed envelopes to be opened as directed by the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.25" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.25   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>The party requesting a subpoena shall pay the cost of the fees and mileage of any witness subpoenaed in the amounts that would be payable to a witness in a proceeding in United States District Court. A check for witness fees and mileage shall accompany the subpoena when served, except that when a subpoena is issued on behalf of the authority, a check for witness fees and mileage need not accompany the subpoena.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.26" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.26   Form, filing and service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> (1) Documents filed with the ALJ shall include an original and two copies.
</P>
<P>(2) Every pleading and paper filed in the proceeding shall contain a caption setting forth the title of the action, the case number assigned by the ALJ, and a designation of the paper (<I>e.g.,</I> motion to quash subpoena).
</P>
<P>(3) Every pleading and paper shall be signed by, and shall contain the address and telephone number of, the party or the person on whose behalf the paper was filed, or his or her representative.
</P>
<P>(4) Papers are considered filed when they are mailed. Date of mailing may be established by a certificate from the party or its representative or by proof that the document was sent by certified or registered mail.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service.</I> A party filing a document with the ALJ shall, at the time of filing, serve a copy of such document on every other party. Service upon any party of any document other than those required to be served as prescribed in § 79.8 shall be made by delivering a copy or by placing a copy of the document in the United States mail, postage prepaid, and addressed to the party's last known address. When a party is represented by a representative, service shall be made upon such representative in lieu of the actual party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proof of service.</I> A certificate of the individual serving the document by personal delivery or by mail, setting forth the manner of service, shall be proof of service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.27" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.27   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time under this part or in an order issued thereunder, the time begins with the day following the act, event, or default, and includes the last day of the period, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday observed by the Federal government, in which event it includes the next business day.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, when the period of time allowed is less than seven days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays observed by the Federal government shall be excluded from the computation.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a document has been served or issued by placing it in the mail, an additional five calendar days will be added to the time permitted for any response.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.28" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.28   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any application to the ALJ for an order or ruling shall be by motion. Motions shall state the relief sought, the authority relied upon, and the facts alleged, and shall be filed with the ALJ and served on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for motions made during a prehearing conference or at the hearing, all motions shall be in writing. The ALJ may require that oral motions be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 15 days after a written motion is served, or such other time as may be fixed by the ALJ, any party may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may not grant a written motion before the time for filing responses thereto has expired, except upon consent of the parties or following a hearing on the motion, but may overrule or deny such motion without awaiting a response.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ shall make a reasonable effort to dispose of all outstanding motions prior to the beginning of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.29" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.29   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may sanction a person, including any party or representative, for—
</P>
<P>(1) Failing to comply with an order, rule, or procedure governing the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Failing to prosecute or defend an action; or
</P>
<P>(3) Engaging in other misconduct that interferes with the speedy, orderly, or fair conduct of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Any such sanction, including but not limited to those listed in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section, shall reasonably relate to the severity and nature of the failure or misconduct. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a party fails to comply with an order, including an order for taking a deposition, the production of evidence within the party's control, or a request for admission, the ALJ may— 
</P>
<P>(1) Draw an inference in favor of the requesting party with regard to the information sought; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of requests for admission, deem each matter of which an admission is requested to be admitted; 
</P>
<P>(3) Prohibit the party failing to comply with such order from introducing evidence concerning, or otherwise relying upon, testimony relating to the information sought; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Strike any part of the pleadings or other submissions of the party failing to comply with such request. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a party fails to prosecute or defend an action under this part commenced by service of a notice of hearing, the ALJ may dismiss the action or may issue an initial decision imposing penalties and assessments. 
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may refuse to consider any motion, request, response, brief or other document which is not filed in a timely fashion. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.30   The hearing and burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall conduct a hearing on the record in order to determine whether the defendant is liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 79.3 and, if so, the appropriate amount of any such civil penalty or assessment considering any aggravating or mitigating factors. 
</P>
<P>(b) The authority shall prove defendant's liability and any aggravating factors by a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(c) The defendant shall prove any affirmative defenses and any mitigating factors by a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing shall be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ for good cause shown. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.31   Determining the amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining an appropriate amount of civil penalties and assessments, the ALJ and the authority head, upon appeal, should evaluate any circumstances that mitigate or aggravate the violation and should articulate in their opinions the reasons that support the penalties and assessments they impose. Because of the intangible costs of fraud, the expense of investigating such conduct, and the need to deter others who might be similarly tempted, ordinarily double damages and a significant civil penalty should be imposed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Although not exhaustive, the following factors are among those that may influence the ALJ and the authority head in determining the amount of penalties and assessments to impose with respect to the misconduct (i.e., the false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements) charged in the complaint: 
</P>
<P>(1) The number of false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements; 
</P>
<P>(2) The time period over which such claims or statements were made; 
</P>
<P>(3) The degree of the defendant's culpability with respect to the misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of money or the value of the property, services, or benefit falsely claimed; 
</P>
<P>(5) The value of the Government's actual loss as a result of the misconduct, including foreseeable consequential damages and the costs of investigation; 
</P>
<P>(6) The relationship of the amount imposed as civil penalties to the amount of the Government's loss; 
</P>
<P>(7) The potential or actual impact of the misconduct upon national defense, public health or safety, or public confidence in the management of Government programs and operations, including particularly the impact on the intended beneficiaries of such programs; 
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the defendant has engaged in a pattern of the same or similar misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the defendant attempted to conceal the misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(10) The degree to which the defendant has involved others in the misconduct or in concealing it; 
</P>
<P>(11) Where the misconduct of employees or agents is imputed to the defendant, the extent to which the defendant's practices fostered or attempted to preclude such misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(12) Whether the defendant cooperated in or obstructed an investigation of the misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(13) Whether the defendant assisted in identifying and prosecuting other wrongdoers; 
</P>
<P>(14) The complexity of the program or transaction, and the degree of the defendant's sophistication with respect to it, including the extent of the defendant's prior participation in the program or in similar transactions; 
</P>
<P>(15) Whether the defendant has been found, in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, to have engaged in similar misconduct or to have dealt dishonestly with the Government of the United States or of a State, directly or indirectly; and
</P>
<P>(16) The need to deter the defendant and others from engaging in the same or similar misconduct.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the ALJ or the authority head from considering any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the offense for which penalties and assessments are imposed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.32   Location of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing may be held—
</P>
<P>(1) In any judicial district of the United States in which the defendant resides or transacts business;
</P>
<P>(2) In any judicial district of the United States in which the claim or statement in issue was made; or
</P>
<P>(3) In such other place as may be agreed upon by the defendant and the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) Each party shall have the opportunity to present argument with respect to the location of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing shall be held at the place and at the time ordered by the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.33   Witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, testimony at the hearing shall be given orally by witnesses under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(b) At the discretion of the ALJ, testimony may be admitted in the form of a written statement or deposition. Any such written statement must be provided to all other parties along with the last known address of such witness, in a manner which allows sufficient time for other parties to subpoena such witness for cross-examination at the hearing. Prior written statements of witnesses proposed to testify at the hearing and deposition transcripts shall be exchanged as provided in § 79.22(a).
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to (1) make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth, (2) avoid needless consumption of time, and (3) protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ shall permit the parties to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(e) At the discretion of the ALJ, a witness may be cross-examined on matters relevant to the proceeding without regard to the scope of his or her direct examination. To the extent permitted by the ALJ, cross-examination on matters outside the scope of direct examination shall be conducted in the manner of direct examination and may proceed by leading questions only if the witness is a hostile witness, an adverse party, or a witness identified with an adverse party.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon motion of any party, the ALJ shall order witnesses excluded so that they cannot hear the testimony of other witnesses. This rule does not authorize exclusion of—
</P>
<P>(1) A party who is an individual;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a party that is not an individual, an officer or employee of the party appearing for the entity pro se or designated by the party's representative; or
</P>
<P>(3) An individual whose presence is shown by a party to be essential to the presentation of its case, including an individual employed by the Government engaged in assisting the representative for the Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.34   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall determine the admissibility of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in this part, the ALJ shall not be bound by the Federal Rules of Evidence. However, the ALJ may apply the Federal Rules of Evidence where appropriate, <I>e.g.,</I> to exclude unreliable evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall exclude irrelevant and immaterial evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or by considerations of undue delay or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.
</P>
<P>(e) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if it is privileged under Federal law.
</P>
<P>(f) Evidence concerning offers of compromise or settlement shall be inadmissible to the extent provided in Rule 408 of the Federal Rules of Evidence.
</P>
<P>(g) The ALJ shall permit the parties to introduce rebuttal witnesses and evidence.
</P>
<P>(h) All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by all parties, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ pursuant to § 79.24.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.35" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.35   The record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing will be recorded and transcribed. Transcripts may be obtained following the hearing from the ALJ at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of duplication.
</P>
<P>(b) The transcript of testimony, exhibits and other evidence admitted at the hearing, and all papers and requests filed in the proceeding constitute the record for the decision by the ALJ and the authority head.
</P>
<P>(c) The record may be inspected and copied (upon payment of a reasonable fee) by anyone, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ pursuant to § 79.24.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.36" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.36   Post-hearing briefs.</HEAD>
<P>The ALJ may require the parties to file post-hearing briefs. In any event, any party may file a post-hearing brief. The ALJ shall fix the time for filing such briefs, not to exceed 60 days from the date the party receives the transcript of the hearing or, if applicable, the stipulated record. Such briefs may be accompanied by proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The ALJ may permit the parties to file reply briefs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.37" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.37   Initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall issue an initial decision based only on the record, which shall contain findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the amount of any penalties and assessments imposed.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings of fact shall include a finding on each of the following issues:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the claims or statements identified in the complaint, or any portions thereof, violate § 79.3;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person is liable for penalties or assessments, the appropriate amount of any such penalties or assessments considering any mitigating or aggravating factors that he or she finds in the case, such as those described in § 79.31.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall promptly serve the initial decision on all parties within 90 days after the time for submission of post-hearing briefs and reply briefs (if permitted) has expired. The ALJ shall at the same time serve all parties with a statement describing the right of any defendant determined to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment to file a motion for reconsideration with the ALJ or a notice of appeal with the authority head. If the ALJ fails to meet the deadline contained in this paragraph, he or she shall notify the parties of the reason for the delay and shall set a new deadline.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the initial decision of the ALJ is timely appealed to the authority head, or a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision is timely filed, the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued by the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.38" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.38   Reconsideration of initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, any party may file a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision within 20 days of receipt of the initial decision. If service was made by mail, receipt will be presumed to be five days from the date of mailing in the absence of contrary proof.
</P>
<P>(b) Every such motion must set forth the matters claimed to have been erroneously decided and the nature of the alleged errors. Such motion shall be accompanied by a supporting brief.
</P>
<P>(c) Responses to such motions shall be allowed only upon request of the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(d) No party may file a motion for reconsideration of an initial decision that has been revised in response to a previous motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may dispose of a motion for reconsideration by denying it or by issuing a revised initial decision.
</P>
<P>(f) If the ALJ denies a motion for reconsideration, the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after the ALJ denies the motion, unless the initial decision is timely appealed to the authority head in accordance with § 79.39.
</P>
<P>(g) If the ALJ issues a revised initial decision, that decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued, unless it is timely appealed to the authority head in accordance with § 79.39. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.39" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.39   Appeal to authority head.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any defendant who has filed a timely answer and who is determined in an initial decision to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment may appeal such decision to the authority head by filing a notice of appeal with the authority head in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A notice of appeal may be filed at any time within 30 days after the ALJ issues an initial decision. However, if another party files a motion for reconsideration under § 79.38, consideration of the appeal shall be stayed automatically pending resolution of the motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(2) If a motion for reconsideration is timely filed, a notice of appeal must be filed within 30 days after the ALJ denies the motion or issues a revised initial decision, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>(3) If no motion for reconsideration is timely filed, a notice of appeal must be filed within 30 days after the ALJ issues the initial decision.
</P>
<P>(4) The authority head may extend the initial 30-day period for an additional 30-days if the defendant files with the authority head a request for an extension within the initial 30 day period and shows good cause. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the authority head, and the time for filing motions for reconsideration under § 79.38 has expired, the ALJ shall forward the record of the proceeding to the authority head. 
</P>
<P>(d) A notice of appeal shall be accompanied by a written brief specifying exceptions to the initial decision and reasons supporting the exceptions. 
</P>
<P>(e) The representative for the Government may file a brief in opposition to exceptions within 30 days of receiving the notice of appeal and accompanying brief. 
</P>
<P>(f) There is no right to appear personally before the authority head. 
</P>
<P>(g) There is no right to appeal any interlocutory ruling by the ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(h) In reviewing the initial decision, the authority head shall not consider any objection that was not raised before the ALJ unless a demonstration is made of extraordinary circumstances causing the failure to raise the objection. 
</P>
<P>(i) If any party demonstrates to the satisfaction of the authority head that additional evidence not presented at such hearing is material and that there were reasonable grounds for the failure to present such evidence at such hearing, the authority head shall remand the matter to the ALJ for consideration of such additional evidence. 
</P>
<P>(j) The authority head may affirm, reduce, reverse, compromise, remand, or settle any penalty or assessment determined by the ALJ in any initial decision. 
</P>
<P>(k) The authority head shall promptly serve each party to the appeal with a copy of the decision of the authority head and a statement describing the right of any person determined to be liable for a penalty or assessment to seek judicial review. 
</P>
<P>(l) Unless a petition for review is filed as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3805 after a defendant has exhausted all administrative remedies under this part and within 60 days after the date on which the authority head serves the defendant with a copy of the authority head's decision, a determination that a defendant is liable under § 79.3 is final and is not subject to judicial review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.40" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.40   Stays ordered by the Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>If at any time the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General transmits to the authority head a written finding that continuation of the administrative process described in this part with respect to a claim or statement may adversely affect any pending or potential criminal or civil action related to such claim or statement, the authority head shall stay the process immediately. The authority head may order the process resumed only upon receipt of the written authorization of the Attorney General. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.41   Stay pending appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An initial decision is stayed automatically pending disposition of a motion for reconsideration or of an appeal to the authority head. 
</P>
<P>(b) No administrative stay is available following a final decision of the authority head. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.42   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3805 of title 31, United States Code, authorizes judicial review by an appropriate United States District Court of a final decision of the authority head imposing penalties or assessments under this part and specifies the procedures for such review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.43" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.43   Collection of civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 3806 and 3808(b) of title 31, United States Code, authorize actions for collection of civil penalties and assessments imposed under this part and specify the procedures for such actions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.44" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.44   Right to administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of any penalty or assessment which has become final, or for which a judgment has been entered under § 79.42 or § 79.43, or any amount agreed upon in a compromise or settlement under § 79.46, may be collected by administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, except that an administrative offset may not be made under this subsection against a refund of an overpayment of Federal taxes, then or later owing by the United States to the defendant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.45" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.45   Deposit in Treasury of United States.</HEAD>
<P>All amounts collected pursuant to this part shall be deposited as miscellaneous receipts in the Treasury of the United States, except as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3806(g). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.46" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.46   Compromise or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Parties may make offers of compromise or settlement at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b) The reviewing official has the exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part at any time after the date on which the reviewing official is permitted to issue a complaint and before the date on which the ALJ issues an initial decision.
</P>
<P>(c) The authority head has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part at any time after the date on which the ALJ issues an initial decision, except during the pendency of any review under § 79.42 or during the pendency of any action to collect penalties and assessments under § 79.43.
</P>
<P>(d) The Attorney General has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part during the pendency of any review under § 79.42 or of any action to recover penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806.
</P>
<P>(e) The investigating official may recommend settlement terms to the reviewing official, the authority head, or the Attorney General, as appropriate. The reviewing official may recommend settlement terms to the authority head, or the Attorney General, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) Any compromise or settlement must be in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 79.47" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.35.0.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 79.47   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notice of hearing with respect to a claim or statement must be served in the manner specified in § 79.8 within 6 years after the date on which such claim or statement is made.
</P>
<P>(b) If the defendant fails to file a timely answer, service of a notice under § 79.10(b) shall be deemed a notice of hearing for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The statute of limitations may be extended by agreement of the parties.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="80" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 80—NONDISCRIMINATION UNDER PROGRAMS RECEIVING FEDERAL ASSISTANCE THROUGH THE DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES EFFECTUATION OF TITLE VI OF THE CIVIL RIGHTS ACT OF 1964
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2000d, 2000d-1.






</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 80.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to effectuate the provisions of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (hereafter referred to as the “Act”) to the end that no person in the United States shall; on the ground of race, color, or national origin, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be otherwise subjected to discrimination under any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 601, Civil Rights Act of 1964, 78 Stat. 252 (42 U.S.C. 2000d))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17982, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.2   Application of this regulation.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation applies to any program to which Federal financial assistance is authorized to be extended to a recipient under a law administered by the Department, including the Federal financial assistance listed in appendix A to this part. It applies to money paid, property transferred, or other Federal financial assistance extended after the effective date of the regulation pursuant to an application approved prior to such effective date. This regulation does not apply to (a) any Federal financial assistance by way of insurance or guaranty contracts, (b) money paid, property transferred, or other assistance extended before the effective date of this regulation, (c) the use of any assistance by any individual who is the ultimate beneficiary under any such program, or (d) any employment practice, under any such program, or any employer, employment agency, or labor organization, except to the extent described in § 80.3. The fact that a type of Federal assistance is not listed in appendix A to this part shall not mean, if title VI of the Act is otherwise applicable, that a program is not covered. Federal financial assistance under statutes now in force or hereinafter enacted may be added to this list by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 602, 604, Civil Rights Act of 1964, 78 Stat. 252, 253 (42 U.S.C. 2000d-1, 2000d-3)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 17979, July 5, 1973, as amended at 70 FR 24318, May 9, 2005] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.3   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person in the United States shall, on the ground of race, color, or national origin be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be otherwise subjected to discrimination under any program to which this part applies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific discriminatory actions prohibited.</I> (1) A recipient under any program to which this part applies may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, on ground of race, color, or national origin: 
</P>
<P>(i) Deny an individual any service, financial aid, or other benefit provided under the program; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide any service, financial aid, or other benefit to an individual which is different, or is provided in a different manner, from that provided to others under the program; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Subject an individual to segregation or separate treatment in any matter related to his receipt of any service, financial aid, or other benefit under the program; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Restrict an individual in any way in the enjoyment of any advantage or privilege enjoyed by others receiving any service, financial aid, or other benefit under the program; 
</P>
<P>(v) Treat an individual differently from others in determining whether he satisfies any admission, enrollment, quota, eligibility, membership or other requirement or condition which individuals must meet in order to be provided any service, financial aid, or other benefit provided under the program; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Deny an individual an opportunity to participate in the program through the provision of services or otherwise or afford him an opportunity to do so which is different from that afforded others under the program (including the opportunity to participate in the program as an employee but only to the extent set forth in paragraph (c) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(vii) Deny a person the opportunity to participate as a member of a planning or advisory body which is an integral part of the program. 
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) In determining the site or location of facilities, a recipient or applicant may not make selections with the purpose of excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination under any program to which this part applies, on the ground of race, color, or national origin; or with the purpose of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of the Act or this part.






</P>
<P>(4) As used in this section, the services, financial aid, or other benefits provided under a program receiving Federal financial assistance shall be deemed to include any service, financial aid, or other benefits provided in or through a facility provided with the aid of Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(5) The enumeration of specific forms of prohibited discrimination in this paragraph and paragraph (c) of this section does not limit the generality of the prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employment practices.</I> (1) Where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance to a program to which this regulation applies is to provide employment, a recipient may not (directly or through contractual or other arrangements) subject an individual to discrimination on the ground of race, color, or national origin in its employment practices under such program (including recruitment or recruitment advertising, employment, layoff or termination, upgrading, demotion, or transfer, rates of pay or other forms of compensation, and use of facilities), including programs where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is (i) to reduce the employment of such individuals or to help them through employment to meet subsistence needs, (ii) to assist such individuals through employment to meet expenses incident to the commencement or continuation of their education or training, (iii) to provide work experience which contributes to the education or training of such individuals, or (iv) to provide remunerative activity to such individuals who because of handicaps cannot be readily absorbed in the competive labor market. The following, under existing laws, have one of the above objectives as a primary objective: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Projects under the Public Works Acceleration Act, Pub. L. 87-658, 42 U.S.C. 2641-2643. 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Work-study under the Vocational Education Act of 1963, as amended, 20 U.S.C. 1371-1374. 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Programs assisted under laws listed in appendix A to this part as respects employment opportunities provided thereunder, or in facilities provided thereunder, which are limited, or for which preference is given, to students, fellows, or other persons in training for the same or related employments. 
</P>
<P>(<I>d</I>) Assistance to rehabilitation facilities under the Vocational Rehabilitation Act, 29 U.S.C. 32-34, 41a and 41b. 
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements applicable to construction employment under any such program shall be those specified in or pursuant to Part III of Executive Order 11246 or any Executive order which supersedes it. 
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]</P>
<P>(d) <I>Indian Health and Cuban Refugee Services.</I> An individual shall not be deemed subjected to discrimination by reason of his exclusion from benefits limited by Federal law to individuals of a particular race, color, or national origin different from his. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Medical emergencies.</I> Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions of this section, a recipient of Federal financial assistance shall not be deemed to have failed to comply with paragraph (a) of this section if immediate provision of a service or other benefit to an individual is necessary to prevent his death or serious impairment of his health, and such service or other benefit cannot be provided except by or through a medical institution which refuses or fails to comply with paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17979, 17982, July 5, 1973; 70 FR 24318, May 9, 2005; 91 FR 46756, July 24, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.4   Assurances required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Every application for Federal financial assistance to which this part applies, except an application to which paragraph (b) of this section applies, and every application for Federal financial assistance to provide a facility shall, as a condition to its approval and the extension of any Federal financial assistance pursuant to the application, contain or be accompanied by an assurance that the program will be conducted or the facility operated in compliance with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this part. In the case of an application for Federal financial assistance to provide real property or structures thereon, the assurance shall obligate the recipient, or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the real property or structures are used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits. In the case of personal property the assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which he retains ownership or possession of the property. In all other cases the assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended pursuant to the application. The responsible Department official shall specify the form of the foregoing assurances in the program, and the extent to which like assurances will be required of subgrantees, contractors and subcontractors, transferees, successors in interest, and other participants in the program. Any such assurance shall include provisions which give the United States a right to seek its judicial enforcement. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of a transfer of real property or interest therein from the Federal Government the instrument effecting or recording the transfer shall contain a covenant running with the land to assure nondiscrimination for the period during which the real property is used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits. Where no transfer of property is involved but property is improved with Federal financial assistance, the recipient shall agree to include such a covenant to any subsequent transfer of the property. Where the property is obtained from the Federal Government, such covenant may also include a condition coupled with a right to be reserved by the Department to revert title to the property in the event of a breach of the covenant where, in the discretion of the responsible Department official, such a condition and right of reverter is appropriate to the statute under which the real property is obtained and to the nature of the grant and the grantee. In the event a transferee of real property proposes to mortgage or otherwise encumber the real property as security for financing construction of new, or improvement of existing, facilities on such property for the purposes for which the property was transferred, the responsible Department official may agree, upon request of the transferee and if necessary to accomplish such financing, and upon such conditions as he deems appropriate, to forbear the exercise of such right to revert title for so long as the lien of such mortgage or other encumbrance remains effective. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continuing Federal financial assistance.</I> Every application by a State or a State agency for continuing Federal financial assistance to which this regulation applies (including the Federal financial assistance listed in part 2 of appendix A to this part) shall as a condition to its approval and the extension of any Federal financial assistance pursuant to the application (1) contain or be accompanied by a statement that the program is (or, in the case of a new program, will be) conducted in compliance with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this regulation, and (2) provide or be accompanied by provision for such methods of administration for the program as are found by the responsible Department official to give reasonable assurance that the applicant and all recipients of Federal financial assistance under such program will comply with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Elementary and secondary schools.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section with respect to any elementary or secondary school or school system shall be deemed to be satisfied if such school or school system (1) is subject to a final order of a court of the United States for the desegregation of such school or school system, and provides an assurance that it will comply with such order, including any future modification of such order, or (2) submits a plan for the desegregation of such school or school system which the responsible Department official determines is adequate to accomplish the purposes of the Act and this part, at the earliest practicable time, and provides reasonable assurance that it will carry out such plan; in any case of continuing Federal financial assistance the responsible Department official may reserve the right to redetermine, after such period as may be specified by him, the adequacy of the plan to accomplish the purposes of the Act and the regulations in this part. In any case in which a final order of a court of the United States for the desegregation of such school or school system is entered after submission of such a plan, such plan shall be revised to conform to such final order, including any future modification of such order. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assurance from institutions.</I> (1) In the case of any application for Federal financial assistance to an institution of higher education (including assistance for construction, for research, for special training project, for student loans or for any other purpose), the assurance required by this section shall extend to admission practices and to all other practices relating to the treatment of students. 
</P>
<P>(2) The assurance required with respect to an institution of higher education, hospital, or any other institution, insofar as the assurance relates to the institution's practices with respect to admission or other treatment of individuals as students, patients, or clients of the institution or to the opportunity to participate in the provision of services or other benefits to such individuals, shall be applicable to the entire institution.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 601, 602, Civil Rights Act of 1964, 78 Stat. 252 (42 U.S.C. 2000d, 2000d-1); sec. 182, 80 Stat. 1209 (42 U.S.C. 2000d-5)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 32 FR 14555, Oct. 19, 1967; 38 FR 17980, 17982, July 5, 1973; 70 FR 24318, May 9, 2005] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.5   Illustrative application.</HEAD>
<P>The following examples will illustrate the programs aided by Federal financial assistance of the Department. (In all cases the discrimination prohibited is discrimination on the ground of race, color, or national origin prohibited by Title VI of the Act and this regulation, as a condition of the receipt of Federal financial assistance). 
</P>
<P>(a) In federally assisted programs for the provision of health or welfare services, discrimination in the selection or eligibility of individuals to receive the services, and segregation or other discriminatory practices in the manner of providing them, are prohibited. This prohibition extends to all facilities and services provided by the grantee or, if the grantee is a State, by a political subdivision of the State. It extends also to services purchased or otherwise obtained by the grantee (or political subdivision) from hospitals, nursing homes, schools, and similar institutions for beneficiaries of the program, and to the facilities in which such services are provided, subject, however, to the provisions of § 80.3(e). 
</P>
<P>(b) In federally-affected area assistance (Pub. L. 815 and Pub. L. 874) for construction aid and for general support of the operation of elementary or secondary schools, or in more limited support to such schools such as for the acquisition of equipment, the provision of vocational education, or the provision of guidance and counseling services, discrimination by the recipient school district in any of its elementary or secondary schools in the admission of students, or in the treatment of its students in any aspect of the educational process, is prohibited. In this and the following illustrations the prohibition of discrimination in the treatment of students or other trainees includes the prohibition of discrimination among the students or trainees in the availability or use of any academic, dormitory, eating, recreational, or other facilities of the grantee or other recipient. 
</P>
<P>(c) In a research, training, demonstration, or other grant to a university for activities to be conducted in a graduate school, discrimination in the admission and treatment of students in the graduate school is prohibited, and the prohibition extends to the entire university.
</P>
<P>(d) In a training grant to a hospital or other nonacademic institution, discrimination is prohibited in the selection of individuals to be trained and in their treatment by the grantee during their training. In a research or demonstration grant to such an institution discrimination is prohibited with respect to any educational activity and any provision of medical or other services and any financial aid to individuals incident to the program. 
</P>
<P>(e) In grants to assist in the construction of facilities for the provision of health, educational or welfare services, assurances will be required that services will be provided without discrimination, to the same extent that discrimination would be prohibited as a condition of Federal operating grants for the support of such services. Thus, as a condition of grants for the construction of academic, research, or other facilities at institutions of higher education, assurances will be required that there will be no discrimination in the admission or treatment of students. In case of hospital construction grants the assurance will apply to patients, to interns, residents, student nurses, and other trainees, and to the privilege of physicians, dentists, and other professionally qualified persons to practice in the hospital, and will apply to the entire facility for which, or for a part of which, the grant is made, and to facilities operated in connection therewith.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon transfers of real or personal surplus property for health or educational uses, discrimination is prohibited to the same extent as in the case of grants for the construction of facilities or the provision of equipment for like purposes. 
</P>
<P>(g) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(h) A recipient may not take action that is calculated to bring about indirectly what this regulation forbids it to accomplish directly.




</P>
<P>(i)-(j) [Reserved] </P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964; 29 FR 16988, Dec. 11, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17980, 17982, July 5, 1973; 70 FR 24318, May 9, 2005; 91 FR 46756, July 24, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.6   Compliance information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cooperation and assistance.</I> The responsible Department official shall to the fullest extent practicable seek the cooperation of recipients in obtaining compliance with this part and shall provide assistance and guidance to recipients to help them comply voluntarily with this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance reports.</I> Each recipient shall keep such records and submit to the responsible Department official or his designee timely, complete and accurate compliance reports at such times, and in such form and containing such information, as the responsible Department official or his designee may determine to be necessary to enable him to ascertain whether the recipient has complied or is complying with this part. For example, recipients should have available for the Department racial and ethnic data showing the extent to which members of minority groups are beneficiaries of and participants in federally-assisted programs. In the case in which a primary recipient extends Federal financial assistance to any other recipient, such other recipient shall also submit such compliance reports to the primary recipient as may be necessary to enable the primary recipient to carry out its obligations under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to sources of information.</I> Each recipient shall permit access by the responsible Department official or his designee during normal business hours to such of its books, records, accounts, and other sources of information, and its facilities as may be pertinent to ascertain compliance with this part. Where any information required of a recipient is in the exclusive possession of any other agency, institution or person and this agency, institution or person shall fail or refuse to furnish this information the recipient shall so certify in its report and shall set forth what efforts it has made to obtain the information. Asserted considerations of privacy or confidentiality may not operate to bar the Department from evaluating or seeking to enforce compliance with this part. Information of a confidential nature obtained in connection with compliance evaluation or enforcement shall not be disclosed except where necessary in formal enforcement proceedings or where otherwise required by law. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information to beneficiaries and participants.</I> Each recipient shall make available to participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this regulation and its applicability to the program for which the recipient receives Federal financial assistance, and make such information available to them in such manner, as the responsible Department official finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by the Act and this regulation. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 601, 602, Civil Rights Act of 1964, 78 Stat. 252 (42 U.S.C. 2000d, 2000d-1)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 32 FR 14555, Oct. 19, 1967; 38 FR 17981, 17982, July 5, 1973; 70 FR 24318, May 9, 2005] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.7   Conduct of investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Periodic compliance reviews.</I> The responsible Department official or his designee shall from time to time review the practices of recipients to determine whether they are complying with this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaints.</I> Any person who believes himself or any specific class of individuals to be subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part may by himself or by a representative file with the responsible Department official or his designee a written complaint. A complaint must be filed not later than 180 days from the date of the alleged discrimination, unless the time for filing is extended by the responsible Department official or his designee. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investigations.</I> The responsible Department official or his designee will make a prompt investigation whenever a compliance review, report, complaint, or any other information indicates a possible failure to comply with this part. The investigation should include, where appropriate, a review of the pertinent practices and policies of the recipient, the circumstances under which the possible noncompliance with this part occurred, and other factors relevant to a determination as to whether the recipient has failed to comply with this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Resolution of matters.</I> (1) If an investigation pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section indicates a failure to comply with this part, the responsible Department official or his designee will so inform the recipient and the matter will be resolved by informal means whenever possible. If it has been determined that the matter cannot be resolved by informal means, action will be taken as provided for in § 80.8. 
</P>
<P>(2) If an investigation does not warrant action pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section the responsible Department official or his designee will so inform the recipient and the complainant, if any, in writing. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Intimidatory or retaliatory acts prohibited.</I> No recipient or other person shall intimidate, threaten, coerce, or discriminate against any individual for the purpose of interfering with any right or privilege secured by section 601 of the Act or this part, or because he has made a complaint, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding or hearing under this part. The identity of complainants shall be kept confidential except to the extent necessary to carry out the purposes of this part, including the conduct of any investigation, hearing, or judicial proceeding arising thereunder. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 601, 602, Civil Rights Act of 1964, 78 Stat. 252 (42 U.S.C. 2000d, 2000d-1)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17981, 17982, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.8   Procedure for effecting compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If there appears to be a failure or threatened failure to comply with this regulation, and if the noncompliance or threatened noncompliance cannot be corrected by informal means, compliance with this part may be effected by the suspension or termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance or by any other means authorized by law. Such other means may include, but are not limited to, (1) a reference to the Department of Justice with a recommendation that appropriate proceedings be brought to enforce any rights of the United States under any law of the United States (including other titles of the Act), or any assurance or other contractual undertaking, and (2) any applicable proceeding under State or local law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Noncompliance with § 80.4.</I> If an applicant fails or refuses to furnish an assurance required under § 80.4 or otherwise fails or refuses to comply with a requirement imposed by or pursuant to that section Federal financial assistance may be refused in accordance with the procedures of paragraph (c) of this section. The Department shall not be required to provide assistance in such a case during the pendency of the administrative proceedings under such paragraph except that the Department shall continue assistance during the pendency of such proceedings where such assistance is due and payable pursuant to an application therefor approved prior to the effective date of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance.</I> No order suspending, terminating or refusing to grant or continue Federal financial assistance shall become effective until (1) the responsible Department official has advised the applicant or recipient of his failure to comply and has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means, (2) there has been an express finding on the record, after opportunity for hearing, of a failure by the applicant or recipient to comply with a requirement imposed by or pursuant to this part, (3) the expiration of 30 days after the Secretary has filed with the committee of the House and the committee of the Senate having legislative jurisdiction over the program involved, a full written report of the circumstances and the grounds for such action. Any action to suspend or terminate or to refuse to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance shall be limited to the particular political entity, or part thereof, or other applicant or recipient as to whom such a finding has been made and shall be limited in its effect to the particular program, or part thereof, in which such noncompliance has been so found. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other means authorized by law.</I> No action to effect compliance by any other means authorized by law shall be taken until (1) the responsible Department official has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means, (2) the recipient or other person has been notified of its failure to comply and of the action to be taken to effect compliance, and (3) the expiration of at least 10 days from the mailing of such notice to the recipient or other person. During this period of at least 10 days additional efforts shall be made to persuade the recipient or other person to comply with the regulation and to take such corrective action as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 601, 602, Civil Rights Act of 1964, 78 Stat. 252 (42 U.S.C. 2000d, 2000d-1; sec. 182, 80 Stat. 1209; (42 U.S.C. 2000d-5)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 32 FR 14556, Oct. 19, 1967; 38 FR 17982, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.9   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Opportunity for hearing.</I> Whenever an opportunity for a hearing is required by § 80.8(c), reasonable notice shall be given by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the affected applicant or recipient. This notice shall advise the applicant or recipient of the action proposed to be taken, the specific provision under which the proposed action against it is to be taken, and the matters of fact or law asserted as the basis for this action, and either (1) fix a date not less than 20 days after the date of such notice within which the applicant or recipient may request of the responsible Department official that the matter be scheduled for hearing or (2) advise the applicant or recipient that the matter in question has been set down for hearing at a stated place and time. The time and place so fixed shall be reasonable and shall be subject to change for cause. The complainant, if any, shall be advised of the time and place of the hearing. An applicant or recipient may waive a hearing and submit written information and argument for the record. The failure of an applicant or recipient to request a hearing for which a date has been set shall be deemed to be a waiver of the right to a hearing under section 602 of the Act and § 80.8(c) of this regulation and consent to the making of a decision on the basis of such information as may be filed as the record. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time and place of hearing.</I> Hearings shall be held at the offices of the Department in Washington, DC, at a time fixed by the responsible Department official unless he determines that the convenience of the applicant or recipient or of the Department requires that another place be selected. Hearings shall be held before a hearing examiner designated in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 3105 and 3344 (section 11 of the Administrative Procedure Act). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Right to counsel.</I> In all proceedings under this section, the applicant or recipient and the Department shall have the right to be represented by counsel. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures, evidence, and record.</I> (1) The hearing, decision, and any administrative review thereof shall be conducted in conformity with sections 5-8 of the Administrative Procedure Act, and in accordance with such rules of procedure as are proper (and not inconsistent with this section) relating to the conduct of the hearing, giving of notices subsequent to those provided for in paragraph (a) of this section, taking of testimony, exhibits, arguments and briefs, requests for findings, and other related matters. Both the Department and the applicant or recipient shall be entitled to introduce all relevant evidence on the issues as stated in the notice for hearing or as determined by the officer conducting the hearing at the outset of or during the hearing. Any person (other than a Government employee considered to be on official business) who, having been invited or requested to appear and testify as a witness on the Government's behalf, attends at a time and place scheduled for a hearing provided for by this part, may be reimbursed for his travel and actual expenses of attendance in an amount not to exceed the amount payable under the standardized travel regulations to a Government employee traveling on official business. 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical rules of evidence shall not apply to hearings conducted pursuant to this part, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most credible evidence available and to subject testimony to test by cross-examination shall be applied where reasonably necessary by the officer conducting the hearing. The hearing officer may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence. All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by the parties and opportunity shall be given to refute facts and arguments advanced on either side of the issues. A transcript shall be made of the oral evidence except to the extent the substance thereof is stipulated for the record. All decisions shall be based upon the hearing record and written findings shall be made. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consolidated or Joint Hearings.</I> In cases in which the same or related facts are asserted to constitute noncompliance with this regulation with respect to two or more Federal statutes, authorities, or other means by which Federal financial assistance is extended, to which this part applies, or noncompliance with this part and the regulations of one or more other Federal departments or agencies issued under Title VI of the Act, the responsible Department official may, by agreement with such other departments or agencies where applicable, provide for the conduct of consolidated or joint hearings, and for the application to such hearings of rules of procedures not inconsistent with this part. Final decisions in such cases, insofar as this regulation is concerned, shall be made in accordance with § 80.10. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 602, Civil Rights Act of 1964, 78 Stat. 252 (42 U.S.C. 2000d-1)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 32 FR 14555, Oct. 19, 1967; 38 FR 17981, 17982, July 5, 1973; 70 FR 24318, May 9, 2005] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.10   Decisions and notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Decisions by hearing examiners.</I> After a hearing is held by a hearing examiner such hearing examiner shall either make an initial decision, if so authorized, or certify the entire record including his recommended findings and proposed decision to the reviewing authority for a final decision, and a copy of such initial decision or certification shall be mailed to the applicant or recipient and to the complainant, if any. Where the initial decision referred to in this paragraph or in paragraph (c) of this section is made by the hearing examiner, the applicant or recipient or the counsel for the Department may, within the period provided for in the rules of procedure issued by the responsible Department official, file with the reviewing authority exceptions to the initial decision, with his reasons therefor. Upon the filing of such exceptions the reviewing authority shall review the initial decision and issue its own decision thereof including the reasons therefor. In the absence of exceptions the initial decision shall constitute the final decision, subject to the provisions of paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decisions on record or review by the reviewing authority.</I> Whenever a record is certified to the reviewing authority for decision or it reviews the decision of a hearing examiner pursuant to paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, the applicant or recipient shall be given reasonable opportunity to file with it briefs or other written statements of its contentions, and a copy of the final decision of the reviewing authority shall be given in writing to the applicant or recipient and to the complainant, if any. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions on record where a hearing is waived.</I> Whenever a hearing is waived pursuant to § 80.9(a) the reviewing authority shall make its final decision on the record or refer the matter to a hearing examiner for an initial decision to be made on the record. A copy of such decision shall be given in writing to the applicant or recipient, and to the complainant, if any. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rulings required.</I> Each decision of a hearing examiner or reviewing authority shall set forth a ruling on each finding, conclusion, or exception presented, and shall identify the requirement or requirements imposed by or pursuant to this part with which it is found that the applicant or recipient has failed to comply. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Review in certain cases by the Secretary.</I> If the Secretary has not personally made the final decision referred to in paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, a recipient or applicant or the counsel for the Department may request the Secretary to review a decision of the Reviewing Authority in accordance with rules of procedure issued by the responsible Department official. Such review is not a matter of right and shall be granted only where the Secretary determines there are special and important reasons therefor. The Secretary may grant or deny such request, in whole or in part. He may also review such a decision upon his own motion in accordance with rules of procedure issued by the responsible Department official. In the absence of a review under this paragraph, a final decision referred to in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section shall become the final decision of the Department when the Secretary transmits it as such to Congressional committees with the report required under section 602 of the Act. Failure of an applicant or recipient to file an exception with the Reviewing Authority or to request review under this paragraph shall not be deemed a failure to exhaust administrative remedies for the purpose of obtaining judicial review. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of orders.</I> The final decision may provide for suspension or termination of, or refusal to grant or continue Federal financial assistance, in whole or in part, to which this regulation applies, and may contain such terms, conditions, and other provisions as are consistent with and will effectuate the purposes of the Act and this regulation, including provisions designed to assure that no Federal financial assistance to which this regulation applies will thereafter be extended under such law or laws to the applicant or recipient determined by such decision to be in default in its performance of an assurance given by it pursuant to this regulation, or to have otherwise failed to comply with this regulation unless and until it corrects its noncompliance and satisfies the responsible Department official that it will fully comply with this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Post-termination proceedings.</I> (1) An applicant or recipient adversely affected by an order issued under paragraph (f) of this section shall be restored to full eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance if it satisfies the terms and conditions of that order for such eligibility or if it brings itself into compliance with this part and provides reasonable assurance that it will fully comply with this part. An elementary or secondary school or school system which is unable to file an assurance of compliance with § 80.3 shall be restored to full eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance, if it files a court order or a plan for desegregation which meets the requirements of § 80.4(c), and provides reasonable assurance that it will comply with the court order or plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any applicant or recipient adversely affected by an order entered pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section may at any time request the responsible Department official to restore fully its eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance. Any such request shall be supported by information showing that the applicant or recipient has met the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section. If the responsible Department official determines that those requirements have been satisfied, he shall restore such eligibility. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the responsible Department official denies any such request, the applicant or recipient may submit a request for a hearing in writing, specifying why it believes such official to have been in error. It shall thereupon be given an expeditious hearing, with a decision on the record, in accordance with rules of procedure issued by the responsible Department official. The applicant or recipient will be restored to such eligibility if it proves at such hearing that it satisfied the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section. While proceedings under this paragraph are pending, the sanctions imposed by the order issued under paragraph (f) of this section shall remain in effect. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 602, Civil Rights Act of 1964, 78 Stat. 252 (42 U.S.C. 2000d-1)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 32 FR 14555, Oct. 19, 1967; 38 FR 17981, 17982, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.11   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Action taken pursuant to section 602 of the Act is subject to judicial review as provided in section 603 of the Act. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 603, 78 Stat. 253, (42 U.S.C. 2000d-2)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 32 FR 14556, Oct. 19, 1967] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.12   Effect on other regulations; forms and instructions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effect on other regulations.</I> All regulations, orders, or like directions heretofore issued by any officer of the Department which impose requirements designed to prohibit any discrimination against individuals on the ground of race, color, or national origin under any program to which this regulation applies, and which authorize the suspension or termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance to any applicant for or recipient of assistance for failure to comply with such requirements, are hereby superseded to the extent that such discrimination is prohibited by this regulation, except that nothing in this regulation shall be deemed to relieve any person of any obligation assumed or imposed under any such superseded regulation, order, instruction, or like direction prior to the effective date of this regulation. Nothing in this regulation, however, shall be deemed to supersede any of the following (including future amendments thereof): (1) The “Standards for a Merit System of Personnel Administration,” issued jointly by the Secretaries of Defense, of Health and Human Services, and of Labor, 45 CFR part 70; (2) Executive Order 11063 and regulations issued thereunder, or any other regulations or instructions, insofar as such Order, regulations, or instructions prohibit discrimination on the ground of race, color, or national origin in any program or situation to which this regulation is inapplicable, or prohibit discrimination on any other ground; or (3) requirements for Emergency School Assistance as published in 35 FR 13442 and codified as 45 CFR part 181. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Forms and instructions.</I> The responsible Department official shall issue and promptly make available to interested persons forms and detailed instructions and procedures for effectuating this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervision and coordination.</I> The responsible Department official may from time to time assign to officials of the Department, or to officials of other departments or agencies of the Government with the consent of such departments or agencies, responsibilities in connection with the effectuation of the purposes of Title VI of the Act and this regulation (other than responsibility for review as provided in § 80.10(e)), including the achievements of effective coordination and maximum uniformity within the Department and within the Executive Branch of the Government in the application of Title VI and this regulation to similar programs and in similar situations. Any action taken, determination made, or requirement imposed by an official of another Department or Agency acting pursuant to an assignment of responsibility under this subsection shall have the same effect as though such action had been taken by the responsible official of this Department. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 602, Civil Rights Act of 1964, 78 Stat. 252 (42 U.S.C. 2000d-10)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964, as amended at 32 FR 14555, Oct. 19, 1967; 38 FR 17981, 17982, July 5, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 80.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 80.13   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part— 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services, and includes each of its operating agencies and other organizational units. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>responsible Department official</I> means the Secretary or, to the extent of any delegation by the Secretary of authority to act in his stead under any one or more provisions of this part, any person or persons to whom the Secretary has heretofore delegated, or to whom the Secretary may hereafter delegate such authority. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>reviewing authority</I> means the Secretary, or any person or persons (including a board or other body specially created for that purpose and also including the responsible Department official) acting pursuant to authority delegated by the Secretary to carry out responsibilities under § 80.10 (a) through (d). 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>United States</I> means the States of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, the Canal Zone, and the territories and possessions of the United States, and the term <I>State</I> means any one of the foregoing. 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>Federal financial assistance</I> includes (1) grants and loans of Federal funds, (2) the grant or donation of Federal property and interests in property, (3) the detail of Federal personnel, (4) the sale and lease of, and the permission to use (on other than a casual or transient basis), Federal property or any interest in such property without consideration or at a nominal consideration, or at a consideration which is reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient, or in recognition of the public interest to be served by such sale or lease to the recipient, and (5) any Federal agreement, arrangement, or other contract which has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance. 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>program or activity</I> and the term <I>program</I> mean all of the operations of—
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity of such State or local government that distributes Federal financial assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A local educational agency (as defined in 20 U.S.C. 7801), system of vocational education, or other school system;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship—
</P>
<P>(A) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or
</P>
<P>(B) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other entity which is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this section; any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>facility</I> includes all or any portion of structures, equipment, or other real or personal property or interests therein, and the provision of facilities includes the construction, expansion, renovation, remodeling, alteration or acquisition of facilities. 
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>recipient</I> means any State, political subdivision of any State, or instrumentality of any State or political subdivision, any public or private agency, institution, or organization, or other entity, or any individual, in any State, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended, directly or through another recipient, including any successor, assign, or transferee thereof, but such term does not include any ultimate beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(j) The term <I>primary recipient</I> means any recipient which is authorized or required to extend Federal financial assistance to another recipient. 
</P>
<P>(k) The term <I>applicant</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by a Department official, or by a primary recipient, as a condition to eligibility for Federal financial assistance, and the term <I>application</I> means such an application, request, or plan. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 602, 606, Civil Rights Act of 1964, (42 U.S.C. 2000d-1, 2000d-4a))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16298, Dec. 4, 1964; 29 FR 16988, Dec. 11, 1964, as amended at 32 FR 14555, Oct. 19, 1967; 38 FR 17982, July 5, 1973; 70 FR 24318, May 9, 2005] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.36.0.1.14.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 80—Federal Financial Assistance to Which These Regulations Apply


</HEAD>
<HD2>Part 1. Assistance other than Continuing Assistance to States
</HD2>
<P>1. Loans for acquisition of equipment for academic subjects, and for minor remodeling (20 U.S.C. 445). 
</P>
<P>2. Construction of facilities for institutions of higher education (20 U.S.C. 701-758). 
</P>
<P>3. School Construction in federally-affected and in major disaster areas (20 U.S.C. 631-647). 
</P>
<P>4. Construction of educational broadcast facilities (47 U.S.C. 390-399). 
</P>
<P>5. Loan service of captioned films and educational media; research on, and production and distribution of, educational media for the handicapped, and training of persons in the use of such media for the handicapped (20 U.S.C. 1452). 
</P>
<P>6. Demonstration residential vocational education schools (20 U.S.C. 1321). 
</P>
<P>7. Research and related activities in education of handicapped children (20 U.S.C. 1441). 
</P>
<P>8. Educational research, dissemination and demonstration projects; research training; and construction under the Cooperation Research Act (20 U.S.C. 331-332(b)). 
</P>
<P>9. Research in teaching modern foreign languages (20 U.S.C. 512). 
</P>
<P>10. Training projects for manpower development and training (42 U.S.C. 2601, 2602, 2610a-2610c). 
</P>
<P>11. Research and training projects in Vocational Education (20 U.S.C. 1281(a), 1282-1284). 
</P>
<P>12. Allowances to institutions training NDEA graduate fellows (20 U.S.C. 461-465). 
</P>
<P>13. Grants for training in librarianship (20 U.S.C. 1031-1033). 
</P>
<P>14. Grants for training personnel for the education of handicapped children (20 U.S.C. 1431). 
</P>
<P>15. Allowances for institutions training teachers and related educational personnel in elementary and secondary education, or post-secondary vocational education (20 U.S.C. 1111-1118). 
</P>
<P>16. Recruitment, enrollment, training and assignment of Teacher Corps personnel (20 U.S.C. 1101-1107a). 
</P>
<P>17. Operation and maintenance of schools in Federally-affected and in major disaster areas (20 U.S.C. 236-241; 241-1; 242-244). 
</P>
<P>18. Grants or contracts for the operation of training institutes for elementary or secondary school personnel to deal with special educational problems occasioned by desegregation (42 U.S.C. 2000c-3). 
</P>
<P>19. Grants for in-service training of teachers and other schools personnel and employment of specialists in desegregation problems (42 U.S.C. 2000c-4). 
</P>
<P>20. Higher education students loan program (Title II, National Defense Education Act, 20 U.S.C. 421-429). 
</P>
<P>21. Educational Opportunity grants and assistance for State and private programs of low-interest insured loans and State loans to students in institutions of higher education (Title IV, Higher Education Act of 1965, 20 U.S.C. 1061-1087). 
</P>
<P>22. Grants and contracts for the conduct of Talent Search, Upward Bound, and Special Services Programs (20 U.S.C. 1068). 
</P>
<P>23. Land-grant college aid (7 U.S.C. 301-308; 321-326; 328-331). 
</P>
<P>24. Language and area centers (Title VI, National Defense Education Act, 20 U.S.C. 511). 
</P>
<P>25. American Printing House for the Blind (20 U.S.C. 101-105). 
</P>
<P>26. Future Farmers of America (36 U.S.C. 271-391) and similar programs. 
</P>
<P>27. Science clubs (Pub. L. 85-875, 20 U.S.C. 2, note). 
</P>
<P>28. Howard University (20 U.S.C. 121-129). 
</P>
<P>29. Gallaudet College (31 D.C. Code, Ch. 10). 
</P>
<P>30. Establishment and operation of a model secondary school for the deaf by Gallaudet College (31 D.C. Code 1051-1053; 80 Stat. 1027-1028). 
</P>
<P>31. Faculty development programs, workshops and institutes (20 U.S.C. 1131-1132). 
</P>
<P>32. National Technical Institute for the Deaf (20 U.S.C. 681-685). 
</P>
<P>33. Institutes and other programs for training educational personnel (Parts D, E, and F, Title V, Higher Education Act of 1965) (20 U.S.C. 1119-1119c-4). 
</P>
<P>34. Grants and contracts for research and demonstration projects in librarianship (20 U.S.C. 1034). 
</P>
<P>35. Acquisition of college library resources (20 U.S.C. 1021-1028). 
</P>
<P>36. Grants for strengthening developing institutions of higher education (20 U.S.C. 1051-1054); National Fellowships for teaching at developing institutions (20 U.S.C. 1055), and grants to retired professors to teach at developing institutions (20 U.S.C. 1056). 
</P>
<P>37. College Work-Study Program (42 U.S.C. 2751-2757). 
</P>
<P>38. Financial assistance for acquisition of higher education equipment, and minor remodeling (20 U.S.C. 1121-1129). 
</P>
<P>39. Grants for special experimental demonstration projects and teacher training in adult education (20 U.S.C. 1208). 
</P>
<P>40. Grant programs for advanced and undergraduate international studies (20 U.S.C. 1171-1176; 22 U.S.C. 2452(b)). 
</P>
<P>41. Experimental projects for developing State leadership or establishment of special services (20 U.S.C. 865). 
</P>
<P>42. Grants to and arrangements with State educational and other agencies to meet special educational needs of migratory children of migratory agricultural workers (20 U.S.C. 241e(c)). 
</P>
<P>43. Grants by the Commissioner of Education to local educational agencies for supplementary educational centers and services; guidance, counseling, and testing (20 U.S.C. 841-844; 844b). 
</P>
<P>44. Resource centers for improvement of education of handicapped children (20 U.S.C. 1421) and centers and services for deaf-blind children (20 U.S.C. 1422). 
</P>
<P>45. Recruitment of personnel and dissemination of information on education of handicapped (20 U.S.C. 1433). 
</P>
<P>46. Grants for research and demonstrations relating to physical education or recreation for handicapped children (20 U.S.C. 1442) and training of physical educators and recreation personnel (20 U.S.C. 1434). 
</P>
<P>47. Dropout prevention projects (20 U.S.C. 887). 
</P>
<P>48. Bilingual education programs (20 U.S.C. 880b-880b-6). 
</P>
<P>49. Grants to agencies and organizations for Cuban refugees (22) U.S.C. 2601(b)(4). 
</P>
<P>50. Grants and contracts for special programs for children with specific learning disabilities including research and related activities, training and operating model centers (20 U.S.C. 1461). 
</P>
<P>51. Curriculum development in vocational and technical education (20 U.S.C. 1391). 
</P>
<P>52. Establishment, including construction, and operation of a National Center on Educational Media and Materials for the Handicapped (20 U.S.C. 1453). 
</P>
<P>53. Grants and contracts for the development and operation of experimental preschool and early education programs for handicapped (20 U.S.C. 1423). 
</P>
<P>54. Grants to public or private non-profit agencies to carry on the Follow Through Program in kindergarten and elementary schools (42 U.S.C. 2809 (a)(2)). 
</P>
<P>55. Grants for programs of cooperative education and grants and contracts for training and research in cooperative education (20 U.S.C. 1087a-1087c). 
</P>
<P>56. Grants and contracts to encourage the sharing of college facilities and resources (network for knowledge) (20 U.S.C. 1133-1133b). 
</P>
<P>57. Grants, contracts, and fellowships to improve programs preparing persons for public service and to attract students to public service (20 U.S.C. 1134-1134b). 
</P>
<P>58. Grants for the improvement of graduate programs (20 U.S.C. 1135-1135c). 
</P>
<P>59. Contracts for expanding and improving law school clinical experience programs (20 U.S.C. 1136-1136b). 
</P>
<P>60. Exemplary programs and projects in vocational education (20 U.S.C. 1301-1305). 
</P>
<P>61. Grants to reduce borrowing cost for construction of residential schools and dormitories (20 U.S.C. 1323). 
</P>
<P>62. Project grants and contracts for research and demonstration relating to new or improved health facilities and services (section 304, PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 242b). 
</P>
<P>63. Grants for construction or modernization of emergency rooms of general hospitals (Title VI, Part C, PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 291j). 
</P>
<P>64. Institutional and special projects grants to schools of nursing (sections 805-808, PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 296d-296g). 
</P>
<P>65. Grants for construction and initial staffing of facilities for prevention and treatment of alcoholism (section 241-2, Community Mental Health Centers Act (42 U.S.C. 2688 f and g). 
</P>
<P>66. Grants for construction and initial staffing of specialized facilities for the treatment of alcoholics requiring care in such facilities (section 243, Community Mental Health Centers Act, 42 U.S.C. 2688h). 
</P>
<P>67. Special project grants for training programs, evaluation of existing treatment programs, and conduct of significant programs relating to treatment of alcoholics (section 246, Community Mental Health Centers Act, 42 U.S.C. 2688j-1). 
</P>
<P>68. Grants for construction and initial staff of treatment facilities for narcotic addicts (section 251, Community Mental Health Centers Act, 42 U.S.C. 2688m). 
</P>
<P>69. Special project grants for training programs, evaluation of existing treatment programs, and conduct of significant programs relating to treatment of narcotics addicts (section 252, Community Mental Health Centers Act, 42 U.S.C. 2688n-1). 
</P>
<P>70. Grants for consultation services for Community Mental Health Centers, alcoholism prevention and treatment facilities for narcotic addicts, and facilities for mental health of children (section 264, Community Mental Health Centers Act, 42 U.S.C. 2688r). 
</P>
<P>71. Grants for construction and initial staff of facilities for mental health of children (section 271, Community Mental Health Centers Act, 42 U.S.C. 2688u). 
</P>
<P>72. Special project grants for training programs and evaluation of existing treatment program relating to mental health of children (section 272, Community Mental Health Centers Act, 42 U.S.C. 2688x). 
</P>
<P>73. Grants and loans for construction and modernization of medical facilities in the District of Columbia (Pub. L. 90-457; 82 Stat. 631-3). 
</P>
<P>74. Teaching facilities for nurse training (sections. 801-804, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 296-296c). 
</P>
<P>75. Teaching facilities for allied health professions personnel (section 791, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 295h). 
</P>
<P>76. Mental retardation research facilities (Title VI, Part D, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 295-395e). 
</P>
<P>77. George Washington University Hospital construction (76 Stat. 83, Pub. L. 87-460, May 31, 1962). 
</P>
<P>78. Research projects, including conferences, communication activities and primate or other center grants (sections 301, 303, 304, and 308, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 241, 242a, 242b, and 242f). 
</P>
<P>79. General research support (section 301(d), Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 241). 
</P>
<P>80. Mental Health demonstrations and administrative studies (section 303(a)(2), Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 242a). 
</P>
<P>81. Migratory workers health services (section 310, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 242h). 
</P>
<P>82. Immunization programs (section 317, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 247b). 
</P>
<P>83. Health research training projects and fellowship grants (sections 301, 433, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 242, 289c). 
</P>
<P>84. Categorical (heart, cancer, etc.) grants for training, traineeships or fellowships (sections 303, 433, etc., Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 242a, 289c, etc.). 
</P>
<P>85. Advanced professional nurse traineeships (section 821, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 297). 
</P>
<P>86. Department projects under Appalachian Regional Development Act (40 U.S.C. App. A). 
</P>
<P>87. Grants to institutions for traineeships for professional public health personnel section 306, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 242d). 
</P>
<P>88. Grants for graduate or specialized training in public health (section 309, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 242g). 
</P>
<P>89. Health professions school student loan program (Title VII, Part C, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 294-294(k)). 
</P>
<P>90. Grants for provision in schools of public health of training, consultation and technical assistance in the field of public health and in the administration of state or local public health programs (section 309(c)), Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 242(g)(c)). 
</P>
<P>91. Project grants for training, studies, or demonstrations looking metropolitan area, or other local area plans for health services (section 314(c), Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 246(c)). 
</P>
<P>92. Project grants for training, studies, or demonstrations looking toward the development of improved comprehensive health planning (section 314(c), Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 246(c)). 
</P>
<P>93. Project grants for health services development (section 314(e), Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 246(e)). 
</P>
<P>94. Institutional and special grants to health professions schools (Title VII, Part E, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 295f-295f-4). 
</P>
<P>95. Improvement grants to centers for allied health professions (section 792, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 295h-1). 
</P>
<P>96. Scholarship grants to health professions schools (Title VII, Part F, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 295h-1). 
</P>
<P>97. Scholarship grants to schools of nursing (Title VIII, Part D, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 198c-298c-6). 
</P>
<P>98. Traineeships for advanced training of allied health professions personnel (section 793, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 295h-2). 
</P>
<P>99. Contracts to encourage full utilization of nursing educational talent (section 868, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 298c-7). 
</P>
<P>100. Grants to community mental health centers for the compensation of professional and technical personnel for the initial operation of new centers or of new services in centers (Community Mental Health Centers Act, Part B, 42 U.S.C. 2688-2688d). 
</P>
<P>101. Grants for the planning, construction, equipment and operation of multicounty demonstration health projects in the Appalachian region (section 202 of Appalachian Regional Development Act, Pub. L. 89-4, as amended, Pub. L. 90-103 40 U.S.C. App. 202). 
</P>
<P>102. Education, research, training, and demonstrations in the fields of heart disease, cancer, stroke and related diseases (sections 900-110, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 299a-j). 
</P>
<P>103. Assistance to medical libraries (sections 390-399, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 280b-280b-9). 
</P>
<P>104. Nursing student loans (sections 822-828. Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 297a-g). 
</P>
<P>105. Hawaii leprosy payments (section 331, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 255). 
</P>
<P>106. Heart disease laboratories and related facilities for patient care (section 412(d), Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 287a(d)). 
</P>
<P>107. Grants for construction of hospitals serving Indians (Pub. L. 85-151, 42 U.S.C. 2005). 
</P>
<P>108. Indian Sanitation Facilities (Pub. L. 86-121, 42 U.S.C. 2004a). 
</P>
<P>109. Research projects relating to maternal and child health services and crippled children's services (42 U.S.C. 712). 
</P>
<P>110. Maternal and child health special project grants to State agencies and institutions of higher learning (42 U.S.C. 703(s)). 
</P>
<P>111. Maternity and infant care and family planning services; special project grants to local health agencies and other organizations (42 U.S.C. 708). 
</P>
<P>112. Special project grants to State agencies and institutions of higher learning for crippled children's services (42 U.S.C. 704(2)). 
</P>
<P>113. Special project grants for health of school and preschool children (42 U.S.C. 709) and for dental health of children (42 U.S.C. 710). 
</P>
<P>114. Grants to institutions of higher learning for training personnel for health care and related services for mothers and children (42 U.S.C. 711). 
</P>
<P>115. Grants and contracts for the conduct of research, experiments, or demonstrations relating to the developments, utilization, quality, organization, and financing of services, facilities, and resources of hospitals, long-term care facilities, for other medical facilities (section 304, Public Health Service Act, as amended by Pub. L. 90-174, 42 U.S.C. 242b). 
</P>
<P>116. Health research facilities (Title VII Part A, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 292-292j). 
</P>
<P>117. Teaching facilities for health professions personnel (Title VII, Part B, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 293-293h). 
</P>
<P>118. Project grants and contracts for research, development, training, and studies in the field of electronic product radiation (section 356, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 263d). 
</P>
<P>119. Project grants and contracts for research, studies, demonstrations, training, and education relating to coal mine health (section 501, Federal Coal Mine Health and Safety Act of 1969, Public Law 91-173). 
</P>
<P>120. Surplus real and related personal property disposal (40 U.S.C. 484(k)). 
</P>
<P>121. Supplementary medical insurance benefits for the aged (Title XVIII, Part A, Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1395c-1395i-2). 
</P>
<P>122. Issuance of rent-free permits for vending stands, credit unions, employee associations, etc. (20 U.S.C. 107-107f; 45 CFR Part 20; section 25, 12 U.S.C. 1170). 
</P>
<P>123. Grants for special vocational rehabilitation projects (29 U.S.C. 34(a)(1)). 
</P>
<P>124. Experimental, pilot or demonstration projects to promote the objectives of Title I, X, XIV, XVI, or XIX or Part A of Title IV of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1315). 
</P>
<P>125. Social Security and welfare cooperative research or demonstration projects (42 U.S.C. 1310). 
</P>
<P>126. Child welfare research, training, or demonstration projects (42 U.S.C. 626). 
</P>
<P>127. Training projects (Title VI, Older Americans Act, 42 U.S.C. 3041-3042). 
</P>
<P>128. Grants for expansion of vocational rehabilitation services (29 U.S.C. 34(a)(2) (A)). 
</P>
<P>129. Grants for construction of rehabilitation facilities (29 U.S.C. 41a(a)-(e)) and for initial staffing of rehabilitation facilities (29 U.S.C. 41a(f)). 
</P>
<P>130. Project development grants for rehabilitation facilities (29 U.S.C. 41a(g)(2)). 
</P>
<P>131. Rehabilitation Facility improvement grants (29 U.S.C. 41b(b)). 
</P>
<P>132. Agreement for the establishment and operation of a national center for deaf-blind youths and adults (29 U.S.C. 42a). 
</P>
<P>133. Project grants for services for migratory agricultural workers (29 U.S.C. 42b). 
</P>
<P>134. Grants for initial staffing of community mental retardation facilities (42 U.S.C. 2678-2678d). 
</P>
<P>135. Grants for training welfare personnel and for expansion and development of undergraduate and graduate social work programs (42 U.S.C. 906, 908). 
</P>
<P>136. Research and development projects concerning older Americans (42 U.S.C. 3031-3032). 
</P>
<P>137. Grants to States for training of nursing home administrators (42 U.S.C. 1396g (e)). 
</P>
<P>138. Contracts or jointly financed cooperative arrangements with industry (29 U.S.C. 34(a)(2)(B)). 
</P>
<P>139. Project grants for new careers in rehabilitation (29 U.S.C. 34(a)(2)(C)). 
</P>
<P>140. Children of low-income families (20 U.S.C. 241a-241m). 
</P>
<P>141. Grants for training (29 U.S.C. 37(a) (2)). 
</P>
<P>142. Grants for projects for training services (29 U.S.C. 41b(a)). 
</P>
<P>143. Grants for comprehensive juvenile delinquency planning (42 U.S.C. 3811). 
</P>
<P>144. Grants for project planning in juvenile delinquency (42 U.S.C. 3812). 
</P>
<P>145. Grants for juvenile delinquency rehabilitative services projects (42 U.S.C. 3822, 3842). 
</P>
<P>146. Grants for juvenile delinquency preventive service projects (42 U.S.C. 3861). 
</P>
<P>147. Grants for training projects in juvenile delinquency fields (42 U.S.C. 3861). 
</P>
<P>148. Grants for development of improved techniques and practices in juvenile delinquency services (42 U.S.C. 3871). 
</P>
<P>149. Grants for technical assistance in juvenile delinquency services (42 U.S.C. 3872). 
</P>
<P>150. Grants for State technical assistance to local units in juvenile delinquency services (42 U.S.C. 3873). 
</P>
<P>151. Grants for public service centers projects (42 U.S.C. 2744). 
</P>
<P>152. Grants to public or private non-profit agencies to carry on the Project Headstart Program (42 U.S.C. 2809(a)(1)). 
</P>
<P>153. Project grants for new careers for the handicapped (29 U.S.C. 34(a)(2)(D)). 
</P>
<P>154. Construction, demonstration, and training grants for university-affiliated facilities for persons with developmental disabilities (42 U.S.C. 2661-2666). 
</P>
<P>155. Supplementary medical insurance benefits for the aged (Title XVIII, Part B, Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1395j-1395w-6).
</P>
<HD2>Part 2. Continuing Assistance to State 
</HD2>
<P>1. Grants to States for public library services and construction, interlibrary cooperation and specialized State library services for certain State institutions and the physically handicapped (20 U.S.C. 351-355). 
</P>
<P>2. Grants to States for strengthening instruction in academic subjects (20 U.S.C. 441-444). 
</P>
<P>3. Grants to States for vocational education (20 U.S.C. 1241-1264). 
</P>
<P>4. Arrangements with State education agencies for training under the Manpower Development and Training Act (42 U.S.C. 2601-2602, 2610a). 
</P>
<P>5. Grants to States to assist in the elementary and secondary education of children of low-income families (20 U.S.C. 241a-241m). 
</P>
<P>6. Grants to States to provide for school library resources, textbooks and other instructional materials for pupils and teachers in elementary and secondary schools (20 U.S.C. 821-827). 
</P>
<P>7. Grants to States to strengthen State departments of education (20 U.S.C. 861-870). 
</P>
<P>8. Grants to States for community service programs (20 U.S.C. 1001-1011). 
</P>
<P>9. Grants to States for adult basic education and related research, teacher training and special projects (20 U.S.C. 1201-1211). 
</P>
<P>10. Grants to State educational agencies for supplementary educational centers and services, and guidance, counseling and testing (20 U.S.C. 841-847). 
</P>
<P>11. Grants to States for research and training in vocational education (20 U.S.C. 1281(b)). 
</P>
<P>12. Grants to States for exemplary programs and projects in vocational education (20 U.S.C. 1301-1305). 
</P>
<P>13. Grants to States for residential vocational education schools (20 U.S.C. 1321). 
</P>
<P>14. Grants to States for consumer and homemaking education (20 U.S.C. 1341). 
</P>
<P>15. Grants to States for cooperative vocational educational program (20 U.S.C. 1351-1355). 
</P>
<P>16. Grants to States for vocational workstudy programs (20 U.S.C. 1371-1374). 
</P>
<P>17. Grants to States to attract and qualify teachers to meet critical teaching shortages (20 U.S.C. 1108-1110c). 
</P>
<P>18. Grants to States for education of handicapped children (20 U.S.C. 1411-1414). 
</P>
<P>19. Grants for administration of State plans and for comprehensive planning to determine construction needs of institutions of higher education (20 U.S.C. 715(b)). 
</P>
<P>20. Grants to States for comprehensive health planning (section 314(a), Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 246(a)). 
</P>
<P>21. Grants to States for establishing and maintaining adequate public health services (section 314(d), Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 246(d)). 
</P>
<P>22. Grants, loans, and loan guarantees with interest subsidies for hospital and medical facilities (Title VI, Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 291 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>23. Grants to States for community mental health centers construction (Community Mental Health Centers Act, Part A, 42 U.S.C. 2681-2687). 
</P>
<P>24. Cost of rehabilitation services (Title II, Social Security Act section 222(d); 42 U.S.C. 422(d)). 
</P>
<P>25. Surplus personal property disposal donations for health and educational purposes through State agencies (40 U.S.C. 484(j)). 
</P>
<P>26. Grants for State and community programs on aging (Title III, Older Americans Act, 42 U.S.C. 3021-3025). 
</P>
<P>27. Grants to States for planning, provision of services, and construction and operation of facilities for persons with developmental disabilities (42 U.S.C. 2670-2677c). 
</P>
<P>28. Grants to States for vocational rehabilitation services (29 U.S.C. 32); for innovation of vocational rehabilitation services (29 U.S.C. 33); and for rehabilitation facilities planning (29 U.S.C. 41a(g)(1)). 
</P>
<P>29. Designation of State licensing agency for blind operators of vending stands (20 U.S.C. 107-107f). 
</P>
<P>30. Grants to States for old-age assistance (42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>); aid to families with dependent children (42 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>); child-welfare services (42 U.S.C. 620 <I>et seq.</I>); aid to the blind (42 U.S.C. 1201 <I>et seq.</I>); aid to the permanently and totally disabled (42 U.S.C. 1351 <I>et seq.</I>); aid to the aged, blind, or disabled (42 U.S.C. 1381 <I>et seq.</I>); medical assistance (42 U.S.C. 1396 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>31. Grants to States for maternal and child health and crippled children's services (42 U.S.C. 701-707); for special projects for maternal and infant care (42 U.S.C. 708). 
</P>
<P>32. Grants to States for juvenile delinquency preventive and rehabilitative services (42 U.S.C. 3841).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 17982, July 5, 1973; 40 FR 18173, Apr. 25, 1975, as amended at 70 FR 24319, May 9, 2005; 89 FR 37692, May 6, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="81" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 81—PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE FOR HEARINGS UNDER PART 80 OF THIS TITLE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301 and 45 CFR 80.9(d). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>32 FR 15156, Nov. 2, 1967, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.1   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of procedure in this part supplement §§ 80.9 and 80.10 of this subtitle and govern the practice for hearings, decisions, and administrative review conducted by the Department of Health and Human Services, pursuant to Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (section 602, 78 Stat. 252) and part 80 of this subtitle. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.2   Records to be public.</HEAD>
<P>All pleadings, correspondence, exhibits, transcripts, of testimony, exceptions, briefs, decisions, and other documents filed in the docket in any proceeding may be inspected and copied in the office of the Civil Rights hearing clerk. Inquiries may be made at the Central Information Center, Department of Health and Human Services, 330 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.3   Use of gender and number.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, words importing the singular number may extend and be applied to several persons or things, and vice versa. Words importing the masculine gender may be applied to females or organizations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.4   Suspension of rules.</HEAD>
<P>Upon notice to all parties, the reviewing authority or the presiding officer, with respect to matters pending before them, may modify or waive any rule in this part upon determination that no party will be unduly prejudiced and the ends of justice will thereby be served. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Appearance and Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.11   Appearance.</HEAD>
<P>A party may appear in person or by counsel and participate fully in any proceeding. A State agency or a corporation may appear by any of its officers or by any employee it authorizes to appear on its behalf. Counsel must be members in good standing of the bar of a State, Territory, or possession of the United States or of the District of Columbia or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.12   Authority for representation.</HEAD>
<P>Any individual acting in a representative capacity in any proceeding may be required to show his authority to act in such capacity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.13   Exclusion from hearing for misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>Disrespectful, disorderly, or contumacious language or contemptuous conduct, refusal to comply with directions, or continued use of dilatory tactics by any person at any hearing before a presiding officer shall constitute grounds for immediate exclusion of such person from the hearing by the presiding officer. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Parties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.21   Parties; General Counsel deemed a party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term party shall include an applicant or recipient or other person to whom a notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing has been mailed naming him a respondent. 
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel of the Department of Health and Human Services shall be deemed a party to all proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.22   Amici curiae.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any interested person or organization may file a petition to participate in a proceeding as an amicus curiae. Such petition shall be filed prior to the prehearing conference, or if none is held, before the commencement of the hearing, unless the petitioner shows good cause for filing the petition later. The presiding officer may grant the petition if he finds that the petitioner has a legitimate interest in the proceedings, that such participation will not unduly delay the outcome, and may contribute materially to the proper disposition thereof. An amicus curiae is not a party and may not introduce evidence at a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) An amicus curiae may submit a statement of position to the presiding officer prior to the beginning of a hearing, and shall serve a copy on each party. The amicus curiae may submit a brief on each occasion a decision is to be made or a prior decision is subject to review. His brief shall be filed and served on each party within the time limits applicable to the party whose position he deems himself to support; or if he does not deem himself to support the position of any party, within the longest time limit applicable to any party at that particular stage of the proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(c) When all parties have completed their initial examination of a witness, any amicus curiae may request the presiding officer to propound specific questions to the witness. The presiding officer, in his discretion, may grant any such request if he believes the proposed additional testimony may assist materially in elucidating factual matters at issue between the parties and will not expand the issues. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.23   Complainants not parties.</HEAD>
<P>A person submitting a complaint pursuant to § 80.7(b) of this title is not a party to the proceedings governed by this part, but may petition, after proceedings are initiated, to become an amicus curiae. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Form, Execution, Service and Filing of Documents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.31   Form of documents to be filed.</HEAD>
<P>Documents to be filed under the rules in this part shall be dated, the original signed in ink, shall show the docket description and title of the proceeding, and shall show the title, if any, and address of the signatory. Copies need not be signed but the name of the person signing the original shall be reproduced. Documents shall be legible and shall not be more than 8
<FR>1/2</FR> inches wide and 12 inches long. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.32   Signature of documents.</HEAD>
<P>The signature of a party, authorized officer, employee or attorney constitutes a certificate that he has read the document, that to the best of his knowledge, information, and belief there is good ground to support it, and that it is not interposed for delay. If a document is not signed or is signed with intent to defeat the purpose of this section, it may be stricken as sham and false and the proceeding may proceed as though the document had not been filed. Similar action may be taken if scandalous or indecent matter is inserted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.33   Filing and service.</HEAD>
<P>All notices by a Department official, and all written motions, requests, petitions, memoranda, pleadings, exceptions, briefs, decisions, and correspondence to a Department official from a party, or vice versa, relating to a proceeding after its commencement shall be filed and served on all parties. Parties shall supply the original and two copies of documents submitted for filing. Filings shall be made with the Civil Rights hearing clerk at the address stated in the notice of hearing or notice of opportunity for hearing, during regular business hours. Regular business hours are every Monday through Friday (legal holidays in the District of Columbia excepted) from 9 a.m. to 5:30 p.m., eastern standard or daylight saving time, whichever is effective in the District of Columbia at the time. Originals only on exhibits and transcripts of testimony need be filed. For requirements of service on amici curiae, see § 81.107. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.34   Service—how made.</HEAD>
<P>Service shall be made by personal delivery of one copy to each person to be served or by mailing by first-class mail, properly addressed with postage prepaid. When a party or amicus has appeared by attorney or other representative, service upon such attorney or representative will be deemed service upon the party or amicus. Documents served by mail preferably should be mailed in sufficient time to reach the addressee by the date on which the original is due to be filed, and should be air mailed if the addressee is more than 300 miles distant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.35" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.35   Date of service.</HEAD>
<P>The date of service shall be the day when the matter is deposited in the U.S. mail or is delivered in person, except that the date of service of the initial notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing shall be the date of its delivery, or of its attempted delivery if refused. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.36" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.36   Certificate of service.</HEAD>
<P>The original of every document filed and required to be served upon parties to a proceeding shall be endorsed with a certificate of service signed by the party making service or by his attorney or representative, stating that such service has been made, the date of service, and the manner of service, whether by mail or personal delivery. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Time</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.41   Computation.</HEAD>
<P>In computing any period of time under the rules in this part or in an order issued hereunder, the time begins with the day following the act, event, or default, and includes the last day of the period, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday observed in the District of Columbia, in which event it includes the next following business day. When the period of time prescribed or allowed is less than 7 days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays shall be excluded from the computation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.42   Extension of time or postponement.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for extension of time should be served on all parties and should set forth the reasons for the application. Applications may be granted upon a showing of good cause by the applicant. From the designation of a presiding officer until the issuance of his decision such requests should be addressed to him. Answers to such requests are permitted, if made promptly. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.43" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.43   Reduction of time to file documents.</HEAD>
<P>For good cause, the reviewing authority or the presiding officer, with respect to matters pending before them, may reduce any time limit prescribed by the rules in this part, except as provided by law or in part 80 of this title. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Proceedings Prior to Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.51" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.51   Notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Proceedings are commenced by mailing a notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing to an affected applicant or recipient, pursuant to § 80.9 of this title. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.52" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.52   Answer to notice.</HEAD>
<P>The respondent, applicant or recipient may file an answer to the notice within 20 days after service thereof. Answers shall admit or deny specifically and in detail each allegation of the notice, unless the respondent party is without knowledge, in which case his answer should so state, and the statement will be deemed a denial. Allegations of fact in the notice not denied or controverted by answer shall be deemed admitted. Matters alleged as affirmative defenses shall be separately stated and numbered. Failure of the respondent to file an answer within the 20-day period following service of the notice may be deemed an admission of all matters of fact recited in the notice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.53" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.53   Amendment of notice or answer.</HEAD>
<P>The General Counsel may amend the notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing once as a matter of course before an answer thereto is served, and each respondent may amend his answer once as a matter of course not later than 10 days before the date fixed for hearing but in no event later than 20 days from the date of service of his original answer. Otherwise a notice or answer may be amended only by leave of the presiding officer. A respondent shall file his answer to an amended notice within the time remaining for filing the answer to the original notice or within 10 days after service of the amended notice, whichever period may be the longer, unless the presiding officer otherwise orders. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.54" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.54   Request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Within 20 days after service of a notice of opportunity for hearing which does not fix a date for hearing the respondent, either in his answer or in a separate document, may request a hearing. Failure of the respondent to request a hearing shall be deemed a waiver of the right to a hearing and to constitute his consent to the making of a decision on the basis of such information as is available. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.55" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.55   Consolidation.</HEAD>
<P>The responsible Department official may provide for proceedings in the Department to be joined or consolidated for hearing with proceedings in other Federal departments or agencies, by agreement with such other departments or agencies. All parties to any proceeding consolidated subsequently to service of the notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing shall be promptly served with notice of such consolidation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.56" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.56   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>Motions and petitions shall state the relief sought, the authority relied upon, and the facts alleged. If made before or after the hearing, these matters shall be in writing. If made at the hearing, they may be stated orally; but the presiding officer may require that they be reduced to writing and filed and served on all parties in the same manner as a formal motion. Motions, answers, and replies shall be addressed to the presiding officer, if the case is pending before him. A repetitious motion will not be entertained. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.57" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.57   Responses to motions and petitions.</HEAD>
<P>Within 8 days after a written motion or petition is served, or such other period as the reviewing authority or the presiding officer may fix, any party may file a response thereto. An immediate oral response may be made to an oral motion. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.58" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.58   Disposition of motions and petitions.</HEAD>
<P>The reviewing authority or the presiding officer may not sustain or grant a written motion or petition prior to expiration of the time for filing responses thereto, but may overrule or deny such motion or petition without awaiting response: <I>Provided, however,</I> That prehearing conferences, hearings and decisions need not be delayed pending disposition of motions or petitions. Oral motions and petitions may be ruled on immediately. Motions and petitions submitted to the reviewing authority or the presiding officer, respectively, and not disposed of in separate rulings or in their respective decisions will be deemed denied. Oral arguments shall not be held or written motions or petitions unless the presiding officer in his discretion expressly so orders. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Responsibilities and Duties of Presiding Officer</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.61" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.61   Who presides.</HEAD>
<P>A hearing examiner assigned under 5 U.S.C. 3105 or 3344 (formerly section 11 of the Administrative Procedure Act) shall preside over the taking of evidence in any hearing to which these rules of procedure apply. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.62" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.62   Designation of hearing examiner.</HEAD>
<P>The designation of the hearing examiner as presiding officer shall be in writing, and shall specify whether the examiner is to make an initial decision or to certify the entire record including his recommended findings and proposed decision to the reviewing authority, and may also fix the time and place of hearing. A copy of such order shall be served on all parties. After service of an order designating a hearing examiner to preside, and until such examiner makes his decision, motions and petitions shall be submitted to him. In the case of the death, illness, disqualification or unavailability of the designated hearing examiner, another hearing examiner may be designated to take his place. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.63" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.63   Authority of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer shall have the duty to conduct a fair hearing, to take all necessary action to avoid delay, and to maintain order. He shall have all powers necessary to these ends, including (but not limited to) the power to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Arrange and issue notice of the date, time, and place of hearings, or, upon due notice to the parties, to change the date, time, and place of hearings previously set. 
</P>
<P>(b) Hold conferences to settle, simplify, or fix the issues in a proceeding, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) Require parties and amici curiae to state their position with respect to the various issues in the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(d) Administer oaths and affirmations. 
</P>
<P>(e) Rule on motions, and other procedural items on matters pending before him. 
</P>
<P>(f) Regulate the course of the hearing and conduct of counsel therein. 
</P>
<P>(g) Examine witnesses and direct witnesses to testify. 
</P>
<P>(h) Receive, rule on, exclude or limit evidence. 
</P>
<P>(i) Fix the time for filing motions, petitions, briefs, or other items in matters pending before him. 
</P>
<P>(j) Issue initial or recommended decisions. 
</P>
<P>(k) Take any action authorized by the rules in this part or in conformance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 551-559 (the Administrative Procedure Act). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Hearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.71" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.71   Statement of position and trial briefs.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer may require parties and amici curiae to file written statements of position prior to the beginning of a hearing. The presiding officer may also require the parties to submit trial briefs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.72" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.72   Evidentiary purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing is directed to receiving factual evidence and expert opinion testimony related to the issues in the proceeding. Argument will not be received in evidence; rather it should be presented in statements, memoranda, or briefs, as determined by the presiding officer. Brief opening statements, which shall be limited to statement of the party's position and what he intends to prove, may be made at hearings. 
</P>
<P>(b) Hearings for the reception of evidence will be held only in cases where issues of fact must be resolved in order to determine whether the respondent has failed to comply with one or more applicable requirements of part 80 of this title. In any case where it appears from the respondent's answer to the notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing, from his failure timely to answer, or from his admissions or stipulations in the record, that there are no matters of material fact in dispute, the reviewing authority or presiding officer may enter an order so finding, vacating the hearing date if one has been set, and fixing the time for filing briefs under § 81.101. Thereafter the proceedings shall go to conclusion in accordance with subpart J of this part. The presiding officer may allow an appeal from such order in accordance with § 81.86. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.73" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.73   Testimony.</HEAD>
<P>Testimony shall be given orally under oath or affirmation by witnesses at the hearing; but the presiding officer, in his discretion, may require or permit that the direct testimony of any witness be prepared in writing and served on all parties in advance of the hearing. Such testimony may be adopted by the witness at the hearing, and filed as part of the record thereof. Unless authorized by the presiding officer, witnesses will not be permitted to read prepared testimony into the record. Except as provided in §§ 81.75 and 81.76, witnesses shall be available at the hearing for cross-examination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.74" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.74   Exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>Proposed exhibits shall be exchanged at the prehearing conference, or otherwise prior to the hearing if the presiding officer so requires. Proposed exhibits not so exchanged may be denied admission as evidence. The authenticity of all proposed exhibits exchanged prior to hearing will be deemed admitted unless written objection thereto is filed prior to the hearing or unless good cause is shown at the hearing for failure to file such written objection. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.75" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.75   Affidavits.</HEAD>
<P>An affidavit is; not inadmissible as such. Unless the presiding officer fixes other time periods affidavits shall be filed and served on the parties not later than 15 days prior to the hearing; and not less than 7 days prior to hearing a party may file and serve written objection to any affidavit on the ground that he believes it necessary to test the truth of assertions therein at hearing. In such event the assertions objected to will not be received in evidence unless the affiant is made available for cross-examination, or the presiding officer determines that cross-examination is not necessary for the full and true disclosure of facts referred to in such assertions. Notwithstanding any objection, however, affidavits may be considered in the case of any respondent who waives a hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.76" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.76   Depositions.</HEAD>
<P>Upon such terms as may be just, for the convenience of the parties or of the Department, the presiding officer may authorize or direct the testimony of any witness to be taken by deposition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.77" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.77   Admissions as to facts and documents.</HEAD>
<P>Not later than 15 days prior to the scheduled date of the hearing except for good cause shown, or prior to such earlier date as the presiding officer may order, any party may serve upon an opposing party a written request for the admission of the genuineness and authenticity of any relevant documents described in and exhibited with the request, or for the admission of the truth of any relevant matters of fact stated in the request. Each of the matters of which an admission is requested shall be deemed admitted, unless within a period designated in the request (not less than 10 days after service thereof, or within such further time as the presiding officer or the reviewing authority if no presiding officer has yet been designated may allow upon motion and notice) the party to whom the request is directed serves upon the requesting party a sworn statement either denying specifically the matters of which an admission is requested or setting forth in detail the reasons why he cannot truthfully either admit or deny such matters. Copies of requests for admission and answers thereto shall be served on all parties. Any admission made by a party to such request is only for the purposes of the pending proceeding, or any proceeding or action instituted for the enforcement of any order entered therein, and shall not constitute and admission by him for any other purpose or be used against him in any other proceeding or action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.78" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.78   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>Irrelevant, immaterial, unreliable, and unduly repetitious evidence will be excluded. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.79" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.79   Cross-examination.</HEAD>
<P>A witness may be cross-examined on any matter material to the proceeding without regard to the scope of his direct examination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.80" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.80   Unsponsored written material.</HEAD>
<P>Letters expressing views or urging action and other unsponsored written material regarding matters in issue in a hearing will be placed in the correspondence section of the docket of the proceeding. These data are not deemed part of the evidence or record in the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.81" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.81   Objections.</HEAD>
<P>Objections to evidence shall be timely and briefly state the ground relied upon. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.82" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.82   Exceptions to rulings of presiding officer unnecessary.</HEAD>
<P>Exceptions to rulings of the presiding officer are unnecessary. It is sufficient that a party, at the time the ruling of the presiding officer is sought, makes known the action which he desires the presiding officer to take, or his objection to an action taken, and his grounds therefor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.83" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.83   Official notice.</HEAD>
<P>Where official notice is taken or is to be taken of a material fact not appearing in the evidence of record, any party, on timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to show the contrary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.84" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.84   Public document items.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever there is offered (in whole or in part) a public document, such as an official report, decision, opinion, or published scientific or economic statistical data issued by any of the executive departments (or their subdivisions), legislative agencies or committees, or administrative agencies of the Federal Government (including Government-owned corporations), or a similar document issued by a State or its agencies, and such document (or part thereof) has been shown by the offeror to be reasonably available to the public, such document need not be produced or marked for identification, but may be offered for official notice, as a public document item by specifying the document or relevant part thereof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.85" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.85   Offer of proof.</HEAD>
<P>An offer of proof made in connection with an objection taken to any ruling of the presiding officer rejecting or excluding proffered oral testimony shall consist of a statement of the substance of the evidence which counsel contends would be adduced by such testimony; and, if the excluded evidence consists of evidence in documentary or written form or of reference to documents or records, a copy of such evidence shall be marked for identification and shall accompany the record as the offer of proof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.86" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.8.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.86   Appeals from ruling of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>Rulings of the presiding officer may not be appealed to the reviewing authority prior to his consideration of the entire proceeding except with the consent of the presiding officer and where he certifies on the record or in writing that the allowance of an interlocutory appeal is clearly necessary to prevent exceptional delay, expense, or prejudice to any party, or substantial detriment to the public interest. If an appeal is allowed, any party may file a brief with the reviewing authority within such period as the presiding officer directs. No oral argument will be heard unless the reviewing authority directs otherwise. At any time prior to submission of the proceeding to it for decisions, the reviewing authority may direct the presiding officer to certify any question or the entire record to it for decision. Where the entire record is so certified, the presiding officer shall recommend a decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—The Record</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.91" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.91   Official transcript.</HEAD>
<P>The Department will designate the official reporter for all hearings. The official transcripts of testimony taken, together with any exhibits, briefs, or memoranda of law filed therewith shall be filed with the Department. Transcripts of testimony in hearings may be obtained from the official reporter by the parties and the public at rates not to exceed the maximum rates fixed by the contract between the Department and the reporter. Upon notice to all parties, the presiding officer may authorize corrections to the transcript which involve matters of substance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.92" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.92   Record for decision.</HEAD>
<P>The transcript of testimony, exhibits, and all papers and requests filed in the proceedings, except the correspondence section of the docket, including rulings and any recommended or initial decision shall constitute the exclusive record for decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Posthearing Procedures, Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.101" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.101   Posthearing briefs: Proposed findings and conclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer shall fix the time for filing posthearing briefs, which may contain proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law, and, if permitted, reply briefs. 
</P>
<P>(b) Briefs should include a summary of the evidence relied upon together with references to exhibit numbers and pages of the transcript, with citations of the authorities relied upon. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.102" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.102   Decisions following hearing.</HEAD>
<P>When the time for submission of posthearing briefs has expired, the presiding officer shall certify the entire record, including his recommended findings and proposed decision, to the responsible Department official; or if so authorized he shall make an initial decision. A copy of the recommended findings and proposed decision, or of the initial decision, shall be served upon all parties, and amici, if any. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.103" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.103   Exceptions to initial or recommended decisions.</HEAD>
<P>Within 20 days after the mailing of an initial or recommended decision, any party may file exceptions to the decision, stating reasons therefor, with the reviewing authority. Any other party may file a response thereto within 30 days after the mailing of the decision. Upon the filing of such exceptions, the reviewing authority shall review the decision and issue its own decision thereon. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.104" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.104   Final decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner who makes an initial decision, if no exceptions thereto are filed within the 20-day period specified in § 81.103, such decision shall become the final decision of the Department, and shall constitute “final agency action” within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704 (formerly section 10(c) of the Administrative Procedure Act), subject to the provisions of § 81.106. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner who makes a recommended decision, or upon the filing of exceptions to a hearing examiner's initial decision, the reviewing authority shall review the recommended or initial decision and shall issue its own decision thereon, which shall become the final decision of the Department, and shall constitute “final agency action” within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704 (formerly section 10(c) of the Administrative Procedure Act), subject to the provisions of § 81.106. 
</P>
<P>(c) All final decisions shall be promptly served on all parties, and amici, if any. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.105" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.105   Oral argument to the reviewing authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any party desires to argue a case orally on exceptions or replies to exceptions to an initial or recommended decision, he shall make such request in writing. The reviewing authority may grant or deny such requests in its discretion. If granted, it will serve notice of oral argument on all parties. The notice will set forth the order of presentation, the amount of time allotted, and the time and place for argument. The names of persons who will argue should be filed with the Department hearing clerk not later than 7 days before the date set for oral argument. 
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of oral argument is to emphasize and clarify the written argument in the briefs. Reading at length from the brief or other texts is not favored. Participants should confine their arguments to points of controlling importance and to points upon which exceptions have been filed. Consolidations of appearances at oral argument by parties taking the same side will permit the parties' interests to be presented more effectively in the time allotted. 
</P>
<P>(c) Pamphlets, charts, and other written material may be presented at oral argument only if such material is limited to facts already in the record and is served on all parties and filed with the Department hearing clerk at least 7 days before the argument. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.106" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.106   Review by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>Within 20 days after an initial decision becomes a final decision pursuant to § 81.104(a) or within 20 days of the mailing of a final decision referred to in § 81.104(b), as the case may be, a party may request the Secretary to review the final decision. The Secretary may grant or deny such request, in whole or in part, or serve notice of his intent to review the decision in whole or in part upon his own motion. If the Secretary grants the requested review, or if he serves notice of intent to review upon his own motion, each party to the decision shall have 20 days following notice of the Secretary's proposed action within which to file exceptions to the decision and supporting briefs and memoranda, or briefs and memoranda in support of the decision. Failure of a party to request review under this paragraph shall not be deemed a failure to exhaust administrative remedies for the purpose of obtaining judicial review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.107" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.107   Service on amici curiae.</HEAD>
<P>All briefs, exceptions, memoranda, requests, and decisions referred to in this Subpart J shall be served upon amici curiae at the same times and in the same manner required for service on parties. Any written statements of position and trial briefs required of parties under § 81.71 shall be served on amici. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Judicial Standards of Practice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.111" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.111   Conduct.</HEAD>
<P>Parties and their representatives are expected to conduct themselves with honor and dignity and observe judicial standards of practice and ethics in all proceedings. They should not indulge in offensive personalities, unseemly wrangling, or intemperate accusations or characterizations. A representative of any party whether or not a lawyer shall observe the traditional responsibilities of lawyers as officers of the court and use his best efforts to restrain his client from improprieties in connection with a proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.112" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.112   Improper conduct.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to any proceeding it is improper for any interested person to attempt to sway the judgment of the reviewing authority by undertaking to bring pressure or influence to bear upon any officer having a responsibility for a decision in the proceeding, or his decisional staff. It is improper that such interested persons or any members of the Department's staff or the presiding officer give statements to communications media, by paid advertisement or otherwise, designed to influence the judgment of any officer having a responsibility for a decision in the proceeding, or his decisional staff. It is improper for any person to solicit communications to any such officer, or his decisional staff, other than proper communications by parties or amici curiae. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.113" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.113   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>Only persons employed by or assigned to work with the reviewing authority who perform no investigative or prosecuting function in connection with a proceeding shall communicate ex parte with the reviewing authority, or the presiding officer, or any employee or person involved in the decisional process in such proceedings with respect to the merits of that or a factually related proceeding. The reviewing authority, the presiding officer, or any employee or person involved in the decisional process of a proceeding shall communicate ex parte with respect to the merits of that or a factually related proceeding only with persons employed by or assigned to work with them and who perform no investigative or prosecuting function in connection with the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.114" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.11.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.114   Expeditious treatment.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for expeditious treatment of matters pending before the responsible Department official or the presiding officer are deemed communications on the merits, and are improper except when forwarded from parties to a proceeding and served upon all other parties thereto. Such communications should be in the form of a motion. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.115" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.11.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.115   Matters not prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>A request for information which merely inquires about the status of a proceeding without discussing issues or expressing points of view is not deemed an ex parte communication. Such requests should be directed to the Civil Rights hearing clerk. Communications with respect to minor procedural matters or inquiries or emergency requests for extensions of time are not deemed ex parte communications prohibited by § 81.113. Where feasible, however, such communications should be by letter with copies to all parties. Ex parte communications between a respondent and the responsible Department official or the Secretary with respect to securing such respondent's voluntary compliance with any requirement of part 80 of this title are not prohibited. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.116" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.11.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.116   Filing of ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>A prohibited communication in writing received by the Secretary, the reviewing authority, or by the presiding officer, shall be made public by placing it in the correspondence file of the docket in the case and will not be considered as part of the record for decision. If the prohibited communication is received orally a memorandum setting forth its substance shall be made and filed in the correspondence section of the docket in the case. A person referred to in such memorandum may file a comment for inclusion in the docket if he considers the memorandum to be incorrect. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Posttermination Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.121" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.121   Posttermination proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant or recipient adversely affected by the order terminating, discontinuing, or refusing Federal financial assistance in consequence of proceedings pursuant to this title may request the responsible Department official for an order authorizing payment, or permitting resumption, of Federal financial assistance. Such request shall be in writing and shall affirmatively show that since entry of the order, it has brought its program or activity into compliance with the requirements of the Act, and with the Regulation thereunder, and shall set forth specifically, and in detail, the steps which it has taken to achieve such compliance. If the responsible Department official denies such request the applicant or recipient shall be given an expeditious hearing if it so requests in writing and specifies why it believes the responsible Department official to have been in error. The request for such a hearing shall be addressed to the responsible Department official and shall be made within 30 days after the applicant or recipient is informed that the responsible Department official has refused to authorize payment or permit resumption of Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the event that a hearing shall be requested pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the hearing procedures established by this part shall be applicable to the proceedings, except as otherwise provided in this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.131" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.37.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.131   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions contained in § 80.13 of this subtitle apply to this part, unless the context otherwise requires, and the term <I>reviewing authority</I> as used herein includes the Secretary of Health and Human Services, with respect to action by that official under § 81.106. 
</P>
<P>Transition provisions: (a) The amendments herein shall become effective upon publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(b) These rules shall apply to any proceeding or part thereof to which part 80 of this title as amended effective October 19, 1967 (published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for October 19, 1967), and as the same may be hereafter amended, applies. In the case of any proceeding or part thereof governed by the provisions of part 80 as that part existed prior to such amendment, and rules in this part 81 shall apply as if these amendments were not in effect. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="83" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 83—REGULATION FOR THE ADMINISTRATION AND ENFORCEMENT OF SECTIONS 799A AND 845 OF THE PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE ACT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 215(b), Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 216(b)). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 28573, July 7, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Purposes; Definitions; Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.1   Purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purposes of this part are (1) to effectuate the provisions of sections 799A and 845 of the Public Health Service Act, which forbid the extension of Federal support under title VII or VIII of that Act to any entity of the types described in those sections unless that entity submits to the Secretary of Health and Human Services an assurance satisfactory to the Secretary that it will not discriminate on the basis of sex in the admission of individuals to its training programs, and (2) to implement the policy of the Secretary that no Federal support will be extended under those titles to any other entity unless that entity submits to the Secretary an assurance satisfactory to the Secretary that it will not discriminate on the basis of sex in the admission of individuals to its training programs. 
</P>
<P>(b) The objective of this part is to abolish use of sex as a criterion in the admission of individuals to all training programs operated by an entity which receives support under title VII or VIII of the Act, and thereby to foster maximum use of all available human resources in meeting the Nation's needs for qualified health personnel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part the term— 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Public Health Service Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means a person appointed by the Reviewing Authority to preside over a hearing held under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assurance commitment clause</I> means a clause in an invitation for a contract offer extended by the Federal Government under title VII or VIII of the Act which, when executed by an entity as part of such offer, becomes, upon acceptance of such offer by the Federal Government, a contractual obligation of such entity to comply with its assurance submitted to the Director under this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Director</I> means the Director of the Office for Civil Rights of the Department. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Entity</I> means (1) a school of medicine, school of dentistry, school of osteopathy, school of pharmacy, school of optometry, school of podiatry, school of veterinary medicine, or school of public health, as defined by section 724 of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(2) A school of nursing, as defined by section 843 of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(3) A school or college of a training center for an allied health profession, as defined by section 795 of the Act, or of another institution of undergraduate education which school or college can provide a training program; 
</P>
<P>(4) An affiliated hospital, as defined by section 724 or 795 of the Act; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other institution, organization, consortium, or agency which is eligible to receive Federal support. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Federal support</I> means assistance extended after November 18, 1971, under title VII or VIII of the Act to an entity by means of a grant to, a contract with, or a loan guarantee or interest subsidy payment made on behalf of, such entity. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Federally supported entity</I> means an entity which receives Federal support. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reviewing authority</I> means that component of the Department to which the Secretary delegates authority to review the decision of an administrative law judge in a proceeding arising under this part. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Training program</I> means a program of training described by section 724(4) of the Act, a program of education described by, or specified by regulations pursuant to, section 795(1) of the Act, a program of education described by section 843(c), 843(d), or 843(e) of the Act, and a program leading to any license or certification requisite to the practice of a health profession for which a degree specified in any such section is granted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.3   Remedial and affirmative actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedial action.</I> If the Director finds that an entity has discriminated against persons on the basis of sex in any of its training programs, such entity shall take such remedial action as the Director deems necessary to overcome the effects of such discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affirmative action.</I> In the absence of a finding of discrimination on the basis of sex in a training program, an entity may take affirmative action to overcome the effects of conditions which resulted in limited participation therein by persons of a particular sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.4   Coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an entity receives Federal support for any of its training programs, all of its training programs thereby become subject to this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The obligation imposed by this part on a federally supported entity not to discriminate on the basis of sex in the admission of individuals to a training program includes not only the obligation not to discriminate on such basis in the selection of individuals for such program, but also the obligation not to discriminate on such basis against individuals after their selection for such program. 
</P>
<P>(c) The obligation imposed by this part on a federally supported entity not to discriminate on the basis of sex against an individual who is an applicant for, or is enrolled in, a training program is applicable to the same extent to the actions of such entity with respect to an applicant for, or a student enrolled in, an undergraduate program of education of such entity if individuals enrolled in such program must complete all or a part of such programs to be eligible for admission to an undergraduate training program of such entity. 
</P>
<P>(d) An entity shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in violation of this part for as long as such entity receives or benefits from Federal support. For purposes of the preceding sentence, an entity shall be deemed to continue to receive or benefit from Federal support for as long as it retains ownership, possession, or use of either real or personal property and which was acquired in whole or in part with Federal support. If an entity receives value for property which was acquired in whole or in part with Federal support and such value is applied toward the acquisition of other property, such entity shall be deemed to continue to receive or benefit from such support for as long as such entity retains ownership, use, or possession of such other property. 
</P>
<P>(e) An entity shall not transfer property which was acquired, constructed, altered, repaired, expanded, or renovated in whole or in part with Federal support unless the agency, organization, or individual to whom such property is to be transferred has submitted to the Director, and he or she has found satisfactory, an assurance of compliance with this part. The preceding sentence shall not apply with respect to any real or personal property for which payments have been recaptured by the United States under title VII or VIII of the Act, with respect to any other property for which the transferring entity has refunded to the Federal Government the Federal share of the fair market value of such property, or with respect to any personal property which has only scrap value to both the entity and the agency, organization or individual to which the property is to be transferred. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.5   Effect of title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972.</HEAD>
<P>The obligations imposed by this part are independent of obligations imposed by or pursuant to title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 83.6-83.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 83.6-83.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Discrimination in Admissions Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.10   General obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility for support.</I> No entity will be provided Federal support unless such entity has furnished the Director assurances satisfactory to him or her that it will not discriminate on the basis of sex, in violation of this part, in the admission of individuals to each of its training programs. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eliminating the effects of discrimination.</I> An assurance of compliance with this part will not be satisfactory to the Director if the entity submitting such assurance fails to take whatever remedial action in accordance with § 83.3(a) that is necessary for such entity to eliminate the effects of any discrimination on the basis of sex in the admission of individuals to its training programs that such entity practiced prior to the submission to the Director of such assurance, or practices at the time of or subsequent to such submission. The Director may require such entity, as a condition to determining that its assurance is, or remains, satisfactory, to take specific actions, or to submit to him or her specific information, bearing upon compliance with this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.11   Discriminatory acts prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any academic, extracurricular, research, occupational training, or other training program or activity operated by an entity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discrimination in selection.</I> In determining whether an individual satisfies any enrollment, eligibility, or other condition for selection for a training program, a federally supported entity shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) On the basis of sex, given preference to one individual over another by ranking applicants on such basis, or otherwise give such preference; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Apply numerical limitations upon the number or proportion of persons of either sex who may be admitted; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Otherwise treat one individual differently from another on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Testing.</I> A federally supported entity shall not administer or operate any test or use any criterion for admission which has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless the use of such test or criterion is shown validly to predict success in the training program or activity in question and alternative tests or criteria which do not have such a disproportionately adverse effect are shown to be unavailable. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibitions relating to marital or parental status.</I> In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, in providing financial aid or any other benefit, an entity to which this subpart applies: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall not apply any rule concerning the actual or potential parental, family, or marital status of a student or applicant which treats persons differently on the basis of sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not discriminate against or exclude any person on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy or recovery therefrom, or establish or follow any rule or practice which so discriminates or excludes; 
</P>
<P>(3) Shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy and any temporary disabilities related to or resulting from pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy or recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability or physical condition; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Shall not make pre-admission inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for admission, including whether such applicant is “Miss,” or “Mrs.” A recipient may make pre-admission inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for admission, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preference to students from other institutions in admission.</I> An entity shall not give preference to applicants for admission, on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or other school or entity which admits as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preference has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Discrimination in the provision of benefits and services</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part in providing financial aid or any other benefit, or in providing any service, to an applicant for a training program or to a student enrolled in such program, no federally supported entity shall on the basis of sex: 
</P>
<P>(i) Treat one individual differently from another in determining whether such individual satisfies any requirement or condition for the provision of such benefit of service; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide a different benefit or service or provide a benefit or a service in a different manner; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Deny an individual any such benefit or service; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Subject an individual to separate treatment or rules of behavior; 
</P>
<P>(v) Discriminate against any individual by assisting an agency, organization, or individual in providing, in a manner which discriminates on the basis of sex, a benefit or service to applicants for or students enrolled in a training program; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit any individual in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial aid established by certain legal instruments.</I> (i) A recipient may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other forms of financial assistance established pursuant to domestic or foreign wills, trusts, bequests, or similar legal instruments or by acts of a foreign government which requires that awards be made to members of a particular sex specified therein: <I>Provided,</I> That the overall effect of the award of such sex-restricted scholarships, fellowships, and other forms of financial assistance does not discriminate on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(ii) To ensure nondiscriminatory awards of assistance as required in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, recipients shall develop and use procedures under which: 
</P>
<P>(A) Students are selected for award of financial assistance on the basis of non-discriminatory criteria and not on the basis of availability of funds restricted to members of a particular sex; 
</P>
<P>(B) An appropriate sex-restricted scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance is allocated to each student selected under paragraph (f)(2)(ii) (A) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(C) No student is denied the award for which he or she was selected under paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section because of the absence of a scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance designated for a member of that student's sex. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Housing.</I> (1) An entity shall not, on the basis of sex, apply different rules or regulations, impose different fees or requirements, or offer different services or benefits related to housing, except as provided in this subsection (including housing provided only to married students). 
</P>
<P>(2) An entity may provide separate housing on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(3) Housing provided by an entity to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, shall be as a whole: (i) Proportionate in quantity to the number of students of that sex applying for such housing; and (ii) comparable in quality and cost to the student. 
</P>
<P>(4) An entity shall not on the basis of sex, administer different policies or practices concerning occupancy by its students of housing other than that provided by such recipient. 
</P>
<P>(5) An entity which, through solicitation, listing, approval of housing, or otherwise, assists any agency, organization, or person in making housing available to any of its students, shall take reasonable action to ensure that such housing is provided to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, is as a whole: (i) Proportionate in quantity and (ii) comparable in quality and cost to the student. An entity may render such assistance to any agency, organization, or person which provides all or part of such housing to students only of one sex. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Inter-institutional programs.</I> If a federally supported entity aids participation, by any applicant for or student enrolled in any of its training programs, in any program or activity of another organization or agency, such entity shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Develop and implement a procedure to assure itself that such organization or agency takes no action with respect to such applicants or students which this part would prohibit such entity from taking; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Not aid such participation if such organization or agency takes such action. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Discrimination in employment prohibited.</I> A federally supported entity shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in employment practices relating to its professional and other staff who work directly with applicants for or students enrolled in any of its training programs. The provisions of this subpart apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Recruitment, advertising, and the process of application for employment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, consideration for and award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, right of return from layoff, and rehiring; 
</P>
<P>(3) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation, and changes in compensation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Job assignments, classifications and structure, including position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists; 
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of any collective bargaining agreement; 
</P>
<P>(6) Granting and return from leaves of absence, pregnancy leave, leave for persons of either sex to care for children or dependents, or any other leave; 
</P>
<P>(7) Fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether or not administered by the recipient; 
</P>
<P>(8) Selection and financial support for training, including apprenticeship, professional meetings, conferences, and other related activities, selection for tuition assistance, selection for sabbaticals and leaves of absence to pursue training; 
</P>
<P>(9) Employer-sponsored activities, including social or recreational programs; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.12   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Comparable recruitment.</I> A federally supported entity shall, with respect to each of its training programs, make comparable efforts to recruit members of each sex in the geographic area from which such entity attracts its students. A federally supported entity shall not recruit for any of its training programs exclusively or primarily at organizations or agencies which admit as members or students, or which provide a service for, only members of one sex unless such entity can demonstrate that such action is part of a recruitment program which does not have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in selection for a training program. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment practices.</I> A federally supported entity shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Prominently include a statement of its policy of nondiscrimination on the basis of sex in each announcement, bulletin, catalogue, or application form which describes the training program of such entity or is used in connection with the recruitment of employees who will work directly with applicants for or students enrolled in a training program; 
</P>
<P>(2) Distribute without discrimination on the basis of sex any announcements, bulletins, catalogues, or other materials used in connection with the recruitment of students for a training program or employees who will work directly with applicants for such program or such students; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Apprise each of its recruitment representatives of its policy of nondiscrimination on the basis of sex, and require such representatives to adhere to such policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.13   State law and licensure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The obligation of an entity to comply with this part is not obviated or alleviated by any State or local law which would render an applicant for or student enrolled in a training program ineligible on the basis of sex for any license or certificate requisite to the practice of the health profession for which such applicant seeks, or student pursues, training. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.14   Development and dissemination of nondiscrimination policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A federally supported entity shall develop a written policy statement of nondiscrimination on the basis of sex, in accordance with this part, and shall implement specific and continuing steps to publicize such statement to applicants for admission or employment, students, employees, and sources of referral of applicants for admission or employment. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each federally supported entity shall prominently include a statement of the policy described in paragraph (a) of this section in each announcement, bulletin, catalogue, and application form which it makes available to any person of a type described in paragraph (a) of this section, or which is otherwise used in connection with the recruitment of students or employees who work directly with students and applicants for admission. 
</P>
<P>(c) A federally supported entity shall not use or distribute a publication of the type described in this section which suggests, by text or illustration, that such recipient treats applicants, students, or employees differently on the basis of sex except as such treatment is permitted by this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.15   Designation by entity of responsible employee and adoption of grievance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of responsible employee.</I> A federally supported entity shall designate at least one employee to coordinate its efforts to comply with and carry out its responsibilities under this part, including any investigation of any complaint communicated to such entity alleging its noncompliance with this part or alleging any action which would be prohibited by this part. The entity shall notify all of its students and employees who work directly with students and applicants for admission of the name, office address and telephone number of the employee or employees appointed pursuant to this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaint procedure of entity.</I> A federally supported entity shall adopt and publish grievance procedures providing for prompt and equitable resolution of student and employee complaints alleging any action which would be prohibited by this part. Such procedures shall be in writing and available to all present and prospective students and employees. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 83.16-83.19" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 83.16-83.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures [Interim]</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 83.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.38.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 83.20   Interim procedures.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of implementing this part during the period between its effective date and the final issuance by the Department of a consolidated procedural regulation applicable to sections 704 and 845 of the Act and other civil rights authorities administered by the Department, the procedural provisions applicable to title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 are hereby adopted and incorporated herein by reference. These procedures may be found at 45 CFR 80.6 through 80.11 and 45 CFR part 81. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="84" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 84—

NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF DISABILITY IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE

 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Subpart G also issued under 21 U.S.C. 1174; 42 U.S.C. 4581.</P></EXTRACT>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.1   Purpose and broad coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, which prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Broad coverage.</I> The definition of “disability” in this part shall be construed broadly in favor of expansive coverage to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of section 504. The primary object of attention in cases brought under section 504 should be whether entities receiving Federal financial assistance have complied with their obligations and whether discrimination has occurred, not whether the individual meets the definition of “disability.” The question of whether an individual meets the definition of “disability” under this part should not demand extensive analysis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40179, May 9, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.2   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to each recipient of Federal financial assistance from the Department and to the recipient's programs or activities that involve individuals with disabilities in the United States. This part does not apply to the recipient's programs or activities outside the United States that do not involve individuals with disabilities in the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of this part do not apply to the ultimate beneficiaries of any program or activity operated by a recipient of Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) Any provision of this part held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this part and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to other persons not similarly situated or to other dissimilar circumstances.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40180, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.3   Relationship to other laws.</HEAD>
<P>This part does not invalidate or limit the remedies, rights, and procedures of any other Federal laws, or State or local laws (including State common law) that provide greater or equal protection for the rights of individuals with disabilities, or individuals associated with them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40180, May 9, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.4   Disability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>Disability. Disability</I> means, with respect to an individual:
</P>
<P>(i) A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of such individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) A record of such an impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Being regarded as having such an impairment as described in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules of construction.</I> (i) The definition of “disability” shall be construed broadly in favor of expansive coverage, to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of section 504.
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual may establish coverage under any one or more of the three prongs of the definition of “disability” in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the “actual disability” prong in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the “record of” prong in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, or the “regarded as” prong in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where an individual is not challenging a recipient's failure to provide reasonable modifications, it is generally unnecessary to proceed under the “actual disability” (paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section) or “record of” (paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section) prongs, which require a showing of an impairment that substantially limits a major life activity or a record of such an impairment. In these cases, the evaluation of coverage can be made solely under the “regarded as” (this paragraph (a)(1)(iii)) prong of the definition of disability, which does not require a showing of an impairment that substantially limits a major life activity or a record of such an impairment. An individual may choose, however, to proceed under the “actual disability” or “record of” prong regardless of whether the individual is challenging a recipient's failure to provide reasonable modifications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I>—(1)(i) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> is defined as any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more body systems, such as: neurological, musculoskeletal, special sense organs, respiratory (including speech organs), cardiovascular, reproductive, digestive, genitourinary, immune, circulatory, hemic, lymphatic, skin, and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder such as intellectual disability, organic brain syndrome, mental health condition, and specific learning disability.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, contagious and noncontagious diseases and conditions such as the following: orthopedic, visual, speech and hearing impairments, and cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, intellectual disability, mental health condition, dyslexia and other specific learning disabilities, Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, Human Immunodeficiency Virus infection (whether symptomatic or asymptomatic), tuberculosis, substance use disorder, alcohol use disorder, and long COVID.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> does not include homosexuality or bisexuality.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Major life activities</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Major life activities include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, sitting, reaching, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, writing, communicating, interacting with others, and working; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation of a major bodily function, such as the functions of the immune system, special sense organs and skin, normal cell growth, and digestive, genitourinary, bowel, bladder, neurological, brain, respiratory, circulatory, cardiovascular, endocrine, hemic, lymphatic, musculoskeletal, and reproductive systems. The operation of a major bodily function includes the operation of an individual organ within a body system.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules of construction.</I> (i) In determining whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity, the term major shall not be interpreted strictly to create a demanding standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether an activity is a major life activity is not determined by reference to whether it is of central importance to daily life.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Substantially limits</I>—(1) <I>Rules of construction.</I> The following rules of construction apply when determining whether an impairment substantially limits an individual in a major life activity.
</P>
<P>(i) The term “substantially limits” shall be construed broadly in favor of expansive coverage, to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of section 504. “Substantially limits” is not meant to be a demanding standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) The primary object of attention in cases brought under section 504 should be whether recipients have complied with their obligations and whether discrimination has occurred, not the extent to which an individual's impairment substantially limits a major life activity. Accordingly, the threshold issue of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity should not demand extensive analysis.
</P>
<P>(iii) An impairment that substantially limits one major life activity does not need to limit other major life activities to be considered a substantially limiting impairment.
</P>
<P>(iv) An impairment that is episodic or in remission is a disability if it would substantially limit a major life activity when active.
</P>
<P>(v) An impairment is a disability within the meaning of this part if it substantially limits the ability of an individual to perform a major life activity as compared to most people in the general population. An impairment does not need to prevent, or significantly or severely restrict, the individual from performing a major life activity to be considered substantially limiting. Nonetheless, not every impairment will constitute a disability within the meaning of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) The determination of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity requires an individualized assessment. However, in making this assessment, the term “substantially limits” shall be interpreted and applied to require a degree of functional limitation that is lower than the standard for substantially limits applied prior to the ADA Amendments Act of 2008 (ADAAA).
</P>
<P>(vii) The comparison of an individual's performance of a major life activity to the performance of the same major life activity by most people in the general population usually will not require scientific, medical, or statistical evidence. Nothing in this paragraph (d)(1) is intended, however, to prohibit or limit the presentation of scientific, medical, or statistical evidence in making such a comparison where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(viii) The determination of whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity shall be made without regard to the ameliorative effects of mitigating measures. However, the ameliorative effects of ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses shall be considered in determining whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity. Ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses are lenses that are intended to fully correct visual acuity or to eliminate refractive error.
</P>
<P>(ix) The six-month “transitory” part of the “transitory and minor” exception in paragraph (f)(2) of this section does not apply to the “actual disability” (paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section) or “record of” (paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section) prongs of the definition of “disability.” The effects of an impairment lasting or expected to last less than six months can be substantially limiting within the meaning of this section for establishing an actual disability or a record of a disability.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Predictable assessments.</I> (i) The principles set forth in the rules of construction in this section are intended to provide for generous coverage and application of section 504's prohibition on discrimination through a framework that is predictable, consistent, and workable for all individuals and entities with rights and responsibilities under section 504.
</P>
<P>(ii) Applying the principles in this section, the individualized assessment of some types of impairments as set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section will, in virtually all cases, result in a determination of coverage under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section (the “actual disability” prong) or paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section (the “record of” prong). Given their inherent nature, these types of impairments will, as a factual matter, virtually always be found to impose a substantial limitation on a major life activity. Therefore, with respect to these types of impairments, the necessary individualized assessment should be particularly simple and straightforward.
</P>
<P>(iii) For example, applying the principles of this section it should easily be concluded that the types of impairments set forth in paragraphs (d)(2)(iii)(A) through (K) of this section will, at a minimum, substantially limit the major life activities indicated. The types of impairments described in this paragraph (d)(2) may substantially limit additional major life activities (including major bodily functions) not explicitly listed in paragraphs (d)(2)(iii)(A) through (K).
</P>
<P>(A) Deafness substantially limits hearing;
</P>
<P>(B) Blindness substantially limits seeing;
</P>
<P>(C) Intellectual disability substantially limits brain function;
</P>
<P>(D) Partially or completely missing limbs or mobility impairments requiring the use of a wheelchair substantially limit musculoskeletal function;
</P>
<P>(E) Autism Spectrum Disorder substantially limits brain function;
</P>
<P>(F) Cancer substantially limits normal cell growth;
</P>
<P>(G) Cerebral palsy substantially limits brain function;
</P>
<P>(H) Diabetes substantially limits endocrine function;
</P>
<P>(I) Epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, and multiple sclerosis each substantially limits neurological function;
</P>
<P>(J) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection substantially limits immune function; and
</P>
<P>(K) Major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, traumatic brain injury, obsessive compulsive disorder, and schizophrenia each substantially limits brain function.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Condition, manner, or duration.</I> (i) At all times taking into account the principles set forth in the rules of construction in this section, in determining whether an individual is substantially limited in a major life activity, it may be useful in appropriate cases to consider, as compared to most people in the general population, the conditions under which the individual performs the major life activity; the manner in which the individual performs the major life activity; or the duration of time it takes the individual to perform the major life activity, or for which the individual can perform the major life activity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Consideration of facts such as condition, manner, or duration may include, among other things, consideration of the difficulty, effort or time required to perform a major life activity; pain experienced when performing a major life activity; the length of time a major life activity can be performed; or the way an impairment affects the operation of a major bodily function. In addition, the non-ameliorative effects of mitigating measures, such as negative side effects of medication or burdens associated with following a particular treatment regimen, may be considered when determining whether an individual's impairment substantially limits a major life activity.
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining whether an individual has a disability under the “actual disability” (paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section) or “record of” (paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section) prongs of the definition of “disability,” the focus is on how a major life activity is substantially limited, and not on what outcomes an individual can achieve. For example, someone with a learning disability may achieve a high level of academic success, but may nevertheless be substantially limited in one or more major life activities, including, but not limited to, reading, writing, speaking, or learning because of the additional time or effort he or she must spend to read, write, speak, or learn compared to most people in the general population.
</P>
<P>(iv) Given the rules of construction set forth in this section, it may often be unnecessary to conduct an analysis involving most or all of the facts related to condition, manner, or duration. This is particularly true with respect to impairments such as those described in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, which by their inherent nature should be easily found to impose a substantial limitation on a major life activity, and for which the individualized assessment should be particularly simple and straightforward.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mitigating measures.</I> Mitigating measures include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Medication, medical supplies, equipment, appliances, low-vision devices (defined as devices that magnify, enhance, or otherwise augment a visual image, but not including ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses), prosthetics including limbs and devices, hearing aid(s) and cochlear implant(s) or other implantable hearing devices, mobility devices, and oxygen therapy equipment and supplies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of assistive technology;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reasonable modifications or auxiliary aids or services as defined in this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) Learned behavioral or adaptive neurological modifications; or
</P>
<P>(v) Psychotherapy, behavioral therapy, or physical therapy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An individual has a record of such an impairment if the individual has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Broad construction.</I> Whether an individual has a record of an impairment that substantially limited a major life activity shall be construed broadly to the maximum extent permitted by section 504 and should not demand extensive analysis. An individual will be considered to fall within the prong in this paragraph (e) of the definition of “disability” if the individual has a history of an impairment that substantially limited one or more major life activities when compared to most people in the general population or was misclassified as having had such an impairment. In determining whether an impairment substantially limited a major life activity, the principles articulated in paragraph (d)(1) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reasonable modification.</I> An individual with a record of a substantially limiting impairment may be entitled to a reasonable modification if needed and related to the past disability.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Is regarded as having such an impairment.</I> The following principles apply under the “regarded” as prong of the definition of “disability” in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, an individual is “regarded as having such an impairment” if the individual is subjected to a prohibited action because of an actual or perceived physical or mental impairment, whether or not that impairment substantially limits, or is perceived to substantially limit, a major life activity, even if the recipient asserts, or may or does ultimately establish, a defense to the action prohibited by section 504.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual is not “regarded as having such an impairment” if the recipient demonstrates that the impairment is, objectively, both “transitory” and “minor.” A recipient may not defeat “regarded as” coverage of an individual simply by demonstrating that it subjectively believed the impairment was transitory and minor; rather, the recipient must demonstrate that the impairment is (in the case of an actual impairment) or would be (in the case of a perceived impairment), objectively, both “transitory” and “minor.” For purposes of this section, “transitory” is defined as lasting or expected to last six months or less.
</P>
<P>(3) Establishing that an individual is “regarded as having such an impairment” does not, by itself, establish liability. Liability is established under section 504 only when an individual proves that a recipient discriminated on the basis of disability within the meaning of section 504.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exclusions.</I> The term “disability” does not include the terms set forth at 29 U.S.C. 705(20)(F).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40180, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.5   Assurances required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assurances.</I> An applicant for Federal financial assistance to which this part applies shall submit an assurance, on a form specified by the Director, that the program or activity will be operated in compliance with this part. An applicant may incorporate these assurances by reference in subsequent applications to the Department. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> (1) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended in the form of real property or to provide real property or structures on the property, the assurance will obligate the recipient or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the real property or structures are used for the purpose for which Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide personal property, the assurance will obligate the recipient for the period during which it retains ownership or possession of the property. 
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases the assurance will obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covenants.</I> (1) Where Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of real property or interest in the property from the Department, the instrument effecting or recording this transfer shall contain a covenant running with the land to assure nondiscrimination for the period during which the real property is used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where no transfer of property is involved but property is purchased or improved with Federal financial assistance, the recipient shall agree to include the covenant described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section in the instrument effecting or recording any subsequent transfer of the property. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of real property or interest in the property from the Department, the covenant shall also include a condition coupled with a right to be reserved by the Department to revert title to the property in the event of a breach of the covenant. If a transferee of real property proposes to mortgage or otherwise encumber the real property as security for financing construction of new, or improvement of existing, facilities on the property for the purposes for which the property was transferred, the Director may, upon request of the transferee and if necessary to accomplish such financing and upon such conditions as he or she deems appropriate, agree to forbear the exercise of such right to revert title for so long as the lien of such mortgage or other encumbrance remains effective. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 24319, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.6   Remedial action, voluntary action, and self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedial action.</I> (1) If the Director finds that a recipient has discriminated against persons on the basis of disability in violation of section 504 or this part, the recipient shall take such remedial action as the Director deems necessary to overcome the effects of the discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where a recipient is found to have discriminated against persons on the basis of disability in violation of section 504 or this part and where another recipient exercises control over the recipient that has discriminated, the Director, where appropriate, may require either or both recipients to take remedial action. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Director may, where necessary to overcome the effects of discrimination in violation of section 504 or this part, require a recipient to take remedial action (i) with respect to persons with disabilities who are no longer participants in the recipient's program or activity but who were participants in the program or activity when such discrimination occurred or (ii) with respect to persons with disabilities who would have been participants in the program or activity had the discrimination not occurred. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voluntary action.</I> A recipient may take steps, in addition to any action that is required by this part, to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation in the recipient's program or activity by qualified persons with disabilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-evaluation.</I> (1) A recipient shall, within one year of the effective date of this part: 
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate, with the assistance of interested persons, including persons with disabilities or organizations representing persons with disabilities, its current policies and practices and the effects thereof that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Modify, after consultation with interested persons, including persons with disabilities or organizations representing persons with disabilities, any policies and practices that do not meet the requirements of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Take, after consultation with interested persons, including persons with disabilities or organizations representing persons with disabilities, appropriate remedial steps to eliminate the effects of any discrimination that resulted from adherence to these policies and practices. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient that employs fifteen or more persons shall, for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, maintain on file, make available for public inspection, and provide to the Director upon request: (i) A list of the interested persons consulted (ii) a description of areas examined and any problems identified, and (iii) a description of any modifications made and of any remedial steps taken. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 24319, May 9, 2005; 89 FR 40182, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.7   Designation of responsible employee and adoption of grievance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of responsible employee.</I> A recipient that employs fifteen or more persons shall designate at least one person to coordinate its efforts to comply with this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adoption of grievance procedures.</I> A recipient that employs fifteen or more persons shall adopt grievance procedures that incorporate appropriate due process standards and that provide for the prompt and equitable resolution of complaints alleging any action prohibited by this part. Such procedures need not be established with respect to complaints from applicants for employment or from applicants for admission to postsecondary educational institutions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.8   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities of the recipient, and make such information available to them in such manner as the head of the recipient or their designee finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this part.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40182, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.9   Administrative requirements for small recipients.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may require any recipient with fewer than fifteen employees, or any class of such recipients, to comply with §§ 84.7 and 84.8, in whole or in part, when the Director finds a violation of this part or finds that such compliance will not significantly impair the ability of the recipient or class of recipients to provide benefits or services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.10   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term:
</P>
<P><I>2004 ADA Accessibility Guidelines (ADAAG)</I> means the requirements set forth in appendices B and D to 36 CFR part 1191 (2009).
</P>
<P><I>2010 Standards</I> means the 2010 ADA Standards for Accessible Design, which consist of the 2004 ADAAG and the requirements contained in 28 CFR 35.151.
</P>
<P><I>ADA</I> means the Americans with Disabilities Act (Pub. L. 101-336, 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C. 12101-12213 and 47 U.S.C. 225 and 611), including changes made by the ADA Amendments Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-325), which became effective on January 1, 2009.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by the designated Department official or by a primary recipient, as a condition of eligibility for Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Architectural Barriers Act</I> means the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), including the Architectural Barriers Act Accessibility Standards at 41 CFR 102-76.60 through 102-76.95.
</P>
<P><I>Archived web content</I> means web content that—
</P>
<P>(1) Was created before the date the recipient is required to comply with § 84.84, reproduces paper documents created before the date the recipient is required to comply with § 84.84, or reproduces the contents of other physical media created before the date the recipient is required to comply with § 84.84;
</P>
<P>(2) Is retained exclusively for reference, research, or recordkeeping;
</P>
<P>(3) Is not altered or updated after the date of archiving; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is organized and stored in a dedicated area or areas clearly identified as being archived.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids and services</I> include:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualified interpreters on-site or through video remote interpreting (VRI) services; notetakers; real-time computer-aided transcription services; written materials; exchange of written notes; telephone handset amplifiers; assistive listening devices; assistive listening systems; telephones compatible with hearing aids; closed caption decoders; open and closed captioning, including real-time captioning; voice, text, and video-based telecommunications products and systems, including text telephones (TTYs), videophones, and captioned telephones, or equally effective telecommunications devices; videotext displays; accessible electronic and information technology; or other effective methods of making aurally delivered information available to individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified readers; taped texts; audio recordings; Braille materials and displays; screen reader software; magnification software; optical readers; secondary auditory programs (SAP); large print materials; accessible electronic and information technology; or other effective methods of making visually delivered materials available to individuals who are blind or have low vision;
</P>
<P>(3) Acquisition or modification of equipment or devices; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other similar services and actions.
</P>
<P><I>Companion</I> means a family member, friend, or associate of an individual seeking access to a program or activity of a recipient, who, along with such individual, is an appropriate person with whom the recipient should communicate.
</P>
<P><I>Conventional electronic documents</I> means web content or content in mobile apps that is in the following electronic file formats: portable document formats (PDF), word processor file formats, presentation file formats, and spreadsheet file formats.
</P>
<P><I>Current illegal use of drugs</I> means illegal use of drugs that occurred recently enough to justify a reasonable belief that a person's drug use is current or that continuing use is a real and ongoing problem.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Direct threat</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this definition, a significant risk to the health or safety of others that cannot be eliminated by a modification of policies, practices, or procedures, or by the provision of auxiliary aids or services as provided in § 84.75.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to employment as provided in § 84.12, the term as defined by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's regulation implementing title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, at 29 CFR 1630.2(r).
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Office for Civil Rights.
</P>
<P><I>Disability</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this definition, the definition of <I>disability</I> found at § 84.4.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to employment, the definition of <I>disability</I> found at 29 CFR 1630.2.
</P>
<P><I>Drug</I> means a controlled substance, as defined in schedules I through V of section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 812).
</P>
<P><I>Existing facility</I> means a facility in existence on any given date, without regard to whether the facility may also be considered newly constructed or altered under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, sites, complexes, equipment, rolling stock or other conveyances, roads, walks, passageways, parking lots, or other real or personal property, including the site where the building, property, structure, or equipment is located.
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any grant, cooperative agreement, loan, contract (other than a direct Federal procurement contract or a contract of insurance or guaranty), subgrant, contract under a grant or any other arrangement by which the Department provides or otherwise makes available assistance in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) Funds;
</P>
<P>(2) Services of Federal personnel;
</P>
<P>(3) Real and personal property or any interest in or use of such property, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Transfers or leases of such property for less than fair market value or for reduced consideration; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Proceeds from a subsequent transfer or lease of such property if the Federal share of its fair market value is not returned to the Federal Government; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any other thing of value by way of grant, loan, contract, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Foster care</I> means 24-hour substitute care for children placed away from their parents or guardians and for whom the State agency has placement and care responsibility. This includes, but is not limited to, placements in foster family homes, foster homes of relatives, group homes, emergency shelters, residential facilities, childcare institutions, and pre-adoptive homes. A child is in foster care in accordance with this definition regardless of whether the foster care facility is licensed and payments are made by the State or local agency for the care of the child, whether adoption subsidy payments are being made prior to the finalization of an adoption, or whether there is Federal matching of any payments that are made.
</P>
<P><I>Illegal use of drugs</I> means the use of one or more drugs, the possession or distribution of which is unlawful under the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 812). The term illegal use of drugs does not include the use of a drug taken under supervision by a licensed health care professional, or other uses authorized by the Controlled Substances Act or other provisions of Federal law.
</P>
<P><I>Individual with a disability</I> means a person who has a disability. The term <I>individual with a disability</I> does not include an individual who is currently engaging in illegal use of drugs when a recipient acts on the basis of such use.
</P>
<P><I>Kiosks</I> means self-service transaction machines made available by recipients at set physical locations for the independent use of patients or program participants in health and human service programs or activities. They often consist of a screen and an input device—either a keyboard, touch screen, or similar device—onto which the program participant independently types in or otherwise enters information. In health and human service programs, recipients often make kiosks available so that patients or program participants can check in, provide information for the receipt of services, procure services, have their vital signs taken, or perform other similar actions.
</P>
<P><I>Medical diagnostic equipment (MDE)</I> means equipment used in, or in conjunction with, medical settings by health care providers for diagnostic purposes. MDE includes, for example, examination tables, examination chairs (including chairs used for eye examinations or procedures, and dental examinations or procedures), weight scales, mammography equipment, x-ray machines, and other radiological equipment commonly used for diagnostic purposes by health professionals.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile applications</I> (apps) means software applications that are downloaded and designed to run on mobile devices, such as smartphones and tablets.
</P>
<P><I>Most integrated setting</I> means a setting that provides individuals with disabilities the opportunity to interact with nondisabled persons to the fullest extent possible. These settings provide opportunities to live, work, and receive services in the greater community, like individuals without disabilities; are located in mainstream society; offer access to community activities and opportunities at times, frequencies and with persons of an individual's choosing; and afford individuals choice in their daily life activities.
</P>
<P><I>Other power-driven mobility device</I> means any mobility device powered by batteries, fuel, or other engines—whether or not designed primarily for use by individuals with mobility disabilities—that is used by individuals with mobility disabilities for the purpose of locomotion, including golf cars, electronic personal assistance mobility devices (EPAMDs), such as the Segway® PT, or any mobility device designed to operate in areas without defined pedestrian routes, but that is not a wheelchair within the meaning of this section. This definition does not apply to Federal wilderness areas; wheelchairs in such areas are defined in section 508(c)(2) of the ADA, 42 U.S.C. 12207(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Parents</I> means biological or adoptive parents or legal guardians, as determined by applicable State law.
</P>
<P><I>Program or activity</I> means all of the operations of any entity described in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this definition, any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity of such State or local government that distributes such assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, a public system of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A local educational agency (as defined in 20 U.S.C. 7801), system of career and technical education, or other school system;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship—
</P>
<P>(A) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or
</P>
<P>(B) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other entity which is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Prospective parents</I> means individuals who are seeking to become foster or adoptive parents.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual with a disability</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) through (4) of this definition, an individual with a disability who, with or without reasonable modifications to rules, policies, or practices, the removal of architectural, communication, or transportation barriers, or the provision of auxiliary aids and services, meets the essential eligibility requirements for the receipt of services or the participation in programs or activities provided by a recipient; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to employment, an individual with a disability who meets the definition of “qualified” in the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's regulation implementing title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, 29 CFR 1630.2(m).
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to childcare, preschool, elementary, secondary, or adult educational services, a person with a disability—
</P>
<P>(i) Of an age during which nondisabled persons are provided such services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Of any age during which it is mandatory under State law to provide such services to persons with a disability; or
</P>
<P>(iii) To whom a State is required to provide a free appropriate public education under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act; and
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to postsecondary and career and technical education services, an individual with a disability who, with or without reasonable modifications to rules, policies, or practices, the removal of architectural, communication, or transportation barriers, or the provision of auxiliary aids and services, meets the essential eligibility requirements for the receipt of services or the participation in the recipient's program or activity.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified interpreter</I> means an interpreter who, via an on-site appearance or through a video remote interpreting (VRI) service, is able to interpret effectively, accurately, and impartially, both receptively and expressively, using any necessary specialized vocabulary. Qualified interpreters include, for example, sign language interpreters, oral transliterators, and cued-language transliterators.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified reader</I> means a person who is able to read effectively, accurately, and impartially using any necessary specialized vocabulary.
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any State or its political subdivision, any instrumentality of a State or its political subdivision, any public or private agency, institution, organization, or other entity, or any person to which Federal financial assistance is extended directly or through another recipient, including any successor, assignee, or transferee of a recipient, but excluding the ultimate beneficiary of the assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Section 508 Standards</I> means the standards for Information and Communications Technologies (ICT) promulgated at 36 CFR part 1194 by the U.S. Access Board per section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act (29 U.S.C. 794d as amended).
</P>
<P><I>Service animal</I> means any dog that is individually trained to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of an individual with a disability, including a physical, sensory, psychiatric, intellectual, or other mental disability. Other species of animals, whether wild or domestic, trained or untrained, are not service animals for the purposes of this definition. The work or tasks performed by a service animal must be directly related to the individual's disability. Examples of work or tasks include, but are not limited to, assisting individuals who are blind or have low vision with navigation and other tasks, alerting individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing to the presence of people or sounds, providing non-violent protection or rescue work, pulling a wheelchair, assisting an individual during a seizure, alerting individuals to the presence of allergens, retrieving items such as medicine or the telephone, providing physical support and assistance with balance and stability to individuals with mobility disabilities, and helping persons with mental and neurological disabilities by preventing or interrupting impulsive or harmful behaviors. The crime deterrent effects of an animal's presence and the provision of emotional support, well-being, comfort, or companionship do not constitute work or tasks for the purposes of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Standards for Accessible Medical Diagnostic Equipment</I> (“Standards for Accessible MDE”) means the standards promulgated by the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board (Access Board) under section 510 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, found at 36 CFR part 1195 (as of Jan. 9, 2017), with the exception of M301.2.2 and M302.2.2.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> includes, in addition to each of the several States of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Ultimate beneficiary</I> means one among a class of persons who are entitled to benefit from, or otherwise participate in, a program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance and to whom the protections of this part extend. The ultimate beneficiary class may be the general public or some narrower group of persons.
</P>
<P><I>User agent</I> means any software that retrieves and presents web content for users.
</P>
<P><I>Video remote interpreting (VRI)</I> service means an interpreting service that uses video conference technology over dedicated lines or wireless technology offering high-speed, wide-bandwidth video connection that delivers high-quality video images as provided in § 84.77(d).
</P>
<P><I>WCAG 2.1</I> means the Web Content Accessibility Guidelines (WCAG) 2.1, W3C Recommendation 05 June 2018, <I>https://www.w3.org/TR/2018/REC-WCAG21-20180605/</I> and <I>https://perma.cc/UB8A-GG2F.</I> WCAG 2.1 is incorporated by reference elsewhere in this part (see §§ 84.84 and 84.86).
</P>
<P><I>Web content</I> means the information and sensory experience to be communicated to the user by means of a user agent, including code or markup that defines the content's structure, presentation, and interactions. Examples of web content include text, images, sounds, videos, controls, animations, and conventional electronic documents.
</P>
<P><I>Wheelchair</I> means a manually-operated or power-driven device designed primarily for use by an individual with a mobility disability for the main purpose of indoor, or of both indoor and outdoor locomotion. This definition does not apply to Federal wilderness areas; wheelchairs in such areas are defined in section 508(c)(2) of the ADA, 42 U.S.C. 12207(c)(2).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 24319, May 9, 2005. Redesignated and revised and republished at 89 FR 40180, 40182, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Employment Practices</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 40185, May 9, 2024, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 84.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.16   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of disability, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) The standards used to determine whether paragraph (a) of this section has been violated shall be the standards applied under title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA), 42 U.S.C. 12111 <I>et seq.,</I> and, as such sections relate to employment, the provisions of sections 501 through 504 and 511 of the ADA of 1990, as amended (codified at 42 U.S.C. 12201-12204, 12210), as implemented in the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's regulation at 29 CFR part 1630.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 84.17-84.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 84.17-84.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Accessibility</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.21   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 84.22, no qualified individual with a disability shall, because a recipient's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with disabilities, be excluded from participation in, or be denied the benefits of the programs or activities of a recipient, or be subjected to discrimination by any recipient.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40185, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.22   Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A recipient shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. This paragraph (a) does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require a recipient to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities; or
</P>
<P>(2) Require a recipient to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where a recipient's personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the recipient has the burden of proving that compliance with this paragraph (a) would result in such an alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the head of the recipient or their designee after considering all the recipient's resources available for use in the funding and operation of the program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the recipient shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits or services provided by the recipient.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> A recipient may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign or acquisition of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock or other conveyances, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. A recipient is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. A recipient, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet the accessibility requirements of § 84.23. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, a recipient shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with disabilities in the most integrated setting appropriate.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Small health, welfare, or other social service providers.</I> If a recipient with fewer than fifteen employees that provides health, welfare, or other social services finds, after consultation with a person with a disability seeking its services, that there is no method of complying with paragraph (a) of this section other than making a significant alteration in its existing facilities, the recipient may, as an alternative, refer the person with a disability to other providers of those services that are accessible. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time period.</I> A recipient shall comply with the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section within sixty days of the effective date of this part except that where structural changes in facilities are necessary, such changes shall be made within three years of the effective date of this part, but in any event as expeditiously as possible. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities are necessary to meet the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section, a recipient shall develop, within six months of the effective date of this part, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The plan shall be developed with the assistance of interested persons, including persons with disabilities or organizations representing persons with disabilities. A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the recipient's facilities that limit the accessibility of its program or activity to persons with disabilities; 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve full accessibility under paragraph (a) and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify the steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the person responsible for implementation of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice.</I> The recipient shall adopt and implement procedures to ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of services, activities, and facilities that are accessible to and usable by persons with disabilities. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Safe harbor.</I> Elements that have not been altered in existing facilities on or after July 8, 2024, and that comply with the corresponding technical and scoping specifications for those elements in the American National Standard Specification (ANSI) (ANSI A117.1-1961(R1971)) for facilities constructed between June 3, 1977, and January 18, 1991) or for those elements in the Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards (UFAS), appendix A to 41 CFR part 101-19, subpart 101-19.6 (revised as of July 1, 2002), for those facilities constructed between January 18, 1991, and July 8, 2024, are not required to be modified to comply with the requirements set forth in the 2010 Standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 24319, May 9, 2005; 89 FR 40185, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.23   New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Design and construction.</I> Each facility or part of a facility constructed by, on behalf of, or for the use of a recipient shall be designed and constructed in such manner that the facility or part of the facility is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities, if the construction was commenced after June 3, 1977.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alterations.</I> Each facility or part of a facility altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of a recipient in a manner that affects or could affect the usability of the facility or part of the facility shall, to the maximum extent feasible, be altered in such manner that the altered portion of the facility is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities, if the alteration was commenced after June 3, 1977.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accessibility standards and compliance dates for recipients that are public entities.</I> (1) The accessibility standards and compliance dates in this paragraph (c) apply to recipients that are public entities. Public entities are any State or local government; any department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or States or local government; and the National Railroad Passenger Corporation, and any commuter authority (as defined in section 103(8) of the Rail Passenger Service Act). (45 U.S.C. 541)
</P>
<P>(2) If physical construction or alterations commenced after June 3, 1977, but before January 18, 1991, then construction and alterations subject to this section shall be deemed in compliance with this section if they meet the requirements of the ANSI Standards (ANSI A117.1-1961(R1971)) (ANSI). Departures from particular requirements of ANSI by the use of other methods are permitted when it is clearly evident that equivalent access to the facility or part of the facility is provided.
</P>
<P>(3) If physical construction or alterations commence on or after January 18, 1991, but before July 8, 2024, then new construction and alterations subject to this section shall be deemed in compliance with this section if they meet the requirements of the Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards (UFAS), appendix A to 41 CFR part 101-19, subpart 101-19.6 (revised as of July 1, 2002). Departures from particular requirements of UFAS by the use of other methods shall be permitted when it is clearly evident that equivalent access to the facility or part of the facility is thereby provided.
</P>
<P>(4) For physical construction or alterations that commence on or after July 8, 2024, but before May 9, 2025, then new construction and alterations subject to this section may comply with either UFAS or the 2010 Standards. Departures from particular requirements of either standard by the use of other methods shall be permitted when it is clearly evident that equivalent access to the facility or part of the facility is thereby provided.
</P>
<P>(5) If physical construction or alterations commence on or after May 9, 2025, then new construction and alterations subject to this section shall comply with the 2010 Standards.
</P>
<P>(6) For the purposes of this section, ceremonial groundbreaking or razing of structures prior to site preparation do not commence physical construction or alterations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accessibility standards and compliance dates for recipients that are private entities.</I> (1) The accessibility standards and compliance dates in this paragraph (d) apply to recipients that are private entities. Private entities are any person or entity other than a public entity.
</P>
<P>(2) New construction and alterations subject to this section where the date when the last application for a building permit or permit extension is certified to be complete by a State, county, or local government or, in those jurisdictions where the government does not certify completion of applications, if the date when the last application for a building permit or permit extension is received by the State, county, or local government between June 3, 1977, and January 18, 1991, or if no permit is required, if the start of physical construction or alterations occurs between June 3, 1977, and January 18, 1991, shall be deemed in compliance with this section if they meet the requirements of ANSI. Departures from particular requirements of ANSI by the use of other methods are permitted when it is clearly evident that equivalent access to the facility or part of the facility is provided.
</P>
<P>(3) New construction and alterations subject to this section shall comply with UFAS if the date when the last application for a building permit or permit extension is certified to be complete by a State, county, or local government (or, in those jurisdictions where the government does not certify completion of applications, if the date when the last application for a building permit or permit extension is received by the State, county, or local government) is on or after January 18, 1991, and before July 8, 2024, or if no permit is required, if the start of physical construction or alterations occurs on or after January 18, 1991, and before July 8, 2024. Departures from particular requirements of UFAS by the use of other methods are permitted when it is clearly evident that equivalent access to the facility or part of the facility is provided.
</P>
<P>(4) New construction and alterations subject to this section shall comply either with UFAS or the 2010 Standards if the date when the last application for a building permit or permit extension is certified to be complete by a State, county, or local government (or, in those jurisdictions where the government does not certify completion of applications, if the date when the last application for a building permit or permit extension is received by the State, county, or local government) is on or after July 8, 2024, and before May 9, 2025, or if no permit is required, if the start of physical construction or alterations occurs on or after July 8, 2024, and before May 9, 2025. Departures from particular requirements of either standard by the use of other methods shall be permitted when it is clearly evident that equivalent access to the facility or part of the facility is thereby provided.
</P>
<P>(5) New construction and alterations subject to this section shall comply with the 2010 Standards if the date when the last application for a building permit or permit extension is certified to be complete by a State, county, or local government (or, in those jurisdictions where the government does not certify completion of applications, if the date when the last application for a building permit or permit extension is received by the State, county, or local government) is on or after May 9, 2025, or if no permit is required, if the start of physical construction or alterations occurs on or after May 9, 2025.
</P>
<P>(6) For the purposes of this section, ceremonial groundbreaking or razing of structures prior to site preparation do not commence physical construction or alterations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Noncomplying new construction and alterations.</I> (1) Newly constructed or altered facilities or elements covered by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section that were constructed or altered between June 3, 1977, and January 18, 1991, and that do not comply with ANSI shall be made accessible in accordance with the 2010 Standards.
</P>
<P>(2) Newly constructed or altered facilities or elements covered by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section that were constructed or altered on or after January 18, 1991, and before May 9, 2025, and that do not comply with UFAS shall before May 9, 2025, be made accessible in accordance with either UFAS or the 2010 Standards.
</P>
<P>(3) Newly constructed or altered facilities or elements covered by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section that were constructed or altered before May 9, 2025, and that do not comply with ANSI (for facilities constructed or altered between June 3, 1977, and January 18, 1991) or UFAS (for facilities constructed or altered on or after January 18, 1991) shall, on or after May 9, 2025, be made accessible in accordance with the 2010 Standards.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Public buildings or facilities requirements.</I> New construction and alterations of buildings or facilities undertaken in compliance with the 2010 Standards will comply with the scoping and technical requirements for a “public building or facility” regardless of whether the recipient is a public entity as defined in 28 CFR 35.104 or a private entity.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Compliance with the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968.</I> Nothing in this section relieves recipients whose facilities are covered by the Architectural Barriers Act, from their responsibility of complying with the requirements of the Architectural Barriers Act and its implementing regulations, 41 CFR 102-76.60 through 102-76.95 (General Services Administration); 39 CFR part 255 (U.S. Postal Service); 24 CFR part 40 (U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development); and the U.S. Department of Defense “Policy Memorandum for Secretaries of the Military Departments: Access for People with Disabilities” (October 31, 2008).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Mechanical rooms.</I> For purposes of this section, section 4.1.6(1)(g) of UFAS will be interpreted to exempt from the requirements of UFAS only mechanical rooms and other spaces that, because of their intended use, will not require accessibility to the public or beneficiaries or result in the employment or residence therein of individuals with physical disabilities.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40185, May 9, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 84.24-84.30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 84.24-84.30   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Childcare, Preschool, Elementary and Secondary, and Adult Education</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.31   Application of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to childcare, preschool, elementary and secondary, and adult education programs or activities that receive Federal financial assistance and to recipients that operate, or that receive Federal financial assistance for the operation of, such programs or activities.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40187, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 84.32-84.37" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 84.32-84.37   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.38" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.38   Childcare, preschool, elementary and secondary, and adult education.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient to which this subpart applies that provides childcare, preschool, elementary and secondary, or adult education may not, on the basis of disability, exclude qualified individuals with disabilities and shall take into account the needs of such persons in determining the aids, benefits, or services to be provided.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40187, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 84.39-84.40" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 84.39-84.40   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Postsecondary Education</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.41   Application of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart E applies to postsecondary education programs or activities, including postsecondary vocational education programs or activities, that receive Federal financial assistance and to recipients that operate, or that receive Federal financial assistance for the operation of, such programs or activities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 24320, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.42   Admissions and recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Qualified persons with disabilities may not, on the basis of disability, be denied admission or be subjected to discrimination in admission or recruitment by a recipient to which this subpart applies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Admissions.</I> In administering its admission policies, a recipient to which this subpart applies: 
</P>
<P>(1) May not apply limitations upon the number or proportion of persons with disabilities who may be admitted; 
</P>
<P>(2) May not make use of any test or criterion for admission that has a disproportionate, adverse effect on persons with disabilities or any class of persons with disabilities unless (i) the test or criterion, as used by the recipient, has been validated as a predictor of success in the education program or activity in question and (ii) alternate tests or criteria that have a less disproportionate, adverse effect are not shown by the Director to be available. 
</P>
<P>(3) Shall assure itself that (i) admissions tests are selected and administered so as best to ensure that, when a test is administered to an applicant who has a disability that impairs sensory, manual, or speaking skills, the test results accurately reflect the applicant's aptitude or achievement level or whatever other factor the test purports to measure, rather than reflecting the applicant's impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills (except where those skills are the factors that the test purports to measure); (ii) admissions tests that are designed for persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills are offered as often and in as timely a manner as are other admissions tests; and (iii) admissions tests are administered in facilities that, on the whole, are accessible to persons with disabilities; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, may not make preadmission inquiry as to whether an applicant for admission is a person with a disability but, after admission, may make inquiries on a confidential basis as to disabilities that may require accommodation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preadmission inquiry exception.</I> When a recipient is taking remedial action to correct the effects of past discrimination pursuant to § 84.6(a) or when a recipient is taking voluntary action to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation in its federally assisted program or activity pursuant to § 84.6(b), the recipient may invite applicants for admission to indicate whether and to what extent they are disabled, <I>Provided,</I> That: 
</P>
<P>(1) The recipient states clearly on any written questionnaire used for this purpose or makes clear orally if no written questionnaire is used that the information requested is intended for use solely in connection with its remedial action obligations or its voluntary action efforts; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient states clearly that the information is being requested on a voluntary basis, that it will be kept confidential, that refusal to provide it will not subject the applicant to any adverse treatment, and that it will be used only in accordance with this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Validity studies.</I> For the purpose of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a recipient may base prediction equations on first year grades, but shall conduct periodic validity studies against the criterion of overall success in the education program or activity in question in order to monitor the general validity of the test scores. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 89 FR 40187, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.43" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.43   Treatment of students; general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified student with a disability shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any academic, research, occupational training, housing, health insurance, counseling, financial aid, physical education, athletics, recreation, transportation, other extracurricular, or other postsecondary education aids, benefits, or services to which this subpart applies. 
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient to which this subpart applies that considers participation by students in education programs or activities not operated wholly by the recipient as part of, or equivalent to, and education program or activity operated by the recipient shall assure itself that the other education program or activity, as a whole, provides an equal opportunity for the participation of qualified persons with disabilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient to which this subpart applies may not, on the basis of disability, exclude any qualified student with a disability from any course, course of study, or other part of its education program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(d) A recipient to which this subpart applies shall operate its program or activity in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 24320, May 9, 2005; 89 FR 40187, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.44" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.44   Academic adjustments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Academic requirements.</I> A recipient to which this subpart applies shall make such modifications to its academic requirements as are necessary to ensure that such requirements do not discriminate or have the effect of discriminating, on the basis of disability, against a qualified applicant or student with a disability. Academic requirements that the recipient can demonstrate are essential to the instruction being pursued by such student or to any directly related licensing requirement will not be regarded as discriminatory within the meaning of this section. Modifications may include changes in the length of time permitted for the completion of degree requirements, substitution of specific courses required for the completion of degree requirements, and adaptation of the manner in which specific courses are conducted. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other rules.</I> A recipient to which this subpart applies may not impose upon students with disabilities other rules, such as the prohibition of tape recorders in classrooms or of dog guides in campus buildings, that have the effect of limiting the participation of students with disabilities in the recipient's education program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Course examinations.</I> In its course examinations or other procedures for evaluating students' academic achievement, a recipient to which this subpart applies shall provide such methods for evaluating the achievement of students who have a disability that impairs sensory, manual, or speaking skills as will best ensure that the results of the evaluation represents the student's achievement in the course, rather than reflecting the student's impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills (except where such skills are the factors that the test purports to measure). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Auxiliary aids.</I> (1) A recipient to which this subpart applies shall take such steps as are necessary to ensure that no student with a disability is denied the benefits of, excluded from participation in, or otherwise subjected to discrimination because of the absence of educational auxiliary aids for students with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills. 
</P>
<P>(2) Auxiliary aids may include taped texts, interpreters or other effective methods of making orally delivered materials available to students with hearing impairments, readers in libraries for students with visual impairments, classroom equipment adapted for use by students with manual impairments, and other similar services and actions. Recipients need not provide attendants, individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices or services of a personal nature. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 24320, May 9, 2005; 89 FR 40187, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.45" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.45   Housing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Housing provided by the recipient.</I> A recipient that provides housing to its students without disabilities shall provide comparable, convenient, and accessible housing to students with disabilities at the same cost as to others. At the end of the transition period provided for in subpart C of this part, such housing shall be available in sufficient quantity and variety so that the scope of students with disabilities' choice of living accommodations is, as a whole, comparable to that of students without disabilities.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other housing.</I> A recipient that assists any agency, organization, or person in making housing available to any of its students shall take such action as may be necessary to assure itself that such housing is, as a whole, made available in a manner that does not result in discrimination on the basis of disability. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 89 FR 40187, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.46" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.46   Financial and employment assistance to students.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Provision of financial assistance.</I> (1) In providing financial assistance to qualified persons with disabilities, a recipient to which this subpart applies may not (i), on the basis of disability, provide less assistance than is provided to persons without disabilities, limit eligibility for assistance, or otherwise discriminate or (ii) assist any entity or person that provides assistance to any of the recipient's students in a manner that discriminates against qualified persons with disabilities on the basis of disability. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other forms of financial assistance established under wills, trusts, bequests, or similar legal instruments that require awards to be made on the basis of factors that discriminate or have the effect of discriminating on the basis of disability only if the overall effect of the award of scholarships, fellowships, and other forms of financial assistance is not discriminatory on the basis of disability. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistance in making available outside employment.</I> A recipient that assists any agency, organization, or person in providing employment opportunities to any of its students shall assure itself that such employment opportunities, as a whole, are made available in a manner that would not violate subpart B if they were provided by the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employment of students by recipients.</I> A recipient that employs any of its students may not do so in a manner that violates subpart B. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 89 FR 40187, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.47" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.47   Nonacademic services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Physical education and athletics.</I> (1) In providing physical education courses and athletics and similar aids, benefits, or services to any of its students, a recipient to which this subpart applies may not discriminate on the basis of disability. A recipient that offers physical education courses or that operates or sponsors intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics shall provide to qualified students with disabilities an equal opportunity for participation in these activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may offer to students with disabilities physical education and athletic activities that are separate or different only if separation or differentiation is consistent with the requirements of § 84.43(d) and only if no qualified student with a disability is denied the opportunity to compete for teams or to participate in courses that are not separate or different. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Counseling and placement services.</I> A recipient to which this subpart applies that provides personal, academic, or vocational counseling, guidance, or placement services to its students shall provide these services without discrimination on the basis of disability. The recipient shall ensure that qualified students with disabilities are not counseled toward more restrictive career objectives than are students without disabilities with similar interests and abilities. This requirement does not preclude a recipient from providing factual information about licensing and certification requirements that may present obstacles to persons with disabilities in their pursuit of particular careers. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Social organizations.</I> A recipient that provides significant assistance to fraternities, sororities, or similar organizations shall assure itself that the membership practices of such organizations do not permit discrimination otherwise prohibited by this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 24320, May 9, 2005; 89 FR 40187, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 84.48-84.50" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 84.48-84.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Health, Welfare, and Social Services</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.51" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.51   Application of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart F applies to health, welfare, and other social service programs or activities that receive Federal financial assistance and to recipients that operate, or that receive Federal financial assistance for the operation of, such programs or activities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 70 FR 24320, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.52" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.52   Health, welfare, and other social services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In providing health, welfare, or other social services or benefits, a recipient may not, on the basis of handicap: 
</P>
<P>(1) Deny a qualified person with a disability these benefits or services; 
</P>
<P>(2) Afford a qualified person with a disability an opportunity to receive benefits or services that is not equal to that offered persons without disabilities; 
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a qualified person with a disability with benefits or services that are not as effective (as defined in § 84.4(b)) as the benefits or services provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(4) Provide benefits or services in a manner that limits or has the effect of limiting the participation of qualified persons with disabilities; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Provide different or separate benefits or services to persons with disabilities except where necessary to provide qualified persons with disabilities with benefits and services that are as effective as those provided to others. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> A recipient that provides notice concerning benefits or services or written material concerning waivers of rights or consent to treatment shall take such steps as are necessary to ensure that qualified persons with disabilities, including those with impaired sensory or speaking skills, are not denied effective notice because of their disability. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 89 FR 40187, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.53" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.53   Individuals with substance and alcohol use disorders.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient to which this subpart applies that operates a health care facility may not discriminate in admission or treatment against an individual with a substance or alcohol use disorder who has a medical condition, because of the person's substance or alcohol use disorder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40188, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.54" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.54   Education of institutionalized persons.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient to which this subpart applies and that provides aids, benefits, or services to persons who are institutionalized because of disability shall ensure that each qualified individual with disabilities, as defined in § 84.10, in its program or activity is provided an appropriate education, consistent with the Department of Education section 504 regulations at 34 CFR 104.33(b). Nothing in this section shall be interpreted as altering in any way the obligations of recipients under subpart D of this part.

 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40188, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.55" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.55   Procedures relating to health care for infants with disabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Infant Care Review Committees.</I> The Department encourages each recipient health care provider that provides health care services to infants in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance to establish an Infant Care Review Committee (ICRC) to assist the provider in delivering health care and related services to infants and in complying with this part. The purpose of the committee is to assist the health care provider in the development of standards, policies and procedures for providing treatment to infants with disabilities and in making decisions concerning medically beneficial treatment in specific cases. While the Department recognizes the value of ICRC's in assuring appropriate medical care to infants, such committees are not required by this section. An ICRC should be composed of individuals representing a broad range of perspectives, and should include a practicing physician, a representative of a disability organization, a practicing nurse, and other individuals. A suggested model ICRC is set forth in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b)-(e) [Reserved] </P>
<P>(f) <I>Model Infant Care Review Committee.</I> Recipient health care providers wishing to establish Infant Care Review Committees should consider adoption of the following model. This model is advisory. Recipient health care providers are not required to establish a review committee or, if one is established, to adhere to this model. In seeking to determine compliance with this part, as it relates to health care for infants with disabilities, by health care providers that have an ICRC established and operated substantially in accordance with this model, the Department will, to the extent possible, consult with the ICRC.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Establishment and purpose.</I> (i) The hospital establishes an Infant Care Review Committee (ICRC) or joins with one or more other hospitals to create a joint ICRC. The establishing document will state that the ICRC is for the purpose of facilitating the development and implementation of standards, policies and procedures designed to assure that, while respecting reasonable medical judgments, treatment and nourishment not be withheld, solely on the basis of present or anticipated physical or mental impairments, from infants with disabilities who, in spite of such impairments, will benefit medically from the treatment or nourishment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The activities of the ICRC will be guided by the following principles:
</P>
<P>(A) The interpretative guidelines of the Department relating to the applicability of this part to health care for infants with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(B) As stated in the “Principles of Treatment of Disabled Infants” of the coalition of major medical and disability organizations, including the American Academy of Pediatrics, National Association of Children's Hospitals and Related Institutions, Association for Retarded Citizens, Down's Syndrome Congress, Spina Bifida Association, and others:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>When medical care is clearly beneficial, it should always be provided. When appropriate medical care is not available, arrangements should be made to transfer the infant to an appropriate medical facility. Consideration such as anticipated or actual limited potential of an individual and present or future lack of available community resources are irrelevant and must not determine the decisions concerning medical care. The individual's medical condition should be the sole focus of the decision. These are very strict standards.
</P>
<P>It is ethically and legally justified to withhold medical or surgical procedures which are clearly futile and will only prolong the act of dying. However, supportive care should be provided, including sustenance as medically indicated and relief of pain and suffering. The needs of the dying person should be respected. The family also should be supported in its grieving.
</P>
<P>In cases where it is uncertain whether medical treatment will be beneficial, a person's disability must not be the basis for a decision to withhold treatment. At all times during the process when decisions are being made about the benefit or futility of medical treatment, the person should be cared for in the medically most appropriate ways. When doubt exists at any time about whether to treat, a presumption always should be in favor of treatment.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) As stated by the President's Commission for the Study of Ethical Problems in Medicine and Biomedical and Behavioral Research:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This [standard for providing medically beneficial treatment] is a very strict standard in that it excludes consideration of the negative effects of an impaired child's life on other persons, including parents, siblings, and society. Although abiding by this standard may be difficult in specific cases, it is all too easy to undervalue the lives of infants with disabilities; the Commission finds it imperative to counteract this by treating them no less vigorously than their healthy peers or than older children with similar disabilities would be treated.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) The ICRC will carry out its purposes by:
</P>
<P>(A) Recommending institutional policies concerning the withholding or withdrawal of medical or surgical treatments to infants, including guidelines for ICRC action for specific categories of life-threatening conditions affecting infants;
</P>
<P>(B) Providing advice in specific cases when decisions are being considered to withhold or withdraw from infant life-sustaining medical or surgical treatment; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Reviewing retrospectively on a regular basis infant medical records in situations in which life-sustaining medical or surgical treatment has been withheld or withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Organization and staffing.</I> The ICRC will consist of at least 7 members and include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A practicing physician (e.g., a pediatrician, a neonatologist, or a pediatric surgeon),
</P>
<P>(ii) A practicing nurse,
</P>
<P>(iii) A hospital administrator,
</P>
<P>(iv) A representative of the legal profession,
</P>
<P>(v) A representative of a disability group, or a developmental disability expert,
</P>
<P>(vi) A lay community member, and
</P>
<P>(vii) A member of a facility's organized medical staff, who shall serve as chairperson.
</P>
<FP>In connection with review of specific cases, one member of the ICRC shall be designated to act as “special advocate” for the infant, as provided in paragraph (f)(3)(ii)(E) of the section. The hospital will provide staff support for the ICRC, including legal counsel. The ICRC will meet on a regular basis, or as required below in connection with review of specific cases. It shall adopt or recommend to the appropriate hospital official or body such administrative policies as terms of office and quorum requirements. The ICRC will recommend procedures to ensure that both hospital personnel and patient families are fully informed of the existence and functions of the ICRC and its availability on a 24-hour basis.
</FP>
<P>(3) <I>Operation of ICRC</I>—(i) <I>Prospective policy development.</I> (A) The ICRC will develop and recommend for adoption by the hospital institutional policies concerning the withholding or withdrawal of medical treatment for infants with life-threatening conditions. These will include guidelines for management of specific types of cases or diagnoses, for example, Down's syndrome and spina bifida, and procedures to be followed in such recurring circumstances as, for example, brain death and parental refusal to consent to life-saving treatment. The hospital, upon recommendation of the ICRC, may require attending physicians to notify the ICRC of the presence in the facility of an infant with a diagnosis specified by the ICRC, e.g., Down's syndrome and spina bifida.
</P>
<P>(B) In recommending these policies and guidelines, the ICRC will consult with medical and other authorities on issues involving disabled individuals, e.g., neonatologists, pediatric surgeons, county and city agencies which provide services for the disabled, and disability advocacy organizations. It will also consult with appropriate committees of the medical staff, to ensure that the ICRC policies and guidelines build on existing staff by-laws, rules and regulations concerning consultations and staff membership requirements. The ICRC will also inform and educate hospital staff on the policies and guidelines it develops.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Review of specific cases.</I> In addition to regularly scheduled meetings, interim ICRC meetings will take place under specified circumstances to permit review of individual cases. The hospital will, to the extent possible, require in each case that life-sustaining treatment be continued, until the ICRC can review the case and provide advice.
</P>
<P>(A) Interim ICRC meetings will be convened within 24 hours (or less if indicated) when there is disagreement between the family of an infant and the infant's physician as to the withholding or withdrawal of treatment, when a preliminary decision to withhold or withdraw life-sustaining treatment has been made in certain categories of cases identified by the ICRC, when there is disagreement between members of the hospital's medical and/or nursing staffs, or when otherwise appropriate.
</P>
<P>(B) Such interim ICRC meetings will take place upon the request of any member of the ICRC or hospital staff or parent or guardian of the infant. The ICRC will have procedures to preserve the confidentiality of the identity of persons making such requests, and such persons shall be protected from reprisal. When appropriate, the ICRC or a designated member will inform the requesting individual of the ICRC's recommendation. 
</P>
<P>(C) The ICRC may provide for telephone and other forms of review when the timing and nature of the case, as identified in policies developed by the ICRC, make the convening of an interim meeting impracticable. 
</P>
<P>(D) Interim meetings will be open to the affected parties. The ICRC will ensure that the interests of the parents, the physician, and the child are fully considered; that family members have been fully informed of the patient's condition and prognosis; that they have been provided with a listing which describes the services furnished by parent support groups and public and private agencies in the geographic vicinity to infants with conditions such as that before the ICRC; and that the ICRC will facilitate their access to such services and groups. 
</P>
<P>(E) To ensure a comprehensive evaluation of all options and factors pertinent to the committee's deliberations, the chairperson will designate one member of the ICRC to act, in connection with that specific case, as special advocate for the infant. The special advocate will seek to ensure that all considerations in favor of the provision of life-sustaining treatment are fully evaluated and considered by the ICRC. 
</P>
<P>(F) In cases in which there is disagreement on treatment between a physician and an infant's family, and the family wishes to continue life-sustaining treatment, the family's wishes will be carried out, for as long as the family wishes, unless such treatment is medically contraindicated. When there is physician/family disagreement and the family refuses consent to life-sustaining treatment, and the ICRC, after due deliberation, agrees with the family, the ICRC will recommend that the treatment be withheld. When there is physician/family disagreement and the family refuses consent, but the ICRC disagrees with the family, the ICRC will recommend to the hospital board or appropriate official that the case be referred immediately to an appropriate court or child protective agency, and every effort shall be made to continue treatment, preserve the status quo, and prevent worsening of the infant's condition until such time as the court or agency renders a decision or takes other appropriate action. The ICRC will also follow this procedure in cases in which the family and physician agree that life-sustaining treatment should be withheld or withdrawn, but the ICRC disagrees. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Retrospective record review.</I> The ICRC, at its regularly-scheduled meeting, will review all records involving withholding or termination of medical or surgical treatment to infants consistent with hospital policies developed by the ICRC, unless the case was previously before the ICRC pursuant to paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section. If the ICRC finds that a deviation was made from the institutional policies in a given case, it shall conduct a review and report the findings to appropriate hospital personnel for appropriate action. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Records.</I> The ICRC will maintain records of all of its deliberations and summary descriptions of specific cases considered and the disposition of those cases. Such records will be kept in accordance with institutional policies on confidentiality of medical information. They will be made available to appropriate government agencies, or upon court order, or as otherwise required by law.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The mandatory provisions set forth in paragraphs (b)-(e) inclusive of this section are subject to an injunction prohibiting their enforcement. In <I>Bowen</I> v. <I>American Hospital Association,</I> ______ U.S. ______, 106 S. Ct. 2101 (1986), the Supreme Court upheld the action of a United States District Court, 585 F. Supp. 541 (S.D.N.Y. 1984), declaring invalid and enjoining enforcement of provisions under this section, promulgated January 12, 1984.</P></NOTE>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Information collection requirements contained in paragraph (c) have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0990-0114)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 1651, Jan. 12, 1984, as amended at 52 FR 3012, Jan. 30, 1987; 70 FR 24320, May 9, 2005; 89 FR 40188, May 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.56" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.56   Medical treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discrimination prohibited.</I> No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of disability, be subjected to discrimination in medical treatment under any program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance, including in the allocation or withdrawal of any good, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> The general prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section includes the following specific prohibitions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Denial of medical treatment.</I> A recipient may not deny or limit medical treatment to a qualified individual with a disability when the denial is based on:
</P>
<P>(i) Bias or stereotypes about a patient's disability;
</P>
<P>(ii) Judgments that the individual will be a burden on others due to their disability, including, but not limited to caregivers, family, or society; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A belief that the life of a person with a disability has lesser value than the life of a person without a disability, or that life with a disability is not worth living.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Denial of treatment for a separate symptom or condition.</I> Where a qualified individual with a disability or their authorized representative seeks or consents to treatment for a separately diagnosable symptom or medical condition (whether or not that symptom or condition is a disability under this part or is causally connected to the individual's underlying disability), a recipient may not deny or limit clinically appropriate treatment if it would be offered to a similarly situated individual without an underlying disability.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Provision of medical treatment.</I> A recipient may not, on the basis of disability, provide a medical treatment to an individual with a disability where it would not provide the same treatment to an individual without a disability, unless the disability impacts the effectiveness, or ease of administration of the treatment itself, or has a medical effect on the condition to which the treatment is directed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction</I>—(1) <I>Professional judgment in treatment.</I> (i) Nothing in this section requires the provision of medical treatment where the recipient has a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason for denying or limiting that service or where the disability renders the individual not qualified for the treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Circumstances in which the recipient has a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason for denying or limiting a service or where the disability renders the individual not qualified for the treatment may include circumstances in which the recipient typically declines to provide the treatment to any individual, or reasonably determines based on current medical knowledge or the best available objective evidence that such medical treatment is not clinically appropriate for a particular individual. The criteria in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section are not a legitimate nondiscriminatory reason for denying or limiting medical treatment and may not be a basis for a determination that an individual is not qualified for the treatment, or that a treatment is not clinically appropriate for a particular individual.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consent.</I> (i) Nothing in this section requires a recipient to provide medical treatment to an individual where the individual, or their authorized representative, does not consent to that treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nothing in this section allows a recipient to discriminate against a qualified individual with a disability on the basis of disability in seeking to obtain consent from an individual or their authorized representative for the recipient to provide, withhold, or withdraw treatment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Providing information.</I> Nothing in this section precludes a provider from providing an individual with a disability or their authorized representative with information regarding the implications of different courses of treatment based on current medical knowledge or the best available objective evidence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40188, May 9, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.57" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.57   Value assessment methods.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, use any measure, assessment, or tool that discounts the value of life extension on the basis of disability to deny or afford an unequal opportunity to qualified individuals with disabilities with respect to the eligibility or referral for, or provision or withdrawal of any aid, benefit, or service, including the terms or conditions under which they are made available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40188, May 9, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 84.58-84.59" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 84.58-84.59   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.60" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.60   Children, parents, caregivers, foster parents, and prospective parents in the child welfare system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discriminatory actions prohibited.</I> (1) No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any child welfare program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) Under the prohibition set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, discrimination includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Decisions based on speculation, stereotypes, or generalizations that a parent, caregiver, foster parent, or prospective parent, because of a disability, cannot safely care for a child; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Decisions based on speculation, stereotypes, or generalizations about a child with a disability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional prohibitions.</I> The prohibitions in paragraph (a) of this section apply to actions by a recipient of Federal financial assistance made directly or through contracts, agreements, or other arrangements, including any action to:
</P>
<P>(1) Deny a qualified parent with a disability custody or control of, or visitation to, a child;
</P>
<P>(2) Deny a qualified parent with a disability an opportunity to participate in or benefit from any and all services provided by a child welfare agency, including but not limited to, family preservation and reunification services equal to that afforded to persons without disabilities;
</P>
<P>(3) Terminate the parental rights or legal guardianship of a qualified individual with a disability;
</P>
<P>(4) Deny a qualified caregiver, foster parent, companion, or prospective parent with a disability the opportunity to participate in or benefit from child welfare programs and activities; or
</P>
<P>(5) Require children, on the basis on the disability, to be placed outside the family home through custody relinquishment, voluntary placement, or other forfeiture of parental rights in order to receive necessary services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Parenting evaluation procedures.</I> A recipient to which this subpart applies shall establish procedures for referring to qualified professionals for evaluation those individuals, who, because of disability, need or are believed to need adapted services or reasonable modifications. A recipient shall also ensure that tests, assessments, and other evaluation tools and materials used for the purpose of assessing or evaluating parenting ability are based in evidence or research, are conducted by a qualified professional and are tailored to assess actual parenting ability and specific areas of disability-related needs. Parenting evaluations must be fully accessible to people with disabilities and shall not be based on a single general intelligence quotient or measure of the person's disability, rather than their parenting ability. Assessments of parents or children must be individualized and based on the best available objective evidence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40188, May 9, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—General Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 40189, May 9, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 84.68" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.68   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with a disability shall, solely on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in or be denied the benefits of the programs or activities of a recipient, or be subjected to discrimination by any recipient.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A recipient, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability—
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified individual with a disability an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified individual with a disability an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the benefit or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aids, benefits, or services to individuals with disabilities or to any class of individuals with disabilities than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with disabilities with aids, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others.
</P>
<P>(v) Aid or perpetuate discrimination against a qualified individual with a disability by providing significant assistance to an agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of disability in providing any aid, benefit, or service to beneficiaries of the recipient's program.
</P>
<P>(vi) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards.
</P>
<P>(vii) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with a disability in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may not deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration—
</P>
<P>(i) That have the effect of subjecting qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability;
</P>
<P>(ii) That have the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing accomplishment of the objectives of the recipient's program with respect to individuals with disabilities; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That perpetuate the discrimination of another recipient if both recipients are subject to common administrative control or are agencies of the same state.
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections—
</P>
<P>(i) That have the effect of excluding individuals with disabilities from, denying them the benefits of, or otherwise subjecting them to discrimination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That have the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of the program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(5) A recipient, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability.
</P>
<P>(6) A recipient may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability, nor may a recipient establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability. The programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the recipient are not, themselves, covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(7)(i) A recipient shall make reasonable modifications in policies, practices, or procedures when such modifications are necessary to avoid discrimination on the basis of disability, unless the recipient can demonstrate that making the modifications would fundamentally alter the nature of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(ii) A recipient is not required to provide a reasonable modification to an individual who meets the definition of “disability” solely under the “regarded as” prong of the definition of disability in § 84.4(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(8) A recipient shall not impose or apply eligibility criteria that screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability or any class of individuals with disabilities from fully and equally enjoying any program or activity, unless such criteria can be shown to be necessary for the provision of the program or activity being offered.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part prohibits a recipient from providing benefits, services, or advantages to individuals with disabilities, or to a particular class of individuals with disabilities beyond those required by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) A recipient shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Nothing in this part shall be construed to require an individual with a disability to accept a modification, aid, service, opportunity, or benefit provided under section 504 or this part which such individual chooses not to accept.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in section 504 or this part authorizes the representative or guardian of an individual with a disability to decline food, water, medical treatment, or medical services for that individual.
</P>
<P>(f) A recipient may not place a surcharge on a particular individual with a disability or any group of individuals with disabilities to cover the costs of measures, such as the provision of auxiliary aids or program accessibility, that are required to provide that individual or group with the nondiscriminatory treatment required by section 504 or this part.
</P>
<P>(g) A recipient shall not exclude or otherwise deny equal programs or activities to an individual or entity because of the known disability of an individual with whom the individual or entity is known to have a relationship or association.
</P>
<P>(h) A recipient may impose legitimate safety requirements necessary for the safe operation of its programs or activities. However, the recipient must ensure that its safety requirements are based on actual risks, not on mere speculation, stereotypes, or generalizations about individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(i) Nothing in this part shall provide the basis for a claim that an individual without a disability was subject to discrimination because of a lack of disability, including a claim that an individual with a disability was granted a reasonable modification that was denied to an individual without a disability.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.69" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.69   Illegal use of drugs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this part does not prohibit discrimination against an individual based on that individual's current illegal use of drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of illegal use of drugs against an individual who is not engaging in current illegal use of drugs and who—
</P>
<P>(i) Has successfully completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program or has otherwise been rehabilitated successfully;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is participating in a supervised rehabilitation program; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is erroneously regarded as engaging in such use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Services provided under the Rehabilitation Act.</I> (1) A recipient shall not exclude an individual on the basis of that individual's current illegal use of drugs from the benefits of programs and activities providing health services and services provided under subchapters I, II, and III of the Rehabilitation Act, if the individual is otherwise entitled to such services.
</P>
<P>(2) A drug rehabilitation or treatment program may deny participation to individuals who engage in illegal use of drugs while they are in the program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Drug testing.</I> (1) This part does not prohibit the recipient from adopting or administering reasonable policies or procedures, including but not limited to drug testing, designed to ensure that an individual who formerly engaged in the illegal use of drugs is not now engaging in current illegal use of drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this paragraph (c) shall be construed to encourage, prohibit, restrict, or authorize the conduct of testing for the illegal use of drugs.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.70" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.70   Maintenance of accessible features.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall maintain in operable working condition those features of facilities and equipment that are required to be readily accessible to and usable by persons with disabilities by section 504 or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) This section does not prohibit isolated or temporary interruptions in service or access due to maintenance or repairs.
</P>
<P>(c) For a recipient, if the 2010 Standards reduce the technical requirements or the number of required accessible elements below the number required by UFAS, the technical requirements or the number of accessible elements in a facility subject to this part may be reduced in accordance with the requirements of the 2010 Standards.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.71" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.71   Retaliation or coercion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall not discriminate against any individual because that individual has opposed any act or practice made unlawful by this part, or because that individual made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing under section 504 or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient shall not coerce, intimidate, threaten, or interfere with any individual in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of their having exercised or enjoyed, or on account of their having aided or encouraged any other individual in the exercise or enjoyment of any right granted or protected by section 504 or this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.72" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.72   Personal devices and services.</HEAD>
<P>This part does not require a recipient to provide to individuals with disabilities personal devices, such as wheelchairs; individually prescribed devices, such as prescription eyeglasses or hearing aids; readers for personal use or study; or services of a personal nature including assistance in eating, toileting, or dressing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.73" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.73   Service animals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Generally, a recipient shall modify its policies, practices, or procedures to permit the use of a service animal by an individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> A recipient may ask an individual with a disability to remove a service animal from the premises if—
</P>
<P>(1) The animal is out of control and the animal's handler does not take effective action to control it; or
</P>
<P>(2) The animal is not housebroken.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>If an animal is properly excluded.</I> If a recipient properly excludes a service animal under paragraph (b) of this section, it shall give the individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in the program or activity without having the service animal on the premises.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Animal under handler's control.</I> A service animal shall be under the control of its handler. A service animal shall have a harness, leash, or other tether, unless either the handler is unable because of a disability to use a harness, leash, or other tether, or the use of a harness, leash, or other tether would interfere with the service animal's safe, effective performance of work or tasks, in which case the service animal must be otherwise under the handler's control (<I>e.g.,</I> voice control, signals, or other effective means).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Care or supervision.</I> A recipient is not responsible for the care or supervision of a service animal.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inquiries.</I> A recipient shall not ask about the nature or extent of a person's disability but may make two inquiries to determine whether an animal qualifies as a service animal. A recipient may ask if the animal is required because of a disability and what work or task the animal has been trained to perform. A recipient shall not require documentation, such as proof that the animal has been certified, trained, or licensed as a service animal. Generally, a recipient may not make these inquiries about a service animal when it is readily apparent that an animal is trained to do work or perform tasks for an individual with a disability (<I>e.g.,</I> the dog is observed guiding an individual who is blind or has low vision, pulling a person's wheelchair, or providing assistance with stability or balance to an individual with an observable mobility disability).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Access to areas of the recipient.</I> Individuals with disabilities shall be permitted to be accompanied by their service animals in all areas of the recipient's facilities where members of the public, participants in programs or activities, or invitees, as relevant, are allowed to go.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Surcharges.</I> A recipient shall not ask or require an individual with a disability to pay a surcharge, even if people accompanied by pets are required to pay fees, or to comply with other requirements generally not applicable to people without pets. If a recipient normally charges individuals for the damage they cause, an individual with a disability may be charged for damage caused by their service animal.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Miniature horses</I>—(1) <I>Reasonable modifications.</I> A recipient shall make reasonable modifications in policies, practices, or procedures to permit the use of a miniature horse by an individual with a disability if the miniature horse has been individually trained to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of the individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assessment factors.</I> In determining whether reasonable modifications in policies, practices, or procedures can be made to allow a miniature horse into a specific facility, a recipient shall consider—
</P>
<P>(i) The type, size, and weight of the miniature horse and whether the facility can accommodate these features;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the handler has sufficient control of the miniature horse;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the miniature horse is housebroken; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the miniature horse's presence in a specific facility compromises legitimate safety requirements that are necessary for safe operation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other requirements.</I> Paragraphs (c) through (h) of this section, which apply to service animals, shall also apply to miniature horses.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.74" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.74   Mobility devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of wheelchairs and manually-powered mobility aids.</I> A recipient shall permit individuals with mobility disabilities to use wheelchairs and manually-powered mobility aids, such as walkers, crutches, canes, braces, or other similar devices designed for use by individuals with mobility disabilities in any areas open to pedestrian use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of other power-driven mobility devices</I>—(1) <I>Requirement.</I> A recipient shall make reasonable modifications in its policies, practices, or procedures to permit the use of other power-driven mobility devices by individuals with mobility disabilities, unless a recipient can demonstrate that the class of other power-driven mobility devices cannot be operated in accordance with legitimate safety requirements that a recipient has adopted pursuant to § 84.68(h).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assessment factors.</I> In determining whether a particular other power-driven mobility device can be allowed in a specific facility as a reasonable modification under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a recipient shall consider—
</P>
<P>(i) The type, size, weight, dimensions, and speed of the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) The facility's volume of pedestrian traffic (which may vary at different times of the day, week, month, or year);
</P>
<P>(iii) The facility's design and operational characteristics (<I>e.g.,</I> whether its program or activity is conducted indoors, its square footage, the density and placement of stationary devices, and the availability of storage for the device, if requested by the user);
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether legitimate safety requirements can be established to permit the safe operation of the other power-driven mobility device in the specific facility; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the use of the other power-driven mobility device creates a substantial risk of serious harm to the immediate environment or natural or cultural resources, or poses a conflict with Federal land management laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inquiry about disability</I>—(1) <I>Requirement.</I> A recipient shall not ask an individual using a wheelchair or other power-driven mobility device questions about the nature and extent of the individual's disability.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inquiry into use of other power-driven mobility device.</I> A recipient may ask a person using an other power-driven mobility device to provide a credible assurance that the mobility device is required because of the person's disability. A recipient in permitting the use of an other power-driven mobility device by an individual with a mobility disability shall accept the presentation of a valid, State-issued, disability parking placard or card, or other State-issued proof of disability as a credible assurance that the use of the other power-driven mobility device is for the individual's mobility disability. In lieu of a valid, State-issued disability parking placard or card, or State-issued proof of disability, a recipient shall accept as a credible assurance a verbal representation, not contradicted by observable fact, that the other power-driven mobility device is being used for a mobility disability. A “valid” disability placard or card is one that is presented by the individual to whom it was issued and is otherwise in compliance with the State of issuance's requirements for disability placards or cards.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.75" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.75   Direct threat.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part does not require a recipient to permit an individual to participate in or benefit from the programs or activities of that recipient when that individual poses a direct threat.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, in determining whether an individual poses a direct threat, a recipient must make an individualized assessment, based on reasonable judgment that relies on current medical knowledge or on the best available objective evidence, to ascertain: the nature, duration, and severity of the risk; the probability that the potential injury will actually occur; and whether reasonable modifications of policies, practices, or procedures or the provision of auxiliary aids or services will mitigate the risk.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining whether an individual poses a direct threat in employment, the recipient must make an individualized assessment according to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's regulation implementing title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, at 29 CFR 1630.2(r).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.76" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.76   Integration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to programs or activities that receive Federal financial assistance from the Department and to recipients that operate such programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discriminatory action prohibited.</I> A recipient shall administer a program or activity in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of a qualified person with a disability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Segregated setting.</I> Segregated settings include but are not limited to congregate settings that are populated exclusively or primarily with individuals with disabilities and may be characterized by regimentation in daily activities; lack of privacy or autonomy; or policies or practices limiting visitors or limiting individuals' ability to engage freely in community activities and to manage their own activities of daily living.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> The general prohibition in paragraph (b) of this section includes but is not limited to the following specific prohibitions, to the extent that such action results in unnecessary segregation, or serious risk of such segregation, of persons with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(1) Establishing or applying policies or practices that limit or condition individuals with disabilities' access to the most integrated setting appropriate to their needs;
</P>
<P>(2) Providing greater benefits or benefits under more favorable terms in segregated settings than in integrated settings;
</P>
<P>(3) Establishing or applying more restrictive rules and requirements for qualified individuals with disabilities in integrated settings than for individuals with disabilities in segregated settings; or
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to provide community-based services that results in institutionalization or serious risk of institutionalization. This paragraph (d)(4) includes, but is not limited to planning, service system design, funding, or service implementation practices that result in institutionalization or serious risk of institutionalization. Qualified individuals with disabilities need not wait until the harm of institutionalization or segregation occurs to assert their right to avoid unnecessary segregation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fundamental alteration.</I> A recipient may establish a defense to the application of this section if it can demonstrate that a requested modification would fundamentally alter the nature of its program or activity.

 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Communications</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 40192, May 9, 2024, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 84.77" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.77   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A recipient shall take appropriate steps to ensure that communications with applicants, participants, members of the public, and companions with disabilities are as effective as communications with others.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, <I>companion</I> means a family member, friend, or associate of an individual seeking access to a program or activity of a recipient, who, along with such individual, is an appropriate person with whom the recipient should communicate.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The recipient shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids and services where necessary to afford qualified individuals with disabilities, including applicants, participants, beneficiaries, companions, and members of the public, an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity of a recipient.
</P>
<P>(2) The type of auxiliary aid or service necessary to ensure effective communication will vary in accordance with the method of communication used by the individual; the nature, length, and complexity of the communication involved; and the context in which the communication is taking place. In determining what types of auxiliary aids and services are necessary, a recipient shall give primary consideration to the requests of individuals with disabilities. In order to be effective, auxiliary aids and services must be provided in accessible formats, in a timely manner, and in such a way as to protect the privacy and independence of the individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A recipient shall not require an individual with a disability to bring another individual to interpret for him or her.
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not rely on an adult accompanying an individual with a disability to interpret or facilitate communication except—
</P>
<P>(i) In an emergency involving an imminent threat to the safety or welfare of an individual or the public where there is no interpreter available; or
</P>
<P>(ii) When the individual with a disability specifically requests that the accompanying adult interpret or facilitate communication, the accompanying adult agrees to provide such assistance, and reliance on that adult for such assistance is appropriate under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient shall not rely on a minor child to interpret or facilitate communication, except in an emergency involving an imminent threat to the safety or welfare of an individual or the public when there is no interpreter available.
</P>
<P>(d) When the recipient chooses to provide qualified interpreters via video remote interpreting services (VRI), it shall ensure that it provides—
</P>
<P>(1) Real-time, full-motion video and audio over a dedicated high-speed, wide-bandwidth video connection or wireless connection that delivers high-quality video images that do not produce lags, choppy, blurry, or grainy images, or irregular pauses in communication;
</P>
<P>(2) A sharply delineated image that is large enough to display the interpreter's face, arms, hands, and fingers, and the participating individual's face, arms, hands, and fingers, regardless of their body position;
</P>
<P>(3) A clear, audible transmission of voices; and
</P>
<P>(4) Adequate training to users of the technology and other involved individuals so that they may quickly and efficiently set up and operate the VRI.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.78" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.78   Telecommunications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a recipient communicates by telephone with applicants and beneficiaries, text telephones (TTYs) or equally effective telecommunications systems shall be used to communicate with individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing or have speech impairments.
</P>
<P>(b) When a recipient uses an automated-attendant system, including, but not limited to, voice mail and messaging, or an interactive voice response system, for receiving and directing incoming telephone calls, that system must provide effective real-time communication with individuals using auxiliary aids and services, including TTYs and all forms of Federal Communications Commission (FCC)-approved telecommunications relay systems, including internet-based relay systems.
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient shall respond to telephone calls from a telecommunications relay service established under title IV of the ADA in the same manner that it responds to other telephone calls.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.79" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.79   Telephone emergency services.</HEAD>
<P>Telephone emergency services, including 911 services, shall provide direct access to individuals who use TTYs and computer modems.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.80" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.80   Information and signage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient shall provide signage at all inaccessible entrances to each of its facilities, directing users to an accessible entrance or to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each accessible entrance of a facility.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.81" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.81   Duties.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart does not require a recipient to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where a recipient's personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the recipient has the burden of proving that compliance with this subpart would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the head of the recipient or their designee after considering all the recipient's resources available for use in the funding and operation of the program or activity and must be accompanied by a written statement of reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this part would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the recipient shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with disabilities receive the benefits or services provided by the recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Web, Mobile, and Kiosk Accessibility</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 40193, May 9, 2024, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 84.82" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.82   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to all programs or activities that receive Federal financial assistance from the Department.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.83" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.83   Accessibility of kiosks.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity of a recipient provided through kiosks.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.84" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.84   Requirements for web and mobile accessibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A recipient shall ensure that the following are readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities:
</P>
<P>(1) Web content that a recipient provides or makes available, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements; and
</P>
<P>(2) Mobile apps that a recipient provides or makes available, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) Beginning May 11, 2027, a recipient with fifteen or more employees shall ensure that the web content and mobile apps that the recipient provides or makes available, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, comply with Level A and Level AA success criteria and conformance requirements specified in WCAG 2.1, unless the recipient can demonstrate that compliance with this section would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens.
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning May 10, 2028, a recipient with fewer than fifteen employees shall ensure that the web content and mobile apps that the recipient provides or makes available, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, comply with Level A and Level AA success criteria and conformance requirements specified in WCAG 2.1, unless the recipient can demonstrate that compliance with this section would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens.
</P>
<P>(3) WCAG 2.1 is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All material approved for incorporation by reference (IBR) is available for inspection at HHS and at the National Archives and Records Administration (“NARA”). Contact HHS, OCR at: Office for Civil Rights, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Ave. SW, Room 509F, HHH Building, Washington, DC 20201; phone: (202) 545-4884; email: <I>504@hhs.gov.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) Web Accessibility Initiative (“WAI”), 401 Edgewater Place, Suite 600, Wakefield, MA 01880; phone: (339) 273-2711; email: <I>contact@w3.org;</I> website: <I>www.w3.org/TR/2018/REC-WCAG21-20180605/</I> and <I>https://perma.cc/UB8A-GG2F.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40193, May 9, 2024, as amended at 91 FR 25507, May 11, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.85" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.85   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of § 84.84 do not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Archived web content.</I> Archived web content as defined in § 84.10.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preexisting conventional electronic documents.</I> Conventional electronic documents that are available as part of a recipient's web content or mobile apps before the date the recipient is required to comply with § 84.84, unless such documents are currently used to apply for, gain access to, or participate in the recipient's programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content posted by a third party.</I> Content posted by a third party, unless the third party is posting due to contractual, licensing, or other arrangements with the recipient.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Individualized, password-protected documents or otherwise secured conventional electronic documents.</I> Conventional electronic documents that are:
</P>
<P>(1) About a specific individual, their property, or their account; and
</P>
<P>(2) Password-protected or otherwise secured.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preexisting social media posts.</I> A recipient's social media posts that were posted before the date the recipient is required to comply with § 84.84.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.86" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.86   Conforming alternate versions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient may use conforming alternate versions of web content, as defined by WCAG 2.1, to comply with § 84.84 only where it is not possible to make web content directly accessible due to technical or legal limitations.
</P>
<P>(b) WCAG 2.1 is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All material approved for incorporation by reference is available for inspection at HHS and at NARA. Contact HHS, OCR at: Office for Civil Rights, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Ave. SW, Room 509F, HHH Building, Washington, DC 20201; phone: (202) 545-4884; email: <I>504@hhs.gov.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) Web Accessibility Initiative (“WAI”), 401 Edgewater Place, Suite 600, Wakefield, MA 01880; phone: (339) 273-2711; email: <I>contact@w3.org;</I> website: <I>www.w3.org/TR/2018/REC-WCAG21-20180605/</I> and <I>https://perma.cc/UB8A-GG2F.</I>




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.87" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.87   Equivalent facilitation.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart prevents the use of designs, methods, or techniques as alternatives to those prescribed, provided that the alternative designs, methods, or techniques result in substantially equivalent or greater accessibility and usability of the web content or mobile app.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.88" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.9.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.88   Duties.</HEAD>
<P>Where a recipient can demonstrate that compliance with the requirements of § 84.84 would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens, compliance with § 84.84 is required to the extent that it does not result in a fundamental alteration or undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where personnel of the recipient believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, a recipient has the burden of proving that compliance with § 84.84 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the head of a recipient or their designee after considering all resources available for use in the funding and operation of the program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, a recipient shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits or services provided by the recipient to the maximum extent possible.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.89" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.9.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.89   Effect of noncompliance that has a minimal impact on access.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient that is not in full compliance with the requirements of § 84.84(b) will be deemed to have met the requirements of § 84.84 in the limited circumstance in which the recipient can demonstrate that the noncompliance has such a minimal impact on access that it would not affect the ability of individuals with disabilities to use the recipient's web content or mobile app to do any of the following in a manner that provides substantially equivalent timeliness, privacy, independence, and ease of use:
</P>
<P>(a) Access the same information as individuals without disabilities;
</P>
<P>(b) Engage in the same interactions as individuals without disabilities;
</P>
<P>(c) Conduct the same transactions as individuals without disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(d) Otherwise participate in or benefit from the same programs and activities as individuals without disabilities.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Accessible Medical Equipment</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 40194, May 9, 2024, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 84.90" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.90   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to programs or activities that receive Federal financial assistance from the Department and to recipients that operate, or that receive Federal financial assistance for the operation of, such programs or activities.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.91" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.91   Requirements for medical diagnostic equipment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of the programs or activities of a recipient offered through or with the use of medical diagnostic equipment (MDE), or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance because the recipient's MDE is not readily accessible to or usable by persons with disabilities.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.92" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.92   Newly purchased, leased, or otherwise acquired medical diagnostic equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for all newly purchased, leased, or otherwise acquired medical diagnostic equipment.</I> All MDE that recipients purchase, lease (including via lease renewals), or otherwise acquire more than July 8, 2024, subject to the requirements and limitations set forth in this section, meet the Standards for Accessible MDE, unless and until the recipient satisfies the scoping requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scoping requirements</I>—(1) <I>General requirement for medical diagnostic equipment.</I> Where a program or activity of a recipient, including physicians' offices, clinics, emergency rooms, hospitals, outpatient facilities, and multi-use facilities, utilizes MDE, at least 10 percent of the total number of units, but no fewer than one unit, of each type of equipment in use must meet the Standards for Accessible MDE.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Facilities that specialize in treating conditions that affect mobility.</I> In rehabilitation facilities that specialize in treating conditions that affect mobility, outpatient physical therapy facilities, and other programs or activities that specialize in treating conditions that affect mobility, at least 20 percent, but no fewer than one unit, of each type of equipment in use must meet the Standards for Accessible MDE.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Facilities with multiple departments.</I> In any facility or program with multiple departments, clinics, or specialties, where a program or activity uses MDE, the facility shall disperse the accessible MDE required by paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section in a manner that is proportionate by department, clinic, or specialty using MDE.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for examination tables and weight scales.</I> Within 2 years after July 8, 2024, recipients shall, subject to the requirements and limitations set forth in this section, purchase, lease, or otherwise acquire the following, unless the recipient already has them in place:
</P>
<P>(1) At least one examination table that meets the Standards for Accessible MDE, if the recipient uses at least one examination table; and
</P>
<P>(2) At least one weight scale that meets the Standards for Accessible MDE, if the recipient uses at least one weight scale.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Equivalent facilitation.</I> Nothing in this section prevents the use of designs, products, or technologies as alternatives to those prescribed by the Standards for Accessible MDE, provided they result in substantially equivalent or greater accessibility and usability of the program or activity. The responsibility for demonstrating equivalent facilitation rests with the recipient.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fundamental alteration and undue burdens.</I> This section does not require a recipient to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity, or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where personnel of the recipient believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, a recipient has the burden of proving that compliance with paragraph (a) or (c) of this section would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the head of a recipient or their designee after considering all resources available for use in the funding and operation of the program or activity and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, a recipient shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits or services provided by the recipient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Diagnostically required structural or operational characteristics.</I> A recipient meets its burden of proving that compliance with paragraph (a) or (c) of this section would result in a fundamental alteration under paragraph (e) of this section if it demonstrates that compliance with paragraph (a) or (c) would alter diagnostically required structural or operational characteristics of the equipment, and prevent the use of the equipment for its intended diagnostic purpose. This paragraph (f) does not excuse compliance with other technical requirements where compliance with those requirements does not prevent the use of the equipment for its diagnostic purpose.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.93" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.93   Existing medical diagnostic equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accessibility.</I> A recipient shall operate each program or activity offered through or with the use of MDE so that the program or activity, in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. This paragraph (a) does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require a recipient to make each of its existing pieces of medical diagnostic equipment accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities; or
</P>
<P>(2) Require a recipient to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity, or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where personnel of the recipient believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, a recipient has the burden of proving that compliance with this paragraph (a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the head of the recipient or their designee after considering all resources available for use in the funding and operation of the program or activity and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the recipient shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits or services provided by the recipient.
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient meets its burden of proving that compliance with this paragraph (a) would result in a fundamental alteration under paragraph (a)(2) of this section if it demonstrates that compliance with this paragraph (a) would alter diagnostically required structural or operational characteristics of the equipment, and prevent the use of the equipment for its intended diagnostic purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> A recipient may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as reassignment of services to alternate accessible locations, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, purchase, lease, or other acquisition of accessible MDE, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. A recipient is not required to purchase, lease, or otherwise acquire accessible medical diagnostic equipment where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, a recipient shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with disabilities in the most integrated setting appropriate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.94" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.94   Qualified staff.</HEAD>
<P>Recipients must ensure their staff are able to successfully operate accessible MDE, assist with transfers and positioning of individuals with disabilities, and carry out the program access obligation regarding existing MDE.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 84.95-84.97" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 84.95-84.97   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 84.98" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 84.98   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The procedural provisions applicable to title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 apply to this part. These procedures are found in 45 CFR 80.6 through 80.10 and 45 CFR part 81.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 40195, May 9, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.13.1.1.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 84—Analysis of Final Regulation


</HEAD>
<HD1>subpart a—general provisions
</HD1>
<P><I>Definitions</I>—1. <I>“Recipient”.</I> Section 84.23 contains definitions used throughout the regulation. Most of the comments concerning § 84.3(f), which contains the definition of “recipient,” commended the inclusion of recipient whose sole source of Federal financial assistance is Medicaid. The Secretary believes that such Medicaid providers should be regarded as recipients under the statute and the regulation and should be held individually responsible for administering services in a nondiscriminatory fashion. Accordingly, § 84.3(f) has not been changed. Small Medicaid providers, however, are exempt from some of the regulation's administrative provisions (those that apply to recipients with fifteen or more employees). And such recipients will be permitted to refer patients to accessible facilities in certain limited circumstances under revised § 84.22(b). The Secretary recognizes the difficulties involved in Federal enforcement of this regulation with respect to thousands of individual Medicaid providers. As in the case of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, the Office for Civil Rights will concentrate its compliance efforts on the state Medicaid agencies and will look primarily to them to ensure compliance by individual providers. 
</P>
<P>One other comment requested that the regulation specify that nonpublic elementary and secondary schools that are not otherwise recipients do not become recipients by virtue of the fact their students participate in certain federally funded programs. The Secretary believes it unnecessary to amend the regulation in this regard, because almost identical language in the Department's regulations implementing title VI and Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972 has consistently been interpreted so as not to render such schools recipients. These schools, however, are indirectly subject to the substantive requirements of this regulation through the application of § 84.4(b)(iv), which prohibits recipients from assisting agencies that discriminate on the basis of handicap in providing services to beneficiairies of the recipients' programs. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>“Federal financial assistance”</I>. In § 84.3(h), defining Federal financial assistance, a clarifying change has been made: procurement contracts are specifically excluded. They are covered, however, by the Department of Labor's regulation under section 503. The Department has never considered such contracts to be contracts of assistance; the explicit exemption has been added only to avoid possible confusion.
</P>
<P>The proposed regulation's exemption of contracts of insurance or guaranty has been retained. A number of comments argued for its deletion on the ground that section 504, unlike title VI and title IX, contains no statutory exemption for such contracts. There is no indication, however, in the legislative history of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 or of the amendments to that Act in 1974, that Congress intended section 504 to have a broader application, in terms of Federal financial assistance, than other civil rights statutes. Indeed, Congress directed that section 504 be implemented in the same manner as titles VI and IX. In view of the long established exemption of contracts of insurance or guaranty under title VI, we think it unlikely that Congress intended section 504 to apply to such contracts.


</P>
<P>3. <I>“Handicapped person”.</I> Section 84.3(j), which defines the class of persons protected under the regulation, has not been substantially changed. The definition of handicapped person in paragraph (j)(1) conforms to the statutory definition of handicapped person that is applicable to section 504, as set forth in section 111(a) of the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974, Pub. L. 93-516. 
</P>
<P>The first of the three parts of the statutory and regulatory definition includes any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. Paragraph (j)(2)(i) further defines physical or mental impairments. The definition does not set forth a list of specific diseases and conditions that constitute physical or mental impairments because of the difficulty of ensuring the comprehensiveness of any such list. The term includes, however, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and, as discussed below, drug addiction and alcoholism. 
</P>
<P>It should be emphasized that a physical or mental impairment does not constitute a handicap for purposes of section 504 unless its severity is such that it results in a substantial limitation of one or more major life activities. Several comments observed the lack of any definition in the proposed regulation of the phrase “substantially limits.” The Department does not believe that a definition of this term is possible at this time. 
</P>
<P>A related issue raised by several comments is whether the definition of handicapped person is unreasonably broad. Comments suggested narrowing the definition in various ways. the most common recommendation was that only “traditional” handicaps be covered. The Department continues to believe, however, that it has no flexibility within the statutory definition to limit the term to persons who have those severe, permanent, or progressive conditions that are most commonly regarded as handicaps. The Department intends, however, to give particular attention in its enforcement of section 504 to eliminating discrimination against persons with the severe handicaps that were the focus of concern in the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. 
</P>
<P>The definition of handicapped person also includes specific limitations on what persons are classified as handicapped under the regulation. The first of the three parts of the definition specifies that only physical and mental handicaps are included. Thus, environmental, cultural, and economic disadvantage are not in themselves covered; nor are prison records, age, or homosexuality. Of course, if a person who has any of these characteristics also has a physical or mental handicap, the person is included within the definition of handicapped person. 
</P>
<P>In paragraph (j)(2)(i), physical or mental impairment is defined to include, among other impairments, specific learning disabilities. The Department will interpret the term as it is used in section 602 of the Education of the Handicapped Act, as amended. Paragraph (15) of section 602 uses the term “specific learning disabilities” to describe such conditions as perceptual handicaps, brain injury, minimal brain dysfunction, dyslexia, and developmental aphasia. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (j)(2)(i) has been shortened, but not substantively changed, by the deletion of clause (C), which made explicit the inclusion of any condition which is mental or physical but whose precise nature is not at present known. Clauses (A) and (B) clearly comprehend such conditions. 
</P>
<P>The second part of the statutory and regulatory definition of handicapped person includes any person who has a record of a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits a major life activity. Under the definition of “record” in paragraph (j)(2)(iii), persons who have a history of a handicapping condition but no longer have the condition, as well as persons who have been incorrectly classified as having such a condition, are protected from discrimination under section 504. Frequently occurring examples of the first group are persons with histories of mental or emotional illness, heart disease, or cancer; of the second group, persons who have been misclassified as mentally retarded. 
</P>
<P>The third part of the statutory and regulatory definition of handicapped person includes any person who is regarded as having a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. It includes many persons who are ordinarily considered to be handicapped but who do not technically fall within the first two parts of the statutory definition, such as persons with a limp. This part of the definition also includes some persons who might not ordinarily be considered handicapped, such as persons with disfiguring scars, as well as persons who have no physical or mental impairment but are treated by a recipient as if they were handicapped. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Drug addicts and alcoholics.</I> As was the case during the first comment period, the issue of whether to include drug addicts and alcoholics within the definition of handicapped person was of major concern to many commenters. The arguments presented on each side of the issue were similar during the two comment periods, as was the preference of commenters for exclusion of this group of persons. While some comments reflected misconceptions about the implications of including alcoholics and drug addicts within the scope of the regulation, the Secretary understands the concerns that underlie the comments on this question and recognizes that application of section 504 to active alcoholics and drug addicts presents sensitive and difficult questions that must be taken into account in interpretation and enforcement. 
</P>
<P>The Secretary has carefully examined the issue and has obtained a legal opinion from the Attorney General. That opinion concludes that drug addiction and alcoholism are “physical or mental impairments” within the meaning of section 7(6) of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, and that drug addicts and alcoholics are therefore handicapped for purposes of section 504 if their impairment substantially limits one of their major life activities. The Secretary therefore believes that he is without authority to exclude these conditions from the definition. There is a medical and legal consensus that alcoholism and drug addiction are diseases, although there is disagreement as to whether they are primarily mental or physical. In addition, while Congress did not focus specifically on the problems of drug addiction and alcoholism in enacting section 504, the committees that considered the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 were made aware of the Department's long-standing practice of treating addicts and alcoholics as handicapped individuals eligible for rehabilitation services under the Vocational Rehabilitation Act. 
</P>
<P>The Secretary wishes to reassure recipients that inclusion of addicts and alcoholics within the scope of the regulation will not lead to the consequences feared by many commenters. It cannot be emphasized too strongly that the statute and the regulation apply only to discrimination against qualified handicapped persons solely by reason of their handicap. The fact that drug addiction and alcoholism may be handicaps does not mean that these conditions must be ignored in determining whether an individual is qualified for services or employment opportunities. On the contrary, a recipient may hold a drug addict or alcoholic to the same standard of performance and behavior to which it holds others, even if any unsatisfactory performance or behavior is related to the person's drug addiction or alcoholism. In other words, while an alcoholic or drug addict may not be denied services or disqualified from employment solely because of his or her condition, the behavioral manifestations of the condition may be taken into account in determining whether he or she is qualified. 
</P>
<P>With respect to the employment of a drug addict or alcoholic, if it can be shown that the addiction or alcoholism prevents successful performance of the job, the person need not be provided the employment opportunity in question. For example, in making employment decisions, a recipient may judge addicts and alcoholics on the same basis it judges all other applicants and employees. Thus, a recipient may consider—for all applicants including drug addicts and alcoholics—past personnel records, absenteeism, disruptive, abusive, or dangerous behavior, violations of rules and unsatisfactory work performance. Moreover, employers may enforce rules prohibiting the possession or use of alcohol or drugs in the work-place, provided that such rules are enforced against all employees. 
</P>
<P>With respect to services, there is evidence that drug addicts and alcoholics are often denied treatment at hospitals for conditions unrelated to their addiction or alcoholism. In addition, some addicts and alcoholics have been denied emergency treatment. These practices have been specifically prohibited by section 407 of the Drug Abuse Office and Treatment Act of 1972 (21 U.S.C. 1174) and section 321 of the Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism Prevention, Treatment and Rehabilitation Act of 1970 (42 U.S.C. 4581), as amended. These statutory provisions are also administered by the Department's Office for Civil Rights and are implemented in § 84.53 of this regulation. 
</P>
<P>With respect to other services, the implications of coverage, of alcoholics and drug addicts are two-fold: first, no person may be excluded from services solely by reason of the presence or history of these conditions; second, to the extent that the manifestations of the condition prevent the person from meeting the basic eligibility requirements of the program or cause substantial interference with the operation of the program, the condition may be taken into consideration. Thus, a college may not exclude an addict or alcoholic as a student, on the basis of addiction or alcoholism, if the person can successfully participate in the education program and complies with the rules of the college and if his or her behavior does not impede the performance of other students. 
</P>
<P>Of great concern to many commenters was the question of what effect the inclusion of drug addicts and alcoholics as handicapped persons would have on school disciplinary rules prohibiting the use or possession of drugs or alcohol by students. Neither such rules nor their application to drug addicts or alcoholics is prohibited by this regulation, provided that the rules are enforced evenly with respect to all students. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>“Qualified handicapped person.”</I> Paragraph (k) of § 84.3 defines the term “qualified handicapped person.” Throughout the regulation, this term is used instead of the statutory term “otherwise qualified handicapped person.” The Department believes that the omission of the word “otherwise” is necessary in order to comport with the intent of the statute because, read literally, “otherwise” qualified handicapped persons include persons who are qualified except for their handicap, rather than in spite of their handicap. Under such a literal reading, a blind person possessing all the qualifications for driving a bus except sight could be said to be “otherwise qualified” for the job of driving. Clearly, such a result was not intended by Congress. In all other respects, the terms “qualified” and “otherwise qualified” are intended to be interchangeable. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.3(k)(1) defines a qualified handicapped person with respect to employment as a handicapped person who can, with reasonable accommodation, perform the essential functions of the job in question. The term “essential functions” does not appear in the corresponding provision of the Department of Labor's section 503 regulation, and a few commenters objected to its inclusion on the ground that a handicapped person should be able to perform all job tasks. However, the Department believes that inclusion of the phrase is useful in emphasizing that handicapped persons should not be disqualified simply because they may have difficulty in performing tasks that bear only a marginal relationship to a particular job. Further, we are convinced that inclusion of the phrase is not inconsistent with the Department of Labor's application of its definition. 
</P>
<P>Certain commenters urged that the definition of qualified handicapped person be amended so as explicitly to place upon the employer the burden of showing that a particular mental or physical characteristic is essential. Because the same result is achieved by the requirement contained in paragraph (a) of § 84.13, which requires an employer to establish that any selection criterion that tends to screen out handicapped persons is job-related, that recommendation has not been followed. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.3(k)(2) (formerly § 84.3(k)(3)) defines qualified handicapped person, with respect to preschool, elementary, and secondary programs, in terms of age. Several commenters recommended that eligibility for the services be based upon the standard of substantial benefit, rather than age, because of the need of many handicapped children for early or extended services if they are to have an equal opportunity to benefit from education programs. No change has been made in this provision, again because of the extreme difficulties in administration that would result from the choice of the former standard. Under the remedial action provisions of § 84.6(a)(3), however, persons beyond the age limits prescribed in § 84.3(k)(2) may in appropriate cases be required to be provided services that they were formerly denied because of a recipient's violation of section 504. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.3(k)(2) states that a handicapped person is qualified for preschool, elementary, or secondary services if the person is of an age at which nonhandicapped persons are eligible for such services or at which state law mandates the provision of educational services to handicapped persons. In addition, the extended age ranges for which recipients must provide full educational opportunity to all handicapped persons in order to be eligible for assistance under the Education of the Handicapped Act—generally, 3-18 as of September 1978, and 3-21 as of September 1980 are incorporated by reference in this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.3(k)(3) formerly § 84.3(k)(2)) defines qualified handicapped person with respect to postsecondary educational programs. As revised, the paragraph means that both academic and technical standards must be met by applicants to these programs. The term “technical standards” refers to all nonacademic admissions criteria that are essential to participation in the program in question. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>General prohibitions against discrimination.</I> Section 84.4 contains general prohibitions against discrimination applicable to all recipients of assistance from this Department. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b)(1(i) prohibits the exclusion of qualified handicapped persons from aids, benefits, or services, and paragraph (ii) requires that equal opportunity to participate or benefit be provided. Paragraph (iii) requires that services provided to handicapped persons be as effective as those provided to the nonhandicapped. In paragraph (iv), different or separate services are prohibited except when necessary to provide equally effective benefits. 
</P>
<P>In this context, the term “equally effective,” defined in paragraph (b)(2), is intended to encompass the concept of equivalent, as opposed to identical, services and to acknowledge the fact that in order to meet the individual needs of handicapped persons to the same extent that the corresponding needs of nonhandicapped persons are met, adjustments to regular programs or the provision of different programs may sometimes be necessary. For example, a welfare office that uses the telephone for communicating with its clients must provide alternative modes of communicating with its deaf clients. This standard parallels the one established under title VI of Civil Rights Act of 1964 with respect to the provision of educational services to students whose primary language is not English. See <I>Lau</I> v. <I>Nichols,</I> 414 U.S. 563 (1974). To be equally effective, however, an aid, benefit, or service need not produce equal results; it merely must afford an equal opportunity to achieve equal results. 
</P>
<P>It must be emphasized that, although separate services must be required in some instances, the provision of unnecessarily separate or different services is discriminatory. The addition to paragraph (b)(2) of the phrase “in the most integrated setting appropriated to the person's needs” is intended to reinforce this general concept. A new paragraph (b)(3) has also been added to § 84.4, requiring recipients to give qualified handicapped persons the option of participating in regular programs despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs. The requirement has been reiterated in §§ 84.38 and 84.47 in connection with physical education and athletics programs. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.4(b)(1)(v) prohibits a recipient from supporting another entity or person that subjects participants or employees in the recipient's program to discrimination on the basis of handicap. This section would, for example, prohibit financial support by a recipient to a community recreational group or to a professional or social organization that discriminates against handicapped persons. Among the criteria to be considered in each case are the substantiality of the relationship between the recipient and the other entity, including financial support by the recipient, and whether the other entity's activities relate so closely to the recipient's program or activity that they fairly should be considered activities of the recipient itself. Paragraph (b)(1)(vi) was added in response to comment in order to make explicit the prohibition against denying qualified handicapped persons the opportunity to serve on planning and advisory boards responsible for guiding federally assisted programs or activities. 
</P>
<P>Several comments appeared to interpret § 84.4(b)(5), which proscribes discriminatory site selection, to prohibit a recipient that is located on hilly terrain from erecting any new buildings at its present site. That, of course, is not the case. This paragraph is not intended to apply to construction of additional buildings at an existing site. Of course, any such facilities must be made accessible in accordance with the requirements of § 84.23. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Assurances of compliance.</I> Section 84.5(a) requires a recipient to submit to the Director an assurance that each of its programs and activities receiving or benefiting from Federal financial assistance from this Department will be conducted in compliance with this regulation. To facilitate the submission of assurances by thousands of Medicaid providers, the Department will follow the title VI procedures of accepting, in lieu of assurances, certification on Medicaid vouchers. Many commenters also sought relief from the paperwork requirements imposed by the Department's enforcement of its various civil rights responsibilities by requesting the Department to issue one form incorporating title VI, title IX, and section 504 assurances. The Secretary is sympathetic to this request. While it is not feasible to adopt a single civil rights assurance form at this time, the Office for Civil Rights will work toward that goal. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Private rights of action.</I> Several comments urged that the regulation incorporate provision granting beneficiaries a private right of action against recipients under section 504. To confer such a right is beyond the authority of the executive branch of Government. There is, however, case law holding that such a right exists. <I>Lloyd</I> v. <I>Regional Transportation Authority,</I> 548 F. 2d 1277 (7th Cir. 1977); <I>see Hairston</I> v. <I>Drosick,</I> Civil No. 75-0691 (S.D. W. Va., Jan. 14, 1976); <I>Gurmankin</I> v. <I>Castanzo,</I> 411 F. Supp. 982 (E.D. Pa. 1976); <I>cf. Lau</I> v. <I>Nichols, supra.</I> 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Remedial action.</I> Where there has been a finding of discrimination, § 84.6 requires a recipient to take remedial action to overcome the effects of the discrimination. Actions that might be required under paragraph (a)(1) include provision of services to persons previously discriminated against, reinstatement of employees and development of a remedial action plan. Should a recipient fail to take required remedial action, the ultimate sanctions of court action or termination of Federal financial assistance may be imposed. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (a)(2) extends the responsibility for taking remedial action to a recipient that exercises control over a noncomplying recipient. Paragraph (a)(3) also makes clear that handicapped persons who are not in the program at the time that remedial action is required to be taken may also be the subject of such remedial action. This paragraph has been revised in response to comments in order to include persons who would have been in the program if discriminatory practices had not existed. Paragraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) have also been amended in response to comments to make plain that, in appropriate cases, remedial action might be required to redress clear violations of the statute itself that occurred before the effective date of this regulation. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Voluntary action.</I> In § 84.6(b), the term “voluntary action” has been substituted for the term “affirmative action” because the use of the latter term led to some confusion. We believe the term “voluntary action” more accurately reflects the purpose of the paragraph. This provision allows action, beyond that required by the regulation, to overcome conditions that led to limited participation by handicapped persons, whether or not the limited participation was caused by any discriminatory actions on the part of the recipient. Several commenters urged that paragraphs (a) and (b) be revised to require remedial action to overcome effects of prior discriminatory practices regardless of whether there has been an express finding of discrimination. The self-evaluation requirement in paragraph (c) accomplishes much the same purpose. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>Self-evaluation.</I> Paragraph (c) requires recipients to conduct a self-evaluation in order to determine whether their policies or practices may discriminate against handicapped persons and to take steps to modify any discriminatory policies and practices and their effects. The Department received many comments approving of the addition to paragraph (c) of a requirement that recipients seek the assistance of handicapped persons in the self-evaluation process. This paragraph has been further amended to require consultation with handicapped persons or organizations representing them before recipients undertake the policy modifications and remedial steps prescribed in paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (iii). 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c)(2), which sets forth the recordkeeping requirements concerning self-evaluation, now applies only to recipients with fifteen or more employees. This change was made as part of an effort to reduce unnecessary or counterproductive administrative obligations on small recipients. For those recipients required to keep records, the requirements have been made more specific; records must include a list of persons consulted and a description of areas examined, problems identified, and corrective steps taken. Moreover, the records must be made available for public inspection. 
</P>
<P>12. <I>Grievance procedure.</I> Section 84.7 (formerly § 84.8) requires recipients with fifteen or more employees to designate an individual responsible for coordinating its compliance efforts and to adopt a grievance procedure. Two changes were made in the section in response to comment. A general requirement that appropriate due process procedures be followed has been added. It was decided that the details of such procedures could not at this time be specified because of the varied nature of the persons and entities who must establish the procedures and of the programs to which they apply. A sentence was also added to make clear that grievance procedures are not required to be made available to unsuccessful applicants for employment or to applicants for admission to colleges and universities. 
</P>
<P>The regulation does not require that grievance procedures be exhausted before recourse is sought from the Department. However, the Secretary believes that it is desirable and efficient in many cases for complainants to seek resolution of their complaints and disputes at the local level and therefore encourages them to use available grievance procedures. 
</P>
<P>A number of comments asked whether compliance with this section or the notice requirements of § 84.8 could be coordinated with comparable action required by the title IX regulation. The Department encourages such efforts. 
</P>
<P>13. <I>Notice.</I> Section 84.8 (formerly § 84.9) sets forth requirements for dissemination of statements of nondicrimination policy by recipients. 
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<P>It is important that both handicapped persons and the public at large be aware of the obligations of recipients under section 504. Both the Department and recipients have responsibilities in this regard. Indeed the Department intends to undertake a major public information effort to inform persons of their rights under section 504 and this regulation. In § 84.8 the Department has sought to impose a clear obligation on major recipients to notify beneficiaries and employees of the requirements of section 504, without dictating the precise way in which this notice must be given. At the same time, we have avoided imposing requirements on small recipients (those with fewer than fifteen employees) that would create unnecessary and counterproductive paper work burdens on them and unduly stretch the enforcement resources of the Department. 
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<P>Section 84.8(a), as simplified, requires recipients with fifteen or more employees to take appropriate steps to notify beneficiaries and employees of the recipient's obligations under section 504. The last sentence of § 84.8(a) has been revised to list possible, rather than required, means of notification. Section 84.8(b) requires recipients to include a notification of their policy of nondiscrimination in recruitment and other general information materials. 
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<P>In response to a number of comments, § 84.8 has been revised to delete the requirements of publication in local newspapers, which has proved to be both troublesome and ineffective. Several commenters suggested that notification on separate forms be allowed until present stocks of publications and forms are depleted. The final regulation explicitly allows this method of compliance. The separate form should, however, be included with each significant publication or form that is distributed. 
</P>
<P>Former § 84.9(b)(2), which prohibited the use of materials that might give the impression that a recipient excludes qualified handicapped persons from its program, has been deleted. The Department is convinced by the comments that this provision is unnecessary and difficult to apply. The Department encourages recipients, however, to include in their recruitment and other general information materials photographs of handicapped persons and ramps and other features of accessible buildings. 
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<P>Under new § 84.9 the Director may, under certain circumstances, require recipients with fewer than fifteen employees to comply with one or more of these requirements. Thus, if experience shows a need for imposing notice or other requirements on particular recipients or classes of small recipients, the Department is prepared to expand the coverage of these sections. 
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<P>14. <I>Inconsistent State laws.</I> Section 84.10(a) states that compliance with the regulation is not excused by state or local laws limiting the eligibility of qualified handicapped persons to receive services or to practice an occupation. The provision thus applies only with respect to state or local laws that unjustifiably differentiate on the basis of handicap. 
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<P>Paragraph (b) further points out that the presence of limited employment opportunities in a particular profession, does not excuse a recipient from complying with the regulation. Thus, a law school could not deny admission to a blind applicant because blind laywers may find it more difficult to find jobs that do nonhandicapped lawyers. 
</P>
<HD1>subpart b—employment practices 
</HD1>
<P>Subpart B prescribes requirements for nondiscrimination in the employment practices of recipients of Federal financial assistance administered by the Department. This subpart is consistent with the employment provisions of the Department's regulation implementing title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972 (45 CFR part 86) and the regulation of the Department of Labor under section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act, which requries certain Federal contractors to take affirmative action in the employment and advancement of qualified handicapped persons. All recipients subject to title IX are also subject to this regulation. In addition, many recipients subject to this regulation receive Federal procurement contracts in excess of $2,500 and are therefore also subject to section 503. 
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<P>15. <I>Discriminatory practices.</I> Section 84.11 sets forth general provisions with respect to discrimination in employment. A new paragraph (a)(2) has been added to clarify the employment obligations of recipients that receive Federal funds under Part B of the Education of the Handicapped Act, as amended (EHA). Section 606 of the EHA obligates elementary or secondary school systems that receive EHA funds to take positive steps to employ and advance in employment qualified handicapped persons. This obligation is similar to the nondiscrimination requirement of section 504 but requires recipients to take additional steps to hire and promote handicapped persons. In enacting section 606 Congress chose the words “positive steps” instead of “affirmative action” advisedly and did not intend section 606 to incorporate the types of activities required under Executive Order 11246 (affirmative action on the basis of race, color, sex, or national origin) or under sections 501 and 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b) of § 84.11 sets forth the specific aspects of employment covered by the regulation. Paragraph (c) provides that inconsistent provisions of collective bargaining agreements do not excuse noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>16. <I>Reasonable accommodation.</I> The reasonable accommodation requirement of § 84.12 generated a substantial number of comments. The Department remains convinced that its approach is both fair and effective. Moreover, the Department of Labor reports that it has experienced little difficulty in administering the requirements of reasonable accommodation. The provision therefore remains basically unchanged from the proposed regulation. 
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<P>Section 84.12 requires a recipient to make reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of a handicapped applicant or employee unless the recipient can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of its program. Where a handicapped person is not qualified to perform a particular job, where reasonable accommodation does not overcome the effects of a person's handicap, or where reasonable accommodation causes undue hardship to the employer, failure to hire or promote the handicapped person will not be considered discrimination. 
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<P>Section 84.12(b) lists some of the actions that constitute reasonable accommodation. The list is neither all-inclusive nor meant to suggest that employers must follow all of the actions listed. 
</P>
<P>Reasonable accommodation includes modification of work schedules, including part-time employment, and job restructuring. Job restructuring may entail shifting nonessential duties to other employees. In other cases, reasonable accommodation may include physical modifications or relocation of particular offices or jobs so that they are in facilities or parts of facilities that are accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. If such accommodations would cause undue hardship to the employer, they need not be made. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c) of this section sets forth the factors that the Office for Civil Rights will consider in determining whether an accommodation necessary to enable an applicant or employee to perform the duties of a job would impose an undue hardship. The weight given to each of these factors in making the determination as to whether an accommodation constitutes undue hardship will vary depending on the facts of a particular situation. Thus, a small day-care center might not be required to expend more than a nominal sum, such as that necessary to equip a telephone for use by a secretary with impaired hearing, but a large school district might be required to make available a teacher's aide to a blind applicant for a teaching job. Further, it might be considered reasonable to require a state welfare agency to accommodate a deaf employee by providing an interpreter, while it would constitute an undue hardship to impose that requirement on a provider of foster home care services. The reasonable accommodation standard in § 84.12 is similar to the obligation imposed upon Federal contractors in the regulation implementing section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, administered by the Department of Labor. Although the wording of the reasonable accommodation provisions of the two regulations is not identical, the obligation that the two regulations impose is the same, and the Federal Government's policy in implementing the two sections will be uniform. The Department adopted the factors listed in paragraph (c) instead of the “business necessity” standard of the Labor regulation because that term seemed inappropriate to the nature of the programs operated by the majority of institutions subject to this regulation, e.g., public school systems, hospitals, colleges and universities, nursing homes, day-care centers, and welfare offices. The factors listed in paragraph (c) are intended to make the rationale underlying the business necessity standard applicable to an understandable by recipients of HHS funds. 
</P>
<P>17. <I>Tests and selection criteria.</I> Revised § 84.13(a) prohibits employers from using test or other selection criteria that screen out or tend to screen out handicapped persons unless the test or criterion is shown to be job-related and alternative tests or criteria that do not screen out or tend to screen out as many handicapped persons are not shown by the Director to be available. This paragraph is an application of the principle established under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 in <I>Griggs</I> v. <I>Duke Power Company,</I> 401 U.S. 424 (1971). 
</P>
<P>Under the proposed section, a statistical showing of adverse impact on handicapped persons was required to trigger an employer's obligation to show that employment criteria and qualifications relating to handicap were necessary. This requirement was changed because the small number of handicapped persons taking tests would make statistical showings of “disproportionate, adverse effect” difficult and burdensome. Under the altered, more workable provision, once it is shown that an employment test substantially limits the opportunities of handicapped persons, the employer must show the test to be job-related. A recipient is no longer limited to using predictive validity studies as the method for demonstrating that a test or other selection criterion is in fact job-related. Nor, in all cases, are predictive validity studies sufficient to demonstrate that a test or criterion is job-related. In addition, § 84.13(a) has been revised to place the burden on the Director, rather than the recipient, to identify alternate tests. 
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<P>Section 84.13(b) requires that a recipient take into account that some tests and criteria depend upon sensory, manual, or speaking skills that may not themselves be necessary to the job in question but that may make the handicapped person unable to pass the test. The recipient must select and administer tests so as best to ensure that the test will measure the handicapped person's ability to perform on the job rather than the person's ability to see, hear, speak, or perform manual tasks, except, of course, where such skills are the factors that the test purports to measure. For example, a person with a speech impediment may be perfectly qualified for jobs that do not or need not, with reasonable accommodation, require ability to speak clearly. Yet, if given an oral test, the person will be unable to perform in a satisfactory manner. The test results will not, therefore, predict job performance but instead will reflect impaired speech. 
</P>
<P>18. <I>Preemployment inquiries.</I> Section 84.14, concerning preemployment inquiries, generated a large number of comments. Commenters representing handicapped persons strongly favored a ban on preemployment inquiries on the ground that such inquiries are often used to discriminate against handicapped persons and are not necessary to serve any legitimate interests of employers. Some recipients, on the other hand, argued that preemployment inquiries are necessary to determine qualifications of the applicant, safety hazards caused by a particular handicapping condition, and accommodations that might required. 
</P>
<P>The Secretary has concluded that a general prohibition of preemployment inquiries is appropriate. However, a sentence has been added to paragraph (a) to make clear that an employer may inquire into an applicant's ability to perform job-related tasks but may not ask if the person has a handicap. For example, an employer may not ask on an employment form if an applicant is visually impaired but may ask if the person has a current driver's license (if that is a necessary qualification for the position in question). Similarly, employers may make inquiries about an applicant's ability to perform a job safely. Thus, an employer may not ask if an applicant is an epileptic but may ask whether the person can perform a particular job without endangering other employees. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.14(B) allows preemployment inquiries only if they are made in conjunction with required remedial action to correct past discrimination, with voluntary action to overcome past conditions that have limited the participation of handicapped persons, or with obligations under section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. In these instances, paragraph (b) specifies certain safeguards that must be followed by the employer. 
</P>
<P>Finally, the revised provision allows an employer to condition offers of employment to handicapped persons on the results of medical examinations, so long as the examinations are administered to all employees in a nondiscriminatory manner and the results are treated on a confidential basis. 
</P>
<P>19. <I>Specific acts of Discrimination.</I> Sections 84.15 (recruitment), 84.16 (compensation), 84.17 (job classification and structure) and 84.18 (fringe benefits) have been deleted from the regulation as unnecessarily duplicative of § 84.11 (discrimination prohibited). The deletion of these sections in no way changes the substantive obligations of employers subject to this regulation from those set forth in the July 16 proposed regulation. These deletions bring the regulation closer in form to the Department of Labor's section 503 regulation. 
</P>
<P>Proposed § 84.18, concerning fringe benefits, had allowed for differences in benefits or contributions between handicapped and nonhandicapped persons in situations only where such differences could be justified on an actuarial basis. Section 84.11 simply bars discrimination in providing fringe benefits and does not address the issue of actuarial differences. The Department believes that currently available data and experience do not demonstrate a basis for promulgating a regulation specifically allowing for differences in benefits or contributions. 
</P>
<HD1>subpart c—program accessibility 
</HD1>
<P>In general, subpart C prohibits the exclusion of qualified handicapped persons from federally assisted programs or activities because a recipient's facilities are inaccessible or unusable. 
</P>
<P>20. <I>Existing facilities.</I> Section 84.22 maintains the same standard for nondiscrimination in regard to existing facilities as was included in the proposed regulation. The section states that a recipient's program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, must be readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. Paragraphs (a) and (b) make clear that a recipient is not required to make each of its existing facilities accessible to handicapped persons if its program as a whole is accessible. Accessibility to the recipient's program or activity may be achieved by a number of means, including redesign of equipment, reassignment of classes or other services to accessible buildings, and making aides available to beneficiaries. In choosing among methods of compliance, recipients are required to give priority consideration to methods that will be consistent with provision of services in the most appropriate integrated setting. Structural changes in existing facilities are required only where there is no other feasible way to make the recipient's program accessible. 
</P>
<P>Under § 84.22, a university does not have to make all of its existing classroom buildings accessible to handicapped students if some of its buildings are already accessible and if it is possible to reschedule or relocate enough classes so as to offer all required courses and a reasonable selection of elective courses in accessible facilities. If sufficient relocation of classes is not possible using existing facilities, enough alterations to ensure program accessibility are required. A university may not exclude a handicapped student from a specifically requested course offering because it is not offered in an accessible location, but it need not make every section of that course accessible. 
</P>
<P>Commenters representing several institutions of higher education have suggested that it would be appropriate for one postsecondary institution in a geographical area to be made accessible to handicapped persons and for other colleges and universities in that area to participate in that school's program, thereby developing an educational consortium for the postsecondary education of handicapped students. The Department believes that such a consortium, when developed and applied only to handicapped persons, would not constitute compliance with § 84.22, but would discriminate against qualified handicapped persons by restricting their choice in selecting institutions of higher education and would, therefore, be inconsistent with the basic objectives of the statute. 
</P>
<P>Nothing in this regulation, however, should be read as prohibiting institutions from forming consortia for the benefit of all students. Thus, if three colleges decide that it would be cost-efficient for one college to offer biology, the second physics, and the third chemistry to all students at the three colleges, the arrangement would not violate section 504. On the other hand, it would violate the regulation if the same institutions set up a consortium under which one college undertook to make its biology lab accessible, another its physics lab, and a third its chemistry lab, and under which mobility-impaired handicapped students (but not other students) were required to attend the particular college that is accessible for the desired courses. 
</P>
<P>Similarly, while a public school district need not make each of its buildings completely accessible, it may not make only one facility or part of a facility accessible if the result is to segregate handicapped students in a single setting. 
</P>
<P>All recipients that proivde health, welfare, or other social services may also comply with § 84.22 by delivering services at alternate accessible sites or making home visits. Thus, for example, a pharmacist might arrange to make home deliveries of drugs. Under revised § 84.22(c), small providers of health, welfare, and social services (those with fewer than fifteen employees) may refer a beneficiary to an accessible provider of the desired service, but only if no means of meeting the program accessibility requirement other than a significant alteration in existing facilties is available. The referring recipient has the responsibility of determining that the other provider is in fact accessible and willing to provide the service. The Secretary believes this “last resort” referral provision is appropriate to avoid imposition of additional costs in the health care area, to encourage providers to remain in the Medicaid program, and to avoid imposing significant costs on small, low-budget providers such as day-care centers or foster homes. 
</P>
<P>A recent change in the tax law may assist some recipients in meeting their obligations under this section. Under section 2122 of the Tax Reform Act of 1976, recipients that pay federal income tax are eligible to claim a tax deduction of up to $25,000 for architectural and transportation modifications made to improve accessibility for handicapped persons. Many physicians and dentists, among others, may be eligible for this tax deduction. See 42 FR 17870 (April 4, 1977), adopting 26 CFR 7.190. 
</P>
<P>Several commenters expressed concern about the feasibility of compliance with the program accessibility standard. The Secretary believes that the standard is flexible enough to permit recipients to devise ways to make their programs accessible short of extremely expensive or impractical physical changes in facilities. Accordingly, the section does not allow for waivers. The Department is ready at all times to provide technical assistance to recipients in meeting their program accessibility responsibilities. For this purpose, the Department is establishing a special technical assistance unit. Recipients are encouraged to call upon the unit staff for advice and guidance both on structural modifications and on other ways of meeting the program accessibility requirement. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (d) has been amended to require recipients to make all nonstructural adjustments necessary for meeting the program accessibility standard within sixty days. Only where structural changes in facilities are necessary will a recipient be permitted up to three years to accomplish program accessibility. It should be emphasized that the three-year time period is not a waiting period and that all changes must be accomplished as expeditiously as possible. Further, it is the Department's belief, after consultation with experts in the field, that outside ramps to buildings can be constructed quickly and at relatively low cost. Therefore, it will be expected that such structural additions will be made promptly to comply with § 84.22(d). 
</P>
<P>The regulation continues to provide, as did the proposed version, that a recipient planning to achieve program accessibility by making structural changes must develop a transition plan for such changes within six months of the effective date of the regulation. A number of commenters suggested extending that period to one year. The secretary believes that such an extension is unnecessary and unwise. Planning for any necessary structural changes should be undertaken promptly to ensure that they can be completed within the three-year period. The elements of the transition plan as required by the regulation remain virtually unchanged from the proposal but § 84.22(d) now includes a requirement that the recipient make the plan available for public inspection. 
</P>
<P>Several commenters expressed concern that the program accessibility standard would result in the segregation of handicapped persons in educational institutions. The regulation will not be applied to permit such a result. See § 84.4(c)(2)(iv), prohibiting unnecessarily separate treatment; § 84.35, requiring that students in elementary and secondary schools be educated in the most integrated setting appropriate to their needs; and new § 84.43(d), applying the same standard to postsecondary education. 
</P>
<P>We have received some comments from organizations of handicapped persons on the subject of requiring, over an extended period of time, a barrier-free environment—that is, requiring the removal of all architectural barriers in existing facilities. The Department has considered these comments but has decided to take no further action at this time concerning these suggestions, believing that such action should only be considered in light of experience in implementing the program accessibility standard. 
</P>
<P>21. <I>New construction.</I> Section 84.23 requires that all new facilities, as well as alterations that could affect access to and use of existing facilities, be designed and constructed in a manner so as to make the facility accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. Section 84.23(a) has been amended so that it applies to each newly constructed facility if the construction was commenced after the effective date of the regulation. The words “if construction has commenced” will be considered to mean “if groundbreaking has takenplace.” Thus, a recipient will not be required to alter the design of a facility that has progressed beyond groundbreaking prior to the effective date of the regulation. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b) requires certain alterations to conform to the requirement of physical accessibility in paragraph (a). If an alteration is undertaken to a portion of a building the accessibility of which could be improved by the manner in which the alteration is carried out, the alteration must be made in that manner. Thus, if a doorway or wall is being altered, the door or other wall opening must be made wide enough to accommodate wheelchairs. On the other hand, if the alteration consists of altering ceilings, the provisions of this section are not applicable because this alteration cannot be done in a way that affects the accessibility of that portion of the building. The phrase “to the maximum extent feasible” has been added to allow for the occasional case in which the nature of an existing facility is such as to make it impractical or prohibitively expensive to renovate the building in a manner that results in its being entirely barrier-free. In all such cases, however, the alteration should provide the maximum amount of physical accessibility feasible. 
</P>
<P>As proposed, § 84.23(c) required compliance with the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standard on building accessibility as the minimum necessary for compliance with the accessibility requirement of § 84.23 (a) and (b). The regerence to the ANSI standard created some ambiguity, since the standard itself provides for waivers where other methods are equally effective in providing accessibility to the facility. Moreover, the Secretary does not wish to discourage innovation in barrier-free construction by requiring absolute adherence to a rigid design standard. Accordingly, § 84.23 (c) has been revised to permit departures from particular requirements of the ANSI standard where the recipient can demonstrate that equivalent access to the facility is provided. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.23(d) of the proposed regulation, providing for a limited deferral of action concerning facilities that are subject to section 502 as well as section 504 of the Act, has been deleted. The Secretary believes that the provision is unnecessary and inappropriate to this regulation. The Department will, however, seek to coordinate enforcement activities under this regulation with those of the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board. 
</P>
<HD1>subpart d—preschool, elementary, and secondary education 
</HD1>
<P>Subpart D sets forth requirements for nondiscrimination in preschool, elementary, secondary, and adult education programs and activities, including secondary vocational education programs. In this context, the term “adult education” refers only to those educational programs and activities for adults that are operated by elementary and secondary schools. 
</P>
<P>The provisions of Subpart D apply to state and local educational agencies. Although the subpart applies, in general, to both public and private education programs and activities that are federally assisted, §§ 84.32 and 84.33 apply only to public programs and § 84.39 applies only to private programs; §§ 84.35 and 84.36 apply both to public programs and to those private programs that include special services for handicapped students. 
</P>
<P>Subpart B generally conforms to the standards established for the education of handicapped persons in <I>Mills</I> v. <I>Board of Education</I> of the District of Columbia, 348 F. Supp. 866 (D.D.C. 1972), <I>Pennsylvania Association for Retarded Children</I> v. <I>Commonwealth of Pennsylvania,</I> 344 F. Supp. 1257 (E.D. 1971), 343 F. Supp. 279 (E.D. Pa. 1972), and <I>Lebanks</I> v. <I>Spears,</I> 60, F.R.D. 135 (E.D. La. 1973), as well as in the Education of the Handicapped Act, as amended by Pub. L. 94-142 (the EHA). 
</P>
<P>The basic requirements common to those cases, to the EHA, and to this regulation are (1) that handicapped persons, regardless of the nature or severity of their handicap, be provided a free appropriate public education, (2) that handicapped students be educated with nonhandicapped students to the maximum extent appropriate to their needs, (3) that educational agencies undertake to identify and locate all unserved handicapped children, (4) that evaluation procedures be improved in order to avoid the inappropriate education that results from the misclassification of students, and (5) that procedural safeguard be established to enable parents and guardians to influence decisions regarding the evaluation and placement of their children. These requirements are designed to ensure that no handicapped child is excluded from school on the basis of handicap and, if a recipient demonstrates that placement in a regular educational setting cannot be achieved satisfactorily, that the student is provided with adequate alternative services suited to the student's needs without additional cost to the student's parents or guardian. Thus, a recipient that operates a public school system must either educate handicapped children in its regular program or provide such children with an appropriate alternative education at public expense. 
</P>
<P>It is not the intention of the Department, except in extraordinary circumstances, to review the result of individual placement and other educational decisions, so long as the school district complies with the “process” requirements of this subpart (concerning identification and location, evaluation, and due process procedures). However, the Department will place a high priority on investigating cases which may involve exclusion of a child from the education system or a pattern or practice of discriminatory placements or education. 
</P>
<P>22. <I>Location and notification.</I> Section 84.32 requires public schools to take steps annually to identify and locate handicapped children who are not receiving an education and to publicize to handicapped children and their parents the rights and duties established by section 504 and this regulation. This section has been shortened without substantive change. 
</P>
<P>23. <I>Free appropriate public education.</I> Former §§ 84.34 (“Free education”) and 84.36(a) (“Suitable education”) have been consolidated and revised in new § 84.33. Under § 84.34(a), a recipient is responsible for providing a free appropriate public education to each qualified handicapped person who is in the recipient's jurisdiction. The word “in” encompasses the concepts of both domicile and actual residence. If a recipient places a child in a program other than its own, it remains financially responsible for the child, whether or not the other program is operated by another recipient or educational agency. Moreover, a recipient may not place a child in a program that is inappropriate or that otherwise violates the requirements of Subpart D. And in no case may a recipient refuse to provide services to a handicapped child in its jurisdiction because of another person's or entity's failure to assume financial responsibility. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.33(b) concerns the provision of appropriate educational services to handicapped children. To be appropriate, such services must be designed to meet handicapped children's individual educational needs to the same extent that those of nonhandicapped children are met. An appropriate education could consist of education in regular classes, education in regular classes with the use of supplementary services, or special education and related services. Special education may include specially designed instruction in classrooms, at home, or in private or public institutions and may be accompanied by such related services as developmental, corrective, and other supportive services (including psychological, counseling, and medical diagnostic services). The placement of the child must however, be consistent with the requirements of § 84.34 and be suited to his or her educational needs. 
</P>
<P>The quality of the educational services provided to handicapped students must equal that of the services provided to nonhandicapped students; thus, handicapped student's teachers must be trained in the instruction of persons with the handicap in question and appropriate materials and equipment must be available. The Department is aware that the supply of adequately trained teachers may, at least at the outset of the imposition of this requirement, be insufficient to meet the demand of all recipients. This factor will be considered in determining the appropriateness of the remedy for noncompliance with this section. A new § 84.33(b)(2) has been added, which allows this requirement to be met through the full implementation of an individualized education program developed in accordance with the standards of the EHA. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c) of § 84.33 sets forth the specific financial obligations of a recipient. If a recipient does not itself provide handicapped persons with the requisite services, it must assume the cost of any alternate placement. If, however, a recipient offers adequate services and if alternate placement is chosen by a student's parent or guardian, the recipient need not assume the cost of the outside services. (If the parent or guardian believes that his or her child cannot be suitably educated in the recipient's program, he or she may make use of the procedures established in § 84.36.) Under this paragraph, a recipient's obligation extends beyond the provision of tuition payments in the case of placement outside the regular program. Adequate transportation must also be provided. Recipients must also pay for psychological services and those medical services necessary for diagnostic and evaluative purposes. 
</P>
<P>If the recipient places a student, because of his or her handicap, in a program that necessitates his or her being away from home, the payments must also cover room and board and nonmedical care (including custodial and supervisory care). When residential care is necessitated not by the student's handicap but by factors such as the student's home conditions, the recipient is not required to pay the cost of room and board. 
</P>
<P>Two new sentences have been added to paragraph (c)(1) to make clear that a recipient's financial obligations need not be met solely through its own funds. Recipients may rely on funds from any public or private source including insurers and similar third parties. 
</P>
<P>The EHA requires a free appropriate education to be provided to handicapped children “no later than September 1, 1978,” but section 504 contains no authority for delaying enforcement. To resolve this problem, a new paragraph (d) has been added to § 84.33. Section 84.33(d) requires recipients to achieve full compliance with the free appropriate public education requirements of § 84.33 as expeditiously as possible, but in no event later than September 1, 1978. The provision also makes clear that, as of the effective date of this regulation, no recipient may exclude a qualified handicapped child from its educational program. This provision against exclusion is consistent with the order of providing services set forth in section 612(3) of the EHA, which places the highest priority on providing services to handicapped children who are not receiving an education. 
</P>
<P>24. <I>Educational setting.</I> Section 84.34 prescribes standards for educating handicapped persons with nonhandicapped persons to the maximum extent appropriate to the needs of the handicapped person in question. A handicapped student may be removed from the regular educational setting only where the recipient can show that the needs of the student would, on balance, be served by placement in another setting. 
</P>
<P>Although under § 84.34, the needs of the handicapped person are determinative as to proper placement, it should be stressed that, where a handicapped student is so disruptive in a regular classroom that the education of other students is significantly impaired, the needs of the handicapped child cannot be met in that environment. Therefore, regular placement would not be appropriate to his or her needs and would not be required by § 84.34. 
</P>
<P>Among the factors to be considered in placing a child is the need to place the child as close to home as possible. A new sentence has been added to paragraph (a) requiring recipients to take this factor into account. As pointed out in several comments, the parents' right under § 84.36 to challenge the placement of their child extends not only to placement in special classes or separate schools but also to placement in a distant school and, in particular, to residential placement. An equally appropriate educational program may exist closer to home; this issue may be raised by the parent or guardian under §§ 84.34 and 84.36. 
</P>
<P>New paragraph (b) specified that handicapped children must also be provided nonacademic services in as integrated a setting as possible. This requirement is especially important for children whose educational needs necessitate their being solely with other handicapped children during most of each day. To the maximum extent appropriate, children in residential settings are also to be provided opportunities for participation with other children. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.34(c) (formerly § 84.38) requires that any facilities that are identifiable as being for handicapped students be comparable in quality to other facilities of the recipient. A number of comments objected to this section on the basis that it encourages the creation and maintenance of such facilities. This is not the intent of the provision. A separate facility violates section 504 unless it is indeed necessary to the provision of an appropriate education to certain handicapped students. In those instances in which such facilities are necessary (as might be the case, for example, for severely retarded persons), this provision requires that the educational services provided be comparable to those provided in the facilities of the recipient that are not identifiable as being for handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>25. <I>Evaluation and placement.</I> Because the failure to provide handicapped persons with an appropriate education is so frequently the result of misclassification or misplacement, § 84.33(b)(1) makes compliance with its provisions contingent upon adherence to certain procedures designed to ensure appropriate classification and placement. These procedures, delineated in §§ 84.35 and 84.36, are concerned with testing and other evaluation methods and with procedural due process rights. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.35(a) requires that an individual evaluation be conducted before any action is taken with respect either to the initial placement of a handicapped child in a regular or special education program or to any subsequent significant change in that placement. Thus, a full reevaluation is not required every time an adjustment in placement is made. “Any action” includes denials of placement. 
</P>
<P>Paragraphs (b) and (c) of § 84.35 establishes procedures designed to ensure that children are not misclassified, unnecessarily labeled as being handicapped, or incorrectly placed because of inappropriate selection, administration, or interpretation of evaluation materials. This problem has been extensively documented in “Issues in the Classification of Children,” a report by the Project on Classification of Exceptional Children, in which the HHS Interagency Task Force participated. The provisions of these paragraphs are aimed primarily at abuses in the placement process that result from misuse of, or undue or misplaced reliance on, standardized scholastic aptitude tests. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b) has been shortened but not substantively changed. The requirement in former subparagraph (1) that recipients provide and administer evaluation materials in the native language of the student has been deleted as unnecessary, since the same requirement already exists under title VI and is more appropriately covered under that statute. Subparagraphs (1) and (2) are, in general, intended to prevent misinterpretation and similar misuse of test scores and, in particular, to avoid undue reliance on general intelligence tests. Subparagraph (3) requires a recipient to administer tests to a student with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills in whatever manner is necessary to avoid distortion of the test results by the impairment. Former subparagraph (4) has been deleted as unnecessarily repetitive of the other provisions of this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c) requires a recipient to draw upon a variety of sources in the evaluation process so that the possibility of error in classification is minimized. In particular, it requires that all significant factors relating to the learning process, including adaptive behavior, be considered. (Adaptive behavior is the effectiveness with which the individual meets the standards of personal independence and social responsibility expected of his or her age and cultural group.) Information from all sources must be documented and considered by a group of persons, and the procedure must ensure that the child is placed in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>The proposed regulation would have required a complete individual reevaluation of the student each year. The Department has concluded that it is inappropriate in the section 504 regulation to require full reevaluations on such a rigid schedule. Accordingly, § 84.35(c) requires periodic reevaluations and specifies that reevaluations in accordance with the EHA will constitute compliance. The proposed regulation implementing the EHA allows reevaluation at three-year intervals except under certain specified circumstances. 
</P>
<P>Under § 84.36, a recipient must establish a system of due process procedures to be afforded to parents or guardians before the recipient takes any action regarding the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of a person who, because of handicap, needs or is believed to need special education or related services. This section has been revised. Because the due process procedures of the EHA, incorporated by reference in the proposed section 504 regulation, are inappropriate for some recipients not subject to that Act, the section now specifies minimum necessary procedures: notice, a right to inspect records, an impartial hearing with a right to representation by counsel, and a review procedure. The EHA procedures remain one means of meeting the regulation's due process requirements, however, and are recommended to recipients as a model. 
</P>
<P>26. <I>Nonacademic services.</I> Section 84.37 requires a recipient to provide nonacademic and extracurricular services and activities in such manner as is necessary to afford handicapped students an equal opportunity for participation. Because these services and activities are part of a recipient's education program, they must, in accordance with the provisions of § 84.34, be provided in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>Revised paragraph (c)(2) does permit separation or differentiation with respect to the provision of physical education and athletics activities, but only if qualified handicapped students are also allowed the opportunity to compete for regular teams or participate in regular activities. Most handicapped students are able to participate in one or more regular physical education and athletics activities. For example, a student in a wheelchair can participate in regular archery course, as can a deaf student in a wrestling course. 
</P>
<P>Finally, the one-year transition period provided in former § 84.37(a)(3) was deleted in response to the almost unanimous objection of commenters to that provision. 
</P>
<P>27. <I>Preschool and adult education.</I> Section 84.38 prohibits discrimination on the basis of handicap in preschool and adult education programs. Former paragraph (b), which emphasized that compensatory programs for disadvantaged children are subject to section 504, has been deleted as unnecessary, since it is comprehended by paragraph (a). 
</P>
<P>28. <I>Private education.</I> Section 84.39 sets forth the requirements applicable to recipients that operate private education programs and activities. The obligations of these recipients have been changed in two significant respects: First, private schools are subject to the evaluation and due process provisions of the subpart only if they operate special education programs; second, under § 84.39(b), they may charge more for providing services to handicapped students than to nonhandicapped students to the extent that additional charges can be justified by increased costs. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (a) of § 84.39 is intended to make clear that recipients that operate private education programs and activities are not required to provide an appropriate education to handicapped students with special educational needs if the recipient does not offer programs designed to meet those needs. Thus, a private school that has no program for mentally retarded persons is neither required to admit such a person into its program nor to arrange or pay for the provision of the person's education in another program. A private recipient without a special program for blind students, however, would not be permitted to exclude, on the basis of blindness, a blind applicant who is able to participate in the regular program with minor adjustments in the manner in which the program is normally offered. 
</P>
<HD1>subpart e—postsecondary education
</HD1>
<P>Subpart E prescribes requirements for nondiscrimination in recruitment, admission, and treatment of students in postsecondary education programs and activities, including vocational education. 
</P>
<P>29. <I>Admission and recruitment.</I> In addition to a general prohibition of discrimination on the basis of handicap in § 84.42(a), the regulation delineates, in § 84.42(b), specific prohibitions concerning the establishment of limitations on admission of handicapped students, the use of tests or selection criteria, and preadmission inquiry. Several changes have been made in this provision. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.42(b) provides that postsecondary educational institutions may not use any test or criterion for admission that has a disproportionate, adverse effect on handicapped persons unless it has been validated as a predictor of academic success and alternate tests or criteria with a less disproportionate, adverse effect are shown by the Department to be available. There are two significant changes in this approach from the July 16 proposed regulation. 
</P>
<P>First, many commenters expressed concern that § 84.42(b)(2)(ii) could be interpreted to require a “global search” for alternate tests that do not have a disproportionate, adverse impact on handicapped persons. this was not the intent of the provision and, therefore, it has been amended to place the burden on the Director of the Office for Civil Rights, rather than on the recipient, to identify alternate tests. 
</P>
<P>Second, a new paragraph (d), concerning validity studies, has been added. Under the proposed regulation, overall success in an education program, not just first-year grades, was the criterion against which admissions tests were to be validated. This approach has been changed to reflect the comment of professional testing services that use of first year grades would be less disruptive of present practice and that periodic validity studies against overall success in the education program would be sufficient check on the reliability of first-year grades. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.42(b)(3) also requires a recipient to assure itself that admissions tests are selected and administered to applicants with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills in such manner as is necessary to avoid unfair distortion of test results. Methods have been developed for testing the aptitude and achievement of persons who are not able to take written tests or even to make the marks required for mechanically scored objective tests; in addition, methods for testing persons with visual or hearing impairments are available. A recipient, under this paragraph, must assure itself that such methods are used with respect to the selection and administration of any admissions tests that it uses. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.42(b)(3)(iii) has been amended to require that admissions tests be administered in facilities that, on the whole, are accessible. In this context, <I>on the whole</I> means that not all of the facilities need be accessible so long as a sufficient number of facilities are available to handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>Revised § 84.42(b)(4) generally prohibits preadmission inquiries as to whether an applicant has a handicap. The considerations that led to this revision are similar to those underlying the comparable revision of § 84.14 on preemployment inquiries. The regulation does, however, allow inquiries to be made, after admission but before enrollment, as to handicaps that may require accommodation. 
</P>
<P>New paragraph (c) parallels the section on preemployment inquiries and allows postsecondary institutions to inquire about applicants' handicaps before admission, subject to certain safeguards, if the purpose of the inquiry is to take remedial action to correct past discrimination or to take voluntary action to overcome the limited participation of handicapped persons in postsecondary educational institutions. 
</P>
<P>Proposed § 84.42(c), which would have allowed different admissions criteria in certain cases for handicapped persons, was widely misinterpreted in comments from both handicapped persons and recipients. We have concluded that the section is unnecessary, and it has been deleted. 
</P>
<P>30. <I>Treatment of students.</I> Section 84.43 contains general provisions prohibiting the discriminatory treatment of qualified handicapped applicants. Paragraph (b) requires recipients to ensure that equal opportunities are provided to its handicapped students in education programs and activities that are not operated by the recipient. The recipient must be satisfied that the outside education program or activity as a whole is nondiscriminatory. For example, a college must ensure that discrimination on the basis of handicap does not occur in connection with teaching assignments of student teachers in elementary or secondary schools not operated by the college. Under the “as a whole” wording, the college could continue to use elementary or secondary school systems that discriminate if, and only if, the college's student teaching program, when viewed in its entirety, offered handicapped student teachers the same range and quality of choice in student teaching assignments afforded nonhandicapped students. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c) of this section prohibits a recipient from excluding qualified handicapped students from any course, course of study, or other part of its education program or activity. This paragraph is designed to eliminate the practice of excluding handicapped persons from specific courses and from areas of concentration because of factors such as ambulatory difficulties of the student or assumptions by the recipient that no job would be available in the area in question for a person with that handicap. 
</P>
<P>New paragraph (d) requires postsecondary institutions to operate their programs and activities so that handicapped students are provided services in the most integrated setting appropriate. Thus, if a college had several elementary physics classes and had moved one such class to the first floor of the science building to accommodate students in wheelchairs, it would be a violation of this paragraph for the college to concentrate handicapped students with no mobility impairments in the same class. 
</P>
<P>31. <I>Academic adjustments.</I> Paragraph (a) of § 84.44 requires that a recipient make certain adjustments to academic requirements and practices that discriminate or have the effect of discriminating on the basis of handicap. This requirement, like its predecessor in the proposed regulation, does not obligate an institution to waive course or other academic requirements. But such institutions must accommodate those requirements to the needs of individual handicapped students. For example, an institution might permit an otherwise qualified handicapped student who is deaf to substitute an art appreciation or music history course for a required course in music appreciation or could modify the manner in which the music appreciation course is conducted for the deaf student. It shoud be stressed that academic requirements that can be demonstrated by the recipient to be essential to its program of instruction or to particular degrees need not be changed. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b) provides that postsecondary institutions may not impose rules that have the effect of limiting the participation of handicapped students in the education program. Such rules include prohibition of tape recorders or braillers in classrooms and dog guides in campus buildings. Several recipients expressed concern about allowing students to tape record lectures because the professor may later want to copyright the lectures. This problem may be solved by requiring students to sign agreements that they will not release the tape recording or transcription or otherwise hinder the professor's ability to obtain a copyright. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c) of this section, concerning the administration of course examinations to students with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills, parallels the regulation's provisions on admissions testing (§ 84.42(b)) and will be similarly interpreted. 
</P>
<P>Under § 84.44(d), a recipient must ensure that no handicapped student is subject to discrimination in the recipient's program because of the absence of necessary auxiliary educational aids. Colleges and universities expressed concern about the costs of compliance with this provision. 
</P>
<P>The Department emphasizes that recipients can usually meet this obligation by assisting students in using existing resources for auxiliary aids such as state vocational rehabilitation agencies and private charitable organizations. Indeed, the Department anticipates that the bulk of auxiliary aids will be paid for by state and private agencies, not by colleges or universities. In those circumstances where the recipient institution must provide the educational auxiliary aid, the institution has flexibility in choosing the methods by which the aids will be supplied. For example, some universities have used students to work with the institution's handicapped students. Other institutions have used existing private agencies that tape texts for handicapped students free of charge in order to reduce the number of readers needed for visually impaired students. 
</P>
<P>As long as no handicapped person is excluded from a program because of the lack of an appropriate aid, the recipient need not have all such aids on hand at all times. Thus, readers need not be available in the recipient's library at all times so long as the schedule of times when a reader is available is established, is adhered to, and is sufficient. Of course, recipients are not required to maintain a complete braille library. 
</P>
<P>32. <I>Housing.</I> Section 84.45(a) requires postsecondary institutions to provide housing to handicapped students at the same cost as they provide it to other students and in a convenient, accessible, and comparable manner. Commenters, particularly blind persons pointed out that some handicapped persons can live in any college housing and need not wait to the end of the transition period in Subpart C to be offered the same variety and scope of housing accommodations given to nonhandicapped persons. The Department concurs with this position and will interpret this section accordingly. 
</P>
<P>A number of colleges and universities reacted negatively to paragraph (b) of this section. It provides that, if a recipient assists in making off-campus housing available to its students, it should develop and implement procedures to assure itself that off-campus housing, as a whole, is available to handicapped students. Since postsecondary institutions are presently required to assure themselves that off-campus housing is provided in a manner that does not discriminate on the basis of sex (§ 86.32 of the title IX regulation), they may use the procedures developed under title IX in order to comply with § 84.45(b). It should be emphasized that not every off-campus living accommodation need be made accessible to handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>33. <I>Health and insurance.</I> Section 84.46 of the proposed regulation, providing that recipients may not discriminate on the basis of handicap in the provision of health related services, has been deleted as duplicative of the general provisions of § 84.43. This deletion represents no change in the obligation of recipients to provide nondiscriminatory health and insurance plans. The Department will continue to require that nondiscriminatory health services be provided to handicapped students. Recipients are not required, however, to provide specialized services and aids to handicapped persons in health programs. If, for example, a college infirmary treats only simple disorders such as cuts, bruises, and colds, its obligation to handicapped persons is to treat such disorders for them. 
</P>
<P>34. <I>Financial assistance.</I> Section 84.46(a) (formerly § 84.47), prohibiting discrimination in providing financial assistance, remains substantively the same. It provides that recipients may not provide less assistance to or limit the eligibility of qualified handicapped persons for such assistance, whether the assistance is provided directly by the recipient or by another entity through the recipient's sponsorship. Awards that are made under wills, trusts, or similar legal instruments in a discriminatory manner are permissible, but only if the overall effect of the recipient's provision of financial assistance is not discriminatory on the basis of handicap. 
</P>
<P>It will not be considered discriminatory to deny, on the basis of handicap, an athletic scholarship to a handicapped person if the handicap renders the person unable to qualify for the award. For example, a student who has a neurological disorder might be denied a varsity football scholarship on the basis of his inability to play football, but a deaf person could not, on the basis of handicap, be denied a scholarship for the school's diving team. The deaf person could, however, be denied a scholarship on the basis of comparative diving ability. 
</P>
<P>Commenters on § 84.46(b), which applies to assistance in obtaining outside employment for students, expressed similar concerns to those raised under § 84.43(b), concerning cooperative programs. This paragraph has been changed in the same manner as § 84.43(b) to include the “as a whole” concept and will be interpreted in the same manner as § 84.43(b). 
</P>
<P>35. <I>Nonacademic services.</I> Section 84.47 (formerly § 84.48) establishes nondiscrimination standards for physical education and athletics counseling and placement services, and social organizations. This section sets the same standards as does § 84.38 of Subpart D, discussed above, and will be interpreted in a similar fashion. 
</P>
<HD1>subpart f—health, welfare, and social services 
</HD1>
<P>Subpart F applies to recipients that operate health, welfare, and social service programs. The Department received fewer comments on this subpart than on others. 
</P>
<P>Although many commented that Subpart F lacked specificity, these commenters provided neither concrete suggestions nor additions. Nevertheless, some changes have been made, pursuant to comment, to clarify the obligations of recipients in specific areas. In addition, in an effort to reduce duplication in the regulation, the section governing recipients providing health services (proposed § 84.52) has been consolidated with the section regulating providers of welfare and social services (proposed § 84.53). Since the separate provisions that appeared in the proposed regulation were almost identical, no substantive change should be inferred from their consolidation. 
</P>
<P>Several commenters asked whether Subpart F applies to vocational rehabilitation agencies whose purpose is to assist in the rehabilitation of handicapped persons. To the extent that such agencies receive financial assistance from the Department, they are covered by Subpart F and all other relevant subparts of the regulation. Nothing in this regulation, however, precludes such agencies from servicing only handicapped persons. Indeed, § 84.4(c) permits recipients to offer services or benefits that are limited by federal law to handicapped persons or classes of handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>Many comments suggested requiring state health, welfare, and social service agencies to take an active role in the enforcement of section 504 with regard to local health and social service providers. The Department believes that the possibility for federal-state cooperation in the administration and enforcement of section 504 warrants further consideration. Moreover, the Department will rely largely on state Medicaid agencies, as it has under title VI, for monitoring compliance by individual Medicaid providers. 
</P>
<P>A number of comments also discussed whether section 504 should be read to require payment of compensation to institutionalized handicapped patients who perform services for the institution in which they reside. The Department of Labor has recently issued a proposed regulation under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) that covers the question of compensation for institutionalized persons, 42 FR 15224 (March 18, 1977). This Department will seek information and comment from the Department of Labor concerning that agency's experience administering the FLSA regulation. 
</P>
<P>36. <I>Health, welfare, and other social service providers.</I> As already noted, § 84.53 has been combined with proposed § 84.53 into a single section covering health, welfare, and other social services. Section 84.52(a) has been expanded in several respects. The addition of new paragraph (a)(2) is intended to make clear the basic requirement of equal opportunity to receive benefits or services in the health, welfare, and social service areas. The paragraph parallels §§ 84.4(b)(ii) and 84.43(b). New paragraph (a)(3) requires the provision of effective benefits or services, as defined in § 84.4(b)(2) (i.e., benefits or services which “afford handicapped persons equal opportunity to obtain the same result (or) to gain the same benefit * * *”). 
</P>
<P>Section 84.52(a) also includes provisions concerning the limitation of benefits or services to handicapped persons and the subjection of handicapped persons to different eligibility standards. (These provisions were previously included in the welfare recipient section (§ 84.53(a)).) One common misconception about the regulation is that it would require specialized hospitals and other health care providers to treat all handicapped persons. The regulation makes no such requirement. Thus, a burn treatment center need not provide other types of medical treatment to handicapped persons unless it provides such medical services to nonhandicapped persons. It could not, however, refuse to treat the burns of a deaf person because of his or her deafness. 
</P>
<P>Commenters had raised the question of whether the prohibition against different standards of eligibility might preclude recipients from providing special services to handicapped persons or classes of handicapped persons. The regulation will not be so interpreted, and the specific section in question has been eliminated. Section 84.4(c) makes clear that special programs for handicapped persons are permitted. 
</P>
<P>A new paragraph (a)(5) concerning the provision of different or separate services or benefits has been added. This provision prohibits such treatment unless necessary to provide qualified handicapped persons with benefits and services that are as effective as those provided to others. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.52(a)(2) of the proposed regulation has been omitted as duplicative of revised § 84.22 (b) and (c) in Subpart C. As discussed above, these sections permit health care providers to arrange to meet patients in accessible facilities and to make referrals in carefully limited circumstances. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.52(a)(3) of the proposed regulation has been redesignated § 84.52(b) and has been amended to cover written material concerning waivers of rights or consent to treatment as well as general notices concerning health benefits or services. The section requires the recipient to ensure that qualified handicapped persons are not denied effective notice because of their handicap. For example, recipients could use several different types of notice in order to reach persons with impaired vision or hearing, such as brailled messages, radio spots, and tacticle devices on cards or envelopes to inform blind persons of the need to call the recipient for further information. 
</P>
<P>Sections 84.52(a)(4), 84.52(a)(5), and 84.52(b) have been omitted from the regulation as unnecessary. They are clearly comprehended by the more general sections banning discrimination. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.52(c) is a new section requiring recipient hospitals to establish a procedure for effective communication with persons with impaired hearing for the purpose of providing emergency health care. Although it would be appropriate for a hospital to fulfill its responsibilities under this section by having a full-time interpreter for the deaf on staff, there may be other means of accomplishing the desired result of assuring that some means of communication is immediately available for deaf persons needing emergency treatment. 
</P>
<P>Section 84.52(d), also a new provision, requires recipients with fifteen or more employees to provide appropriate auxiliary aids for persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills. Further, the Director may require a small provider to furnish auxiliary aids where the provision of aids would not adversely affect the ability of the recipient to provide its health benefits or service. Thus although a small nonprofit neighborhood clinic might not be obligated to have available an interpreter for deaf persons, the Director may require provision of such aids as may be reasonably available to ensure that qualified handicapped persons are not denied appropriate benefits or services because of their handicaps. 
</P>
<P>37. <I>Treatment of Drug Addicts and Alcoholics.</I> Section 84.53 is a new section that prohibits discrimination in the treatment and admission of drug and alcohol addicts to hospitals and outpatient facilities. This section is included pursuant to section 407, Pub. L. 92-255, the Drug Abuse Office and Treatment Act of 1972 (21 U.S.C. 1174), as amended, and section 321, Public Law 91-616, the Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism Prevention, Treatment, and Rehabilitation Act of 1970 (42 U.S.C. 4581), as amended, and section 321, Public Law 93-282. Section 504 itself also prohibits such discriminatory treatment and, in addition, prohibits similar discriminatory treatment by other types of health providers. Section 84.53 prohibits discrimination against drug abusers by operators of outpatient facilities, despite the fact that section 407 pertains only to hospitals, because of the broader application of section 504. This provision does not mean that all hospitals and outpatient facilities must treat drug addiction and alcoholism. It simply means, for example, that a cancer clinic may not refuse to treat cancer patients simply because they are also alcoholics. 
</P>
<P>38. <I>Education of institutionalized persons.</I> The regulation retains § 84.54 of the proposed regulation that requires that an appropriate education be provided to qualified handicapped persons who are confined to residential institutions or day care centers. 
</P>
<HD1>subpart g—procedures 
</HD1>
<P>In § 84.61, the Secretary has adopted the title VI complaint and enforcement procedures for use in implementing section 504 until such time as they are superseded by the issuance of a consolidated procedural regulation applicable to all of the civil rights statutes and executive orders administered by the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22677, May 4, 1977, as amended at 89 FR 37692, May 6, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.13.1.1.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 84 [Reserved]






</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.39.13.1.1.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 84—Guidelines Relating to Health Care for Handicapped Infants
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Interpretative guidelines relating to the applicability of this part to health care for handicapped infants.</I> The following are interpretative guidelines of the Department set forth here to assist recipients and the public in understanding the Department's interpretation of section 504 and the regulations contained in this part as applied to matters concerning health care for handicapped infants. These interpretative guidelines are illustrative; they do not independently establish rules of conduct.
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to programs and activities receiving Federal financial assistance, health care providers may not, solely on the basis of present or anticipated physical or mental impairments of an infant, withhold treatment or nourishment from the infant who, in spite of such impairments, will medically benefit from the treatment or nourishment.
</P>
<P>(2) Futile treatment or treatment that will do no more than temporarily prolong the act of dying of a terminally ill infant is not considered treatment that will medically benefit the infant.
</P>
<P>(3) In determining whether certain possible treatments will be medically beneficial to an infant, reasonable medical judgments in selecting among alternative courses of treatment will be respected.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 504 and the provisions of this part are not applicable to parents (who are not recipients of Federal financial assistance). However, each recipient health care provider must in all aspects of its health care programs receiving Federal financial assistance provide health care and related services in a manner consistent with the requirements of section 504 and this part. Such aspects includes decisions on whether to report, as required by State law or otherwise, to the appropriate child protective services agency a suspected instance of medical neglect of a child, or to take other action to seek review or parental decisions to withhold consent for medically indicated treatment. Whenever parents make a decision to withhold consent for medically beneficial treatment or nourishment, such recipient providers may not, solely on the basis of the infant's present or anticipated future mental or physical impairments, fail to follow applicable procedures on reporting such incidents to the child protective services agency or to seek judicial review.
</P>
<P>(5) The following are examples of applying these interpretative guidelines. These examples are stated in the context of decisions made by recipient health care providers. Were these decisions made by parents, the guideline stated in section (a)(4) would apply. These examples assume no facts or complications other than those stated. Because every case must be examined on its individual facts, these are merely illustrative examples to assist in understanding the framework for applying the nondiscrimination requirements of section 504 and this part.
</P>
<P>(i) Withholding of medically beneficial surgery to correct an intestinal obstruction in an infant with Down's Syndrome when the withholding is based upon the anticipated future mental retardation of the infant and there are no medical contraindications to the surgery that would otherwise justify withholding the surgery would constitute a discriminatory act, violative of section 504. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Withholding of treatment for medically correctable physical anomalies in children born with spina bifida when such denial is based on anticipated mental impairment paralysis or incontinence of the infant, rather than on reasonable medical judgments that treatment would be futile, too unlikely of success given complications in the particular case, or otherwise not of medical benefit to the infant, would constitute a discriminatory act, violative of section 504.
</P>
<P>(iii) Withholding of medical treatment for an infant born with anencephaly, who will inevitably die within a short period of time, would not constitute a discriminatory act because the treatment would be futile and do no more than temporarily prolong the act of dying.
</P>
<P>(iv) Withholding of certain potential treatments from a severely premature and low birth weight infant on the grounds of reasonable medical judgments concerning the improbability of success or risks of potential harm to the infant would not violate section 504.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guidelines for HHS investigations relating to health care for handicapped infants.</I> The following are guidelines of the Department in conducting investigations relating to health care for handicapped infants. They are set forth here to assist recipients and the public in understanding applicable investigative procedures. These guidelines do not establish rules of conduct, create or affect legally enforceable rights of any person, or modify existing rights, authorities or responsibilities pursuant to this part. These guidelines reflect the Department's recognition of the special circumstances presented in connection with complaints of suspected life-threatening noncompliance with this part involving health care for handicapped infants. These guidelines do not apply to other investigations pursuant to this part, or other civil rights statutes and rules. Deviations from these guidelines may occur when, in the judgment of the responsible Department official, other action is necessary to protect the life or health of a handicapped infant.
</P>
<P>(1) Unless impracticable, whenever the Department receives a complaint of suspected life-threatening noncompliance with this part in connection with health care for a handicapped infant in a program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, HHS will immediately conduct a preliminary inquiry into the matter by initiating telephone contact with the recipient hospital to obtain information relating to the condition and treatment of the infant who is the subject of the complaint. The preliminary inquiry, which may include additional contact with the complainant and a requirement that pertinent records be provided to the Department, will generally be completed within 24 hours (or sooner if indicated) after receipt of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless impracticable, whenever a recipient hospital has an Infant Care Review Committee, established and operated substantially in accordance with the provisions of 45 CFR 84.55(f), the Department will, as part of its preliminary inquiry, solicit the information available to, and the analysis and recommendations of, the ICRC. Unless, in the judgment of the responsible Department official, other action is necessary to protect the life or health of a handicapped infant, prior to initiating an on-site investigation, the Department will await receipt of this information from the ICRC for 24 hours (or less if indicated) after receipt of the complaint. The Department may require a subsequent written report of the ICRC's findings, accompanied by pertinent records and documentation.
</P>
<P>(3) On the basis of the information obtained during preliminary inquiry, including information provided by the hospital (including the hospital's ICRC, if any), information provided by the complainant, and all other information obtained, the Department will determine whether there is a need for an on-site investigation of the complaint. Whenever the Department determines that doubt remains that the recipient hospital or some other recipient is in compliance with this part or additional documentation is desired to substantiate a conclusion, the Department will initiate an on-site investigation or take some other appropriate action. Unless impracticable, prior to initiating an on-site investigation, the Department's medical consultant (referred to in paragraph 6) will contact the hospital's ICRC or appropriate medical personnel of the recipient hospital.
</P>
<P>(4) In conducting on-site investigations, when a recipient hospital has an ICRC established and operated substantially in accordance with the provisions of 45 CFR 84.55(f), the investigation will begin with, or include at the earliest practicable time, a meeting with the ICRC or its designees. In all on-site investigations, the Department will make every effort to minimize any potential inconvenience or disruption, accommodate the schedules of health care professionals and avoid making medical records unavailable. The Department will also seek to coordinate its investigation with any related investigations by the state child protective services agency so as to minimize potential disruption.
</P>
<P>(5) It is the policy of the Department to make no comment to the public or media regarding the substance of a pending preliminary inquiry or investigation.
</P>
<P>(6) The Department will obtain the assistance of a qualified medical consultant to evaluate the medical information (including medical records) obtained in the course of a preliminary inquiry or investigation. The name, title and telephone number of the Department's medical consultant will be made available to the recipient hospital. The Department's medical consultant will, if appropriate, contact medical personnel of the recipient hospital in connection with the preliminary inquiry, investigation or medical consultant's evaluation. To the extent practicable, the medical consultant will be a specialist with respect to the condition of the infant who is the subject of the preliminary inquiry or investigation. The medical consultant may be an employee of the Department or another person who has agreed to serve, with or without compensation, in that capacity.
</P>
<P>(7) The Department will advise the recipient hospital of its conclusions as soon as possible following the completion of a preliminary inquiry or investigation. Whenever final administrative findings following an investigation of a complaint of suspected life-threatening noncompliance cannot be made promptly, the Department will seek to notify the recipient and the complainant of the Department's decision on whether the matter will be immediately referred to the Department of Justice pursuant to 45 CFR 80.8.
</P>
<P>(8) Except as necessary to determine or effect compliance, the Department will (i) in conducting preliminary inquiries and investigations, permit information provided by the recipient hospital to the Department to be furnished without names or other identifying information relating to the infant and the infant's family; and (ii) to the extent permitted by law, safeguard the confidentiality of information obtained.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 1653, Jan. 12, 1984] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="85" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 85—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 25603, July 8, 1988, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At the request of the Department of Health and Human Services, the “Section-by-Section Analysis” portion of the preamble of the document published at 53 FR 25595, July 8, 1988, as corrected at 53 FR 26559, July 13, 1988, appears at the end of part 85.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 85.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.2   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency, except for programs or activities conducted outside the United States that do not involve individuals with handicaps in the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term— 
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services or any component part of the Department of Health and Human Services that conducts a program or activity covered by this part. <I>Component agency</I> means such component part. 
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice. 
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices. 
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination. 
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property. 
</P>
<P><I>Individual with Handicaps</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genito-urinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning and working. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such impairment</I> means has a history of, or is misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P><I>OCR</I> means the Office for Civil Rights of the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P><I>OCR Director/Special Assistant</I> means the Director of the Office for Civil Rights, who serves concurrently as the Special Assistant to the Secretary for Civil Rights, or a designee of the Director/Special Assistant. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual with handicaps</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to preschool, elementary, or secondary education services provided by the agency, an individual with handicaps who is a member of a class of persons otherwise entitled by statute, regulation, or agency policy to receive educational services from the agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a particular level of accomplishment, an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; and 
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any other program or activity, an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified handicapped person</I> as that term is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this part by § 85.31. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services or his/her designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617); the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955); the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L 99-566, 100 Stat. 1810); and the Civil Rights Restoration Act of 1987 (Pub. L. 100-259, 102 Stat. 28). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by the agency and not to federally assisted programs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 85.4-85.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 85.4-85.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.11   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall, within one year of the effective date of this part, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications. Any new operating or staff divisions established within the agency shall have one year from the date of their establishment to carry out this evaluation. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps, to participate in the self-evaluation by submitting comments (both oral and written). 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall, for at least three years following completion of the self-evaluation, maintain on file and make available for public inspection and copying— 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.12   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such a manner as the agency head finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 85.13-85.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 85.13-85.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.21   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with handicaps shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) (1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap— 
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified individual with handicaps an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified individual with handicaps with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aids, benefits, or services to individuals with handicaps or to any class or individuals with handicaps than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with handicaps with aids, benefits or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate as a member of a planning or advisory board; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with handicaps in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service. 
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities. 
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would— 
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps. 
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would— 
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude individuals with handicaps from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps. 
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap. 
</P>
<P>(6) The agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap, nor may the agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the agency are not, themselves, covered by this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of individuals without handicaps from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to individuals with handicaps or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with handicaps from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with handicaps is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with handicaps. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 85.22-85.30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 85.22-85.30   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.31   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individuals with handicaps shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (9 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 9 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs and activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 85.32-85.40" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 85.32-85.40   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.41   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 85.42, no qualified individual with handicaps shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by such persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.42   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. This paragraph does not— 
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 85.42(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity in question, and must be accompanied by a written statement of reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> (1) The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. 
</P>
<P>(2) In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with handicaps in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section within 60 days of the effective date of this part except where structural changes in facilities are undertaken; such changes shall be made within three years of the effective date of this part, but, in any event, as expeditiously as possible. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities must be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, and it is not expected that such changes can be completed within six months, the agency shall develop, within six months of the effective date of this part, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum— 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to individuals with handicaps;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the official responsible for the implementation of the plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.43" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.43   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, or on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157) as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607 apply to buildings covered by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 85.44-85.50" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 85.44-85.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.51" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.51   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with handicaps an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with handicaps.
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunications devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used to communicate with persons with impaired hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 85.51 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity in question and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 85.52-85.60" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 85.52-85.60   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.61" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.61   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b) Responsibility for the implementation and operation of this section shall be vested in the CCR Director/Special Assistant.
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791) and HHS Instruction 1613-3. Part 1613 requires complainants to obtain pre-complaint counseling within 30 days of the alleged discriminatory act, and to file complaints within 15 days of the close of counseling. Responsibility for the acceptance, investigation, and the rendering of decisions with respect to employment complaints is vested in the Assistant Secretary for Personnel Administration. 
</P>
<P>(d) OCR shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. OCR may extend this time for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(e) If OCR receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate Federal government entity. 
</P>
<P>(f) OCR shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. 
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, OCR shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigations in a letter containing— 
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal. 
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 60 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 85.61(g). OCR may extend this time for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the OCR Director/Special Assistant. Decisions on such appeals shall not be heard by the person who made the initial decision. 
</P>
<P>(j) OCR shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If OCR determines that it needs additional information from the complainant, it shall have 60 days from the date it receives the additional information to make its determination on the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in (g) and (j) above may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General. 
</P>
<P>(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to a component agency or other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 25603, July 8, 1988; 53 FR 26559, July 13, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 85.62" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.40.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 85.62   Coordination and compliance responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each component agency shall be primarily responsible for compliance with this part in connection with the programs and activities it conducts. 
</P>
<P>(b) The OCR Director/Special Assistant shall have the overall responsibility to coordinate implementation of this part. The OCR Director/Special Assistant shall have authority to conduct investigations, to conduct compliance reviews, and to initiate such other actions as may be necessary to facilitate and ensure effective implementation of and compliance with, this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) If as a result of an investigation or in connection with any other compliance or implementation activity, the OCR Director/Special Assistant determines that a component agency appears to be in noncompliance with its responsibilities under this part, OCR will undertake appropriate action with the component agency to assure compliance. In the event that OCR and the component agency are unable to agree on a resolution of any particular matter, the matter shall be submitted to the Secretary for resolution. 
</P>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At the request of the Department of Health and Human Services, the “Section-by-Section Analysis” portion of the preamble of the document published at 53 FR 25595, July 8, 1988, as corrected at 53 FR 26559, July 13, 1988, follows:</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Section-by-Section Analysis of Regulation and Response to Comments
</HD1>
<P>Where no discussion of comments follows the analysis of a section, no comments have been received thereon.
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.1 Purpose.
</HD2>
<P>Section 85.1 states the purpose of the rule, which is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.2 Application.
</HD2>
<P>The proposed regulation covers all programs and activities conducted by the Department of Health and Human Services (“HHS” or the “agency”).
</P>
<P>This includes the following components:
</P>
<FP-2>The Office of the Secretary
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Office of the Under Secretary
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office of the Deputy Under Secretary
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public Affairs
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Legislation
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Management and Budget
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Peronnel Administration
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office of the General Counsel
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office of Inspector General
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office for Civil Rights
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office of Consumer Affairs
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Office of Human Development Services
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Human Development Services
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Administration on Aging
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Administration for Children, Youth and Families
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Administration for Native Americans
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Administration on Developmental Disabilities
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Public Health Service
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Alcohol, Drug Abuse and Mental Health Administration
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Centers for Disease Control
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Food and Drug Administration
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Health Resources and Services Administration
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Indian Health Service
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>National Institutes of Health
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Health Care Financing Administration
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Social Security Administration
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Family Support Administration.
</FP-2>
<P>Under this section, a federally conducted program or activity is, in simple terms, anything a Federal agency does. Aside from employment, there are two major categories of federally conducted programs or activities covered by this regulation: those involving general public contact as part of ongoing agency operations, and those directly administered by the agency for program beneficiaries and participants. Activities in the first category include communication with the public (telephone contacts, office walk-ins, or interviews) and the public's use of the agency's facilities. Activities in the second category include programs that provide Federal services or benefits. This regulation does not, however, apply to programs or activities conducted outside the United States that do not involve individuals with handicaps in the United States.
</P>
<P>The <I>major</I> programs subject to this regulation are listed below. Each of the components listed above occupies facilities which the public may have occasion to visit, engages in written and oral communication with the public, and hires Federal employees. In addition, some components operate programs which involve extensive public use, as summarized below:
</P>
<FP1-2>Office of the Secretary—No major operating programs or activities conducted directly by the Federal government.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Office of Human Development Services—No major operating programs or activities conducted directly by the Federal government. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP1-2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Financial assistance programs conducted through grants to States and other recipients are covered by the section 504 rule for federally assisted programs at 45 CFR part 84.</P></FTNT>
<FP1-2>Public Health Service—Directly operated programs include the Indian Health Service, and intramural research conducted by the National Institutes of Health. 
<SU>1</SU>
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Health Care Financing Administration—Directly operates the Medicare program. 
<SU>1</SU>
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Social Security Administration—Directly operates the Old Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance, and Supplemental Security Income for the Aged, Blind, and Disabled programs.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Family Support Administration—No major operating programs or activities conducted directly by the Federal government. 
<SU>1</SU>
</FP1-2>
<P>One commenter urged the inclusion of a program operated by one component of the Office of the Secretary, and for a list of all programs and activities to be appended to the regulation. In light of the fact that all programs and activities are covered, that a comprehensive list of all programs would be very lengthy, and that such a list would have to be amended frequently as new programs are enacted and existing programs expire, the above list appears to be sufficient.
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.3 Definitions.
</HD2>
<P><I>Agency.</I> For purposes of this part <I>agency</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services or any component part of the Department of Health and Human Services that conducts a program or activity covered by this part. <I>Component agency</I> means any such component part.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General. Assistant Attorney General</I> refers to the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids. Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, the agency's programs or activities. The definition provides examples of commonly used auxiliary aids. Although auxiliary aids are required explicitly only by § 85.51(a)(1), they may also be necessary to meet other requirements of this regulation.
</P>
<P>Two commenters suggested expanding the definition of <I>auxiliary aids</I> and one of them further suggested re-naming <I>auxiliary aids</I> to read <I>aids for reasonable accommodation</I> and specifically include the services of attendants.
</P>
<P>The items set out in § 85.3 are clearly described as examples, and are not intended to constitute an exhaustive list. By giving examples rather than by including a list, other aids can be used, and, in appropriate cases, required, without amending the regulation. In certain instances, the services of attendants may indeed be appropriate; in those instances, they will fall under the definition in § 85.3. Therefore, there is no need to change the text of the regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint. Complete complaint</I> is defined to include all of the information necessary to enable the agency to investigate the complaint. The definition is necessary, because the 180 day period for the agency's investigation (<I>see</I> § 85.61(g)) begins when the agency receives a complete complaint.
</P>
<P>Two commenters stated their belief that the definition of <I>complete complaint</I> is too restrictive, and urged language which would give the complainant specific information as to what additional information is needed, and a further 30 days to submit such information, failing which the complaint would be dismissed without prejudice, and the complainant would be so informed.
</P>
<P>Procedures similar to this suggestion are currently in place, and complainants will be given reasonable opportunities to complete the information submitted. There appears to be no need to spell these procedures out in the regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Facility.</I> The definition of <I>facility</I> is similar to that in the section 504 coordination regulation for federally assisted programs (28 CFR 41.3(f)), except that the term <I>rolling stock or other conveyances</I> has been added and the phrase <I>or interest in such property</I> has been deleted because the term <I>facility,</I> as used in this part, refers to structures and not to intangible property rights. It should, however, be noted that this part applies to all programs and activities conducted by the agency regardless of whether the facility in which they are conducted is owned, leased, or used on some other basis by the agency. The term <I>facility</I> is used in §§ 85.41, 85.42, and 85.61(f).
</P>
<P>One commenter proposed not to delete the phrase <I>or interest in such property.</I> As previously stated, the phrase <I>or interest in such property</I> has been deleted because the term <I>facility,</I> as used in this part, refers to structures and not to intangible property rights.
</P>
<P><I>Individual with Handicaps.</I> The definition of <I>individual with handicaps</I> is identical to the definition of <I>handicapped person</I> appearing in the section 504 coordination regulation for federally assisted programs (28 CFR 41.31), and the HHS regulation for federally assisted programs (45 CFR 84.3(j)). Although section 103(d) of the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 changed the statutory term <I>handicapped individual</I> to <I>individual with handicaps,</I> the legislative history of the amendment indicates that no substantive change was intended. Thus, although the term has been changed in this regulation to be consistent with the statute as amended, the definition is unchanged. In particular, although the term as revised refers to <I>handicaps</I> in the plural, it does not exclude persons who have only one handicap.
</P>
<P>One commenter suggested that we add <I>sensory</I> to the phrase <I>physical or mental impairment.</I> Since the definition set out in § 85.3 specifically includes the sense organs among the body systems whose impairment constitutes a handicap, we have not found it necessary to amend the regulation.
</P>
<P><I>OCR. OCR</I> means the Office for Civil Rights of the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>OCR Director/Special Assistant</I> means the Director of the Office for Civil Rights, who serves concurrently as the Special Assistant to the Secretary for Civil Rights, or a designee of the OCR Director/Special Assistant.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual with handicaps.</I> The definition of <I>qualified individual with handicaps</I> is a revised version of the definition of <I>qualified handicapped person</I> appearing in the section 504 coordination regulation for federally assisted programs (28 CFR 41.32) and the HHS section 504 regulation for federally assisted programs (45 CFR 84.3(k)).
</P>
<P>Paragraph (1) is an adaptation of existing definitions of <I>qualified handicapped person</I> for purposes of federally assisted preschool, elementary, and secondary education programs (<I>see, e.g.,</I> 45 CFR 84.3(k)(2)). It provides that an individual with handicaps is qualified for preschool, elementary, or secondary education programs conducted by the agency, if he or she is a member of a class of persons otherwise entitled by statute, regulation, or agency policy to receive these services from the agency. In other words, an individual with handicaps is qualified if, considering all factors other than the handicapping condition, he or she is entitled to receive educational services from the agency.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (2) deviates from existing regulations for federally assisted programs because of intervening court decisions. It defines <I>qualified individual with handicaps</I> with regard to any program other than those covered by paragraph (1) under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment. In such programs, a qualified individual with handicaps is one who can achieve the purpose of the program without modifications in the program that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature. This definition reflects the decision of the Supreme Court in <I>Davis.</I>
</P>
<P>In that case, the Court ruled that a hearing-impaired applicant to a nursing school was not a <I>qualified handicapped person</I> because her hearing impairment would prevent her from participating in the clinical training portion of the program. The Court found that, if the program were modified so as to enable the respondent to participate (by exempting her from the clinical training requirements), <I>she would not receive even a rough equivalent of the training a nursing program normally gives. Id.</I> at 410. It also found that <I>the purpose of [the] program was to train persons who could serve the nursing profession in all customary ways, Id.</I> at 413, and that the respondent would be unable, because of her hearing impairment, to perform some functions expected of a registered nurse. It, therefore, concluded that the school was not required by section 504 to make such modifications that would result in <I>a fundamental alteration in the nature of the program. Id.</I> at 410.
</P>
<P>We have incorporated the Court's language in the definition of <I>qualified individual with handicaps</I> in order to make clear that such a person must be able to participate in the program offered by the agency. The agency is required to make modifications in order to enable an applicant with handicaps to participate, but is not required to offer a program of a fundamentally different nature. The test is whether, with appropriate modifications, the applicant can achieve the purpose of the program offered, not whether the applicant could benefit or obtain results from some other program that the agency does not offer. Although the revised definition allows exclusion of some individuals with handicaps from some programs, it requires that an individual with handicaps who is capable of achieving the purpose of the program must be accommodated, provided that the modifications do not fundamentally alter the purpose of the program.
</P>
<P>One commenter proposed inserting the second sentence from the above paragraph into the regulatory text. We believe that the use of this language in the preamble is sufficient.
</P>
<P>Another commenter commended HHS for the discussion of <I>Davis,</I> and the cases interpreting the <I>Davis</I> decision, in order to explain why the language of this part does not precisely track that of the regulations concerning federally assisted recipients (45 CFR part 84). Two other commenters stated their view that incorporating <I>Davis</I> and <I>Alexander</I> into the regulation was unduly restrictive, and that the differences between this part and part 84 would result in holding HHS to a lesser standard than HHS holds recipients of Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>We believe that the Supreme Court's decision in <I>Davis</I> as well as the subsequent lower court decisions following <I>Davis</I> interpret section 504 and that it is necessary to reflect those decisions in the Department's regulation. The suggested changes are therefore not being adopted.
</P>
<P>The agency has the burden of demonstrating that a proposed modification would constitute a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity. Furthermore, in demonstrating that a modification would result in such an alteration, the agency must follow the procedures established in §§ 85.42(a) and 85.51(d), which are discussed below, for demonstrating that an action would result in undue financial and administrative burdens to the agency. That is, the decision must be made by the agency head or his or her designee in writing after consideration of all resources which are legally available to the agency for the purpose, and must be accompanied by an explanation of the reasons for the decision. If the agency head determines that an action would result in a fundamental alteration, the agency must consider options that would enable the individual with handicaps to achieve the purpose of the program but would not result in such an alteration.
</P>
<P>Two commenters suggested that the total resources of the agency be considered in determining <I>undue burden.</I> Because many Department funds are earmarked for specific purposes and are therefore unavailable for use elsewhere, the entire agency budget is not an appropriate consideration.
</P>
<P>For programs or activities which do not fall under either of the first two paragraphs, paragraph (3) adopts the existing definition of <I>qualified handicapped person</I> with respect to services (28 CFR 41.32(b)) in the coordination regulation for programs receiving Federal financial assistance. Under this definition, a qualified individual with handicaps is an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in the program or activity.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (4) explains that <I>qualified individual with handicaps</I> means <I>qualified handicapped person</I> as that term is defined for purposes of employment in the EEOC regulation at 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this part by § 85.31. Nothing in this part changes existing regulations pertaining to employment.
</P>
<P>One commenter proposed using the general section 504 definition of <I>qualified handicapped person</I> in employment cases rather than the definition of the EEOC regulation. The definition has been supplied by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission which coordinates all employment discrimination matters throughout the government. It is also the Department's view that it is important to have a uniform definition of what constitutes employment discrimination throughout the Federal government.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services or the Secretary's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504.</I> This definition makes clear that, as used in this part, <I>section 504</I> applies only to programs or activities conducted by the agency itself and not to programs or activities to which it provides Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.11 Self-evaluation.
</HD2>
<P>The agency shall conduct a self-evaluation of its compliance with section 504 within one year of the effective date of this regulation. The self-evaluation requirement is present in the existing section 504 coordination regulation for programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance (28 CFR 41.5(b)(2)) and the HHS regulations for federally assisted programs (45 CFR 84.6(k)). Experience has demonstrated the self-evaluation process to be a valuable means of establishing a working relationship with individuals with handicaps that promotes both effective and efficient implementation of section 504.
</P>
<P>One commenter stated that a three-year retention period is insufficient, and proposed that self-evaluations be kept indefinitely. The regulation requires the self-evaluation to be kept for a minimum of three years, but does not include a maximum. It is expected that the self-evaluation will be retained for the period provided in current document retention policies.
</P>
<P>Another commenter proposed that copies of the self-evaluation be made available for copying as well as for public inspection. This proposal has been adopted.
</P>
<P>A further commenter proposed the inclusion of provisions for assurances, transition plans and specific modification requirements. We believe that while assurances are appropriate—and can be specifically enforced—in section 504 regulations for federally assisted programs or activities, all of the entities involved in this part are under the control of the Secretary, who can issue the necessary directives; assurances are therefore not required.
</P>
<P>The final rule provides for participation in the self-evaluation process by individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps by submitting comments, which may include the development of transition plans. It is expected that component agencies will consult with individuals with handicaps among their own staff in the course of preparing self-evaluations.
</P>
<P>Because modification requirements are intended to address any potential problems in the agency's programs or activities, they are not specified in the regulation.
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.12 Notice.
</HD2>
<P>Section 85.12 requires the agency to disseminate sufficient information to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons to apprise them of the rights and protections afforded by section 504 and this part. Methods of providing this information include, for example, the publication of information in handbooks, manuals, and pamphlets that are distributed to the public to describe the agency's programs and activities or in connection with recruitment; the display of informative posters in service centers and other public places; or the broadcasting of information by television or radio.
</P>
<P>One commenter suggested the inclusion of a reference to recruitment materials in the above examples. Such a reference has been included.
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.21 General prohibitions against discrimination.
</HD2>
<P>Section 85.21 is an adaptation of the corresponding section of the section 504 coordination regulation for programs and activities receiving Federal financial assistance (28 CFR 41.51).
</P>
<P>Paragraph (a) restates the nondiscrimination mandate of section 504. The remaining paragraphs in § 85.21 establish the general principles for analyzing whether any particular action of the agency violates this mandate. These principles serve as the analytical foundation for the remaining sections of the part. If the agency violates a provision in any of the subsequent sections, it will also violate one of the general prohibitions found in § 85.21. When there is no applicable subsequent provision, the general prohibitions stated in this section apply.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b) prohibits overt denials of equal treatment of individuals with handicaps. The agency may not refuse to provide an individual with handicaps with an equal opportunity to participate in or benefit from its program simply because the person is handicapped. Such blatantly exclusionary practices could result from the use of irrebuttable presumptions that absolutely exclude certain classes of disabled persons (<I>e.g.,</I> epileptics, hearing-impaired persons, persons with heart ailments) from participation in programs or activities without regard to an individual's actual ability to participate. Use of an irrebuttable presumption is permissible only when in all cases a physical condition by its very nature would prevent an individual from meeting the essential eligibility requirements for participation in the activity in question. It would be permissible, therefore, to exclude without an individual evaluation all persons who are blind in both eyes from eligibility for a license to operate a commercial vehicle in interstate commerce; but it may not be permissible to automatically disqualify all those who are blind in just one eye.
</P>
<P>In addition, section 504 prohibits more than just the most obvious denials of equal treatment. It is not enough to admit persons in wheelchairs to a program if the facilities in which the program is conducted are inaccessible. Paragraph (b)(1)(iii), therefore, requires that the opportunity to participate or benefit afforded to an individual with handicaps be as effective as that afforded to others. The later sections on program accessibility (§§ 85.41-43) and communication (§ 85.51) are specific applications of this principle.
</P>
<P>Despite the mandate of paragraph (d) that the agency administer its programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with handicaps, paragraph (b)(1)(iv), in conjunction with paragraph (d), permits the agency to develop separate or different aids, benefits, or services when necessary to provide individuals with handicaps with an equal opportunity to participate in or benefit from the agency's programs or activities. Paragraph (b)(1)(iv) requires that different or separate aids, benefits, or services be provided only when necessary to ensure that the aids, benefits, or services are as effective as those provided to others. Even when separate or different aids, benefits or services would be more effective, paragraph (b)(2) provides that a qualified individual with handicaps still has the right to choose to participate in the program that is not designed to accommodate individuals with handicaps.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b)(1)(v) prohibits the agency from denying a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate as a member of a planning or advisory board.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b)(1)(vi) prohibits the agency from limiting a qualified individual with handicaps in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving any aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b)(3) prohibits the agency from utilizing criteria or methods of administration that deny individuals with handicaps access to the agency's programs or activities. The phrase <I>criteria or methods of administration</I> refers to official written agency policies, as well as the actual practices of the agency. This paragraph prohibits both blatantly exclusionary policies or practices and nonessential policies and practices that are neutral on their face, but deny individuals with handicaps an effective opportunity to participate.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b)(4) specifically applies the prohibition enunciated in § 85.21(b)(3) to the process of selecting sites for construction of new facilities or existing facilities to be used by the agency. Paragraph (b)(4) does not apply to construction of additional buildings at an existing site.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b)(5) prohibits the agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, from using criteria that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b)(6) prohibits the agency from discriminating against qualified individuals with handicaps on the basis of handicap in the granting of licenses or certifications. A person is a <I>qualified individual with handicaps</I> with respect to licensing or certification if he or she can meet the essential eligibility requirements for receiving the license or certification (<I>see</I> § 85.3).
</P>
<P>In addition, the agency may not establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap. For example, the agency must comply with this requirement when establishing safety standards for the operations of licensees. In that case, the agency must ensure that the standards it promulgates do not discriminate against the employment of qualified individuals with handicaps in an impermissible manner.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b)(6) does not extend section 504 directly to the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities themselves. The programs or activities of Federal licensees or certified entities are not themselves federally conducted programs or activities; nor are they programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance merely by virtue of the Federal license or certificate. However, as noted above, section 504 may affect the content of the rules established by the agency for the operation of the program or activity of the licensee or certified entity and thereby indirectly affect limited aspects of their operations.
</P>
<P>One commenter suggested pointing out that Federal licensees or certified entities, having received services from Federal employees during the process of licensing or certification, thereby become Federally assisted recipients, and are covered by 45 CFR part 84. Such an argument is beyond the scope of this part, and is therefore not being included.
</P>
<P>Another commenter suggested including language such as that found in 45 CFR 84.4(b)(1) to the effect that agencies may not perpetuate discrimination against qualified individuals with handicaps by providing significant assistance to an agency, organization or person that discriminates on the basis of handicap. Assistance from the agency that would provide significant support to an organization constitutes Federal financial assistance and the organization, as a recipient of such assistance, would be covered by the section 504 regulation for federally assisted programs.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c) provides that programs conducted pursuant to Federal statute or Executive order that are designed to benefit only individuals with handicaps or a given class of individuals with handicaps may be limited to individuals those with handicaps.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (d) provides that the agency must administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the next of qualified individuals with handicaps, <I>i.e.</I> in a setting that enables individuals with handicaps to interact with nonhandicapped individuals to the fullest extent possible.
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.31 Employment.
</HD2>
<P>Section 85.31 prohibits discrimination on the basis of handicap in employment by the agency. Courts have held that section 504, as amended in 1978, covers the employment practices of Executive agencies. <I>Gardner</I> v. <I>Morris,</I> 752 F.2d 1271, 1277 (8th Cir. 1985); <I>Smith</I> v. <I>United States Postal Service,</I> 742 F.2d 257, 259-60 (6th Cir. 1984); <I>Prewitt</I> v. <I>United States Postal Service,</I> 662 F.2d 292, 302-04 (5th Cir. 1981). <I>Contra McGuiness</I> v. <I>United States Postal Service,</I> 744 F.2d 1318, 1320-21 (7th Cir. 1984); <I>Boyd</I> v. <I>United States Postal Service,</I> 752 F.2d 410, 413-14 (9th Cir. 1985).
</P>
<P>Courts uniformly have held that, in order to give effect to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act, which covers Federal employment, the administrative procedures of section 501 must be followed in processing complaints of employment discrimination under section 504. <I>Morgan</I> v. <I>United States Postal Service,</I> 798 F.2d 1162, 1164-65 (8th Cir. 1986); <I>Smith,</I> 742 F.2d at 262; <I>Prewitt,</I> 662 F.2d at 304. Accordingly, § 85.31 (Employment) of this rule adopts the definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 as established in regulations of the EEOC at 29 CFR part 1613. Responsibility for coordinating enforcement of Federal laws prohibiting discrimination in employment is assigned to the EEOC by Executive Order 12067 (3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 206). Under this authority, the EEOC establishes government-wide standards on nondiscrimination in employment on the basis of handicap.
</P>
<P>One commenter proposed that the general definition of <I>qualified individual with handicaps</I> be used in this section, instead of that used under section 501. We believe that the above paragraphs sufficiently explain the need for using the section 501 definition.
</P>
<P>In addition to this section, § 85.61(c) specifies that the agency will use the existing EEOC procedures to resolve allegations of employment discrimination.
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.41 Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.
</HD2>
<P>Section 85.41 states the general nondiscrimination principle underlying the program accessibility requirements of §§ 85.42 and 85.43.
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.42 Program accessibility: Existing facilities.
</HD2>
<P>This part adopts the program accessibility concept found in the existing section 504 coordination regulation for programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance (28 CFR 41.57) with certain modifications. Thus, § 85.42 requires that each agency program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The part also makes clear that the agency is not required to make each of its existing facilities accessible (§ 85.42(a)(1)). However, § 85.42, unlike 28 CFR 41.57, places explicit limits on the agency's obligation to ensure program accessibility (§ 85.42(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>One commenter stated that the provisions of § 85.42(a)(1) were negatively worded and may reflect a misinterpretation of the decision of the Supreme Court in <I>Grove City College</I> v. <I>Bell,</I> 465 U.S. 555 (1984), and argued for deletion of this language.
</P>
<P>The language is identical to that in the section 504 regulation for federally assisted programs or activities. We believe that the inclusion of this language is necessary in order to make clear that, while every aspect of every Federal program or activity need not be accessible, each program or activity, when viewed as a whole, must be accessible.
</P>
<P>Another commenter recommended adding the language “where other methods are equally effective in achieving compliance from § 84.42(b) to § 84.42(a)(1). We believe that, because § 84.42 (a) and (b) treat different aspects of the subject, their language must necessarily differ.
</P>
<P>Paragraph (a)(2) generally codifies recent case law that defines the scope of the agency's obligation to ensure program accessibility. This paragraph provides that in meeting the program accessibility requirement, the agency is not required to take any action that would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of its program or activity, or in undue financial and administrative burdens. A similar limitation is provided in § 85.51(d). This provision is based on the Supreme Court's holding in <I>Southeastern Community College</I> v. <I>Davis,</I> 442 U.S. 397 (1979), that section 504 does not require program modifications that result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program, and on the Court's statement that section 504 does not require modifications that would result in “undue financial and administrative burdens.” 442 U.S. at 412. Since <I>Davis,</I> circuit courts have applied this limitation on a showing that only one of the two “undue burdens” would be created as a result of the modification sought to be imposed under section 504. <I>See, e.g., Dopico</I> v. <I>Goldschmidt,</I> 687 F.2d 644 (2d Cir. 1982); <I>American Public Transit Association</I> v. <I>Lewis,</I> 655 F.2d 1272 (D.C. Cir. 1981).
</P>
<P>Paragraph (a)(2) and § 85.51(d) are also supported by the Supreme Court's decision in <I>Alexander</I> v. <I>Choate,</I> 469 U.S. 287 (1985). <I>Alexander</I> involved a challenge to the State of Tennessee's reduction of inpatient hospital care coverage under Medicaid from 20 to 14 days per year. Plaintiffs argued that this reduction violated section 504 because it had an adverse impact on handicapped persons. The Court assumed without deciding that section 504 reaches at least some conduct that has an unjustifiable disparate impact on handicapped people, but held that the reduction was not “the sort of disparate impact” discrimination that might be prohibited by section 504 or its implementing regulation. <I>Id</I> at 299.
</P>
<P>Relying on <I>Davis,</I> the Court said that section 504 guarantees qualified handicapped persons “meaningful access to the benefits the grantee offers,” <I>id.</I> at 301, and that “<I>reasonable adjustments</I> in the nature of the benefit offered must at times be made to assure meaningful access.” <I>Id.</I> n.21 (emphasis added). However, section 504 does not require “ ‘changes,’ ‘adjustments,’ or ‘modifications’ to existing programs that would be ‘substantial’ * * * or that would constitute ‘fundamental alteration[s] in the nature of a program.’ ” <I>Id.</I> at n.20 (citations omitted). <I>Alexander</I> supports the position, based on <I>Davis</I> and the earlier lower court decisions, that in some situations, certain accommodations for a handicapped person may so alter an agency's program or activity, or entail such extensive costs and administrative burdens that the refusal to undertake the accommodations is not discriminatory. Thus, failure to include such an “undue burdens” provision could lead to judicial invalidation of the regulation or reversal of a particular enforcement action taken pursuant to the regulation. 
</P>
<P>This paragraph, however, does not establish an absolute defense; it does not relieve the agency of all obligations to individuals with handicaps. Although the agency is not required to take actions that would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens, it nevertheless must take any other steps necessary to ensure that individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the federally conducted program or activity. 
</P>
<P>It is our view that compliance with § 85.42(a) would in most cases not result in undue financial and administrative burdens on the agency. In determining whether financial and administrative burdens are undue, all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity should be considered. The burden of proving that compliance with § 85.42(a) would fundamentally alter the nature of a program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens rests with the agency. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. Any person who believes that he or she or any specific class of persons has been injured by the agency head's decision or failure to make a decision may file a complaint under the compliance procedures established in § 85.61. The opportunity to file such a complaint responds to one commenter's suggestion that review by a high level Department official be assured. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b)(1) sets forth a number of means by which program accessibility may be achieved, including redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, and provision of aides. In choosing among methods, the agency shall give priority consideration to those that will be consistent with provision of services in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of individuals with handicaps. Structural changes in existing facilities are required only when there is no other feasible way to make the agency's program accessible. (It should be noted that “structural changes” include all physical changes to a facility; the term does not refer only to changes to structural features, such as removal of or alteration to a load-bearing structural member.) The agency may comply with the program accessibility requirement by delivering services at alternate accessible sites or making home visits as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>One commenter proposed that methods other than structural changes to ensure accessibility should be “equally effective”. The regulations implementing section 504 for federally assisted programs do not contain such language. The addition of the proposed language would impose a regulatory standard on the Department not required of recipients. In view of the fact that the 1978 amendments were intended to apply the same requirements to federally conducted programs as apply to federally assisted programs, the proposed language is not being adopted. 
</P>
<P>Paragraphs (c) and (d) establish time periods for complying with the program accessibility requirement. As currently required for federally assisted programs by 28 CFR 41.57(b), the agency must make any necessary structural changes in facilities as soon as practicable, but in no event later than three (3) years after the effective date of this part. Where structural modifications are required and it is not expected that these can be completed within six months, a transition plan should be developed within six months of the effective date of this part. Aside from structural changes, all other necessary steps to achieve compliance shall be taken within sixty days. 
</P>
<P>One commenter proposes to limit the time allowed for making structural modifications to one year. We note that the basic requirement is that these changes be made “as soon as practicable,” and that the three-year limit is the maximum period of time. Furthermore, the three-year maximum for transition plans is identical to that contained in the regulations for federally assisted recipients. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.43 Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.
</HD2>
<P>Overlapping coverage exists with respect to new construction and alterations under section 504 and the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157). Section 85.43 provides that those buildings that are constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps in accordance with 41 CFR part 101-19, 101-19.600 to 101-19.607 (GSA regulation which incorporates the Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards). This standard was promulgated pursuant to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157). We believe that it is appropriate to adopt the existing Architectural Barriers Act standard for section 504 compliance because new and altered buildings subject to this regulation are also subject to the Architectural Barriers Act and because adoption of the standard will avoid duplicative and possibly inconsistent standards.
</P>
<P>Existing buildings leased by the agency after the effective date of this regulation are not required by the regulation to meet accessibility standards simply by virtue of being leased. They are subject, however, to the program accessibility standards for existing facilities in § 85.42. To the extent the buildings are newly constructed or altered, they must also meet the new constructions and alteration requirements of § 85.43.
</P>
<P>Federal practice under section 504 has always treated newly leased buildings as subject to the existing facility program accessibility standard. Unlike the construction of new buildings where architectural barriers can be avoided at little or no cost, the application of new construction standards to an existing building being leased raises the same prospect of retrofitting buildings as the use of an existing Federal facility, and the agency believes that same program accessibility standards should apply to both owned and leased existing buildings.
</P>
<P>In <I>Rose</I> v. <I>United States Postal Service,</I> 774 F.2d 1355 (9th Cir. 1985), the Ninth Circuit held that the Architectural Barriers Act requires accessibility at the time of lease. The <I>Rose</I> court did not address the question of whether section 504 likewise requires accessibility as a condition of lease, and the case was remanded to the District Court for, among other things, consideration of this issue. Two commenters urged that leased buildings be required to be accessible at the time of lease. The agency may provide more specific guidance on section 504 requirements for leased buildings after the litigation is completed.
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.51 Communications.
</HD2>
<P>Section 85.51 requires the agency to take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with personnel of other Federal entities, applicants, participants, and members of the public. These steps shall include procedures for determining when auxiliary aids are necessary under § 85.1(a)(1) to afford an individual with handicaps an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, the agency's program or activity. They shall also include an opportunity for individuals with handicaps to request the auxiliary aids of their choice. This expressed choice shall be given primary consideration by the agency (§ 85.51(a)(1)(i)). The agency shall honor the choice unless it can demonstrate that another effective means of communication exists or that use of the means chosen would not be required under § 85.51(d). That paragraph limits the obligations of the agency to ensure effective communication in accordance with <I>Davis</I> and the circuit court opinions interpreting it (<I>see supra</I> preamble discussion of § 85.42(c)(2)). Unless not required by § 85.51(d), the agency shall provide auxiliary aids at no cost to the individual with handicaps.
</P>
<P>One commenter proposed that the choice of auxiliary aid made by the individual with handicaps should govern unless it would constitute an undue hardship on the agency. We believe that the language set out above is adequate to ensure consideration of an individual's preference.
</P>
<P>Another commenter proposed that the regulation require all films and videotapes produced by the agency to be captioned for the hearing-impaired. The Department intends to examine all appropriate methods of ensuring effective communication.
</P>
<P>The same commenter applauded HHS for the inclusion of the language requiring HHS to inform individuals with handicaps of their section 504 rights.
</P>
<P>The discussion of § 85.42(a), Program accessibility, Existing facilities, regarding the determination of what constitutes undue financial and administrative burdens, also applies to § 85.51(d) and should be referred to for a complete understanding of the agency's obligation to comply with § 85.51.
</P>
<P>In some circumstances, a notepad and written materials may be sufficient to permit effective communication with a hearing-impaired person. In many circumstances, however, they may not be, particularly when the information being communicated is complex or exchanged for a lengthy period of time (<I>e.g.</I> a meeting) or where the hearing-impaired applicant or participant is not skilled in spoken or written language. In these cases, a sign language interpreter may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>One commenter proposed changing the language to state that notepads rarely suffice for communication with the hearing-impaired. Considering that a significant number of the hearing-impaired may not be skilled in sign language, we believe that the language used is appropriate.
</P>
<P>For vision-impaired persons, effective communication might be achieved by several means, including readers and audio recordings. In general, the agency intends to inform the public of (1) the communications services it offers to afford individuals with handicaps an equal opportunity to participate in or benefit from its programs and activities, (2) the opportunity to request a particular mode of communication, and (3) the agency's preferences regarding auxiliary aids if it can demonstrate that several different modes are effective.
</P>
<P>The agency shall ensure effective communication with vision-impaired and hearing-impaired persons involved in proceedings conducted by the agency. Auxiliary aids must be afforded where necessary to ensure effective communication at the proceedings. If sign language interpreters are necessary, the agency may require that it be given reasonable notice prior to the proceedings of the need for an interpreter. Moreover, the agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature (§ 85.51(a)(1)(ii)). For example, the agency need not provide eye glasses or hearing aids to applicants or participants in its programs. Similarly, the regulation does not require the agency to provide wheelchairs to persons with mobility impairments.
</P>
<P>One commenter proposed that the items which agencies are not required to provide and the circumstances involved be described in more detail. We believe that the description given is sufficient, because the interpretation of this provision will be made on a case-by-case basis. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b) requires the agency to ensure that individuals with handicaps can obtain information concerning accessible services, activities, and facilities. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c) requires the agency to provide signage at inaccessible facilities that direct users to locations with information about accessible facilities. 
</P>
<P>One commenter suggested specifically mentioning the international symbol for deafness, and placing such signs at the main entrance of buildings equipped to service the hearing-impaired. We believe that the language contained in § 85.51 (b) and (c) requires the agency to ensure that individuals with handicaps, including those with impaired hearing, can obtain information regarding accessibility, and that this requirement is sufficient to afford flexibility on the part of the agency regarding use of appropriate signage. 
</P>
<P>One commenter proposed adding the words “in the most integrated setting appropriate” to the language in § 85.51(d). This language already appears elsewhere in the regulation, <I>e.g.</I> in § 85.42(b)(2), and it is the Department's intention to act in accordance with that provision. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.61 Compliance procedures. 
</HD2>
<P>Paragraph (a) specifies that paragraphs (b) and (d) through (l) of this section establish the procedures for processing complaints other than employment complaints. Paragraph (c) provides that the agency will process employment complaints according to procedures established in existing regulations of the EEOC (29 CFR part 1613) pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791). 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (b) designates the official responsible for coordinating implementation of § 85.61. The NPRM stated that responsibility for the implementation and operation of this “part” shall be vested in the OCR Director/Special Assistant. The final rule has been revised by replacing the word “part” with the word “section” to clarify the responsibility for coordinating implementation of § 85.61. 
</P>
<P>The agency is required to accept and investigate all complete complaints (§ 85.61(d)). Two commenters suggested that a complainant have an opportunity to remedy an incomplete complaint. Current administrative procedures provide for this practice and it need not be included in the text of the regulation. 
</P>
<P>If the agency determines that it does not have jurisdiction over a complaint, it shall promptly notify the complainant and make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate entity of the Federal Government (§ 85.61(e)). One commenter pointed out that where a reference to another entity of the Federal government is required, the obligation to refer should be absolute, not limited to reasonable efforts. The language “shall make reasonable efforts to refer” is not intended to minimize the Department's obligation. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (f) requires the agency to notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board (ATBCB) upon receipt of a complaint alleging that a building or facility subject to the Architectural Barriers Act was designed, constructed, or altered in a manner that does not provide ready access and use by individuals with handicaps. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (g) requires the agency to provide to the complainant, in writing, findings of fact and conclusions of law, the relief granted if noncompliance is found, and notice of the right to appeal (§ 85.61(g)). One appeal within the agency shall be provided (§ 85.61(i)). The appeal will not be heard by the same person who made the initial determination of compliance or noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (1) permits the agency to delegate its authority for investigating complaints to other Federal agencies. However, the statutory obligation of the agency to make a final determination of compliance or noncompliance may not be delegated. 
</P>
<P>Commenters have suggested the following: 
</P>
<P>Notifying complainants whenever their complaints are referred to another agency. Current administrative procedures provide for this practice and it need not be included in the text of the regulation. 
</P>
<P>Describing the basic parameters for submitting or obtaining evidence used to decide appeals. Since the grounds for appeal may be extremely varied, it would not be practicable to set out parameters for every appeal. 
</P>
<P>Including a statement as to complainants' rights to judicial review. These rights are statutory and beyond the scope of this regulation. 
</P>
<P>Obtaining the expertise of ATBCB in appropriate cases. A provision regarding notification of ATBCB is already included in the regulation. 
</P>
<P>Including a statement that all other regulations, forms and directives issued by HHS are superseded by the nondiscrimination requirements of this part. The Department views any other issuances falling short of the requirements of this regulation as insufficient to ensure compliance and therefore such a statement is unnecessary. 
</P>
<P>Provisions for attorneys fees and compensation to the prevailing party. Such provisions are statutory and beyond the scope of this regulation. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 85.62 Coordination and compliance responsibilities. 
</HD2>
<P>Section 85.62 sets out the respective responsibilities of the components of HHS and of the Director, OCR/Special Assistant in the implementation of section 504 to programs and activities conducted by HHS. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph (c) specifies the respective roles of OCR and of the HHS component in cases in which noncompliance is found. 
</P>
<P>In the event that OCR and the HHS component cannot agree on a resolution of any particular matter, such matter will be submitted to the Secretary for resolution.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="86" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 86—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF SEX IN EDUCATION PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE 


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>20 U.S.C. 1681 through 1688; Pub. L. 100-259, 102 Stat. 28 (Mar. 22, 1988).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 24137, June 4, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.1   Purpose and effective date.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to effectuate title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended by Pub. L. 93-568, 88 Stat. 1855 (except sections 904 and 906 of those Amendments) which is designed to eliminate (with certain exceptions) discrimination on the basis of sex in any education program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, whether or not such program or activity is offered or sponsored by an educational institution as defined in this part. This part is also intended to effectuate section 844 of the Education Amendments of 1974, Pub. L. 93-380, 88 Stat. 484. The effective date of this part shall be July 21, 1975. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, as amended by Pub. L. 93-568, 88 Stat. 1855, and sec. 844, Education Amendments of 1974, 88 Stat. 484, Pub. L. 93-380)


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term— 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Title IX</I> means title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, Pub. L. 92-318, as amended by section 3 of Pub. L. 93-568, 88 Stat. 1855, except sections 904 and 906 thereof; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Director</I> means the Director of the Office for Civil Rights of the Department. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reviewing Authority</I> means that component of the Department delegated authority by the Secretary to appoint, and to review the decisions of, administrative law judges in cases arising under this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means a person appointed by the reviewing authority to preside over a hearing held under this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any of the following, when authorized or extended under a law administered by the Department: 
</P>
<P>(1) A grant or loan of Federal financial assistance, including funds made available for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition, construction, renovation, restoration, or repair of a building or facility or any portion thereof; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Scholarships, loans, grants, wages or other funds extended to any entity for payment to or on behalf of students admitted to that entity, or extended directly to such students for payment to that entity. 
</P>
<P>(2) A grant of Federal real or personal property or any interest therein, including surplus property, and the proceeds of the sale or transfer of such property, if the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not, upon such sale or transfer, properly accounted for to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(3) Provision of the services of Federal personnel. 
</P>
<P>(4) Sale or lease of Federal property or any interest therein at nominal consideration, or at consideration reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient or in recognition of public interest to be served thereby, or permission to use Federal property or any interest therein without consideration. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other contract, agreement, or arrangement which has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance to any education program or activity, except a contract of insurance or guaranty. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Program or activity</I> and <I>program</I> means all of the operations of—
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity of such a State or local government that distributes Federal financial assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A local educational agency (as defined in 20 U.S.C. 7801), system of vocational education, or other school system;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship—
</P>
<P>(A) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or
</P>
<P>(B) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other entity which is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraph (h)(1), (2), or (3) of this section; any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Recipient</I> means any State or political subdivision thereof, or any instrumentality of a State or political subdivision thereof, any public or private agency, institution, or organization, or other entity, or any person, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended directly or through another recipient and which operates an education program or activity which receives such assistance, including any subunit, successor, assignee, or transferee thereof. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Applicant</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by a Department official, or by a recipient, as a condition to becoming a recipient. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Educational institution</I> means a local educational agency (L.E.A.) as defined by section 801(f) of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 881), a preschool, a private elementary or secondary school, or an applicant or recipient of the type defined by paragraph (l), (m), (n), or (o) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Institution of graduate higher education</I> means an institution which: 
</P>
<P>(1) Offers academic study beyond the bachelor of arts or bachelor of science degree, whether or not leading to a certificate of any higher degree in the liberal arts and sciences; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Awards any degree in a professional field beyond the first professional degree (regardless of whether the first professional degree in such field is awarded by an institution of undergraduate higher education or professional education); or 
</P>
<P>(3) Awards no degree and offers no further academic study, but operates ordinarily for the purpose of facilitating research by persons who have received the highest graduate degree in any field of study. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Institution of undergraduate higher education</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An institution offering at least two but less than four years of college level study beyond the high school level, leading to a diploma or an associate degree, or wholly or principally creditable toward a baccalaureate degree; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An institution offering academic study leading to a baccalaureate degree; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An agency or body which certifies credentials or offers degrees, but which may or may not offer academic study. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Institution of professional education</I> means an institution (except any institution of undergraduate higher education) which offers a program of academic study that leads to a first professional degree in a field for which there is a national specialized accrediting agency recognized by the Secretary of Education.</P>
<P>(o) <I>Institution of vocational education</I> means a school or institution (except an institution of professional or graduate or undergraduate higher education) which has as its primary purpose preparation of students to pursue a technical, skilled, or semiskilled occupation or trade, or to pursue study in a technical field, whether or not the school or institution offers certificates, diplomas, or degrees and whether or not it offers fulltime study. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Administratively separate unit</I> means a school, department or college of an educational institution (other than a local educational agency) admission to which is independent of admission to any other component of such institution. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Admission</I> means selection for part-time, full-time, special, associate, transfer, exchange, or any other enrollment, membership, or matriculation in or at an education program or activity operated by a recipient. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Student</I> means a person who has gained admission. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Transition plan</I> means a plan subject to the approval of the United States Commissioner of Education pursuant to section 901(a)(2) of the Education Amendments of 1972, under which an educational institution operates in making the transition from being an educational institution which admits only students of one sex to being one which admits students of both sexes without discrimination. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, 908, Education Amendments of 1972, 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1687) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24137, June 4, 1975, as amended at 70 FR 24320, May 9, 2005; 85 FR 37243, June 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.3   Remedial and affirmative action and self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedial action.</I> If the Director finds that a recipient has discriminated against persons on the basis of sex in an education program or activity, such recipient shall take such remedial action as the Director deems necessary to overcome the effects of such discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affirmative action.</I> In the absence of a finding of discrimination on the basis of sex in an education program or activity, a recipient may take affirmative action to overcome the effects of conditions which resulted in limited participation therein by persons of a particular sex. Nothing herein shall be interpreted to alter any affirmative action obligations which a recipient may have under Executive Order 11246. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-evaluation.</I> Each recipient education institution shall, within one year of the effective date of this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate, in terms of the requirements of this part, its current policies and practices and the effects thereof concerning admission of students, treatment of students, and employment of both academic and non-academic personnel working in connection with the recipient's education program or activity; 
</P>
<P>(2) Modify any of these policies and practices which do not or may not meet the requirements of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Take appropriate remedial steps to eliminate the effects of any discrimination which resulted or may have resulted from adherence to these policies and practices. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability of self-evaluation and related materials.</I> Recipients shall maintain on file for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall provide to the Director upon request, a description of any modifications made pursuant to paragraph (c) (2) of this section and of any remedial steps taken pursuant to paragraph (c) (3) of this section. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24128, June 4, 1975; 40 FR 39506, Aug. 28, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.4   Assurance required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Every application for Federal financial assistance for any education program or activity shall as condition of its approval contain or be accompanied by an assurance from the applicant or recipient, satisfactory to the Director, that the education program or activity operated by the applicant or recipient and to which this part applies will be operated in compliance with this part. An assurance of compliance with this part shall not be satisfactory to the Director if the applicant or recipient to whom such assurance applies fails to commit itself to take whatever remedial action is necessary in accordance with § 86.3(a) to eliminate existing discrimination on the basis of sex or to eliminate the effects of past discrimination whether occurring prior or subsequent to the submission to the Director of such assurance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> (1) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide real property or structures thereon, such assurance shall obligate the recipient or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the real property or structures are used to provide an education program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide personal property, such assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which it retains ownership or possession of the property. 
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases such assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form.</I> The Director will specify the form of the assurances required by paragraph (a) of this section and the extent to which such assurances will be required of the applicant's or recipient's subgrantees, contractors, subcontractors, transferees, or successors in interest. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24137, June 4, 1975, as amended at 70 FR 24321, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.5   Transfers of property.</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient sells or otherwise transfers property financed in whole or in part with Federal financial assistance to a transferee which operates any education program or activity, and the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not upon such sale or transfer properly accounted for to the Federal Government both the transferor and the transferee shall be deemed to be recipients, subject to the provisions of subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.6   Effect of other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effect of other Federal provisions.</I> The obligations imposed by this part are independent of, and do not alter, obligations not to discriminate on the basis of sex imposed by Executive Order 11246, as amended; sections 799A and 845 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 295h-9 and 298b-2); Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>); the Equal Pay Act (29 U.S.C. 206 and 206(d)); and any other Act of Congress or Federal regulation. 
</P>
<PARAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, 905, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374, 375; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1685)
</PARAUTH>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of State or local law or other requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with this part is not obviated or alleviated by any State or local law or other requirement which would render any applicant or student ineligible, or limit the eligibility of any applicant or student, on the basis of sex, to practice any occupation or profession. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of rules or regulations of private organizations.</I> The obligation to comply with this part is not obviated or alleviated by any rule or regulation of any organization, club, athletic or other league, or association which would render any applicant or student ineligible to participate or limit the eligibility or participation of any applicant or student, on the basis of sex, in any education program or activity operated by a recipient and which receives Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24137, June 4, 1975, as amended at 70 FR 24321, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.7   Effect of employment opportunities.</HEAD>
<P>The obligation to comply with this part is not obviated or alleviated because employment opportunities in any occupation or profession are or may be more limited for members of one sex than for members of the other sex. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.8   Designation of responsible employee and adoption of grievance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of responsible employee.</I> Each recipient shall designate at least one employee to coordinate its efforts to comply with and carry out its responsibilities under this part, including any investigation of any complaint communicated to such recipient alleging its noncompliance with this part or alleging any actions which would be prohibited by this part. The recipient shall notify all its students and employees of the name, office address and telephone number of the employee or employees appointed pursuant to this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaint procedure of recipient.</I> A recipient shall adopt and publish grievance procedures providing for prompt and equitable resolution of student and employee complaints alleging any action which would be prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.9   Dissemination of policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of policy.</I> (1) Each recipient shall implement specific and continuing steps to notify applicants for admission and employment, students and parents of elementary and secondary school students, employees, sources of referral of applicants for admission and employment, and all unions or professional organizations holding collective bargaining or professional agreements with the recipient, that it does not discriminate on the basis of sex in the educational programs or activities which it operates, and that is required by title IX and this part not to discriminate in such a manner. Such notification shall contain such information, and be made in such manner, as the Director finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by title IX and this part, but shall state at least that the requirement not to discriminate in education programs and activities extends to employment therein, and to admission thereto unless Subpart C does not apply to the recipient, and that inquiries concerning the application of title IX and this part to such recipient may be referred to the employee designated pursuant to § 86.8, or to the Director. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each recipient shall make the initial notification required by paragraph (a) (1) of this section within 90 days of the effective date of this part or of the date this part first applies to such recipient, whichever comes later, which notification shall include publication in:
</P>
<P>(i) Local newspapers; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Newspapers and magazines operated by such recipient or by student, alumnae, or alumni groups for or in connection with such recipient; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Memoranda or other written communications distributed to every student and employee of such recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publications.</I> (1) Each recipient shall prominently include a statement of the policy described in paragraph (a) of this section in each announcement, bulletin, catalog, or application form which it makes available to any person of a type, described in paragraph (a) of this section, or which is otherwise used in connection with the recruitment of students or employees. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not use or distribute a publication of the type described in this paragraph which suggests, by text or illustration, that such recipient treats applicants, students, or employees differently on the basis of sex except as such treatment is permitted by this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Distribution.</I> Each recipient shall distribute without discrimination on the basis of sex each publication described in paragraph (b) of this section, and shall apprise each of its admission and employment recruitment representatives of the policy of nondiscrimination described in paragraph (a) of this section, and require such representatives to adhere to such policy. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.11   Application.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this subpart, this part 86 applies to every recipient and to the education program or activity operated by such recipient which receives Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24137, June 4, 1975, as amended at 70 FR 24321, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.12   Educational institutions controlled by religious organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This part does not apply to an educational institution which is controlled by a religious organization to the extent application of this part would not be consistent with the religious tenets of such organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption.</I> An educational institution which wishes to claim the exemption set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, shall do so by submitting in writing to the Director a statement by the highest ranking official of the institution, identifying the provisions of this part which conflict with a specific tenet of the religious organization. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.13   Military and merchant marine educational institutions.</HEAD>
<P>This part does not apply to an educational institution whose primary purpose is the training of individuals for a military service of the United States or for the merchant marine. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.14   Membership practices of certain organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Social fraternities and sororities.</I> This part does not apply to the membership practices of social fraternities and sororities which are exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, the active membership of which consists primarily of students in attendance at institutions of higher education. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>YMCA, YWCA, Girl Scouts, Boy Scouts and Camp Fire Girls.</I> This part does not apply to the membership practices of the Young Men's Christian Association, the Young Women's Christian Association, the Girl Scouts, the Boy Scouts and Camp Fire Girls. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voluntary youth service organizations.</I> This part does not apply to the membership practices of voluntary youth service organizations which are exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 and the membership of which has been traditionally limited to members of one sex and principally to persons of less than nineteen years of age. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682; sec. 3(a) of Pub. L. 93-568, 88 Stat. 1862 amending sec. 901) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.15   Admissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Admissions to educational institutions prior to June 24, 1973, are not covered by this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administratively separate units.</I> For the purposes only of this section, §§ 86.16 and 86.17, and subpart C, each administratively separate unit shall be deemed to be an educational institution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of subpart C.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, subpart C applies to each recipient. A recipient to which subpart C applies shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in admission or recruitment in violation of that subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Educational institutions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section as to recipients which are educational institutions, Subpart C applies only to institutions of vocational education, professional education, graduate higher education, and public institutions of undergraduate higher education. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public institutions of undergraduate higher education.</I> Subpart C does not apply to any public institution of undergraduate higher education which traditionally and continually from its establishment has had a policy of admitting only students of one sex. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24128, June 4, 1975; 40 FR 39506, Aug. 28, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.16   Educational institutions eligible to submit transition plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to each educational institution to which subpart C applies which: 
</P>
<P>(1) Admitted only students of one sex as regular students as of June 23, 1972; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Admitted only students of one sex as regular students as of June 23, 1965, but thereafter admitted as regular students, students of the sex not admitted prior to June 23, 1965. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provision for transition plans.</I> An educational institution to which this section applies shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in admission or recruitment in violation of subpart C unless it is carrying out a transition plan approved by the United States Commissioner of Education as described in § 86.17, which plan provides for the elimination of such discrimination by the earliest practicable date but in no event later than June 23, 1979. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.17" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.17   Transition plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of plans.</I> An institution to which § 86.16 applies and which is composed of more than one administratively separate unit may submit either a single transition plan applicable to all such units, or a separate transition plan applicable to each such unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of plans.</I> In order to be approved by the United States Commissioner of Education, a transition plan shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) State the name, address, and Federal Interagency Committee on Education (FICE) Code of the educational institution submitting such plan, the administratively separate units to which the plan is applicable, and the name, address, and telephone number of the person to whom questions concerning the plan may be addressed. The person who submits the plan shall be the chief administrator or president of the institution, or another individual legally authorized to bind the institution to all actions set forth in the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) State whether the educational institution or administratively separate unit admits students of both sexes, as regular students and, if so, when it began to do so. 
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and describe with respect to the educational institution or administratively separate unit any obstacles to admitting students without discrimination on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(4) Describe in detail the steps necessary to eliminate as soon as practicable each obstacle so identified and indicate the schedule for taking these steps and the individual directly responsible for their implementation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Include estimates of the number of students, by sex, expected to apply for, be admitted to, and enter each class during the period covered by the plan. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nondiscrimination.</I> No policy or practice of a recipient to which § 86.16 applies shall result in treatment of applicants to or students of such recipient in violation of Subpart C unless such treatment is necessitated by an obstacle identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and a schedule for eliminating that obstacle has been provided as required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of past exclusion.</I> To overcome the effects of past exclusion of students on the basis of sex, each educational institution to which § 86.16 applies shall include in its transition plan, and shall implement, specific steps designed to encourage individuals of the previously excluded sex to apply for admission to such institution. Such steps shall include instituting recruitment programs which emphasize the institution's commitment to enrolling students of the sex previously excluded. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24128, June 4, 1975; 40 FR 39506, Aug. 28, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.18" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.18   Amendments to conform to statutory exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nothing in this part shall be construed to force or require any individual or hospital or any other institution, program, or activity receiving Federal funds to perform or pay for an abortion.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part shall be construed to require or prohibit any person, or public or private entity, to provide or pay for any benefit or service, including the use of facilities, related to an abortion. Nothing in the preceding sentence shall be construed to permit a penalty to be imposed on any person or individual because such person or individual is seeking or has received any benefit or service related to a legal abortion.
</P>
<P>(c) This part shall be construed consistently with, as applicable, the First Amendment to the Constitution, Title IX's religious exemptions (20 U.S.C. 1681(a)(3) and 1687(4)), the Religious Freedom Restoration Act (42 U.S.C. 2000b <I>et seq.</I>), and provisions related to abortion in the Church Amendments (42 U.S.C. 300a-7), the Coats-Snowe Amendment (42 U.S.C. 238n), section 1303 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (42 U.S.C. 18023), and appropriation rider provisions relating to abortion, to the extent they remain in effect or applicable, such as the Hyde Amendment (<I>e.g.,</I> Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2019, Pub. L. 115-245, Div. B, secs. 506-07), the Helms Amendment (<I>e.g.,</I> Continuing Appropriations Act, 2019, Pub. L. 116-6, Div. F, Title III), and the Weldon Amendment (<I>e.g.,</I> Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2019, Pub. L. 115-245, Div. B, sec. 507(d)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 37243, June 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 86.19-86.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 86.19-86.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Admission and Recruitment Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.21   Admission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be denied admission, or be subjected to discrimination in admission, by any recipient to which this subpart applies, except as provided in §§ 86.16 and 86.17. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> (1) In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, a recipient to which this subpart applies shall not: 
</P>
<P>(i) Give preference to one person over another on the basis of sex, by ranking applicants separately on such basis, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Apply numerical limitations upon the number or proportion of persons of either sex who may be admitted; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Otherwise treat one individual differently from another on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not administer or operate any test or other criterion for admission which has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless the use of such test or criterion is shown to predict validly success in the education program or activity in question and alternative tests or criteria which do not have such a disproportionately adverse effect are shown to be unavailable. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibitions relating to marital or parental status.</I> In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, a recipient to which this subpart applies: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall not apply any rule concerning the actual or potential parental, family, or marital status of a student or applicant which treats persons differently on the basis of sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not discriminate against or exclude any person on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom, or establish or follow any rule or practice which so discriminates or excludes; 
</P>
<P>(3) Shall treat disabilities related to pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability or physical condition; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Shall not make pre-admission inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for admission, including whether such applicant is “Miss” or “Mrs.” A recipient may make pre-admission inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for admision, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.22   Preference in admission.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient to which this subpart applies shall not give preference to applicants for admission, on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or other school or entity which admits as students or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preference has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of this subpart. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.23   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nondiscriminatory recruitment.</I> A recipient to which this subpart applies shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in the recruitment and admission of students. A recipient may be required to undertake additional recruitment efforts for one sex as remedial action pursuant to § 86.3(a), and may choose to undertake such efforts as affirmative action pursuant to § 86.3(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment at certain institutions.</I> A recipient to which this subpart applies shall not recruit primarily or exclusively at educational institutions, schools or entities which admit as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if such actions have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of this subpart. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 86.24-86.30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 86.24-86.30   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Education Programs or Activities Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.31   Education programs or activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in this part, no person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any academic, extracurricular, research, occupational training, or other education program or activity operated by a recipient which receives Federal financial assistance. This subpart does not apply to actions of a recipient in connection with admission of its students to an education program or activity of (1) a recipient to which Subpart C does not apply, or (2) an entity, not a recipient, to which Subpart C would not apply if the entity were a recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> Except as provided in this subsection, in providing any aid, benefit, or service to a student, a recipient shall not, on the basis of sex:
</P>
<P>(1) Treat one person differently from another in determining whether such person satisfies any requirement or condition for the provision of such aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide different aid, benefits, or services or provide aid, benefits, or services in a different manner;
</P>
<P>(3) Deny any person any such aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(4) Subject any person to separate or different rules of behavior, sanctions, or other treatment;
</P>
<P>(5) Apply any rule concerning the domicile or residence of a student or applicant, including eligibility for in-State fees and tuition;
</P>
<P>(6) Aid or perpetuate discrimination against any person by providing significant assistance to any agency, organization, or person which discriminates on the basis of sex in providing any aid, benefit or service to students or employees;
</P>
<P>(7) Otherwise limit any person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assistance administered by a recipient educational institution to study at a foreign institution.</I> A recipient educational institution may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other awards established by foreign or domestic wills, trusts, or similar legal instruments, or by acts of foreign governments and restricted to members of one sex, which are designed to provide opportunities to study abroad, and which are awarded to students who are already matriculating at or who are graduates of the recipient institution; <I>Provided,</I> a recipient educational institution which administers or assists in the administration of such scholarships, fellowship, or other awards which are restricted to members of one sex provides, or otherwise makes available reasonable opportunities for similar studies for members of the other sex. Such opportunities may be derived from either domestic or foreign sources. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aid, benefits, or services not provided by recipient.</I> (1) This paragraph applies to any recipient which requires participation by any applicant, student, or employee in any education program or activity not operated wholly by such recipient, or which facilitates, permits, or considers such participation as part of or equivalent to an education program or activity operated by such recipient, including participation in educational consortia and cooperative employment and student-teaching assignments. 
</P>
<P>(2) Such recipient; 
</P>
<P>(i) Shall develop and implement a procedure designed to assure itself that the operator or sponsor of such other education program or activity takes no action affecting any applicant, student, or employee of such recipient which this part would prohibit such recipient from taking; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall not facilitate, require, permit, or consider such participation if such action occurs. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24137, June 4, 1975, as amended at 70 FR 24321, May 9, 2005; 85 FR 37244, June 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.32   Housing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> A recipient shall not, on the basis of sex, apply different rules or regulations, impose different fees or requirements, or offer different services or benefits related to housing, except as provided in this section (including housing provided only to married students). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Housing provided by recipient.</I> (1) A recipient may provide separate housing on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) Housing provided by a recipient to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, shall be as a whole: 
</P>
<P>(i) Proportionate in quantity to the number of students of that sex applying for such housing; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Comparable in quality and cost to the student. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other housing.</I> (1) A recipient shall not, on the basis of sex, administer different policies or practices concerning occupancy by its students of housing other than provided by such recipient. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient which, through solicitation, listing, approval of housing, or otherwise, assists any agency, organization, or person in making housing available to any of its students, shall take such reasonable action as may be necessary to assure itself that such housing as is provided to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, is as a whole: (i) Proportionate in quantity and (ii) comparable in quality and cost to the student. A recipient may render such assistance to any agency, organization, or person which provides all or part of such housing to students only of one sex. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, 907, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374, 375; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1686) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.33   Comparable facilities.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may provide separate toilet, locker room, and shower facilities on the basis of sex, but such facilities provided for students of one sex shall be comparable to such facilities provided for students of the other sex. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.34   Access to course offerings.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not provide any course or otherwise carry out any of its education program or activity separately on the basis of sex, or require or refuse participation therein by any of its students on such basis, including health, physical education, industrial, business, vocational, technical, home economics, music, and adult education courses. 
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to classes and activities in physical education at the elementary school level, the recipient shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than one year from the effective date of this regulation. With respect to physical education classes and activities at the secondary and post-secondary levels, the recipient shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than three years from the effective date of this regulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) This section does not prohibit grouping of students in physical education classes and activities by ability as assessed by objective standards of individual performance developed and applied without regard to sex. 
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not prohibit separation of students by sex within physical education classes or activities during participation in wrestling, boxing, rugby, ice hockey, football, basketball and other sports the purpose or major activity of which involves bodily contact. 
</P>
<P>(d) Where use of a single standard of measuring skill or progress in a physical education class has an adverse effect on members of one sex, the recipient shall use appropriate standards which do not have such effect. 
</P>
<P>(e) Portions of classes in elementary and secondary schools which deal exclusively with human sexuality may be conducted in separate sessions for boys and girls. 
</P>
<P>(f) Recipients may make requirements based on vocal range or quality which may result in a chorus or choruses of one or predominantly one sex. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.35" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.35   Access to schools operated by L.E.A.s.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient which is a local educational agency shall not, on the basis of sex, exclude any person from admission to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Any institution of vocational education operated by such recipient; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Any other school or educational unit operated by such recipient, unless such recipient otherwise makes available to such person, pursuant to the same policies and criteria of admission, courses, services, and facilities comparable to each course, service, and facility offered in or through such schools. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.36" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.36   Counseling and use of appraisal and counseling materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Counseling.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate against any person on the basis of sex in the counseling or guidance of students or applicants for admission. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of appraisal and counseling materials.</I> A recipient which uses testing or other materials for appraising or counseling students shall not use different materials for students on the basis of their sex or use materials which permit or require different treatment of students on such basis unless such different materials cover the same occupations and interest areas and the use of such different materials is shown to be essential to eliminate sex bias. Recipients shall develop and use internal procedures for ensuring that such materials do not discriminate on the basis of sex. Where the use of a counseling test or other instrument results in a substantially disproportionate number of members of one sex in any particular course of study or classification, the recipient shall take such action as is necessary to assure itself that such disproportion is not the result of discrimination in the instrument or its application. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disproportion in classes.</I> Where a recipient finds that a particular class contains a substantially disproportionate number of individuals of one sex, the recipient shall take such action as is necessary to assure itself that such disproportion is not the result of discrimination on the basis of sex in counseling or appraisal materials or by counselors.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.37" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.37   Financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, in providing financial assistance to any of its students, a recipient shall not: (1) On the basis of sex, provide different amount or types of such assistance, limit eligibility for such assistance which is of any particular type or source, apply different criteria, or otherwise discriminate; (2) through solicitation, listing, approval, provision of facilities or other services, assist any foundation, trust, agency, organization, or person which provides assistance to any of such recipient's students in a manner which discriminates on the basis of sex; or (3) apply any rule or assist in application of any rule concerning eligibility for such assistance which treats persons of one sex differently from persons of the other sex with regard to marital or parental status. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial aid established by certain legal instruments.</I> (1) A recipient may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other forms of financial assistance established pursuant to domestic or foreign wills, trusts, bequests, or similar legal instruments or by acts of a foreign government which requires that awards be made to members of a particular sex specified therein; <I>Provided,</I> That the overall effect of the award of such sex-restricted scholarships, fellowships, and other forms of financial assistance does not discriminate on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) To ensure nondiscriminatory awards of assistance as required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, recipients shall develop and use procedures under which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Students are selected for award of financial assistance on the basis of nondiscriminatory criteria and not on the basis of availability of funds restricted to members of a particular sex; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An appropriate sex-restricted scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance is allocated to each student selected under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) No student is denied the award for which he or she was selected under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section because of the absence of a scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance designated for a member of that student's sex. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Athletic scholarships.</I> (1) To the extent that a recipient awards athletic scholarships or grants-in-aid, it must provide reasonable opportunities for such awards for members of each sex in proportion to the number of students of each sex participating in interscholastic or intercollegiate athletics. 
</P>
<P>(2) Separate athletic scholarships or grants-in-aid for members of each sex may be provided as part of separate athletic teams for members of each sex to the extent consistent with this paragraph and § 86.41. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682; and sec. 844, Education Amendments of 1974, Pub. L. 93-380, 88 Stat. 484) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24128, June 4, 1975; 40 FR 39506, Aug. 28, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.38" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.38   Employment assistance to students.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assistance by recipient in making available outside employment.</I> A recipient which assists any agency, organization or person in making employment available to any of its students: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall assure itself that such employment is made available without discrimination on the basis of sex; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not render such services to any agency, organization, or person which discriminates on the basis of sex in its employment practices. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employment of students by recipients.</I> A recipient which employs any of its students shall not do so in a manner which violates subpart E of this part. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.39" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.39   Health and insurance benefits and services.</HEAD>
<P>In providing a medical, hospital, accident, or life insurance benefit, service, policy, or plan to any of its students, a recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of sex, or provide such benefit, service, policy, or plan in a manner which would violate Subpart E of this part if it were provided to employees of the recipient. This section shall not prohibit a recipient from providing any benefit or service which may be used by a different proportion of students of one sex than of the other, including family planning services. However, any recipient which provides full coverage health service shall provide gynecological care. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.40" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.40   Marital or parental status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Status generally.</I> A recipient shall not apply any rule concerning a student's actual or potential parental, family, or marital status which treats students differently on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy and related conditions.</I> (1) A recipent shall not discriminate against any student, or exclude any student from its education program or activity, including any class or extracurricular activity, on the basis of such student's pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy or recovery therefrom, unless the student requests voluntarily to participate in a separate portion of the program or activity of the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may require such a student to obtain the certification of a physician that the student is physically and emotionally able to continue participation so long as such a certification is required of all students for other physical or emotional conditions requiring the attention of a physician. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient which operates a portion of its education program or activity separately for pregnant students, admittance to which is completely voluntary on the part of the student as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall ensure that the separate portion is comparable to that offered to non-pregnant students. 
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy and recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability with respect to any medical or hospital benefit, service, plan or policy which such recipient administers, operates, offers, or participates in with respect to students admitted to the recipient's educational program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a recipient which does not maintain a leave policy for its students, or in the case of a student who does not otherwise qualify for leave under such a policy, a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy and recovery therefrom as a justification for a leave of absence for so long a period of time as is deemed medically necessary by the student's physician, at the conclusion of which the student shall be reinstated to the status which she held when the leave began.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24137, June 4, 1975, as amended at 70 FR 24321, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.41   Athletics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, be treated differently from another person or otherwise be discriminated against in any interscholastic, intercollegiate, club or intramural athletics offered by a recipient, and no recipient shall provide any such athletics separately on such basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Separate teams.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a recipient may operate or sponsor separate teams for members of each sex where selection for such teams is based upon competitive skill or the activity involved is a contact sport. However, where a recipient operates or sponsors a team in a particular sport for members of one sex but operates or sponsors no such team for members of the other sex, and athletic opportunities for members of that sex have previously been limited, members of the excluded sex must be allowed to try-out for the team offered unless the sport involved is a contact sport. For the purposes of this part, contact sports include boxing, wrestling, rugby, ice hockey, football, basketball and other sports the purpose of major activity of which involves bodily contact. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equal opportunity.</I> A recipient which operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club or intramural athletics shall provide equal athletic opportunity for members of both sexes. In determining whether equal opportunities are available the Director will consider, among other factors: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the selection of sports and levels of competition effectively accommodate the interests and abilities of members of both sexes; 
</P>
<P>(2) The provision of equipment and supplies; 
</P>
<P>(3) Scheduling of games and practice time; 
</P>
<P>(4) Travel and per diem allowance; 
</P>
<P>(5) Opportunity to receive coaching and academic tutoring; 
</P>
<P>(6) Assignment and compensation of coaches and tutors; 
</P>
<P>(7) Provision of locker rooms, practice and competitive facilities; 
</P>
<P>(8) Provision of medical and training facilities and services; 
</P>
<P>(9) Provision of housing and dining facilities and services; 
</P>
<P>(10) Publicity.
</P>
<FP>Unequal aggregate expenditures for members of each sex or unequal expenditures for male and female teams if a recipient operates or sponsors separate teams will not constitute noncompliance with this section, but the Director may consider the failure to provide necessary funds for teams for one sex in assessing equality of opportunity for members of each sex. 
</FP>
<P>(d) <I>Adjustment period.</I> A recipient which operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club or intramural athletics at the elementary school level shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than one year from the effective date of this regulation. A recipient which operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club or intramural athletics at the secondary or post-secondary school level shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than three years from the effective date of this regulation. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682; and sec. 844, Education Amendments of 1974, Pub. L. 93-380, 88 Stat. 484) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24128, June 4, 1975; 40 FR 39506, Aug. 28, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.42   Textbooks and curricular material.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this regulation shall be interpreted as requiring or prohibiting or abridging in any way the use of particular textbooks or curricular materials. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 86.43-86.50" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 86.43-86.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Employment in Education Programs or Activities Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.51" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.51   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination in employment, or recruitment, consideration, or selection therefor, whether full-time or part-time, under any education program or activity operated by a recipient which receives Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall make all employment decisions in any education program or activity operated by such recipient in a nondiscriminatory manner and shall not limit, segregate, or classify applicants or employees in any way which could adversely affect any applicant's or employee's employment opportunities or status because of sex. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient shall not enter into any contractual or other relationship which directly or indirectly has the effect of subjecting employees or students to discrimination prohibited by this subpart, including relationships with employment and referral agencies, with labor unions, and with organizations providing or administering fringe benefits to employees of the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient shall not grant preferences to applicants for employment on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or entity which admits as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preferences has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> The provisions of this subpart apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Recruitment, advertising, and the process of application for employment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, consideration for and award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, application of nepotism policies, right of return from layoff, and rehiring; 
</P>
<P>(3) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation, and changes in compensation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Job assignments, classifications and structure, including position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists; 
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of any collective bargaining agreement; 
</P>
<P>(6) Granting and return from leaves of absence, leave for pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, leave for persons of either sex to care for children or dependents, or any other leave; 
</P>
<P>(7) Fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether or not administered by the recipient; 
</P>
<P>(8) Selection and financial support for training, including apprenticeship, professional meetings, conferences, and other related activities, selection for tuition assistance, selection for sabbaticals and leaves of absence to pursue training; 
</P>
<P>(9) Employer-sponsored activities, including those that are social or recreational; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24137, June 4, 1975, as amended at 70 FR 24321, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.52" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.52   Employment criteria.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not administer or operate any test or other criterion for any employment opportunity which has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless: 
</P>
<P>(a) Use of such test or other criterion is shown to predict validly successful performance in the position in question; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Alternative tests or criteria for such purpose, which do not have such disproportionately adverse effect, are shown to be unavailable. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.53" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.53   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nondiscriminatory recruitment and hiring.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in the recruitment and hiring of employees. Where a recipient has been found to be presently discriminating on the basis of sex in the recruitment or hiring of employees, or has been found to have in the past so discriminated, the recipient shall recruit members of the sex so discriminated against so as to overcome the effects of such past or present discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment patterns.</I> A recipient shall not recruit primarily or exclusively at entities which furnish as applicants only or predominantly members of one sex if such actions have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of this subpart. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.54" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.54   Compensation.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not make or enforce any policy or practice which, on the basis of sex: 
</P>
<P>(a) Makes distinctions in rates of pay or other compensation; 
</P>
<P>(b) Results in the payment of wages to employees of one sex at a rate less than that paid to employees of the opposite sex for equal work on jobs the performance of which requires equal skill, effort, and responsibility, and which are performed under similar working conditions. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.55" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.55   Job classification and structure.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(a) Classify a job as being for males or for females; 
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain or establish separate lines of progression, seniority lists, career ladders, or tenure systems based on sex; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain or establish separate lines of progression, seniority systems, career ladders, or tenure systems for similar jobs, position descriptions, or job requirements which classify persons on the basis of sex, unless sex is a bona-fide occupational qualification for the positions in question as set forth in § 86.61. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 24128, June 4, 1975; 40 FR 39506, Aug. 28, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.56" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.56   Fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fringe benefits</I> defined. For purposes of this part, <I>fringe benefits</I> means: Any medical, hospital, accident, life insurance or retirement benefit, service, policy or plan, any profit-sharing or bonus plan, leave, and any other benefit or service of employment not subject to the provision of § 86.54. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions.</I> A recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Discriminate on the basis of sex with regard to making fringe benefits available to employees or make fringe benefits available to spouses, families, or dependents of employees differently upon the basis of the employee's sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Administer, operate, offer, or participate in a fringe benefit plan which does not provide either for equal periodic benefits for members of each sex, or for equal contributions to the plan by such recipient for members of each sex; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Administer, operate, offer, or participate in a pension or retirement plan which establishes different optional or compulsory retirement ages based on sex or which otherwise discriminates in benefits on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.57" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.57   Marital or parental status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A recipient shall not apply any policy or take any employment action: 
</P>
<P>(1) Concerning the potential marital, parental, or family status of an employee or applicant for employment which treats persons differently on the basis of sex; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Which is based upon whether an employee or applicant for employment is the head of household or principal wage earner in such employee's or applicant's family unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate against or exclude from employment any employee or applicant for employment on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pregnancy as a temporary disability.</I> A recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, and recovery therefrom and any temporary disability resulting therefrom as any other temporary disability for all job related purposes, including commencement, duration and extensions of leave, payment of disability income, accrual of seniority and any other benefit or service, and reinstatement, and under any fringe benefit offered to employees by virtue of employment. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pregnancy leave.</I> In the case of a recipient which does not maintain a leave policy for its employees, or in the case of an employee with insufficient leave or accrued employment time to qualify for leave under such a policy, a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy and recovery therefrom as a justification for a leave of absence without pay for a reasonable period of time, at the conclusion of which the employee shall be reinstated to the status which she held when the leave began or to a comparable position, without decrease in rate of compensation or loss of promotional opportunities, or any other right or privilege of employment. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.58" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.58   Effect of State or local law or other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibitory requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with this subpart is not obviated or alleviated by the existence of any State or local law or other requirement which imposes prohibitions or limits upon employment of members of one sex which are not imposed upon members of the other sex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits.</I> A recipient which provides any compensation, service, or benefit to members of one sex pursuant to a State or local law or other requirement shall provide the same compensation, service, or benefit to members of the other sex. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.59" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.59   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not in any advertising related to employment indicate preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based on sex unless sex is a <I>bona-fide</I> occupational qualification for the particular job in question. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.60" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.60   Pre-employment inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Marital status.</I> A recipient shall not make pre-employment inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for employment, including whether such applicant is “Miss or Mrs.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sex.</I> A recipient may make pre-employment inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for employment, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.61" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.61   Sex as a bona-fide occupational qualification.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may take action otherwise prohibited by this subpart provided it is shown that sex is a bona-fide occupational qualification for that action, such that consideration of sex with regard to such action is essential to successful operation of the employment function concerned. A recipient shall not take action pursuant to this section which is based upon alleged comparative employment characteristics or stereotyped characterizations of one or the other sex, or upon preference based on sex of the recipient, employees, students, or other persons, but nothing contained in this section shall prevent a recipient from considering an employee's sex in relation to employment in a locker room or toilet facility used only by members of one sex. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 901, 902, Education Amendments of 1972, 86 Stat. 373, 374; 20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682) 


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 86.62-86.70" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 86.62-86.70   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Procedures [Interim]</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 86.71" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 86.71   Enforcement procedures.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of implementing this part, the procedural provisions applicable to Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d) are hereby adopted and incorporated herein by reference. These procedures may be found at 45 CFR 80.6 through 80.11 and 45 CFR part 81.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 37244, June 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.6.1.2.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Subject Index to Title IX Preamble and Regulation 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Preamble paragraph numbers are in brackets [ ].</P></FTNT>
<HD3>A 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Access to Course Offerings [43, 55, 56, 57, 58]; 86.34 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Access to Schools Operated by LEA's, [44]; 86.35 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Admissions, [5, 6, 30]; 86.15, 86.21 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Affirmative and remedial action, [16, 17, 24]; 86.3 (a), (b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Administratively separate units, [30];86.15(b), 86.2(o) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Educational Institutions, [30], 86.15(d), 86.2(n) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>General, 86.21(a), 86.2(p), 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Prohibitions relating to marital and parental status, [32, 36]; 86.21(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Professional schools, [30], 86.2(m) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Public institutions of undergraduate higher education, 86.15(e) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Recruitment, [34, 35]; 86.23 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Specific prohibitions, 86.21(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Tests, [31]; 86.21(b)(2) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Preference in admission, [35]; 86.22 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Advertising, 86.59 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Affirmative Action, see “Remedial and Affirmative Actions” 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Assistance to “outside” discriminatory organizations, [40, 53]; 86.31(b)(7), (c) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Assurances, [18]; 86.4 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Duration of obligation, 86.4(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Form, 86.4(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Athletics, [69 to 78]; 86.41 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Adjustment period, [78]; 86.41(d) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Contact sport defined, 86.41(d) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Equal opportunity, [76, 77]; 86.41(d) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Determining factors, 86.41(c) (i) to (x) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Equipment, 86.41(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Expenditures, 86.41(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Facilities, 86.41(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Travel, 86.41(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Scholarships, [64, 65]; 86.37(d) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>General, [69, 70, 71, 72, 73, 74, 75]; 86.41(a) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Separate teams, [75]; 86.41(b) 
</FP1-2>
<HD3>B 
</HD3>
<FP-2>BFOQ, [96]; 86.61 
</FP-2>
<HD3>C 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Comparable facilities 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Housing, [42, 54]; 86.32 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Other, 86.33, 86.35(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Compensation, [84, 87, 92]; 86.54 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Counseling 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Disproportionate classes, [45, 59]; 86.36(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>General, [45, 59]; 86.36(a) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Materials, [45, 59]; 86.36(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Course Offerings 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Adjustment period, [55]; 86.34(a) (i) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>General, [7, 43]; 86.34 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Music classes, [43]; 86.34(f) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Physical education, [43, 56, 58]; 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Sex education, [43, 57]; 86.34(e) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Coverage, [5]; 86.11 to 86.17 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Exemptions 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Curricular materials, [52]; 86.42(a) 
</FP-2>
<HD3>D 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Definitions, [14, 15]; 86.2(a) to (r) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Designation of responsible employee, [20, 22]; 86.8(a), (b) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Dissemination of policy, [21]; 86.9 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Distribution, 86.9(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Notification of policy, [21]; 86.9(a) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Publications, 86.9(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Dress codes 86.31(b) (4) 
</FP-2>
<HD3>E 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Education Institutions 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Controlled by religious organizations, 86.12 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Application, [28, 29]; 86.12(a) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Exemption, [26]; 86.12(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Education Program and Activities 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Benefiting from Federal financial assistance, [10, 11]; 86.11 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>General, [10, 11, 53]; 86.31(a) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Programs not operated by recipient, [41, 54]; 86.31(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Specific prohibitions, [38, 39, 40, 53]; 86.31 (b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Effective Date, [3] 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Employee responsible for Title IX, see “Designation of Responsible Employee” 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Employment 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Advertising, 86.59 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Application, 86.51(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Compensation, [84, 92]; 86.54 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Employment criteria, 86.52 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Fringe benefits, [88, 89]; 86.56 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>General, [81, 82, 87]; 86.51 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Job Classification and Structure, 86.55 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Marital and Parental Status, 86.57 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy, [85, 93]; 86.57(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy as Temporary Disability, [85, 93]; 86.57(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy Leave, [85, 93, 94]; 86.57(d) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Pre-Employment Inquiry 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Recruitment, [83, 90, 91, 95] 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Sex as a BFOQ, [96]; 86.61 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Student Employment, [66]; 86.38 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Tenure, 86.51(b) (2) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Exemptions, [5, 27, 28, 29, 30, 53]; 86.12(b), 86.13, 86.14, 86.15(a), 86.15(d), 86.16 
</FP-2>
<HD3>F 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Federal Financial Assistance, 86.2(a) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Financial Assistance to students, [46, 60, 61]; 86.37 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Athletic Scholarships, [46, 64, 65]; 86.37(d) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Foreign institutions, study at [63]; 86.31(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>General, 86.37 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Non-need scholarships, [62]; 86.37(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pooling of sex-restrictive, [46, 61, 62]; 86.37(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Sex-restrictive assistance through foreign or domestic wills [46, 61, 62]; 86.37(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Foreign Scholarships, see “Financial assistance” 86.37 and “Assistance to ‘outside’ discriminatory organizations”, 86.31(c) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Fraternities/Sororities 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Social, [53, 27, 28]; 86.14(a) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Business/professional, [40, 53, 27, 28]; 86.31(b) (7) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Honor societies, [40, 53]; 86.31(b) (7) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Fringe benefits, [67, 88, 89]; 86.56, 86.39 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Part-time employees, [89] 
</FP1-2>
<HD3>G 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Grievance Procedure, see “Designation of responsible employee”, 86.8(a) (b) 
</FP-2>
<HD3>H 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Health and Insurance Benefits and Services, [67, 88, 93]; 86.39, 86.56 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Honor societies, [40, 53]; 86.31(b) (7) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Housing, 86.32 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Generally, [42]; 86.32(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Provided by recipient, 86.32(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Other housing, [54]; 86.32(c) 
</FP1-2>
<HD3>J 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Job Classification and Structure, 86.55 
</FP-2>
<HD3>L 
</HD3>
<FP-2>LEA's, [44]; 86.35 
</FP-2>
<HD3>M 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Marital and Parental Status 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Employment 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>General, [85, 93, 94]; 86.57 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy, [85, 93, 94]; 86.57(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy as a temporary disability, [85, 93, 94]; 86.57(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy leave, [85, 93, 94]; 86.57(d) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Students 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>General, [49]; 86.40(a) (b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy and related conditions, [50]; 86.40(b) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Class participation, [50]; 86.40(b) (1) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Physician certification, [50]; 86.40(b) (2) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Special classes, [50]; 86.40(b) (3) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Temporary leave, [50]; 86.40(b) (4) (5) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Membership Practices of Social fraternities and sororities, [27, 28, 53]; 86.14(a) 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Voluntary youth service organizations, [27, 28, 53]; 86.14(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>YMCA, YWCA and others, [27, 28, 53]; 86.14(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Military and Merchant Marine Educational Institutions, [29]; 86.13 
</FP-2>
<HD3>P 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Pooling, see “Financial Assistance”, 86.37 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Pre-employment Inquiries 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Marital status, [86, 95]; 86.60(a) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Sex, 86.60(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Preference in Admissions, [35]; 86.22 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>See also “Remedial and Affirmative Action” 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Pregnancy, Employment 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>General, [85, 93, 94]; 86.57 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy, [85, 93, 94]; 86.57(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy as temporary disability, [85, 93, 94]; 86.57(c) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy leave, [85, 93, 94]; 86.57(d) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Students 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>General, [49, 50]; 86.40(a) and (b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Pregnancy and related conditions; [50]; 86.40(b) (1) to (5) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Class Participation, [50, 55, 58]; 86.40(b) (1) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Physical certification, [50]; 86.40(b) (2) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Special class, [50]; 86.40 (b) (3) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Temporary leave, [50]; 86.40(b) (4), (5) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Private Undergraduate Professional Schools, [30]; 86.15(d) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Purpose of Regulation, [13]; 86.1 
</FP-2>
<HD3>R 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Real Property, 86.2(g) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Recruitment 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Employment 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Nondiscrimination, [83, 91]; 86.53(a) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Patterns, 86.53(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Student 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Nondiscrimination, [34, 35]; 86.23(a) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Recruitment at certain institutions, 86.23 (b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Religious Organizations 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Application, [29, 28]; 86.12(a) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Exemption, [26]; 86.12(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Remedial and Affirmative Actions, [16, 17, 24]; 86.3 
</FP-2>
<HD3>S 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Scholarships, see “Financial Assistance”, 86.37 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Self-evaluation, [16, 22]; 86.3(c) (d) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Surplus Property (see Transfer of Property 86.5) 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Duration of obligation 86.4(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Real Property 86.4(b) (1) 
</FP1-2>
<HD3>T 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Textbooks and curricular materials, [52, 79, 80]; 86.42 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Termination of funds, [10, 11] 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Transfer of property, 86.5 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Transition Plans 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Content of plans, 86.17(b) 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Different from Adjustment period, [78]; 86.41(d) 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2> Submission of plans, 86.17(a) 


</FP-2>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.41.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="87" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 87—EQUAL TREATMENT FOR FAITH-BASED ORGANIZATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 42 U.S.C. 2000bb <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 19426, Apr. 4, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 87.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.42.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 87.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Direct Federal financial assistance, Federal financial assistance provided directly,</I> or <I>direct funding</I> means financial assistance received by an entity selected by the Government or a pass-through entity (as defined in this part) to carry out a service (e.g., by contract, grant, or cooperative agreement). References to Federal financial assistance will be deemed to be references to direct Federal financial assistance, unless the referenced assistance meets the definition of indirect Federal financial assistance or Federal financial assistance provided indirectly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Directly funded</I> means funded by means of direct Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Indirect Federal financial assistance</I> or <I>Federal financial assistance provided indirectly</I> means Federal financial assistance received by a service provider when the service provider is paid for services rendered by means of a voucher, certificate, or other means of Government-funded payment provided to a beneficiary who is able to make a choice of a service provider, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The Government program through which the beneficiary receives the voucher, certificate, or other similar means of Government-funded payment is neutral toward religion; and
</P>
<P>(2) The service provider receives the assistance wholly as a result of a genuine and independent private choice of the beneficiary, not a choice of the Government. The availability of adequate secular alternatives is a significant factor in determining whether a program affords true private choice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal financial assistance</I> means assistance that non-Federal entities receive or administer in the form of grants, contracts, loans, loan guarantees, property, cooperative agreements, food commodities, direct appropriations, or other assistance, but does not include a tax credit, deduction, or exemption. Federal financial assistance may be direct or indirect.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Pass-through entity</I> means an entity, including a nonprofit or nongovernmental organization, acting under a contract, grant, or other agreement with the Federal Government or with a State or local government, such as a State administering agency, that accepts direct Federal financial assistance as a primary recipient or grantee and distributes that assistance to other organizations that, in turn, provide government funded social services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recipient</I> means a non-Federal entity that receives a Federal award directly from a Federal awarding agency to carry out an activity under a Federal program. The term recipient does not include subrecipients, but does include pass-through entities.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Religious exercise</I> has the meaning given to the term in 42 U.S.C. 2000cc-5(7)(A).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82145, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 89 FR 15721, Mar. 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 87.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.42.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 87.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to grants awarded in HHS social service programs governed by either the Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements at 2 CFR parts 200 and 300 or Block Grant regulations at 45 CFR part 96, except as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Discretionary grants.</I> This part is not applicable to the discretionary grant programs that are governed by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) Charitable Choice regulations found at 42 CFR part 54a. This part is also not applicable to discretionary grant programs that are governed by the Community Services Block Grant (CSBG) Charitable Choice regulations at 45 CFR part 1050, with the exception of §§ 87.1 and 87.3(k) through (m) and (o), which do apply to such CSBG discretionary grants. Discretionary grants authorized by the Child Care and Development Block Grant Act are also not governed by this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Formula and block grants.</I> This part does not apply to non-discretionary and block grant programs governed by the SAMHSA Charitable Choice regulations found at 42 CFR part 54, or the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) Charitable Choice regulations at 45 CFR part 260. Block grants governed by the CSBG Charitable Choice regulations at 45 CFR part 1050 are not subject to this part, with the exception of §§ 87.1 and 87.3(k) through (m) and (o), which do apply to such CSBG block grants. This part is not applicable to Child Care and Development Block Grants governed by 45 CFR part 98.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 19426, Apr. 4, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 15721, Mar. 4, 2024; 89 FR 80070, Oct. 2, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 87.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.42.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 87.3   Faith-based organizations and Federal financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Faith-based organizations are eligible, on the same basis as any other organization, to participate in any HHS awarding agency program or service for which they are otherwise eligible. Neither the HHS awarding agency nor any State or local government or other pass-through entity receiving funds under any HHS awarding agency program or service shall, in the selection of service providers, discriminate for or against an organization on the basis of the organization's religious character, motives, or affiliation, or lack thereof, or on the basis of conduct that would not be considered grounds to favor or disfavor a similarly situated secular organization.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part shall be construed to preclude HHS from making an accommodation, including for religious exercise, with respect to one or more program requirements on a case-by-case basis in accordance with the Constitution and laws of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) HHS shall not disqualify an organization from participating in any HHS program for which it is eligible on the basis of the organization's indication that it may request an accommodation with respect to one or more program requirements, unless the organization has made clear that the accommodation is necessary to its participation and HHS has determined that it would deny the accommodation.
</P>
<P>(d) Organizations that receive direct financial assistance from an HHS awarding agency may not engage in any explicitly religious activities (including activities that involve overt religious content such as worship, religious instruction, or proselytization) as part of the programs or services funded with direct financial assistance from the HHS awarding agency, or in any other manner prohibited by law. If an organization conducts such activities, the activities must be offered separately, in time or location, from the programs or services funded with direct financial assistance from the HHS awarding agency, and participation must be voluntary for beneficiaries of the programs or services funded with such assistance. The use of indirect Federal financial assistance is not subject to this restriction. Nothing in this part restricts HHS's authority under applicable Federal law to fund activities, such as the provision of chaplaincy services, that can be directly funded by the Government consistent with the Establishment Clause.
</P>
<P>(e) A faith-based organization that participates in HHS awarding-agency funded programs or services will retain its autonomy; right of expression; religious character; and independence from Federal, State, and local governments, and may continue to carry out its mission, including the definition, development, practice, and expression of its religious beliefs. A faith-based organization may use space in its facilities to provide programs or services funded with financial assistance from the HHS awarding agency without concealing, removing, or altering religious art, icons, scriptures, or other religious symbols. Such a faith-based organization retains its authority over its internal governance, and it may retain religious terms in its name, select its board members on the basis of their acceptance of or adherence to the religious tenets of the organization, and include religious references in its mission statements and other governing documents. In addition, a faith-based organization that receives financial assistance from the HHS awarding agency does not lose the protections of law.




</P>
<P>(f) An organization, whether faith-based or not, that receives Federal financial assistance from HHS shall not, in providing services supported in whole or in part with Federal financial assistance, or in their outreach activities related to such services, discriminate against a program beneficiary or prospective program beneficiary on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice. However, a faith-based organization receiving indirect Federal financial assistance need not modify any religious components or integration with respect to its program activities to accommodate a beneficiary who chooses to expend the indirect aid on the organization's program.
</P>
<P>(g) No grant document, agreement, covenant, memorandum of understanding, policy, or regulation used by an HHS awarding agency or a State or local government in administering Federal financial assistance from the HHS awarding agency shall require faith-based organizations to provide assurances or notices where they are not required of non-faith-based organizations. Any restrictions on the use of grant funds shall apply equally to faith-based and non-faith-based organizations. All organizations, whether faith-based or not, that participate in HHS awarding agency programs or services must carry out eligible activities in accordance with all program requirements, including those prohibiting the use of direct Federal financial assistance to engage in explicitly religious activities, subject to any accommodations that HHS grants to organizations on a case-by-case basis in accordance with the Constitution and laws of the United States. No grant document, agreement, covenant, memorandum of understanding, policy, or regulation used by an HHS awarding agency or a State or local government in administering Federal financial assistance from the HHS awarding agency shall disqualify faith-based organizations from participating in the HHS awarding agency's programs or services on the basis of the organization's religious character, motives, or affiliation, or lack thereof, or on the basis of conduct that would not be considered grounds to disqualify a similarly situated secular organization.
</P>
<P>(h) A faith-based organization's exemption from the Federal prohibition on employment discrimination on the basis of religion, set forth in the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-1, is not forfeited when the faith-based organization receives direct or indirect Federal financial assistance from an HHS awarding agency. Some HHS awarding agency programs, however, contain independent statutory provisions requiring that all grantees agree not to discriminate in employment on the basis of religion. In this case, grantees should consult with the appropriate HHS awarding agency program office to determine the scope of any applicable requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) In general, the HHS awarding agency does not require that a recipient, including a faith-based organization, obtain tax-exempt status under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code to be eligible for funding under HHS awarding agency programs. Many grant programs, however, do require an organization to be a nonprofit organization in order to be eligible for funding. Funding announcements and other grant application solicitations that require organizations to have nonprofit status will specifically so indicate in the eligibility section of the solicitation. In addition, any solicitation that requires an organization to maintain tax-exempt status will expressly state the statutory authority for requiring such status. Recipients should consult with the appropriate HHS awarding agency program office to determine the scope of any applicable requirements. In HHS awarding agency programs in which an applicant must show that it is a nonprofit organization, the applicant may do so by any of the following means:
</P>
<P>(1) Proof that the Internal Revenue Service currently recognizes the applicant as an organization to which contributions are tax deductible under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement from a State or other governmental taxing body or the State secretary of State certifying that:
</P>
<P>(i) The organization is a nonprofit organization operating within the State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) No part of its net earnings may benefit any private shareholder or individual;
</P>
<P>(3) A certified copy of the applicant's certificate of incorporation or similar document that clearly establishes the nonprofit status of the applicant; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any item described in paragraphs (i)(1) through (3) of this section, if that item applies to a State or national parent organization, together with a statement by the State or parent organization that the applicant is a local nonprofit affiliate.
</P>
<P>(j) If a recipient contributes its own funds in excess of those funds required by a matching or grant agreement to supplement HHS awarding agency-supported activities, the recipient has the option to segregate those additional funds or commingle them with the Federal award funds. If the funds are commingled, the provisions of this part shall apply to all of the commingled funds in the same manner, and to the same extent, as the provisions apply to the Federal funds. With respect to the matching funds, the provisions of this part apply irrespective of whether such funds are commingled with Federal funds or segregated.
</P>
<P>(k) An organization providing social services under a discretionary grant program of HHS that is supported by Federal financial assistance must give written notice to beneficiaries and prospective beneficiaries of certain protections. A pass-through entity administering social service programs under a mandatory formula, block or entitlement grant of HHS that is supported by Federal financial assistance shall ensure that beneficiaries and prospective beneficiaries receive written notice of certain protections.
</P>
<P>(1) The written notice to beneficiaries and prospective beneficiaries of directly funded social services shall include language substantially similar to that found in appendix A to this part. The notice must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The organization may not discriminate against a beneficiary or prospective beneficiary on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice;
</P>
<P>(ii) The organization may not require a beneficiary or prospective beneficiary to attend or participate in any explicitly religious activities that are offered by the organization, and any participation by a beneficiary in such activities must be purely voluntary;
</P>
<P>(iii) The organization must separate in time or location any privately funded explicitly religious activities from activities supported by direct Federal financial assistance; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A beneficiary or prospective beneficiary may report an organization's violation of these protections, including any denials of services or benefits by an organization, by contacting or filing a written complaint with either the HHS awarding entity or the pass-through entity that awarded funds to the organization, which must promptly report the complaint to the HHS awarding entity. The HHS awarding entity will address the complaint in consultation with the HHS Office for Civil Rights.
</P>
<P>(2) The written notice to beneficiaries of indirectly funded social services must identify the protections in paragraphs (f) and (k)(1)(ii) and (iv) of this section; it must also provide the contact information of the HHS awarding entity or the pass-through entity that administers the program.
</P>
<P>(l) The written notice described in paragraph (k) of this section must be given to a prospective beneficiary prior to the time the prospective beneficiary enrolls in the program or receives services from the program. When the nature of the service provided or exigent circumstances make it impracticable to provide such written notice in advance of the actual service, an organization must advise beneficiaries of their protections and provide the notice at the earliest available opportunity.
</P>
<P>(m) The written notice described in paragraph (k) of this section must be given in a manner prescribed by the HHS awarding agency in consultation with the HHS Office for Civil Rights, such as by incorporating the notice into materials that are otherwise provided to beneficiaries. The HHS awarding agency, in consultation with the HHS Office for Civil Rights, may determine that the notice must inform each beneficiary or prospective beneficiary of the option to seek information from the HHS awarding agency, or another entity administering the applicable program, about other federally funded organizations in their area, if any, that provide the services available under the applicable program.
</P>
<P>(n) Notices or announcements of award opportunities and notices of award or contracts shall include language substantially similar to that in appendices B and C to this part.
</P>
<P>(o) Decisions about awards of direct Federal financial assistance must be made on the basis of merit, not on the basis of the religious affiliation, or lack thereof, of a recipient organization, and must be free from political interference or even the appearance of such interference.
</P>
<P>(p) Neither the HHS awarding agency nor any State or local government or other pass-through entity receiving funds under any HHS awarding agency program or service shall construe these provisions in such a way as to advantage or disadvantage faith-based organizations affiliated with historic or well-established religions or sects in comparison with other religions or sects.
</P>
<P>(q) If a pass-through entity, acting under a contract, grant, or other agreement with the Federal Government or with a State or local government that is administering a program supported by Federal financial assistance, is given the authority under the contract, grant, or agreement to select non-governmental organizations to provide services funded by the Federal Government, the pass-through entity must ensure compliance with the provisions of this part and any implementing regulations or guidance by the sub-recipient. If the pass-through entity is a non-governmental organization, it retains all other rights of a non-governmental organization under the program's statutory and regulatory provisions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82146, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 89 FR 15721, Mar. 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 87.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.42.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 87.4   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent that any provision of this part is declared invalid by a court of competent jurisdiction, the Department intends for all other provisions that are capable of operating in the absence of the specific provision that has been invalidated to remain in effect.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 15723, Mar. 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.42.0.1.5.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 87—Direct Aid Programs: Written Notice of Beneficiary Protections
</HEAD>
<P>Name of Organization:
</P>
<P>Name of Program:
</P>
<P>Contact Information for Program Staff: [provide name, phone number, and email address, if appropriate]
</P>
<P>Because this program is supported in whole or in part by financial assistance from the Federal Government, we are required to let you know that—
</P>
<P>(1) We may not discriminate against you on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice;
</P>
<P>(2) We may not require you to attend or participate in any explicitly religious activities (including activities that involve overt religious content such as worship, religious instruction or proselytization) that may be offered by our organization, and any participation by you in such activities must be purely voluntary;
</P>
<P>(3) We must separate in time or location any privately funded explicitly religious activities (including activities that involve overt religious content such as worship, religious instruction or proselytization) from activities supported with direct Federal financial assistance;
</P>
<P>(4) You may report violations of these protections, including any denials of services or benefits by an organization, by contacting or filing a written complaint with [identify the HHS awarding entity, or the pass-through entity that awarded funds to your organization, and the phone number and physical street and/or email address of the identified office]. The HHS awarding entity will address the complaint in consultation with the HHS Office for Civil Rights;
</P>
<P>[When required by the HHS awarding agency, the notice must also state:] (5) If you would like to seek information about whether there are any other federally funded organizations that provide these kinds of services in your area, please use the contact information set forth above.
</P>
<P>We must give you this notice before you enroll in or receive services from the program, unless the nature of the service provided or exigent circumstances make advanced notice impracticable. In that case, this notice must be given to you at the earliest available opportunity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 15723, Mar. 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.42.0.1.5.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 87—Notice or Announcement of Award Opportunities
</HEAD>
<P>(a) Faith-based organizations may apply for this award on the same basis as any other organization, as set forth at, and subject to the protections and requirements of, this part and any applicable constitutional and statutory requirements, including 42 U.S.C. 2000bb <I>et seq.</I> HHS will not, in the selection of recipients, discriminate for or against an organization on the basis of the organization's religious character, motives, or affiliation, or lack thereof, or on the basis of conduct that would not be considered grounds to favor or disfavor a similarly situated secular organization.
</P>
<P>(b) A faith-based organization that participates in this program will retain its independence from the Government and may continue to carry out its mission consistent with religious freedom, nondiscrimination, and conscience protections in Federal law.
</P>
<P>(c) A faith-based organization may not use direct Federal financial assistance from HHS to support or engage in any explicitly religious activities (including activities that involve overt religious content such as worship, religious instruction, or proselytization) except when consistent with the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment and any other applicable requirements. Such an organization also may not, in providing services funded by HHS, or in their outreach activities related to such services, discriminate against a program beneficiary or prospective program beneficiary on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 15723, Mar. 4, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.42.0.1.5.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 87—Notice of Award or Contract
</HEAD>
<P>(a) A faith-based organization that participates in this program retains its independence from the Government and may continue to carry out its mission consistent with religious freedom, nondiscrimination, and conscience protections in Federal law.
</P>
<P>(b) A faith-based organization may not use direct Federal financial assistance from HHS to support or engage in any explicitly religious activities (including activities that involve overt religious content such as worship, religious instruction, or proselytization) except when consistent with the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment and any other applicable requirements. Such an organization also may not, in providing services funded by the Department, or in their outreach activities related to such services, discriminate against a program beneficiary or prospective program beneficiary on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 15723, Mar. 4, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="88" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 88—ENSURING THAT DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES FUNDS DO NOT SUPPORT COERCIVE OR DISCRIMINATORY POLICIES OR PRACTICES IN VIOLATION OF FEDERAL LAW


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 2107, Jan. 11, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 88.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.43.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 88.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to provide for the enforcement of the Church Amendments, 42 U.S.C. 300a-7; the Coats-Snowe Amendment, section 245 of the Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 238n; the Weldon Amendment, e.g., Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2023, Public Law 117-328, div. H, title V General Provisions, section 507(d)(1) (Dec. 29, 2022); Sections 1303(b)(1)(A), (b)(4), and (c)(2)(A), and 1411(b)(5)(A), and 1553 of the ACA, 42 U.S.C. 18023(b)(1)(A), (b)(4), and (c)(2)(A), 18081(b)(5)(A), and 18113; certain Medicare and Medicaid provisions, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-1(h), 1320c-11, 1395i-5, 1395w-22(j)(3)(B), 1395x(e), 1395x(y)(1), 1395cc(f), 1396a(a), 1396a(w)(3), 1396u-2(b)(3)(B), 1397j-1(b), and 14406; the Helms, Biden, 1978, and 1985 Amendments, 22 U.S.C. 2151b(f), <I>accord, e.g.,</I> Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2023, Public Law 117-328, div. K, title VII, section 7018 (Dec. 29, 2022); 22 U.S.C. 7631(d); 42 U.S.C. 280g-1(d), 290bb-36(f), 1396f, 1396s(c)(2)(B)(ii); 5106i(a)); and 29 U.S.C. 669(a)(5), referred to collectively as the “Federal health care conscience protection statutes.”




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 88.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.43.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 88.2   Complaint handling and investigating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Delegated authority.</I> The Office for Civil Rights (OCR) has been delegated the authority to facilitate and coordinate the Department's enforcement of the Federal health care conscience protection statutes, which includes the authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Receive and handle complaints;
</P>
<P>(2) Initiate compliance reviews;
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct investigations;
</P>
<P>(4) Consult on compliance within the Department;
</P>
<P>(5) Seek voluntary resolutions of complaints;
</P>
<P>(6) Consult and coordinate with the relevant Departmental funding component, and utilize existing enforcement regulations, such as those that apply to grants, contracts, or other programs and services;
</P>
<P>(7) In coordination with the relevant component or components of the Department, coordinate other appropriate remedial action as the Department deems necessary and as allowed by law and applicable regulation; and
</P>
<P>(8) In coordination with the relevant component or components of the Department, make enforcement referrals to the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaints.</I> Any entity or individual may file a complaint with OCR alleging a potential violation of Federal health care conscience protection statutes. OCR shall coordinate handling of complaints with the relevant Department component(s). The complaint filer is not required to be the entity whose rights under the Federal health care conscience protection statutes have been potentially violated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance reviews.</I> OCR may conduct compliance reviews of an entity subject to the Federal health care conscience protection statutes, where authorized for the funding at issue, to determine whether they are complying with Federal health care conscience protection statutes. OCR may initiate a compliance review of an entity subject to the Federal health care conscience protection statutes based on information from a complaint or other source that causes OCR to suspect non-compliance by such entity with the Federal health care conscience protection statutes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Investigations.</I> OCR shall make a prompt investigation of a complaint alleging failure to comply with the Federal health care conscience protection statutes. This investigation may include a review of the pertinent practices, policies, communications, documents, compliance history, circumstances under which the possible noncompliance occurred, and other factors relevant to determining whether the Department, Department components, recipient, or sub-recipient has failed to comply. OCR may use fact-finding methods including site visits; interviews with the complainants, Department components, recipients, sub-recipients, or third parties; and written data requests. OCR may seek the assistance of any State agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to respond.</I> OCR will adopt a negative inference if, absent good cause, an entity that is subject to the Federal health care conscience protection statutes fails to respond to a request for information or to a data or document request within a reasonable timeframe.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Supervision and coordination.</I> If, as a result of an investigation, OCR makes a determination of noncompliance with responsibilities under the Federal health care conscience protection statutes, OCR will coordinate and consult with the Departmental component responsible for the relevant funding to undertake appropriate action with the component to assure compliance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Resolution of matters.</I> (1) If an investigation reveals that no action is warranted, OCR will in writing so inform any party who has been notified by OCR of the existence of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If an investigation indicates a failure to comply with the Federal health care conscience protection statutes, OCR will so inform the relevant parties and the matter will be resolved by informal means whenever possible.
</P>
<P>(3) If a matter cannot be resolved by informal means, OCR will coordinate with the relevant Departmental component to:
</P>
<P>(i) Utilize existing enforcement regulations, such as those that apply to grants, contracts, or other programs and services, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Withhold relevant funding to the extent authorized under the statutes listed under § 88.1.
</P>
<P>(4) If a matter cannot be resolved by informal means, OCR may, in coordination with the Office of the General Counsel, refer the matter to the Department of Justice to the extent permitted by law for proceedings to enforce the statutes listed under § 88.1.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 88.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.43.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 88.3   Notice of Federal conscience and nondiscrimination laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> OCR considers the posting of a notice consistent with this part as a best practice towards achieving compliance with and educating the public about the Federal health care conscience protection statutes, and encourages all entities subject to the Federal health care conscience protection statutes to post the model notice provided in appendix A to this part. OCR will consider posting a notice as a factor in any investigation or compliance review under this rule.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Placement of the notice text.</I> The model notice in appendix A to this part should be posted in the following places, where relevant:
</P>
<P>(1) On the Department or recipient's website(s);
</P>
<P>(2) In a prominent and conspicuous physical location in the Department's or covered entity's establishments where notices to the public and notices to its workforce are customarily posted to permit ready observation;
</P>
<P>(3) In a personnel manual, handbook, orientation materials, trainings, or other substantially similar document likely to be reviewed by members of the covered entity's workforce;
</P>
<P>(4) In employment applications to the Department or covered entity, or in applications for participation in a service, benefit, or other program, including for training or study; and
</P>
<P>(5) In any student handbook, orientation materials, or other substantially similar document for students participating in a program of training or study, including for postgraduate interns, residents, and fellows.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Format of the notice.</I> The text of the notice should be large and conspicuous enough to be read easily and be presented in a format, location, and manner that impedes or prevents the notice being altered, defaced, removed, or covered by other material.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of the notice text.</I> A recipient or the Department should consider using the model text provided in appendix A to this part for the notice but may tailor its notice to address its particular circumstances and to more specifically address the Federal health care conscience protection statutes covered by this rule that apply to it. Where possible, and where the recipient does not have a conscience-based objection to doing so, the notice should include information about alternative providers that may offer patients services the recipient does not provide for reasons of conscience.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Combined nondiscrimination notices.</I> The Department and each recipient may post the notice text provided in appendix A of this part, or a notice it drafts itself, along with the content of other notices (such as other nondiscrimination notices).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 88.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.43.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 88.4   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>Any provision of this part held to be invalid or unenforceable either by its terms or as applied to any entity or circumstance shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event such provision shall be severable from this part, which shall remain in full force and effect to the maximum extent permitted by law. A severed provision shall not affect the remainder of this part or the application of the provision to other persons or entities not similarly situated or to other, dissimilar circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.43.0.1.5.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 88—Model Text: Notice of Rights Under Federal Conscience and Nondiscrimination Laws
</HEAD>
<P>[Name of entity] complies with applicable Federal health care conscience protection statutes, including the Church Amendments, 42 U.S.C. 300a-7; the Coats-Snowe Amendment, section 245 of the Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 238n; the Weldon Amendment, e.g., Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2023, Public Law 117-328, div. H, title V General Provisions, section 507(d)(1) (Dec. 29, 2022); Sections 1303(b)(1)(A), (b)(4), and (c)(2)(A), and 1411(b)(5)(A), and 1553 of the ACA, 42 U.S.C. 18023(b)(1)(A), (b)(4), and (c)(2)(A), 18081(b)(5)(A), and 18113; certain Medicare and Medicaid provisions, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-1(h), 1320c-11, 1395i-5, 1395w-22(j)(3)(B), 1395x(e), 1395x(y)(1), 1395cc(f), 1396a(a), 1396a(w)(3), 1396u-2(b)(3)(B), 1397j-1(b), and 14406; the Helms, Biden, 1978, and 1985 Amendments, 22 U.S.C. 2151b(f), <I>accord, e.g.,</I> Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2023, Public Law 117-328, div. K, title VII, section 7018 (Dec. 29, 2022); 22 U.S.C. 7631(d); 42 U.S.C. 280g-1(d), 290bb-36(f), 1396f, 1396s(c)(2)(B)(ii); 5106i(a)); and 29 U.S.C. 669(a)(5). More information to help entities determine which statutes are applicable to them is available at <I>https://www.hhs.gov/conscience/conscience-protections/index.html.</I> You may have rights as a provider, patient, or other individual under these Federal statutes, which prohibit coercion or other discrimination on the basis of conscience, whether based on religious beliefs or moral convictions, in certain circumstances. If you believe that [Name of entity] has violated any of these provisions, you may file a complaint with the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office for Civil Rights, electronically through the Office for Civil Rights Complaint Portal, available at <I>https://www.hhs.gov/ocr/complaints/index.html</I> or by mail or phone at: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Avenue SW, Room 509F, HHH Building, Washington, DC 20201, 1-800-368-1019, 800-537-7697 (TDD) or by email at <I>ocrmail@hhs.gov.</I> Complaint forms and more information about Federal conscience protection laws are available at <I>https://www.hhs.gov/conscience.</I>




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="89" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 89—ORGANIZATIONAL INTEGRITY OF ENTITIES IMPLEMENTING PROGRAMS AND ACTIVITIES UNDER THE LEADERSHIP ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 301(f) of the Leadership Act, Pub. L. 108-25, as amended (22 U.S.C. 7631(f)) and 5 U.S.C. 301. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 18763, Apr. 13, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 89.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.44.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.1   Applicability and requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This regulation applies to all recipients unless they are exempted from the policy requirement by the Leadership Act or other statute.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) components shall include in the public announcement of the availability of the grant, cooperative agreement, contract, or other funding instrument involving Leadership Act HIV/AIDS funds the requirement that recipients agree that they are opposed to the practices of prostitution and sex trafficking because of the psychological and physical risks they pose for women, men, and children. This requirement shall also be included in the award documents for any grant, cooperative agreement or other funding instrument involving Leadership Act HIV/AIDS funds entered into with the recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 89.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.44.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Commercial sex act</I> means any sex act on account of which anything of value is given to or received by any person.
</P>
<P><I>Leadership Act</I> means the United States Leadership Against HIV/AIDS, Tuberculosis, and Malaria Act of 2003, Public Law 108-25, as amended (22 U.S.C. 7601-7682).
</P>
<P><I>Prostitution</I> means procuring or providing any commercial sex act.
</P>
<P><I>Recipients</I> are contractors, grantees, applicants or awardees who receive Leadership Act funds for HIV/AIDS programs directly or indirectly from HHS.
</P>
<P><I>Sex trafficking</I> means the recruitment, harboring, transportation, provision, or obtaining of a person for the purpose of a commercial sex act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 89.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.44.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 89.3   Organizational integrity of recipients.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient must have objective integrity and independence from any affiliated organization that engages in activities inconsistent with the recipient's opposition to the practices of prostitution and sex trafficking because of the psychological and physical risks they pose for women, men and children (“restricted activities”). A recipient will be found to have objective integrity and independence from such an organization if:
</P>
<P>(a) The affiliated organization receives no transfer of Leadership Act HIV/AIDS funds, and Leadership Act HIV/AIDS funds do not subsidize restricted activities; and
</P>
<P>(b) The recipient is, to the extent practicable in the circumstances, separate from the affiliated organization. Mere bookkeeping separation of Leadership Act HIV/AIDS funds from other funds is not sufficient. HHS will determine, on a case-by-case basis and based on the totality of the facts, whether sufficient separation exists. The presence or absence of any one or more factors relating to legal, physical, and financial separation will not be determinative. Factors relevant to this determination shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the organization is a legally separate entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The existence of separate personnel or other allocation of personnel that maintains adequate separation of the activities of the affiliated organization from the recipient;
</P>
<P>(3) The existence of separate accounting and timekeeping records;
</P>
<P>(4) The degree of separation of the recipient's facilities from facilities in which restricted activities occur; and
</P>
<P>(5) The extent to which signs and other forms of identification that distinguish the recipient from the affiliated organization are present.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="90" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 90—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF AGE IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 33776, June 12, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.1.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.1   What is the purpose of the Age Discrimination Act of 1975?</HEAD>
<P>The Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, is designed to prohibit discrimination on the basis of age in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance. The Act also permits federally assisted programs or activities, and recipients of Federal funds, to continue to use certain age distinctions and factors other than age which meet the requirements of the Act and these regulations. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 33776, June 12, 1979, as amended at 70 FR 24321, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.1.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.2   What is the purpose of these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of these regulations is to state general, government-wide rules for the implementation of the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, and to guide each agency in the preparation of agency-specific age discrimination regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations apply to each Federal agency which provides Federal financial assistance to any program or activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.1.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.3   What programs or activities does the Age Discrimination Act of 1975 cover?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Age Discrimination Act of 1975 applies to any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, including programs or activities receiving funds under the State and Local Fiscal Assistance Act of 1972 (31 U.S.C. 1221 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(b) The Age Discrimination Act of 1975 does not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) An age distinction contained in that part of a Federal, State or local statute or ordinance adopted by an elected, general purpose legislative body which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provides any benefits or assistance to persons based on age; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes criteria for participation in age-related terms; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Describes intended beneficiaries or target groups in age-related terms. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any employment practice of any employer, employment agency, labor organization, or any labor-management joint apprenticeship training program, except for any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance for public service employment under the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act of 1974 (CETA), (29 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.</I>). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.1.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.4   How are the terms in these regulations defined?</HEAD>
<P>As used in these regulations, the term: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, (Title III of Pub. L. 94-135). 
</P>
<P><I>Action</I> means any act, activity, policy, rule, standard, or method of administration; or the use of any policy, rule, standard, or method of administration. 
</P>
<P><I>Age</I> means how old a person is, or the number of elapsed years form the date of a person's birth. 
</P>
<P><I>Age distinction</I> means any action using age or an age-related term. 
</P>
<P><I>Age-related term</I> means a word or words which necessarily imply a particular age or range of ages (for example, <I>children, adult, older persons,</I> but not <I>student</I>). 
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means a Federal department or agency that is empowered to extend financial assistance. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any grant, entitlement, loan, cooperative agreement, contract (other than a procurement contract or a contract of insurance or guaranty), or any other arrangement by which the agency provides or otherwise makes available assistance in the form of: 
</P>
<P>(a) Funds; 
</P>
<P>(b) Services of Federal personnel; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Real and personal property or any interest in or use of property, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) Transfers or leases of property for less than fair market value or for reduced consideration; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Proceeds from a subsequent transfer or lease of property if the Federal share of its fair market value is not returned to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P><I>Program or activity</I> means all of the operations of—
</P>
<P>(a)(1) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or
</P>
<P>(2) The entity of such State or local government that distributes Federal financial assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government;
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(2) A local educational agency (as defined in 20 U.S.C. 7801), system of vocational education, or other school system;
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship—
</P>
<P>(i) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(2) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(d) Any other entity which is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this definition; any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any State or its political subdivision, any instrumentality of a State or its political sub-division, any public or private agency, institution, organization, or other entity, or any person to which Federal financial assistance is extended, directly or through another recipient. Recipient includes any successor, assignee, or transferee, but excludes the ultimate beneficiary of the assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the fifty States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, the Canal Zone, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, the Northern Marianas, and the territories and possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(42 U.S.C. 6107)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 33776, June 12, 1979, as amended at 70 FR 24321, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—What is Age Discrimination?</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.2.2" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Standards for Determining Discriminatory Practices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.2.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.11   Purpose of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to set forth the prohibitions against age discrimination and the exceptions to those prohibitions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.2.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.12   Rules against age discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>The rules stated in this section are limited by the exceptions contained in §§ 90.14, and 90.15 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule:</I> No person in the United states shall, on the basis of age, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under, any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific rules:</I> A recipient may not, in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements use age distinctions or take any other actions which have the effect, on the basis of age, of:
</P>
<P>(1) Excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination under, a program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Denying or limiting individuals in their opportunity to participate in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) The specific forms of age discrimination listed in paragraph (b) of this section do not necessarily constitute a complete list.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.2.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.13   Definitions of normal operation and statutory objective.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of §§ 90.14, and 90.15, the terms <I>normal operation</I> and <I>statutory objective</I> shall have the following meaning: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Normal operation</I> means the operation of a program or activity without significant changes that would impair its ability to meet its objectives. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory objective</I> means any purpose of a program or activity expressly stated in any Federal statute, State statute, or local statute or ordinance adopted by an elected, general purpose legislative body. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.2.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.14   Exceptions to the rules against age discrimination. Normal operation or statutory objective of any program or activity.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient is permitted to take an action, otherwise prohibited by § 90.12, if the action reasonably takes into account age as a factor necessary to the normal operation or the achievement of any statutory objective of a program or activity. An action reasonably takes into account age as a factor necessary to the normal operation or the achievement of any statutory objective of a program or activity, if: 
</P>
<P>(a) Age is used as a measure or approximation of one or more other characteristics; and 
</P>
<P>(b) The other characteristic(s) must be measured or approximated in order for the normal operation of the program or activity to continue, or to achieve any statutory objective of the program or activity; and 
</P>
<P>(c) The other characteristic(s) can be reasonably measured or approximated by the use of age; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The other characteristic(s) are impractical to measure directly on an individual basis. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.2.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.15   Exceptions to the rules against age discrimination. Reasonable factors other than age.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient is permitted to take an action otherwise prohibited by § 90.12 which is based on a factor other than age, even though that action may have a disproportionate effect on persons of different ages. An action may be based on a factor other than age only if the factor bears a direct and substantial relationship to the normal operation of the program or activity or to the achievement of a statutory objective. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.2.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.16   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>The burden of proving that an age distinction or other action falls within the exceptions outlined in §§ 90.14 and 90.15 is on the recipient of Federal financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—What are the Responsibilities of the Federal Agencies?</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.31   Issuance of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each agency which extends Federal financial assistance to any program or activity shall publish proposed and final age discrimination regulations in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> to:
</P>
<P>(1) Carry out the provisions of section 303 of the Age Discrimination Act of 1975; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for appropriate investigative, conciliation, and enforcement procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) Each agency shall publish its proposed agency age discrimination regulations no later than 90 days after the publication date of the final general, government-wide age discrimination regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) Each agency shall submit its final agency regulations to HHS for review no later than 120 days after publication of proposed agency age discrimination regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) Final agency age discrimination regulations shall be consistent with these general, government-wide age discrimination regulations and shall not be published until the Secretary approves them.
</P>
<P>(e) Each agency shall include in its regulations a provision governing the operation of an alternate funds disbursal procedure as described in § 90.48 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) Each agency shall publish an appendix to its final age discrimination regulations containing a list of each age distinction provided in a Federal statute or in regulations affecting financial assistance administered by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.32   Review of agency policies and administrative practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall conduct a review of age distinctions it imposes on its recipients by regulations, policies, and administrative practices. The purpose of this review is to identify how age distinctions are used by each Federal agency and whether those age distinctions are permissible under the Act and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) No later than 12 months from the date the agency published its final regulations, the agency shall publish, for public comment, a report in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> containing:
</P>
<P>(1) The results of the review conducted under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) A list of the age distinctions contained in regulations which are to be continued;
</P>
<P>(3) The justification under the requirements of the Act and these regulations for each age distinction to be continued;
</P>
<P>(4) A list of the age distinctions not contained in regulations but which will be adopted by regulation under the Administrative Procedure Act using the notice and comment procedures specified in 5 U.S.C. 553; and
</P>
<P>(5) A list of the age distinctions to be eliminated. 
</P>
<P>(c) Beginning with the effective date of an agency's final regulations, the agency may not impose a new age distinction unless the age distinction is adopted by regulation under the Administrative Procedure Act using the notice and comment procedures specified in 5 U.S.C. 553. 
</P>
<P>(d) Beginning 12 months after the publication of its age discrimination regulations, an agency may not continue an existing age distinction, unless the age distinction has already been adopted by regulation or is adopted by regulation under the Administrative Procedure Act using the notice and comment procedures specified in 5 U.S.C. 553. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.33   Interagency cooperation.</HEAD>
<P>Where two or more agencies provide Federal financial assistance to a recipient or class of recipients, the Secretary may designate one of the agencies as the sole agency for all compliance and enforcement purposes with respect to those recipients, except for the ordering of termination of funds and the notification of the appropriate committees of Congress. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.3.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.34   Agency reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency shall submit to the Secretary not later than December 31 of each year, beginning in 1979, a report which: 
</P>
<P>(a) Describes in detail the steps taken during the preceding fiscal year to carry out the Act; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Contains data on the frequency, type, and resolution of complaints and on any compliance reviews, sufficient to permit analysis of the agency's progress in reducing age discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the agency; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Contains data directly relevant to the extent of any pattern or practice of age discrimination which the agency has identified in any programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the agency and to progress toward eliminating it; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Contains evaluative or interpretative information which the agency determines is useful in analyzing agency progress in reducing age discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the agency; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Contains whatever other data the Secretary may require. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 33776, June 12, 1979, as amended at 70 FR 24321, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Investigation, Conciliation and Enforcement Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.41   What is the purpose of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth requirements for the establishment of compliance, investigation, conciliation, and enforcement procedures by agencies which extend Federal financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.42   What responsibilities do recipients and agencies have generally to ensure compliance with the Act?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient has primary responsibility to ensure that its programs or activities are in compliance with the Age Discrimination Act and shall take steps to eliminate violations of the Act. A recipient also has responsibility to maintain records, provide information, and to afford access to its records to an agency to the extent required to determine whether it is in compliance with the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) An agency has responsibility to attempt to secure recipient compliance with the Act by voluntary means. This may include the use of the services of appropriate Federal, State, local, or private organizations. An agency also has the responsibility to enforce the Age Discrimination Act when a recipient fails to eliminate violations of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 33776, June 12, 1979, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.43" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.43   What specific responsibilities do agencies and recipients have to ensure compliance with the Act?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Written notice, technical assistance, and educational materials.</I> Each agency shall: (1) Provide written notice to each recipient of its obligations under the Act. The notice shall include a requirement that where the recipient initially receiving funds makes the funds available to a sub-recipient, the recipient must notify the sub-recipient of its obligations under the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide technical assistance, where necessary, to recipients to aid them in complying with the Act. 
</P>
<P>(3) Make available educational materials setting forth the rights and obligations of beneficiaries and recipients under the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Self-evaluation.</I> (1) Each agency shall require each recipient employing the equivalent of 15 or more full time employees to complete a written self-evaluation of its compliance under the Act within 18 months of the effective date of the agency regulations. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each recipient's self-evaluation shall identify and justify each age distinction imposed by the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each recipient shall take corrective and remedial action whenever a self-evaluation indicates a violation of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(4) Each recipient shall make the self-evaluation available on request to the agency and to the public for a period of 3 years following its completion. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Complaints</I>—(1) <I>Receipt of complaints.</I> Each agency shall establish a complaint processing procedure which includes the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) A procedure for the filing of complaints with the agency; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A review of complaints to assure that they fall within the coverage of the Act and contain all information necessary for further processing; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Notice to the complainant and the recipient of their rights and obligations under the complaint procedure, including the right to have a representative at all stages of the complaint procedure; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Notice to the complainant and the recipient (or their representatives) of their right to contact the agency for information and assistance regarding the complaint resolution process. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prompt resolution of complaints.</I> Each agency shall establish procedures for the prompt resolution of complaints. These procedures shall require each recipient and complainant to participate actively in efforts toward speedy resolution of the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mediation of complaints.</I> Each agency shall promptly refer all complaints which fall within the coverage of the Act to a mediation agency designated by the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(i) The referring agency shall require the participation of the recipient and the complainant in the mediation process, although both parties need not meet with the mediator at the same time. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the complainant and recipient reach a mutually satisfactory resolution of the complaint during the mediation period, they shall reduce the agreement to writing. The mediator shall send a copy of the settlement to the referring agency. No further action shall be taken based on that complaint unless it appears that the complainant or the recipient is failing to comply with the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Not more than 60 days after the agency receives the complaint, the mediator shall return a still unresolved complaint to the referring agency for initial investigation. The mediator may return a complaint at any time before the end of the 60 day period if it appears that the complaint cannot be resolved through mediation. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The mediator shall protect the confidentiality of all information obtained in the course of the mediation process. No mediator shall testify in any adjudicative proceeding, produce any document, or otherwise disclose any information obtained in the course of the mediation process without prior approval of the head of the agency appointing the mediator. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Federal initial investigation.</I> Each agency shall investigate complaints unresolved after mediation or reopened because of a violation of the mediation agreement. As part of the initial investigation, the agency shall use informal fact finding methods including joint or individual discussions with the complainant and the recipient to establish the facts, and, if possible, resolve the complaint to the mutual satisfaction of the parties. The agency may seek the assistance of any involved State agency. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Formal investigation, conciliation, and hearing.</I> If the agency cannot resolve the complaint during the early stages of the investigation, it shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Complete the investigation of the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Attempt to achieve voluntary compliance satisfactory to the agency, if the investigation indicates a violation. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Arrange for enforcement as described in § 90.47, if necessary. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 33776, June 12, 1979, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.44" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.44   Compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall provide in its regulations that it may conduct compliance reviews, pre-award reviews, and other similar procedures which permit the agency to investigate, and correct, violations of the Act without regard to its procedures for handling complaints. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a compliance review or pre-award review indicates a violation of the Act, the agency shall attempt to achieve voluntary compliance with the Act. If voluntary compliance cannot be achieved, the agency shall arrange for enforcement as described in § 90.47. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.45" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.45   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency shall provide in its regulations a requirement that the recipient: 
</P>
<P>(a) Provide to the agency information necessary to determine whether the recipient is in compliance with the Act; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Permit reasonable access by the agency to the books, records, accounts, and other recipient facilities and sources of information to the extent necessary to determine whether a recipient is in compliance with the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.46" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.46   Prohibition against intimidation or retaliation.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency shall provide in its regulations that recipients may not engage in acts of intimidation or retaliation against any person who: 
</P>
<P>(a) Attempts to assert a right protected by the Act; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Cooperates in any mediation, investigation, hearing, or other part of the agency's investigation, conciliation, and enforcement process. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.47" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.47   What further provisions must an agency make in order to enforce its regulations after an investigation indicates that a violation of the Act has been committed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall provide for enforcement of its regulations through:
</P>
<P>(1) Termination of a recipient's Federal financial assistance under the program or activity involved where the recipient has violated the Act or the agency's regulations. The determination of the recipient's violation may be made only after a recipient has had an opportunity for a hearing on the record before an administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other means authorized by law including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Referral to the Department of Justice for proceedings to enforce any rights of the United States or obligations of the recipient created by the Act or the agency's regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of any requirement of or referral to any Federal, State, or local government agency which will have the effect of correcting a violation of the Act or implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Any termination under paragraph (a)(1) shall be limited to the particular recipient and particular program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance or portion thereof found to be in violation of the Act or agency regulations. No termination shall be based in whole or in part on a finding with respect to any program or activity which does not receive Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) No action under paragraph (a) of this section may be taken until:
</P>
<P>(1) The head of the agency involved has advised the recipient of its failure to comply with the Act or the agency's regulations and has determined that voluntary compliance cannot be obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) Thirty days have elapsed after the head of the agency involved has sent a written report of the circumstances and grounds of the action to the committees of the Congress having legislative jurisdiction over the program or activity involved. A report shall be filed whenever any action is taken under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) An agency may defer granting new Federal financial assistance to a recipient when termination proceedings under paragraph (a)(1) of this section are initiated.
</P>
<P>(1) New Federal financial assistance includes all assistance administered by or through the agency for which an application or approval, including renewal or continuation of existing activities, or authorization of new activities, is required during the deferral period. New Federal financial assistance does not include assistance approved prior to the beginning of termination proceedings or to increases in funding as a result of changed computation of formula awards. 
</P>
<P>(2) A deferral may not begin until the recipient has received a notice of opportunity for a hearing under paragraph (a)(1). A deferral may not continue for more than 60 days unless a hearing has begun within that time or the time for beginning the hearing has been extended by mutual consent of the recipient and the agency. A deferral may not continue for more than 30 days after the close of the hearing, unless the hearing results in a finding against the recipient. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 33776, June 12, 1979, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.48" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.48   Alternate funds disbursal procedure.</HEAD>
<P>When an agency withholds funds from a recipient under its regulations issued under § 90.31, the head of the agency may disburse the withheld funds so directly to any public or non-profit private organization or agency, or State or political subdivision of the State. These alternate recipients must demonstrate the ability to comply with the agency's regulations issued under this Act and to achieve the goals of the Federal statute authorizing the Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 33776, June 12, 1979, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.49" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.49   Remedial and affirmative action by recipients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a recipient is found to have discriminated on the basis of age, the recipient shall take any remedial action which the agency may require to overcome the effects of the discrimination. If another recipient exercises control over the recipient that has discriminated, both recipients may be required to take remedial action.
</P>
<P>(b) Even in the absence of a finding of discrimination, a recipient may take affirmative action to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation in the recipient's program or activity on the basis of age.
</P>
<P>(c) If a recipient operating a program or activity which serves the elderly or children in addition to persons of other ages, provides special benefits to the elderly or to children the provision of those benefits shall be presumed to be voluntary affirmative action provided that it does not have the effect of excluding otherwise eligible persons from participation in the program or activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 33776, June 12, 1979, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.50" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.4.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.50   Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall provide in its regulations that a complainant may file a civil action following the exhaustion of adminstrative remedies under the Act. Administrative remedies are exhausted if:
</P>
<P>(1) 180 days have elapsed since the complainant filed the complaint and the agency has made no finding with regard to the complaint; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The agency issues any finding in favor of the recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) If either of the conditions set forth in § 90.50(a) is satisfied the agency shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly advise the complainant of this fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the complainant of his or her right, under section 305(e) of the Act, to bring a civil action for injunctive relief that will effect the purposes of the Act; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the complainant:
</P>
<P>(i) That a civil action can only be brought in a United States district court for the district in which the recipient is found or transacts business; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That a complainant prevailing in a civil action has the right to be awarded the costs of the action, including reasonable attorney's fees, but that these costs must be demanded in the complaint;
</P>
<P>(iii) That before commencing the action the complainant shall give 30 days notice by registered mail to the Secretary, the Attorney General of the United States, the head of the granting agency, and the recipient;
</P>
<P>(iv) That the notice shall state: the alleged violation of the Act; the relief requested; the court in which the action will be brought; and whether or not attorney's fees are demanded in the event the complainant prevails; and 
</P>
<P>(v) That no action shall be brought if the same alleged violation of the Act by the same recipient is the subject of a pending action in any court of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Future Review of Age Discrimination Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.61" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.5.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.61   Review of general regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall review the effectiveness of these regulations in securing compliance with the Act. As part of this review, 30 months after the effective date of these regulations, the Secretary shall publish a notice of opportunity for public comment on the effectiveness of the regulations. The Secretary will assess the comments and publish the results of the review and assessment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 90.62" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.45.5.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 90.62   Review of agency regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Each agency shall review the effectiveness of its regulations in securing compliance with the Act. As part of this review, 30 months after the effective date of its regulations, each agency shall publish a notice of opportunity for public comment on the effectiveness of the agency regulations. Each agency shall assess the comments and publish the results of the review in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="91" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 91—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF AGE IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE FROM HHS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6101 <I>et seq.</I> (45 CFR part 90).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.1   What is the purpose of the Age Discrimination Act of 1975?</HEAD>
<P>The Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, is designed to prohibit discrimination on the basis of age in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance. The Act also permits federally assisted programs or activities, and recipients of Federal funds, to continue to use certain age distinctions and factors other than age which meet the requirements of the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.2   What is the purpose of HHS' age discrimination regulations?</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of these regulations is to set out HHS' policies and procedures under the Age Discrimination Act of 1975 and the general age discrimination regulations at 45 CFR part 90. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The Act and the general regulations prohibit discrimination on the basis of age in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance. The Act and the general regulations permit federally assisted programs or activities, and recipients of Federal funds, to continue to use age distinctions and factors other than age which meet the requirements of the Act and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Published at 44 FR 33768, June 12, 1979.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.3   To what programs or activities do these regulations apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Act and these regulations apply to each HHS recipient and to each program or activity operated by the recipient which receives Federal financial assistance provided by HHS.
</P>
<P>(b) The Act and these regulations do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) An age distinction contained in that part of a Federal, State, or local statute or ordinance adopted by an elected, general purpose legislative body which:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides any benefits or assistance to persons based on age; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes criteria for participation in age-related terms; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Describes intended beneficiaries or target groups in age-related terms.
</P>
<P>(2) Any employment practice of any employer, employment agency, labor organization, or any labor-management joint apprenticeship training program, except for any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance for public service employment under the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act (CETA), (29 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.</I>)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.1.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.4   Definition of terms used in these regulations.</HEAD>
<P>As used in these regulations, the term:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, (Title III of Pub. L. 94-135).
</P>
<P><I>Action</I> means any act, activity, policy, rule, standard, or method of administration; or the use of any policy, rule, standard, or method of administration.
</P>
<P><I>Age</I> means how old a person is, or the number of years from the date of a person's birth.
</P>
<P><I>Age distinction</I> means any action using age or an age-related term.
</P>
<P><I>Age-related term</I> means a word or words which necessarily imply a particular age or range of ages (for example, <I>children, adult, older persons,</I> but not <I>student</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means a Federal department or agency that is empowered to extend financial assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any grant, entitlement, loan, cooperative agreement, contract (other than a procurement contract or a contract of insurance or guaranty), or any other arrangement by which the agency provides or otherwise makes available assistance in the form of:
</P>
<P>(a) Funds; or
</P>
<P>(b) Services of Federal personnel; or
</P>
<P>(c) Real and personal property or any interest in or use of property, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Transfers or leases of property for less than fair market value or for reduced consideration; and
</P>
<P>(2) Proceeds from a subsequent transfer or lease of property if the Federal share of its fair market value is not returned to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>HHS</I> means the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Program or activity</I> means all of the operations of—
</P>
<P>(a)(1) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or
</P>
<P>(2) The entity of such State or local government that distributes Federal financial assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government;
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(2) A local educational agency (as defined in 20 U.S.C. 7801), system of vocational education, or other school system;
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship—
</P>
<P>(i) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(2) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(d) Any other entity which is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this definition; any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any State or its political subdivision, any instrumentality of a State or its political subdivision, any public or private agency, institution, organization, or other entity, or any person to which Federal financial assistance is extended, directly or through another recipient. Recipient includes any successor, assignee, or transferee, but excludes the ultimate beneficiary of the assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Subrecipient</I> means any of the entities in the definition of <I>recipient</I> to which a recipient extends or passes on Federal financial assistance. A subrecipient is generally regarded as a recipient of Federal financial assistance and has all the duties of a recipient in these regulations.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the fifty States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, the Canal Zone, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, the Northern Marianas, and the territories and possessions of the United States.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Authority: 42 U.S.C. 6107)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Standards for Determining Age Discrimination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.11   Rules against age discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>The rules stated in this section are limited by the exceptions contained in §§ 91.13 and 91.14 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(a) General rule: No person in the United States shall, on the basis of age, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under, any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) Specific rules: A recipient may not, in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, directly or through contractual licensing, or other arrangements, use age distinctions or take any other actions which have the effect, on the basis of age, of:
</P>
<P>(1) Excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination under, a program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance; or
</P>
<P>(2) Denying or limiting individuals in their opportunity to participate in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) The specific forms of age discrimination listed in paragraph (b) of this section do not necessarily constitute a complete list.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.12   Definitions of normal operation and statutory objective.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of §§ 91.13 and 91.14, the terms <I>normal operation</I> and <I>statutory objective</I> shall have the following meaning:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Normal operation</I> means the operation of a program or activity without significant changes that would impair its ability to meet its objectives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory objective</I> means any purpose of a program or activity expressly stated in any Federal statute, State statute, or local statute or ordinance adopted by an elected, general purpose legislative body.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.13   Exceptions to the rules against age discrimination: Normal operation or statutory objective of any program or activity.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient is permitted to take an action, otherwise prohibited by § 91.11, if the action reasonably takes into account age as a factor necessary to the normal operation or the achievement of any statutory objective of a program or activity. An action reasonably takes into account age as a factor necessary to the normal operation or the achievement of any statutory objective of a program or activity, if:
</P>
<P>(a) Age is used as a measure or approximation of one or more other characteristics; and
</P>
<P>(b) The other characteristic(s) must be measured or approximated in order for the normal operation of the program or activity to continue, or to achieve any statutory objective of the program or activity; and
</P>
<P>(c) The other characteristic(s) can be reasonably measured or approximated by the use of age; and
</P>
<P>(d) The other characteristic(s) are impractical to measure directly on an individual basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.2.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.14   Exceptions to the rules against age discrimination: Reasonable factors other than age.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient is permitted to take an action otherwise prohibited by § 91.11 which is based on a factor other than age, even though that action may have a disproportionate effect on persons of different ages. An action may be based on a factor other than age only if the factor bears a direct and substantial relationship to the normal operation of the program or activity or to the achievement of a statutory objective.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.2.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.15   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>The burden of proving that an age distinction or other action falls within the exceptions outlined in §§ 91.13 and 91.14 is on the recipient of Federal financial assistance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.2.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.16   Affirmative action by recipient.</HEAD>
<P>Even in the absence of a finding of discrimination, a recipient may take affirmative action to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation in the recipient's program or activity on the basis of age.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.17" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.2.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.17   Special benefits for children and the elderly.</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient operating a program or activity provides special benefits to the elderly or to children, such use of age distinctions shall be presumed to be necessary to the normal operation of the program or activity, notwithstanding the provisions of § 91.13.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.18" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.2.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.18   Age distinctions contained in HHS regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Any age distinctions contained in a rule or regulation issued by HHS shall be presumed to be necessary to the achievement of a statutory objective of the program or activity to which the rule or regulation applies, notwithstanding the provisions of § 91.13.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Duties of HHS Recipients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.31   General responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>Each HHS recipient has primary responsibility to ensure that its programs or activities are in compliance with the Act and these regulations, and shall take steps to eliminate violations of the Act. A recipient also has responsibility to maintain records, provide information, and to afford HHS access to its records to the extent HHS finds necessary to determine whether the recipient is in compliance with the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.32   Notice to subrecipients and beneficiaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a recipient passes on Federal financial assistance from HHS to subrecipients, the recipient shall provide the subrecipients written notice of their obligations under the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Each recipient shall make necessary information about the Act and these regulations available to its beneficiaries in order to inform them about the protections against discrimination provided by the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.33   Assurance of compliance and recipient assessment of age distinctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each recipient of Federal financial assistance from HHS shall sign a written assurance as specified by HHS that it will comply with the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recipient assessment of age distinctions.</I> (1) As part of a compliance review under § 91.41 or complaint investigation under § 91.44, HHS may require a recipient employing the equivalent of 15 or more employees to complete a written self-evaluation, in a manner specified by the responsible Department official, of any age distinction imposed in its program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from HHS to assess the recipient's compliance with the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever an assessment indicates a violation of the Act and the HHS regulations, the recipient shall take corrective action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.3.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.34   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Each recipient shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Keep records in a form and containing information which HHS determines may be necessary to ascertain whether the recipient is complying with the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Provide to HHS, upon request, information and reports which HHS determines are necessary to ascertain whether the recipient is complying with the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) Permit reasonable access by HHS to the books, records, accounts, and other recipient facilities and sources of information to the extent HHS determines is necessary to ascertain whether the recipient is complying with the Act and these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Investigation, Conciliation, and Enforcement Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.41   Compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HHS may conduct compliance reviews and pre-award reviews or use other similar procedures that will permit it to investigate and correct violations of the Act and these regulations. HHS may conduct these reviews even in the absence of a complaint against a recipient. The reviews may be as comprehensive as necessary to determine whether a violation of the Act and these regulations has occurred.
</P>
<P>(b) If a compliance review or pre-award review indicates a violation of the Act or these regulations, HHS will attempt to achieve voluntary compliance with the Act. If voluntary compliance cannot be achieved, HHS will arrange for enforcement as described in § 91.46.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.42   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person, individually or as a member of a class or on behalf of others, may file a complaint with HHS, alleging discrimination prohibited by the Act or these regulations based on an action occurring on or after July 1, 1979. A complainant shall file a complaint within 180 days from the date the complainant first had knowledge of the alleged act of discrimination. However, for good cause shown, HHS may extend this time limit.
</P>
<P>(b) HHS will consider the date a complaint is filed to be the date upon which the complaint is sufficent to be processed.
</P>
<P>(c) HHS will attempt to facilitate the filing of complaints wherever possible, including taking the following measures:
</P>
<P>(1) Accepting as a sufficient complaint, any written statement which identifies the parties involved and the date the complainant first had knowledge of the alleged violation, describes generally the action or practice complained of, and is signed by the complainant.
</P>
<P>(2) Freely permitting a complainant to add information to the complaint to meet the requirements of a sufficient complaint.
</P>
<P>(3) Notifying the complainant and the recipient of their rights and obligations under the complaint procedure, including the right to have a representative at all stages of the complaint procedure.
</P>
<P>(4) Notifying the complainant and the recipient (or their representatives) of their right to contact HHS for information and assistance regarding the complaint resolution process.
</P>
<P>(d) HHS will return to the complainant any complaint outside the jurisdiction of these regulations, and will state the reason(s) why it is outside the jurisdiction of these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.43" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.43   Mediation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HHS will promptly refer to a mediation agency designated by the Secretary all sufficient complaints that:
</P>
<P>(1) Fall within the jurisdiction of the Act and these regulations, unless the age distinction complained of is clearly within an exception; and,
</P>
<P>(2) Contain all information necessary for further processing.
</P>
<P>(b) Both the complainant and the recipient shall participate in the mediation process to the extent necessary to reach an agreement or make an informed judgment that an agreement is not possible.
</P>
<P>(c) If the complainant and the recipient reach an agreement, the mediator shall prepare a written statement of the agreement and have the complainant and the recipient sign it. The mediator shall send a copy of the agreement to HHS. HHS will take no further action on the complaint unless the complainant or the recipient fails to comply with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) The mediator shall protect the confidentiality of all information obtained in the course of the mediation process. No mediator shall testify in any adjudicative proceeding, produce any document, or otherwise disclose any information obtained in the course of the mediation process without prior approval of the head of the mediation agency.
</P>
<P>(e) The mediation will proceed for a maximum of 60 days after a complaint is filed with HHS. Mediation ends if:
</P>
<P>(1) 60 days elapse from the time the complaint is filed; <I>or</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to the end of that 60-day period, an agreement is reached; <I>or</I>
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to the end of that 60-day period, the mediator determines that an agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<FP>This 60-day period may be extended by the mediator, with the concurrence of HHS, for not more than 30 days if the mediator determines that agreement will likely be reached during such extended period.
</FP>
<P>(f) The mediator shall return unresolved complaints to HHS. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.44" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.44   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Informal investigation.</I> (1) HHS will investigate complaints that are unresolved after mediation or are reopened because of a violation of a mediation agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of the initial investigation HHS will use informal fact finding methods, including joint or separate discussions with the complainant and recipient, to establish the fact and, if possible, settle the complaint on terms that are mutually agreeable to the parties. HHS may seek the assistance of any involved State agency.
</P>
<P>(3) HHS will put any agreement in writing and have it signed by the parties and an authorized official at HHS.
</P>
<P>(4) The settlement shall not affect the operation of any other enforcement effort of HHS, including compliance reviews and investigation of other complaints which may involve the recipient.
</P>
<P>(5) The settlement is not a finding of discrimination against a recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Formal investigation.</I> If HHS cannot resolve the complaint through informal investigation, it will begin to develop formal findings through further investigation of the complaint. If the investigation indicates a violation of these regulations HHS will attempt to obtain voluntary compliance. If HHS cannot obtain voluntary compliance it will begin enforcement as described in § 91.46.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.45" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.45   Prohibition against intimidation or retaliation.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may not engage in acts of intimidation or retaliation against any person who:
</P>
<P>(a) Attempts to assert a right protected by the Act or these regulations; or
</P>
<P>(b) Cooperates in any mediation, investigation, hearing, or other part of HHS' investigation, conciliation, and enforcement process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.46" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.46   Compliance procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HHS may enforce the Act and these regulations through:
</P>
<P>(1) Termination of a recipient's Federal financial assistance from HHS under the program or activity involved where the recipient has violated the Act or these regulations. The determination of the recipient's violation may be made only after a recipient has had an opportunity for a hearing on the record before an administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other means authorized by law including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Referral to the Department of Justice for proceedings to enforce any rights of the United States or obligations of the recipient created by the Act or these regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of any requirement of or referral to any Federal, State, or local government agency that will have the effect of correcting a violation of the Act or these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) HHS will limit any termination under § 91.46(a)(1) to the particular recipient and particular program or activity or part of such program or activity HHS finds in violation of these regulations. HHS will not base any part of a termination on a finding with respect to any program or activity of the recipient which does not receive Federal financial assistance from HHS.
</P>
<P>(c) HHS will take no action under paragraph (a) until:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary has advised the recipient of its failure to comply with the Act and these regulations and has determined that voluntary compliance cannot be obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) Thirty days have elapsed after the Secretary has sent a written report of the circumstances and grounds of the action to the committees of the Congress having legislative jurisdiction over the program or activity involved. The Secretary will file a report whenever any action is taken under paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(d) HHS also may defer granting new Federal financial assistance from HHS to a recipient when a hearing under § 91.46(a)(1) is initiated.
</P>
<P>(1) New Federal financial assistance from HHS includes all assistance for which HHS requires an application or approval, including renewal or continuation of existing activities, or authorization of new activities, during the deferral period. New Federal financial assistance from HHS does not include increases in funding as a result of changed computation of formula awards or assistance approved prior to the beginning of a hearing under § 91.46(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) HHS will not begin a deferral until the recipient has received a notice of an opportunity for a hearing under § 91.46(a)(1). HHS will not continue a deferral for more than 60 days unless a hearing has begun within that time or the time for beginning the hearing has been extended by mutual consent of the recipient and the Secretary. HHS will not continue a deferral for more than 30 days after the close of the hearing, unless the hearing results in a finding against the recipient.
</P>
<P>(3) HHS will limit any deferral to the particular recipient and particular program or activity or part of such program or activity HHS finds in violation of these regulations. HHS will not base any part of a deferral on a finding with respect to any program or activity of the recipient which does not, and would not in connection with the new funds, receive Federal financial assistance from HHS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.47" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.47   Hearings, decisions, post-termination proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Certain HHS procedural provisions applicable to Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 apply to HHS enforcement of these regulations. They are found at 45 CFR 80.9 through 80.11 and 45 CFR part 81.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.48" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.48   Remedial action by recipient.</HEAD>
<P>Where HHS finds a recipient has discriminated on the basis of age, the recipient shall take any remedial action that HHS may require to overcome the effects of the discrimination. If another recipient exercises control over the recipient that has discriminated, HHS may require both recipients to take remedial action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.49" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.49   Alternate funds disbursal procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When HHS withholds funds from a recipient under these regulations, the Secretary may disburse the withheld funds directly to an alternate recipient: any public or non-profit private organization or agency, or State or political subdivision of the State.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will require any alternate recipient to demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(1) The ability to comply with these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ability to achieve the goals of the Federal statute authorizing the Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57858, Dec. 28, 1982, as amended at 70 FR 24322, May 9, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 91.50" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.46.4.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 91.50   Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complainant may file a civil action following the exhaustion of administrative remedies under the Act. Administrative remedies are exhausted if:
</P>
<P>(1) 180 days have elapsed since the complainant filed the complaint and HHS has made no finding with regard to the complaint; or
</P>
<P>(2) HHS issues any finding in favor of the recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) If HHS fails to make a finding within 180 days or issues a finding in favor of the recipient, HHS shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly advise the complainant of this fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the complainant of his or her right to bring a civil action for injunctive relief; and
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the complainant:
</P>
<P>(i) That the complainant may bring a civil action only in a United States district court for the district in which the recipient is found or transacts business;
</P>
<P>(ii) That a complainant prevailing in a civil action has the right to be awarded the costs of the action, including reasonable attorney's fees, but that the complainant must demand these costs in the complaint;
</P>
<P>(iii) That before commencing the action the complainant shall give 30 days notice by registered mail to the Secretary, the Attorney General of the United States, and the recipient;
</P>
<P>(iv) That the notice must state: the alleged violation of the Act; the relief requested; the court in which the complainant is bringing the action; and, whether or not attorney's fees are demanded in the event the complainant prevails; and
</P>
<P>(v) That the complainant may not bring an action if the same alleged violation of the Act by the same recipient is the subject of a pending action in any court of the United States.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="92" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 92—NONDISCRIMINATION IN HEALTH PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 18116.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 37692, May 6, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.1   Purpose and effective date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement section 1557 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) (42 U.S.C. 18116), which prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, and disability in certain health programs and activities. Section 1557 provides that, except as otherwise provided in title I of the ACA, an individual shall not, on the grounds prohibited under title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, or section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under, any health program or activity, any part of which is receiving Federal financial assistance, including credits, subsidies, or contracts of insurance, or under any program or activity that is administered by an executive agency or any entity established under title I of the ACA. This part applies to health programs or activities administered by recipients of Federal financial assistance from the Department, Department-administered health programs or activities, and title I entities that administer health programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date.</I> The regulations in this part are effective beginning July 5, 2024, unless otherwise provided in the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Section 1557
<br/>requirement and

<br/>provision
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date by which covered entities must comply
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">§ 92.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 120 days of July 5, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">§ 92.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within one year of July 5, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">§ 92.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Following a covered entity's implementation of the policies and procedures required by § 92.8, and no later than one year of July 5, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">§ 92.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 120 days of July 5, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">§ 92.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within one year of July 5, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">§ 92.207(b)(1) through (5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For health insurance coverage or other health-related coverage that was not subject to this part as of July 5, 2024, by the first day of the first plan year (in the individual market, policy year) beginning on or after January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">§ 92.207(b)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">By the first day of the first plan year (in the individual market, policy year) beginning on or after January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">§ 92.210(b) and (c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 300 days of July 5, 2024.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.2   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this part, this part shall apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Every health program or activity, any part of which receives Federal financial assistance, directly or indirectly, from the Department;
</P>
<P>(2) Every health program or activity administered by the Department; and
</P>
<P>(3) Every health program or activity administered by a title I entity.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of this part shall not apply to any employer or other plan sponsor of a group health plan, including but not limited to, a board of trustees (or similar body), association or other group, with regard to its employment practices, including the provision of employee health benefits.
</P>
<P>(c) Any provision of this part held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be severable from this part and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to other persons not similarly situated or to other, dissimilar circumstances.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.3   Relationship to other laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Neither section 1557 nor this part shall be construed to apply a lesser standard for the protection of individuals from discrimination than the standards applied under title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, or the regulations issued pursuant to those laws.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part shall be construed to invalidate or limit the rights, remedies, procedures, or legal standards available under title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or the Age Discrimination Act of 1975.
</P>
<P>(c) Insofar as the application of any requirement under this part would violate applicable Federal protections for religious freedom and conscience, such application shall not be required. For example, 42 U.S.C. 18023 provides (among other things) that nothing in section 1557 shall be construed to have any effect on Federal laws regarding conscience protection; willingness or refusal to provide abortion; and discrimination on the basis of the willingness or refusal to provide, pay for, cover, or refer for abortion or to provide or participate in training to provide abortion.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this part shall be construed to supersede State or local laws that provide additional protections against discrimination on any basis described in § 92.1.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>1991 Standards</I> means the 1991 ADA Standards for Accessible Design, published at appendix A to 28 CFR part 36 on July 26, 1991, and republished as appendix D to 28 CFR part 36 on September 15, 2010.
</P>
<P><I>2010 Standards</I> means 36 CFR part 1191, appendices B and D (2009), in conjunction with 28 CFR 35.151.
</P>
<P><I>ACA</I> means the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Pub. L. 111-148, 124 Stat. 119 (2010) as amended by the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-152, 124 Stat. 1029) (codified in scattered sections of U.S.C.)).
</P>
<P><I>ADA</I> means the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Age</I> means how old a person is, or the number of elapsed years from the date of a person's birth.
</P>
<P><I>Age Act</I> means the Age Discrimination Act of 1975 (42 U.S.C. 6101 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means a person who applies to participate in a health program or activity.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids and services</I> include, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualified interpreters on-site or through video remote interpreting (VRI) services, as defined in 28 CFR 35.104 and 36.104; note takers; real-time computer-aided transcription services; written materials; exchange of written notes; telephone handset amplifiers; assistive listening devices; assistive listening systems; telephones compatible with hearing aids; closed caption decoders; open and closed captioning, including real-time captioning; voice, text, and video-based telecommunications products and systems, including text telephones (TTYs), videophones, and captioned telephones, or equally effective telecommunications devices; videotext displays; accessible information and communication technology (ICT); or other effective methods of making aurally delivered information available to persons who are deaf or hard of hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified readers; taped texts; audio recordings; Braille materials and displays; screen reader software; magnification software; optical readers; secondary auditory programs (SAP); large print materials; accessible information and communication technology; or other effective methods of making visually delivered materials available to persons who are blind or have low vision;
</P>
<P>(3) Acquisition or modification of equipment and devices; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other similar services and actions.
</P>
<P><I>Companion</I> means a family member, friend, or associate of an individual seeking access to a service, program, or activity of a covered entity, who along with such individual, is an appropriate person with whom a covered entity should communicate.
</P>
<P><I>Covered entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A recipient of Federal financial assistance;
</P>
<P>(2) The Department; and
</P>
<P>(3) An entity established under title I of the ACA.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Office for Civil Rights (OCR) of the Department, or their designee(s).
</P>
<P><I>Disability</I> means, with respect to an individual, a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities of such individual; a record of such an impairment; or being regarded as having such an impairment, as defined and construed in the Rehabilitation Act, 29 U.S.C. 705(9)(B), which incorporates the definition of “disability” in the ADA, 42 U.S.C. 12102, as amended and adopted at 28 CFR 35.108.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange</I> means the same as “Exchange” defined in 45 CFR 155.20.
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance,</I> as used in this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Federal financial assistance means any grant, loan, credit, subsidy, contract (other than a procurement contract but including a contract of insurance), or any other arrangement by which the Federal Government, directly or indirectly, provides assistance or otherwise makes assistance available in the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Funds;
</P>
<P>(ii) Services of Federal personnel; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Real or personal property or any interest in or use of such property, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Transfers or leases of such property for less than fair market value or for reduced consideration; and
</P>
<P>(B) Proceeds from a subsequent transfer or lease of such property if the Federal share of its fair market value is not returned to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(2) Federal financial assistance the Department provides or otherwise makes available includes Federal financial assistance that the Department plays a role in providing or administering, including advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reduction payments under title I of the ACA, as well as payments, subsidies, or other funds extended by the Department to any entity providing health insurance coverage for payment to or on behalf of a person obtaining health insurance coverage from that entity or extended by the Department directly to such person for payment to any entity providing health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P><I>Federally-facilitated Exchange</I> means the same as “Federally-facilitated Exchange” defined in 45 CFR 155.20.
</P>
<P><I>Health program or activity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any project, enterprise, venture, or undertaking to:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide or administer health-related services, health insurance coverage, or other health-related coverage;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide assistance to persons in obtaining health-related services, health insurance coverage, or other health-related coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide clinical, pharmaceutical, or medical care;
</P>
<P>(iv) Engage in health or clinical research; or
</P>
<P>(v) Provide health education for health care professionals or others.
</P>
<P>(2) All of the operations of any entity principally engaged in the provision or administration of any health projects, enterprises, ventures, or undertakings described in paragraph (1) of this definition, including, but not limited to, a State or local health agency, hospital, health clinic, health insurance issuer, physician's practice, pharmacy, community-based health care provider, nursing facility, residential or community-based treatment facility, or other similar entity or combination thereof. A health program or activity also includes all of the operations of a State Medicaid program, Children's Health Insurance Program, and Basic Health Program.
</P>
<P><I>Individual with limited English proficiency</I> means an individual whose primary language for communication is not English and who has a limited ability to read, write, speak, or understand English. An individual with limited English proficiency may be competent in English for certain types of communication (<I>e.g.,</I> speaking or understanding), but still be limited English proficient for other purposes (<I>e.g.,</I> reading or writing).
</P>
<P><I>Information and communication technology (ICT)</I> means information technology and other equipment, systems, technologies, or processes, for which the principal function is the creation, manipulation, storage, display, receipt, or transmission of electronic data and information, as well as any associated content. Examples of ICT include, but are not limited to: computers and peripheral equipment; information kiosks and transaction machines; telecommunications equipment; telehealth interfaces or applications; customer premises equipment; multifunction office machines; software; mobile applications; websites; videos; and electronic documents.
</P>
<P><I>Language assistance services</I> may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Oral language assistance, including interpretation in non-English languages provided in-person or remotely by a qualified interpreter for an individual with limited English proficiency, and the use of qualified bilingual or multilingual staff to communicate directly with individuals with limited English proficiency;
</P>
<P>(2) Written translation, performed by a qualified translator, of written content in paper or electronic form into or from languages other than English; and
</P>
<P>(3) Written notice of availability of language assistance services.
</P>
<P><I>Machine translation</I> means automated translation, without the assistance of or review by a qualified human translator, that is text-based and provides instant translations between various languages, sometimes with an option for audio input or output.
</P>
<P><I>National origin</I> includes, but is not limited to, a person's, or their ancestors', place of origin (such as country or world region) or a person's manifestation of the physical, cultural, or linguistic characteristics of a national origin group.
</P>
<P><I>OCR</I> means the Office for Civil Rights of the Department.
</P>
<P><I>Patient care decision support tool</I> means any automated or non-automated tool, mechanism, method, technology, or combination thereof used by a covered entity to support clinical decision-making in its health programs or activities.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified bilingual/multilingual staff</I> means a member of a covered entity's workforce who is designated by the covered entity to provide in-language oral language assistance as part of the person's current, assigned job responsibilities and who has demonstrated to the covered entity that they are:
</P>
<P>(1) Proficient in speaking and understanding both spoken English and at least one other spoken language, including any necessary specialized vocabulary, terminology and phraseology; and
</P>
<P>(2) Able to effectively, accurately, and impartially communicate directly with individuals with limited English proficiency in their primary languages.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual with a disability</I> means an individual with a disability who, with or without reasonable modifications to rules, policies, or practices, the removal of architectural, communication, or transportation barriers, or the provision of auxiliary aids and services, meets the essential eligibility requirements for the receipt of services or the participation in programs or activities provided by the covered entity.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified interpreter for an individual with a disability</I> means an interpreter who, via a video remote interpreting service (VRI) or an on-site appearance:
</P>
<P>(1) Has demonstrated proficiency in communicating in, and understanding:
</P>
<P>(i) Both English and a non-English language (including American Sign Language, other sign languages); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Another communication modality (such as cued-language transliterators or oral transliteration);
</P>
<P>(2) Is able to interpret effectively, accurately, and impartially, both receptively and expressively, using any necessary specialized vocabulary or terms without changes, omissions, or additions and while preserving the tone, sentiment, and emotional level of the original statement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Adheres to generally accepted interpreter ethics principles including client confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(4) Qualified interpreters include, for example, sign language interpreters, oral transliterators, and cued-language transliterators.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified interpreter for an individual with limited English proficiency</I> means an interpreter who via a remote interpreting service or an on-site appearance:
</P>
<P>(1) Has demonstrated proficiency in speaking and understanding both spoken English and at least one other spoken language (qualified interpreters for relay interpretation must demonstrate proficiency in two non-English spoken languages);
</P>
<P>(2) Is able to interpret effectively, accurately, and impartially to and from such language(s) and English (or between two non-English languages for relay interpretation), using any necessary specialized vocabulary or terms without changes, omissions, or additions and while preserving the tone, sentiment, and emotional level of the original oral statement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Adheres to generally accepted interpreter ethics principles, including client confidentiality.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified reader</I> means a person who is able to read effectively, accurately, and impartially using any necessary specialized vocabulary.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified translator</I> means a translator who:
</P>
<P>(1) Has demonstrated proficiency in writing and understanding both written English and at least one other written non-English language;
</P>
<P>(2) Is able to translate effectively, accurately, and impartially to and from such language(s) and English, using any necessary specialized vocabulary or terms without changes, omissions, or additions and while preserving the tone, sentiment, and emotional level of the original written statement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Adheres to generally accepted translator ethics principles, including client confidentiality.
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any State or its political subdivision thereof; or any instrumentality of a State or political subdivision thereof; any public or private agency, institution, or organization; other entity; or any person, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended directly or indirectly, including any subunit, successor, assignee, or transferee of a recipient. Such term does not include any ultimate beneficiary.
</P>
<P><I>Relay interpretation</I> means interpreting from one language to another through an intermediate language. This mode of interpretation is often used for monolingual speakers of languages of limited diffusion, including select indigenous languages. In relay interpreting, the first interpreter listens to the speaker and renders the message into the intermediate language. The second interpreter receives the message in the intermediate language and interprets it into a third language for the speaker who speaks neither the first nor the second language.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112; 29 U.S.C. 794), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Section 1557</I> means section 1557 of the ACA (42 U.S.C. 18116).
</P>
<P><I>State</I> includes each of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the United States Virgin Islands, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>State Exchange</I> means an Exchange established by a State and approved by the Department pursuant to 45 CFR part 155, subpart B.
</P>
<P><I>Telehealth</I> means the use of electronic information and telecommunications technologies to support long-distance clinical health care, patient and professional health-related education, public health, and health administration. Technologies include videoconferencing, the internet, store-and-forward imaging, streaming media, and terrestrial and wireless communications.
</P>
<P><I>Title I entity</I> means any entity established under title I of the ACA, as amended, including State Exchanges and Federally-facilitated Exchanges.
</P>
<P><I>Title VI</I> means title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Pub. L. 88-352; 42 U.S.C. 2000d <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Title VII</I> means title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Pub. L. 88-352; 42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Title IX</I> means title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972 (Pub. L. 92-318; 20 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>UFAS</I> means the Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards (Pub. L. 90-480; 42 U.S.C. 4151 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.5   Assurances required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assurances.</I> An entity applying for Federal financial assistance to which this part applies must, as a condition of any application for Federal financial assistance, submit an assurance, on a form specified by the Director, that the entity's health programs and activities will be operated in compliance with section 1557 and this part. A health insurance issuer seeking certification to participate in an Exchange or a State seeking approval to operate a State Exchange to which section 1557 or this part applies must, as a condition of certification or approval, submit an assurance, on a form specified by the Director, that the health insurance issuer's or State's health program or activity will be operated in compliance with section 1557 and this part. An applicant or entity may incorporate this assurance by reference in subsequent applications to the Department for Federal financial assistance or requests for certification to participate in an Exchange or approval to operate a State Exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> The duration of the assurances required by this section is the same as the duration of the assurances required in the Department's regulations implementing section 504, 45 CFR 84.5(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covenants.</I> When Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of real property or interest, the same conditions apply as those contained in the Department's regulations implementing section 504, at 45 CFR 84.5(c), except that the nondiscrimination obligation applies to discrimination on all bases covered under section 1557 and this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.6   Remedial action and voluntary action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedial action.</I> (1) If the Director finds that a recipient or State Exchange has discriminated against an individual on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, or disability, in violation of section 1557 or this part, such recipient or State Exchange must take such remedial action as the Director may require to overcome the effects of the discrimination.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a recipient is found to have discriminated against an individual on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, or disability, in violation of section 1557 or this part, and where another recipient exercises control over the recipient that has discriminated, the Director, where appropriate, may require either or both entities to take remedial action.
</P>
<P>(3) The Director may, where necessary to overcome the effects of discrimination in violation of section 1557 or this part, require a recipient, in its health programs and activities, or State Exchange to take remedial action with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) Persons who are no longer participants in the recipient's or State Exchange's health program or activity but who were participants in the health program or activity when such discrimination occurred; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Persons who would have been participants in the health program or activity had the discrimination not occurred.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voluntary action.</I> A covered entity may take nondiscriminatory steps, in addition to any action that is required by section 1557 or this part, to overcome the effects of conditions that result or resulted in limited participation in the covered entity's health programs or activities by persons on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, or disability.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.7   Designation and responsibilities of a Section 1557 Coordinator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Section 1557 Coordinator and designees.</I> A covered entity that employs fifteen or more persons must designate and authorize at least one employee, a “Section 1557 Coordinator,” to coordinate the covered entity's compliance with its responsibilities under section 1557 and this part in its health programs and activities, including the investigation of any grievance communicated to it alleging noncompliance with section 1557 or this part or alleging any action that would be prohibited by section 1557 or this part. As appropriate, a covered entity may assign one or more designees to carry out some of these responsibilities, but the Section 1557 Coordinator must retain ultimate oversight for ensuring coordination with the covered entity's compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities of a Section 1557 Coordinator.</I> A covered entity must ensure that, at minimum, the Section 1557 Coordinator:
</P>
<P>(1) Receives, reviews, and processes grievances, filed under the grievance procedure as set forth in § 92.8(c);
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinates the covered entity's recordkeeping requirements as set forth in § 92.8(c);
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinates effective implementation of the covered entity's language access procedures as set forth in § 92.8(d);
</P>
<P>(4) Coordinates effective implementation of the covered entity's effective communication procedures as set forth in § 92.8(e);
</P>
<P>(5) Coordinates effective implementation of the covered entity's reasonable modification procedures as set forth in § 92.8(f); and
</P>
<P>(6) Coordinates training of relevant employees as set forth in § 92.9, including maintaining documentation required by such section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.8   Policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A covered entity must implement written policies and procedures in its health programs and activities that are designed to comply with the requirements of this part. The policies and procedures must include an effective date and be reasonably designed, taking into account the size, complexity, and the type of health programs or activities undertaken by a covered entity, to ensure compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nondiscrimination policy.</I> (1) A covered entity must implement a written policy in its health programs and activities that, at minimum, states the covered entity does not discriminate on the basis of race, color, national origin (including limited English proficiency and primary language), sex (consistent with the scope of sex discrimination described at § 92.101(a)(2)), age, or disability; that the covered entity provides language assistance services and appropriate auxiliary aids and services free of charge, when necessary for compliance with section 1557 or this part; that the covered entity will provide reasonable modifications for individuals with disabilities; and that provides the current contact information for the Section 1557 Coordinator required by § 92.7 (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(2) OCR considers it a best practice toward achieving compliance for a covered entity to provide information that it has been granted a temporary exemption or granted an assurance of exemption under § 92.302(b) in the nondiscrimination policy required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Grievance procedures.</I> (1) A covered entity that employs fifteen or more persons must implement written grievance procedures in its health programs and activities that provide for the prompt and equitable resolution of grievances alleging any action that would be prohibited by section 1557 or this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered entity to which this paragraph applies must retain records related to grievances filed pursuant to the covered entity's grievance procedures required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section that allege discrimination on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, or disability for no less than three (3) calendar years from the date the covered entity resolves the grievance. The records must include the grievance; the name and contact information of the complainant (if provided by complainant); the alleged discriminatory action and alleged basis (or bases) of discrimination; the date the grievance was filed; the date the grievance was resolved; grievance resolution; and any other pertinent information.
</P>
<P>(3) A covered entity to which this paragraph (c) applies must keep confidential the identity of an individual who has filed a grievance under this part except as required by law or to the extent necessary to carry out the purposes of this part, including the conduct of any investigation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Language access procedures.</I> A covered entity must implement written language access procedures in its health programs and activities describing the covered entity's process for providing language assistance services to individuals with limited English proficiency when required under § 92.201. At a minimum, the language access procedures must include current contact information for the section 1557 Coordinator (if applicable); how an employee identifies whether an individual has limited English proficiency; how an employee obtains the services of qualified interpreters and translators the covered entity uses to communicate with an individual with limited English proficiency; the names of any qualified bilingual staff members; and a list of any electronic and written translated materials the covered entity has, the languages they are translated into, date of issuance, and how to access electronic translations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective communication procedures.</I> A covered entity must implement written effective communication procedures in its health programs and activities describing the covered entity's process for ensuring effective communication for individuals with disabilities when required under § 92.202. At a minimum, a covered entity's effective communication procedures must include current contact information for the Section 1557 Coordinator (if applicable); how an employee obtains the services of qualified interpreters the covered entity uses to communicate with individuals with disabilities, including the names of any qualified interpreter staff members; and how to access appropriate auxiliary aids and services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reasonable modification procedures.</I> A covered entity must implement written procedures in its health programs and activities describing the covered entity's process for making reasonable modifications to its policies, practices, or procedures when necessary to avoid discrimination on the basis of disability as required under § 92.205. At a minimum, the reasonable modification procedures must include current contact information for the covered entity's Section 1557 Coordinator (if applicable); a description of the covered entity's process for responding to requests from individuals with disabilities for changes, exceptions, or adjustments to a rule, policy, practice, or service of the covered entity; and a process for determining whether making the modification would fundamentally alter the nature of the health program or activity, including identifying an alternative modification that does not result in a fundamental alteration to ensure the individual with a disability receives the benefits or services in question.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Combined policies and procedures.</I> A covered entity may combine the content of the policies and procedures required by paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section with any policies and procedures pursuant to title VI, section 504, title IX, and the Age Act if section 1557 and the provisions in this part are clearly addressed therein.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Changes to policies and procedures.</I> (1) Covered entities must review and revise the policies and procedures required by paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section, as necessary, to ensure they are current and in compliance with section 1557 and this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) A covered entity may change a policy or procedure required by paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section at any time, provided that such changes comply with section 1557 and this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.9   Training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered entity must train relevant employees of its health programs and activities on the civil rights policies and procedures required by § 92.8, as necessary and appropriate for the employees to carry out their functions within the covered entity consistent with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered entity must provide training that meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) To each relevant employee of the health program or activity as soon as possible, but no later than 30 days following a covered entity's implementation of the policies and procedures required by § 92.8, and no later than 300 days following July 5, 2024;
</P>
<P>(2) Thereafter, to each new relevant employee of the health program or activity within a reasonable period of time after the employee joins the covered entity's workforce; and
</P>
<P>(3) To each relevant employee of the health program or activity whose functions are affected by a material change in the policies or procedures required by § 92.8 and any other civil rights policies or procedures the covered entity has implemented within a reasonable period of time after the material change has been made.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this section, “relevant employees” includes permanent and temporary employees whose roles and responsibilities entail interacting with patients and members of the public; making decisions that directly or indirectly affect patients' health care, including the covered entity's executive leadership team and legal counsel; and performing tasks and making decisions that directly or indirectly affect patients' financial obligations, including billing and collections.
</P>
<P>(c) A covered entity must contemporaneously document its employees' completion of the training required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section in written or electronic form and retain said documentation for no less than three (3) calendar years.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.10   Notice of nondiscrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered entity must provide a notice of nondiscrimination to participants, beneficiaries, enrollees, and applicants of its health programs and activities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The notice required under this paragraph (a) must include the following information relating to the covered entity's health programs and activities:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered entity does not discriminate on the basis of race, color, national origin (including limited English proficiency and primary language), sex (consistent with the scope of sex discrimination described at § 92.101(a)(2)), age, or disability;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered entity provides reasonable modifications for individuals with disabilities, and appropriate auxiliary aids and services, including qualified interpreters for individuals with disabilities and information in alternate formats, such as braille or large print, free of charge and in a timely manner, when such modifications, aids, and services are necessary to ensure accessibility and an equal opportunity to participate to individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(iii) The covered entity provides language assistance services, including electronic and written translated documents and oral interpretation, free of charge and in a timely manner, when such services are a reasonable step to provide meaningful access to an individual with limited English proficiency;
</P>
<P>(iv) How to obtain from the covered entity the reasonable modifications, appropriate auxiliary aids and services, and language assistance services in paragraphs (a)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The contact information for the covered entity's Section 1557 Coordinator designated pursuant to § 92.7 (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(vi) The availability of the covered entity's grievance procedure pursuant to § 92.8(c) and how to file a grievance (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(vii) Details on how to file a discrimination complaint with OCR in the Department; and
</P>
<P>(viii) How to access the covered entity's website, if it has one, that provides the information required under this paragraph (a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) The notice required under this paragraph (a) must be provided in a covered entity's health program or activity, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) On an annual basis to participants, beneficiaries, enrollees (including late and special enrollees), and applicants of its health program or activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon request;
</P>
<P>(iii) At a conspicuous location on the covered entity's health program or activity website, if it has one; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In clear and prominent physical locations, in no smaller than 20-point sans serif font, where it is reasonable to expect individuals seeking service from the health program or activity to be able to read or hear the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered entity may combine the content of the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section with the notices required by 45 CFR 80.6(d), 84.8, 86.9, and 91.32 if the combined notice clearly informs individuals of their civil rights under section 1557 and this part, so long as it includes each of the elements required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.1.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.11   Notice of availability of language assistance services and auxiliary aids and services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered entity must provide a notice of availability of language assistance services and auxiliary aids and services that, at minimum, states that the covered entity, in its health programs or activities, provides language assistance services and appropriate auxiliary aids and services free of charge, when necessary for compliance with section 1557 or this part, to participants, beneficiaries, enrollees, and applicants of its health program or activities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice required under paragraph (a) of this section must be provided in English and at least the 15 languages most commonly spoken by individuals with limited English proficiency of the relevant State or States in which a covered entity operates and must be provided in alternate formats for individuals with disabilities who require auxiliary aids and services to ensure effective communication.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice required under paragraph (a) of this section must be provided in a covered entity's health program or activity, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) On an annual basis to participants, beneficiaries, enrollees (including late and special enrollees), and applicants of its health program or activity;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request;
</P>
<P>(3) At a conspicuous location on the covered entity's health program or activity website, if it has one;
</P>
<P>(4) In clear and prominent physical locations, in no smaller than 20-point sans serif font, where it is reasonable to expect individuals seeking service from the health program or activity to be able to read or hear the notice; and
</P>
<P>(5) In the following electronic and written communications when these forms are provided by a covered entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Notice of nondiscrimination required by § 92.10;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notice of privacy practices required by 45 CFR 164.520;
</P>
<P>(iii) Application and intake forms;
</P>
<P>(iv) Notices of denial or termination of eligibility, benefits or services, including Explanations of Benefits, and notices of appeal and grievance rights;
</P>
<P>(v) Communications related to an individual's rights, eligibility, benefits, or services that require or request a response from a participant, beneficiary, enrollee, or applicant;
</P>
<P>(vi) Communications related to a public health emergency;
</P>
<P>(vii) Consent forms and instructions related to medical procedures or operations, medical power of attorney, or living will (with an option of providing only one notice for all documents bundled together);
</P>
<P>(viii) Discharge papers;
</P>
<P>(ix) Communications related to the cost and payment of care with respect to an individual, including medical billing and collections materials, and good faith estimates required by section 2799B-6 of the Public Health Service Act;
</P>
<P>(x) Complaint forms; and
</P>
<P>(xi) Patient and member handbooks.
</P>
<P>(d) A covered entity shall be deemed in compliance with this section with respect to an individual if it exercises the option to:
</P>
<P>(1) On an annual basis, provide the individual with the option to opt out of receipt of the notice required by this section in their primary language and through any appropriate auxiliary aids and services, and:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not condition the receipt of any aid or benefit on the individual's decision to opt out;
</P>
<P>(ii) Informs the individual that they have a right to receive the notice upon request in their primary language and through the appropriate auxiliary aids and services;
</P>
<P>(iii) Informs the individual that opting out of receiving the notice is not a waiver of their right to receive language assistance services and any appropriate auxiliary aids and services as required by this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) Documents, on an annual basis, that the individual has opted out of receiving the notice required by this section for that year; and
</P>
<P>(v) Does not treat a non-response from an individual as a decision to opt out; or
</P>
<P>(2) Document the individual's primary language and any appropriate auxiliary aids and services and:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides all materials and communications in that individual's primary language and through any appropriate auxiliary aids and services; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section in that individual's primary language and through any appropriate auxiliary aids and services in all communications that are identified in paragraph (c)(5) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Nondiscrimination Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.101" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.101   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Except as provided in title I of the ACA, an individual must not, on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, disability, or any combination thereof, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any health program or activity operated by a covered entity.
</P>
<P>(2) Discrimination on the basis of sex includes, but is not limited to, discrimination on the basis of:
</P>
<P>(i) Sex characteristics, including intersex traits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Pregnancy or related conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Sexual orientation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Gender identity; and
</P>
<P>(v) Sex stereotypes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions on discrimination.</I> (1) In any health program or activity to which this part applies:
</P>
<P>(i) A recipient and State Exchange must comply with the specific prohibitions on discrimination in the Department's implementing regulations for title VI, section 504, title IX, and the Age Act, found at 45 CFR parts 80, 84, 86 (subparts C and D), and 91 (subpart B), respectively. Where this paragraph (b) cross-references regulatory provisions that use the term “recipient,” the term “recipient or State Exchange” shall apply in its place. Where this paragraph (b) cross-references regulatory provisions that use the term “student,” “employee,” or “applicant,” these terms shall be replaced with “individual.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The Department, including Federally-facilitated Exchanges, must comply with specific prohibitions on discrimination in the Department's implementing regulations for title VI, section 504, title IX, and the Age Act, found at 45 CFR parts 80, 85, 86 (subparts C and D), and 91 (subpart B), respectively. Where this paragraph (b) cross-references regulatory provisions that use the term “a recipient,” the term “the Department or a Federally-facilitated Exchange” shall apply in its place. Where this paragraph (b) cross-references regulatory provisions that use the term “student,” “employee,” or “applicant,” these terms shall be replaced with “individual.”
</P>
<P>(2) The enumeration of specific prohibitions on discrimination in paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not limit the general applicability of the prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Specific Applications to Health Programs and Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.201" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.201   Meaningful access for individuals with limited English proficiency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A covered entity must take reasonable steps to provide meaningful access to each individual with limited English proficiency (including companions with limited English proficiency) eligible to be served or likely to be directly affected by its health programs and activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Language assistance services requirements.</I> Language assistance services required under paragraph (a) of this section must be provided free of charge, be accurate and timely, and protect the privacy and the independent decision-making ability of the individual with limited English proficiency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific requirements for interpreter and translation services.</I> (1) When interpretation services are required under this part, a covered entity must offer a qualified interpreter in its health programs and activities.
</P>
<P>(2) When translation services are required under this part, a covered entity must utilize the services of a qualified translator in its health programs and activities.
</P>
<P>(3) If a covered entity uses machine translation when the underlying text is critical to the rights, benefits, or meaningful access of an individual with limited English proficiency, when accuracy is essential, or when the source documents or materials contain complex, non-literal or technical language, the translation must be reviewed by a qualified human translator.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Evaluation of compliance.</I> In evaluating whether a covered entity has met its obligation under paragraph (a) of this section, the Director shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate, and give substantial weight to, the nature and importance of the health program or activity and the particular communication at issue, to the individual with limited English proficiency; and
</P>
<P>(2) Take into account other relevant factors, including the effectiveness of the covered entity's written language access procedures for its health programs and activities, that the covered entity has implemented pursuant to § 92.8(d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restricted use of certain persons to interpret or facilitate communication.</I> A covered entity must not, in its health programs and activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Require an individual with limited English proficiency to provide their own interpreter, or to pay the cost of their own interpreter;
</P>
<P>(2) Rely on an adult, not qualified as an interpreter, to interpret or facilitate communication, except:
</P>
<P>(i) As a temporary measure, while finding a qualified interpreter in an emergency involving an imminent threat to the safety or welfare of an individual or the public where there is no qualified interpreter for the individual with limited English proficiency immediately available and the qualified interpreter that arrives confirms or supplements the initial communications with an initial adult interpreter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the individual with limited English proficiency specifically requests, in private with a qualified interpreter present and without an accompanying adult present, that the accompanying adult interpret or facilitate communication, the accompanying adult agrees to provide such assistance, the request and agreement by the accompanying adult is documented, and reliance on that adult for such assistance is appropriate under the circumstances;
</P>
<P>(3) Rely on a minor child to interpret or facilitate communication, except as a temporary measure while finding a qualified interpreter in an emergency involving an imminent threat to the safety or welfare of an individual or the public where there is no qualified interpreter for the individual with limited English proficiency immediately available and the qualified interpreter that arrives confirms or supplements the initial communications with the minor child; or
</P>
<P>(4) Rely on staff other than qualified interpreters, qualified translators, or qualified bilingual/multilingual staff to communicate with individuals with limited English proficiency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Video remote interpreting services.</I> A covered entity that provides a qualified interpreter for an individual with limited English proficiency through video remote interpreting services in the covered entity's health programs and activities must ensure the modality allows for meaningful access and must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) Real-time, full-motion video and audio over a dedicated high-speed, wide-bandwidth video connection or wireless connection that delivers high quality video images that do not produce lags, choppy, blurry, or grainy images, or irregular pauses in communication;
</P>
<P>(2) A sharply delineated image that is large enough to display the interpreter's face and the participating person's face regardless of the person's body position;
</P>
<P>(3) A clear, audible transmission of voices; and
</P>
<P>(4) Adequate training to users of the technology and other involved persons so that they may quickly and efficiently set up and operate the video remote interpreting.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Audio remote interpreting services.</I> A covered entity that provides a qualified interpreter for an individual with limited English proficiency through audio remote interpreting services in the covered entity's health programs and activities must ensure the modality allows for meaningful access and must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) Real-time audio over a dedicated high-speed, wide-bandwidth connection or wireless connection that delivers high-quality audio without lags or irregular pauses in communication;
</P>
<P>(2) A clear, audible transmission of voices; and
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate training to users of the technology and other involved persons so that they may quickly and efficiently set up and operate the remote interpreting services.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Acceptance of language assistance services is not required.</I> Nothing in this section shall be construed to require an individual with limited English proficiency to accept language assistance services.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.202" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.202   Effective communication for individuals with disabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered entity must take appropriate steps to ensure that communications with individuals with disabilities (including companions with disabilities), are as effective as communications with non-disabled individuals in its health programs and activities, in accordance with the standards found at 28 CFR 35.130 and 35.160 through 35.164. Where the regulatory provisions referenced in this section use the term “public entity,” the term “covered entity” shall apply in its place.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered entity must provide appropriate auxiliary aids and services where necessary to afford individuals with disabilities an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, the health program or activity in question. Such auxiliary aids and services must be provided free of charge, in accessible formats, in a timely manner, and in such a way to protect the privacy and the independence of the individual with a disability.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.203" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.203   Accessibility for buildings and facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with a disability shall, because a covered entity's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with disabilities, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any health program or activity to which this part applies.
</P>
<P>(b) Each facility or part of a facility in which health programs or activities are conducted that is constructed or altered by or on behalf of, or for the use of, a recipient or State Exchange must comply with the 2010 Standards if the construction or alteration was commenced on or after July 18, 2016, except that if a facility or part of a facility in which health programs or activities are conducted that is constructed or altered by or on behalf of, or for the use of, a recipient or State Exchange, was not covered by the 2010 Standards prior to July 18, 2016, such facility or part of a facility must comply with the 2010 Standards if the construction or alteration was commenced after January 18, 2018. If construction or alteration was begun on or after July 18, 2016, and on or before January 18, 2018, in conformance with UFAS, and the facility or part of the facility was not covered by the 2010 Standards prior to July 18, 2016, then it shall be deemed to comply with the requirements of this section and with 45 CFR 84.23(a) and (b). Departures from particular technical and scoping requirements by the use of other methods are permitted where substantially equivalent or greater access to and usability of the facility is provided. All newly constructed or altered buildings or facilities subject to this section must comply with the requirements for a “public building or facility” as defined in section 106.5 of the 2010 Standards.
</P>
<P>(c) Each facility or part of a facility in which health programs or activities under this part are conducted that is constructed or altered by or on behalf of, or for the use of, a recipient or State Exchange in conformance with the 1991 Standards at appendix D to 28 CFR part 36 or the 2010 Standards shall be deemed to comply with the requirements of this section and with 45 CFR 84.23(a) and (b) with respect to those facilities, if the construction or alteration was commenced before July 18, 2016. Each facility or part of a facility in which health programs or activities are conducted that is constructed or altered by or on behalf of, or for the use of, a recipient or State Exchange in conformance with UFAS shall be deemed to comply with the requirements of this section and with 45 CFR 84.23(a) and (b), if the construction or alteration was commenced before July 18, 2016, and such facility would not have been required to conform with a different accessibility standard under 28 CFR 35.151.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.204" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.204   Accessibility of information and communication technology for individuals with disabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered entity must ensure that its health programs and activities provided through information and communication technology are accessible to individuals with disabilities, unless doing so would result in undue financial and administrative burdens or a fundamental alteration in the nature of the health programs or activities. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, a covered entity shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with disabilities receive the benefits or services of the health program or activity provided by the covered entity.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient or State Exchange shall ensure that its health programs and activities provided through websites and mobile applications comply with the requirements of section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act, as interpreted consistent with title II of the ADA (42 U.S.C. 12131 through 12165).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.205" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.205   Requirement to make reasonable modifications.</HEAD>
<P>A covered entity must make reasonable modifications to policies, practices, or procedures in its health programs and activities when such modifications are necessary to avoid discrimination on the basis of disability, unless the covered entity can demonstrate that making the modifications would fundamentally alter the nature of the health program or activity. For the purposes of this section, the term “reasonable modifications” shall be interpreted in a manner consistent with the term as set forth in the ADA title II regulation at 28 CFR 35.130(b)(7).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.206" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.206   Equal program access on the basis of sex.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered entity must provide individuals equal access to its health programs and activities without discriminating on the basis of sex.
</P>
<P>(b) In providing access to health programs and activities, a covered entity must not:
</P>
<P>(1) Deny or limit health services, including those that have been typically or exclusively provided to, or associated with, individuals of one sex, to an individual based upon the individual's sex assigned at birth, gender identity, or gender otherwise recorded;
</P>
<P>(2) Deny or limit, on the basis of an individual's sex assigned at birth, gender identity, or gender otherwise recorded, a health care professional's ability to provide health services if such denial or limitation has the effect of excluding individuals from participation in, denying them the benefits of, or otherwise subjecting them to discrimination on the basis of sex under a covered health program or activity;
</P>
<P>(3) Adopt or apply any policy or practice of treating individuals differently or separating them on the basis of sex in a manner that subjects any individual to more than de minimis harm, including by adopting a policy or engaging in a practice that prevents an individual from participating in a health program or activity consistent with the individual's gender identity; or
</P>
<P>(4) Deny or limit health services sought for purpose of gender transition or other gender-affirming care that the covered entity would provide to an individual for other purposes if the denial or limitation is based on an individual's sex assigned at birth, gender identity, or gender otherwise recorded.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section requires the provision of any health service where the covered entity has a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason for denying or limiting that service, including where the covered entity typically declines to provide the health service to any individual or where the covered entity reasonably determines that such health service is not clinically appropriate for a particular individual. A covered entity's determination must not be based on unlawful animus or bias, or constitute a pretext for discrimination. Nothing in this section is intended to preclude a covered entity from availing itself of protections described in §§ 92.3 and 92.302.
</P>
<P>(d) The enumeration of specific forms of discrimination in paragraph (b) of this section does not limit the general applicability of the prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.207" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.207   Nondiscrimination in health insurance coverage and other health-related coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered entity must not, in providing or administering health insurance coverage or other health-related coverage, discriminate on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, disability, or any combination thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered entity must not, in providing or administering health insurance coverage or other health-related coverage:
</P>
<P>(1) Deny, cancel, limit, or refuse to issue or renew health insurance coverage or other health-related coverage, or deny or limit coverage of a claim, or impose additional cost sharing or other limitations or restrictions on coverage, on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, disability, or any combination thereof;
</P>
<P>(2) Have or implement marketing practices or benefit designs that discriminate on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, disability, or any combination thereof, in health insurance coverage or other health-related coverage;
</P>
<P>(3) Deny or limit coverage, deny or limit coverage of a claim, or impose additional cost sharing or other limitations or restrictions on coverage, to an individual based upon the individual's sex assigned at birth, gender identity, or gender otherwise recorded;
</P>
<P>(4) Have or implement a categorical coverage exclusion or limitation for all health services related to gender transition or other gender-affirming care;
</P>
<P>(5) Otherwise deny or limit coverage, deny or limit coverage of a claim, or impose additional cost sharing or other limitations or restrictions on coverage, for specific health services related to gender transition or other gender-affirming care if such denial, limitation, or restriction results in discrimination on the basis of sex; or
</P>
<P>(6) Have or implement benefit designs that do not provide or administer health insurance coverage or other health-related coverage in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with disabilities, including practices that result in the serious risk of institutionalization or segregation.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section requires coverage of any health service where the covered entity has a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason for denying or limiting coverage of the health service or determining that such health service fails to meet applicable coverage requirements, including reasonable medical management techniques such as medical necessity requirements. Such coverage denial or limitation must not be based on unlawful animus or bias, or constitute a pretext for discrimination. Nothing in this section is intended to preclude a covered entity from availing itself of protections described in §§ 92.3 and 92.302.
</P>
<P>(d) The enumeration of specific forms of discrimination in paragraph (b) of this section does not limit the general applicability of the prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.208" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.208   Prohibition on sex discrimination related to marital, parental, or family status.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether an individual satisfies any policy or criterion regarding access to its health programs or activities, a covered entity must not take an individual's sex, as defined in § 92.101(a)(2), into account in applying any rule concerning an individual's current, perceived, potential, or past marital, parental, or family status.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.209" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.209   Nondiscrimination on the basis of association.</HEAD>
<P>A covered entity must not exclude from participation in, deny the benefits of, or otherwise discriminate against an individual or entity in its health programs and activities on the basis of the respective race, color, national origin, sex, age, or disability of the individual and another person with whom the individual or entity has a relationship or association.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.210" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.210   Nondiscrimination in the use of patient care decision support tools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General prohibition.</I> A covered entity must not discriminate on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, or disability in its health programs or activities through the use of patient care decision support tools.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identification of risk.</I> A covered entity has an ongoing duty to make reasonable efforts to identify uses of patient care decision support tools in its health programs or activities that employ input variables or factors that measure race, color, national origin, sex, age, or disability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mitigation of risk.</I> For each patient care decision support tool identified in paragraph (b) of this section, a covered entity must make reasonable efforts to mitigate the risk of discrimination resulting from the tool's use in its health programs or activities.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.211" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.3.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.211   Nondiscrimination in the delivery of health programs and activities through telehealth services.</HEAD>
<P>A covered entity must not, in delivery of its health programs and activities through telehealth services, discriminate on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, or disability.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.301" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.4.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.301   Enforcement mechanisms.</HEAD>
<P>The enforcement mechanisms available for and provided under title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, and the Age Discrimination Act of 1975 shall apply for purposes of section 1557 as implemented by this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.302" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.4.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.302   Notification of views regarding application of Federal religious freedom and conscience laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General application.</I> A recipient may rely on applicable Federal protections for religious freedom and conscience, and consistent with § 92.3(c), application of a particular provision(s) of this part to specific contexts, procedures, or health care services shall not be required where such protections apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assurance of religious freedom and conscience exemption.</I> A recipient that seeks assurance consistent with paragraph (a) of this section regarding the application of particular provision(s) of this part to specific contexts, procedures, or health care services may do so by submitting a notification in writing to the Director of OCR. Notification may be provided by the recipient at any time, including before an investigation is initiated or during the pendency of an investigation. The notification must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The particular provision(s) of this part from which the recipient asserts they are exempt under Federal religious freedom or conscience protections;
</P>
<P>(2) The legal basis supporting the recipient's exemption should include the standards governing the applicable Federal religious freedom and conscience protections, such as the provisions in the ACA itself; the Church, Coats-Snowe, and Weldon Amendments; the generally applicable requirements of the Religious Freedom Restoration Act (RFRA); or any other applicable Federal laws; and
</P>
<P>(3) The factual basis supporting the recipient's exemption, including identification of the conflict between the recipient's religious or conscience beliefs and the requirements of this part, which may include the specific contexts, procedures, or health care services that the recipient asserts will violate their religious or conscience beliefs overall or based on an individual patient matter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Temporary exemption.</I> A temporary exemption from administrative investigation and enforcement will take effect upon the recipient's submission of the notification—regardless of whether the assurance is sought before or during an investigation. The temporary exemption is limited to the application of the particular provision(s) in this part as applied to the specific contexts, procedures, or health care services identified in the notification to OCR.
</P>
<P>(1) If the notification is received before an investigation is initiated, within 30 days of receiving the notification, OCR must provide the recipient with email confirmation acknowledging receipt of the notification. OCR will then work expeditiously to reach a determination of recipient's notification request.
</P>
<P>(2) If the notification is received during the pendency of an investigation, the temporary exemption will exempt conduct as applied to the specific contexts, procedures, or health care services identified in the notification during the pendency of OCR's review and determination regarding the notification request. The notification shall further serve as a defense to the relevant investigation or enforcement activity regarding the recipient until the final determination of recipient's exemption assurance request or the conclusion of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of determination.</I> If OCR makes a determination to provide assurance of the recipient's exemption from the application of certain provision(s) of this part or that modified application of certain provision(s) is required, OCR will provide the recipient its determination in writing, and if granted, the recipient will be considered exempt from OCR's administrative investigation and enforcement with regard to the application of that provision(s) as applied to the specific contexts, procedures, or health care services provided. The determination does not otherwise limit the application of any other provision of this part to the recipient or to other contexts, procedures, or health care services.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appeal.</I> A recipient subject to an adverse determination of its request for an exemption assurance may appeal OCR's determination under the administrative procedures set forth at 45 CFR part 81. The temporary exemption provided for in paragraph (c) of this section will expire upon a final decision under 45 CFR part 81.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Final agency action.</I> A determination under this section is not final for purposes of judicial review until after a final decision under 45 CFR part 81.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.303" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.4.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.303   Procedures for health programs and activities conducted by recipients and State Exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedural provisions applicable to title VI apply with respect to administrative enforcement actions against health programs and activities of recipients and State Exchanges concerning discrimination on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, disability, or any combination thereof, under section 1557 or this part. These procedures are found at 45 CFR 80.6 through 80.11 and 45 CFR part 81.
</P>
<P>(b) If OCR receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate Federal Government entity.
</P>
<P>(c) When a recipient or State Exchange fails to provide OCR with requested information in a timely, complete, and accurate manner, OCR may, after attempting to reach voluntary resolution, find noncompliance with section 1557 or this part and initiate appropriate enforcement procedures, found at 45 CFR 80.8, including beginning the process for fund suspension or termination and taking other action authorized by law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 92.304" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.47.4.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 92.304   Procedures for health programs and activities administered by the Department.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedural provisions applicable to section 504 shall apply with respect to administrative enforcement actions against the Department, including Federally-facilitated Exchanges, concerning discrimination on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, age, disability, or any combination thereof, under section 1557 or this part. These procedures are found at 45 CFR 85.61 and 85.62. Where this section cross-references regulatory provisions that use the term “handicap,” the term “race, color, national origin, sex, age, or disability, or any combination thereof,” shall apply in its place.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department must permit access by OCR to its books, records, accounts, other sources of information, and facilities as may be pertinent to ascertain compliance with section 1557 or this part. Where any information required of the Department is in the exclusive possession of any other agency, institution or person, and the other agency, institution or person fails or refuses to furnish this information, the Department shall so certify and shall set forth what efforts it has made to obtain the information. Asserted considerations of privacy or confidentiality may not operate to bar OCR from evaluating or seeking to enforce compliance with section 1557 or this part. Information of a confidential nature obtained in connection with compliance evaluation or enforcement shall not be disclosed except where necessary under the law.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department must not intimidate, threaten, coerce, retaliate, or otherwise discriminate against any individual or entity for the purpose of interfering with any right or privilege secured by section 1557 or this part, or because such individual or entity has made a complaint, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding or hearing under section 1557 or this part. The identity of complainants must be kept confidential by OCR in accordance with applicable Federal law.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="93" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 93—NEW RESTRICTIONS ON LOBBYING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 319, Public Law 101-121 (31 U.S.C. 1352); (5 U.S.C. 301).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 6754, Feb. 26, 1990, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>See also Office of Management and Budget notice published at 54 FR 52306, December 20, 1989.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.100" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.100   Conditions on use of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No appropriated funds may be expended by the recipient of a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative ageement to pay any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with any of the following covered Federal actions: the awarding of any Federal contract, the making of any Federal grant, the making of any Federal loan, the entering into of any cooperative agreement, and the extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement shall file with that agency a certification, set forth in appendix A to this part, that the person has not made, and will not make, any payment prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a Federal contract, grant, loan, or a cooperative agreement shall file with that agency a disclosure form, set forth in appendix B to this part, if such person has made or has agreed to make any payment using nonappropriated funds (to include profits from any covered Federal action), which would be prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section if paid for with appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(d) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan shall file with that agency a statement, set forth in appendix A to this part, whether that person has made or has agreed to make any payment to influence or attempt to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with that loan insurance or guarantee.
</P>
<P>(e) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan shall file with that agency a disclosure form, set forth in appendix B to this part, if that person has made or has agreed to make any payment to influence or attempt to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with that loan insurance or guarantee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.105" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency,</I> as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(f), includes Federal executive departments and agencies as well as independent regulatory commissions and Government corporations, as defined in 31 U.S.C. 9101(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered Federal action</I> means any of the following Federal actions:
</P>
<P>(1) The awarding of any Federal contract;
</P>
<P>(2) The making of any Federal grant;
</P>
<P>(3) The making of any Federal loan;
</P>
<P>(4) The entering into of any cooperative agreement; and,
</P>
<P>(5) The extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<FP>Covered Federal action does not include receiving from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan. Loan guarantees and loan insurance are addressed independently within this part.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Federal contract</I> means an acquisition contract awarded by an agency, including those subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), and any other acquisition contract for real or personal property or services not subject to the FAR.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal cooperative agreement</I> means a cooperative agreement entered into by an agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal grant</I> means an award of financial assistance in the form of money, or property in lieu of money, by the Federal Government or a direct appropriation made by law to any person. The term does not include technical assistance which provides services instead of money, or other assistance in the form of revenue sharing, loans, loan guarantees, loan insurance, interest subsidies, insurance, or direct United States cash assistance to an individual.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal loan</I> means a loan made by an agency. The term does not include loan guarantee or loan insurance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Indian tribe</I> and <I>tribal organization</I> have the meaning provided in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450B). Alaskan Natives are included under the definitions of Indian tribes in that Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Influencing or attempting to influence</I> means making, with the intent to influence, any communication to or appearance before an officer or employee or any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with any covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loan guarantee</I> and <I>loan insurance</I> means an agency's guarantee or insurance of a loan made by a person.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Local government</I> means a unit of government in a State and, if chartered, established, or otherwise recognized by a State for the performance of a governmental duty, including a local public authority, a special district, an intrastate district, a council of governments, a sponsor group representative organization, and any other instrumentality of a local government.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Officer or employee of an agency</I> includes the following individuals who are employed by an agency:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual who is appointed to a position in the Government under title 5, U.S. Code, including a position under a temporary appointment;
</P>
<P>(2) A member of the uniformed services as defined in section 101(3), title 37, U.S. Code; 
</P>
<P>(3) A special Government employee as defined in section 202, title 18, U.S. Code; and,
</P>
<P>(4) An individual who is a member of a Federal advisory committee, as defined by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, title 5, U.S. Code appendix 2.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, company, association, authority, firm, partnership, society, State, and local government, regardless of whether such entity is operated for profit or not for profit. This term excludes an Indian tribe, tribal organization, or any other Indian organization with respect to expenditures specifically permitted by other Federal law.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Reasonable compensation</I> means, with respect to a regularly employed officer or employee of any person, compensation that is consistent with the normal compensation for such officer or employee for work that is not furnished to, not funded by, or not furnished in cooperation with the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Reasonable payment</I> means, with respect to professional and other technical services, a payment in an amount that is consistent with the amount normally paid for such services in the private sector.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Recipient</I> includes all contractors, subcontractors at any tier, and subgrantees at any tier of the recipient of funds received in connection with a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. The term excludes an Indian tribe, tribal organization, or any other Indian organization with respect to expenditures specifically permitted by other Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Regularly employed</I> means, with respect to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan, an officer or employee who is employed by such person for at least 130 working days within one year immediately preceding the date of the submission that initiates agency consideration of such person for receipt of such contract, grant, loan, cooperative agreement, loan insurance commitment, or loan guarantee commitment. An officer or employee who is employed by such person for less than 130 working days within one year immediately preceding the date of the submission that initiates agency consideration of such person shall be considered to be regularly employed as soon as he or she is employed by such person for 130 working days. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, a territory or possession of the United States, an agency or instrumentality of a State, and a multi-State, regional, or interstate entity having governmental duties and powers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.110" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.110   Certification and disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, with each submission that initiates agency consideration of such person for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Award of a Federal contract, grant, or cooperative agreement exceeding $100,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An award of a Federal loan or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan exceeding $150,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each person shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, upon receipt by such person of: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal contract, grant, or cooperative agreement exceeding $100,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal loan or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan exceeding $150,000,
</P>
<FP>unless such person previously filed a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</FP>
<P>(c) Each person shall file a disclosure form at the end of each calendar quarter in which there occurs any event that requires disclosure or that materially affects the accuracy of the information contained in any disclosure form previously filed by such person under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section. An event that materially affects the accuracy of the information reported includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A cumulative increase of $25,000 or more in the amount paid or expected to be paid for influencing or attempting to influence a covered Federal action; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A change in the person(s) or individual(s) influencing or attempting to influence a covered Federal action; or, 
</P>
<P>(3) A change in the officer(s), employee(s), or Member(s) contacted to influence or attempt to influence a covered Federal action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who requests or receives from a person referred to in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) A subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal contract; 
</P>
<P>(2) A subgrant, contract, or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal grant; 
</P>
<P>(3) A contract or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal loan exceeding $150,000; or, 
</P>
<P>(4) A contract or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal cooperative agreement,
</P>
<FP>shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, to the next tier above.
</FP>
<P>(e) All disclosure forms, but not certifications, shall be forwarded from tier to tier until received by the person referred to in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section. That person shall forward all disclosure forms to the agency.
</P>
<P>(f) Any certification or disclosure form filed under paragraph (e) of this section shall be treated as a material representation of fact upon which all receiving tiers shall rely. All liability arising from an erroneous representation shall be borne solely by the tier filing that representation and shall not be shared by any tier to which the erroneous representation is forwarded. Submitting an erroneous certification or disclosure constitutes a failure to file the required certification or disclosure, respectively. If a person fails to file a required certification or disclosure, the United States may pursue all available remedies, including those authorized by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code.
</P>
<P>(g) For awards and commitments in process prior to December 23, 1989, but not made before that date, certifications shall be required at award or commitment, covering activities occurring between December 23, 1989, and the date of award or commitment. However, for awards and commitments in process prior to the December 23, 1989 effective date of these provisions, but not made before December 23, 1989, disclosure forms shall not be required at time of award or commitment but shall be filed within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(h) No reporting is required for an activity paid for with appropriated funds if that activity is allowable under either subpart B or C.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Activities by Own Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.200" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.200   Agency and legislative liaison.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 93.100 (a), does not apply in the case of a payment of reasonable compensation made to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement if the payment is for agency and legislative liaison activities not directly related to a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, providing any information specifically requested by an agency or Congress is allowable at any time.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following agency and legislative liaison activities are allowable at any time only where they are not related to a specific solicitation for any covered Federal action:
</P>
<P>(1) Discussing with an agency (including individual demonstrations) the qualities and characteristics of the person's products or services, conditions or terms of sale, and service capabilities; and, 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical discussions and other activities regarding the application or adaptation of the person's products or services for an agency's use.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following agencies and legislative liaison activities are allowable only where they are prior to formal solicitation of any covered Federal action:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing any information not specifically requested but necessary for an agency to make an informed decision about initiation of a covered Federal action; 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical discussions regarding the preparation of an unsolicited proposal prior to its official submission; and, 
</P>
<P>(3) Capability presentations by persons seeking awards from an agency pursuant to the provisions of the Small Business Act, as amended by Public Law 95-507 and other subsequent amendments. 
</P>
<P>(e) Only those activities expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.205" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.205   Professional and technical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 93.100 (a), does not apply in the case of a payment of reasonable compensation made to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or an extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement if payment is for professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any bid, proposal, or application for that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or for meeting requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, <I>professional and technical services</I> shall be limited to advice and analysis directly applying any professional or technical discipline. For example, drafting of a legal document accompanying a bid or proposal by a lawyer is allowable. Similarly, technical advice provided by an engineer on the performance or operational capability of a piece of equipment rendered directly in the negotiation of a contract is allowable. However, communications with the intent to influence made by a professional (such as a licensed lawyer) or a technical person (such as a licensed accountant) are not allowable under this section unless they provide advice and analysis directly applying their professional or technical expertise and unless the advice or analysis is rendered directly and solely in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action. Thus, for example, communications with the intent to influence made by a lawyer that do not provide legal advice or analysis directly and solely related to the legal aspects of his or her client's proposal, but generally advocate one proposal over another are not allowable under this section because the lawyer is not providing professional legal services. Similarly, communications with the intent to influence made by an engineer providing an engineering analysis prior to the preparation or submission of a bid or proposal are not allowable under this section since the engineer is providing technical services but not directly in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(c) Requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving a covered Federal award include those required by law or regulation, or reasonably expected to be required by law or regulation, and any other requirements in the actual award documents.
</P>
<P>(d) Only those services expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.210" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.210   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>No reporting is required with respect to payments of reasonable compensation made to regularly employed officers or employees of a person.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Activities by Other than Own Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.300" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.300   Professional and technical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 93.100 (a), does not apply in the case of any reasonable payment to a person, other than an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a covered Federal action, if the payment is for professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any bid, proposal, or application for that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or for meeting requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) The reporting requirements in § 93.110 (a) and (b) regarding filing a disclosure form by each person, if required, shall not apply with respect to professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, <I>professional and technical services</I> shall be limited to advice and analysis directly applying any professional or technical discipline. For example, drafting or a legal document accompanying a bid or proposal by a lawyer is allowable. Similarly, technical advice provided by an engineer on the performance or operational capability of a piece of equipment rendered directly in the negotiation of a contract is allowable. However, communications with the intent to influence made by a professional (such as a licensed lawyer) or a technical person (such as a licensed accountant) are not allowable under this section unless they provide advice and analysis directly applying their professional or technical expertise and unless the advice or analysis is rendered directly and solely in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action. Thus, for example, communications with the intent to influence made by a lawyer that do not provide legal advice or analysis directly and solely related to the legal aspects of his or her client's proposal, but generally advocate one proposal over another are not allowable under this section because the lawyer is not providing professional legal services. Similarly, communications with the intent to influence made by an engineer providing an engineering analysis prior to the preparation or submission of a bid or proposal are not allowable under this section since the engineer is providing technical services but not directly in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(d) Requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving a covered Federal award include those required by law or regulation, or reasonably expected to be required by law or regulation, and any other requirements in the actual award documents.
</P>
<P>(e) Persons other than officers or employees of a person requesting or receiving a covered Federal action include consultants and trade associations.
</P>
<P>(f) Only those services expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Penalties and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.400" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.4.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.400   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who makes an expenditure prohibited herein shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> for each such expenditure.


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The amounts specified in this section are updated annually, as adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-140), as amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (section 701 of Pub. L. 114-74). Annually adjusted amounts are published at 45 CFR part 102.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Any person who fails to file or amend the disclosure form (see appendix B to this part) to be filed or amended if required herein, shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.
</P>
<P>(c) A filing or amended filing on or after the date on which an administrative action for the imposition of a civil penalty is commenced does not prevent the imposition of such civil penalty for a failure occurring before that date. An administrative action is commenced with respect to a failure when an investigating official determines in writing to commence an investigation of an allegation of such failure.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining whether to impose a civil penalty, and the amount of any such penalty, by reason of a violation by any person, the agency shall consider the nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation, the effect on the ability of such person to continue in business, any prior violations by such person, the degree of culpability of such person, the ability of the person to pay the penalty, and such other matters as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) First offenders under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty of $10,000, absent aggravating circumstances. Second and subsequent offenses by persons shall be subject to an appropriate civil penalty between $10,000 and $100,000, as determined by the agency head or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(f) An imposition of a civil penalty under this section does not prevent the United States from seeking any other remedy that may apply to the same conduct that is the basis for the imposition of such civil penalty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6754, Feb. 26, 1990, as amended at 81 FR 61565, Sept. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.405" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.4.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.405   Penalty procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Agencies shall impose and collect civil penalties pursuant to the provisions of the Program Fraud and Civil Remedies Act, 31 U.S.C. sections 3803 (except subsection (c)), 3804, 3805, 3806, 3807, 3808, and 3812, insofar as these provisions are not inconsistent with the requirements herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.410" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.4.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.410   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The head of each agency shall take such actions as are necessary to ensure that the provisions herein are vigorously implemented and enforced in that agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.500" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.5.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.500   Secretary of Defense.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of Defense may exempt, on a case-by-case basis, a covered Federal action from the prohibition whenever the Secretary determines, in writing, that such an exemption is in the national interest. The Secretary shall transmit a copy of each such written exemption to Congress immediately after making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of Defense may issue supplemental regulations to implement paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Agency Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.600" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.6.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.600   Semi-annual compilation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each agency shall collect and compile the disclosure reports (see appendix B to this part) and, on May 31 and November 30 of each year, submit to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives a report containing a compilation of the information contained in the disclosure reports received during the six-month period ending on March 31 or September 30, respectively, of that year.
</P>
<P>(b) The report, including the compilation, shall be available for public inspection 30 days after receipt of the report by the Secretary and the Clerk.
</P>
<P>(c) Information that involves intelligence matters shall be reported only to the Select Committee on Intelligence of the Senate, the Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence of the House of Representatives, and the Committees on Appropriations of the Senate and the House of Representatives in accordance with procedures agreed to by such committees. Such information shall not be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(d) Information that is classified under Executive Order 12356 or any successor order shall be reported only to the Committee on Foreign Relations of the Senate and the Committee on Foreign Affairs of the House of Representatives or the Committees on Armed Services of the Senate and the House of Representatives (whichever such committees have jurisdiction of matters involving such information) and to the Committees on Appropriations of the Senate and the House of Representatives in accordance with procedures agreed to by such committees. Such information shall not be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(e) The first semi-annual compilation shall be submitted on May 31, 1990, and shall contain a compilation of the disclosure reports received from December 23, 1989 to March 31, 1990.
</P>
<P>(f) Major agencies, designated by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), are required to provide machine-readable compilations to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives no later than with the compilations due on May 31, 1991. OMB shall provide detailed specifications in a memorandum to these agencies.
</P>
<P>(g) Non-major agencies are requested to provide machine-readable compilations to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives.
</P>
<P>(h) Agencies shall keep the originals of all disclosure reports in the official files of the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 93.605" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.6.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 93.605   Inspector General report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Inspector General, or other official as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, of each agency shall prepare and submit to Congress each year, commencing with submission of the President's Budget in 1991, an evaluation of the compliance of that agency with, and the effectiveness of, the requirements herein. The evaluation may include any recommended changes that may be necessary to strengthen or improve the requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an agency that does not have an Inspector General, the agency official comparable to an Inspector General shall prepare and submit the annual report, or, if there is no such comparable official, the head of the agency shall prepare and submit the annual report.
</P>
<P>(c) The annual report shall be submitted at the same time the agency submits its annual budget justifications to Congress.
</P>
<P>(d) The annual report shall include the following: All alleged violations relating to the agency's covered Federal actions during the year covered by the report, the actions taken by the head of the agency in the year covered by the report with respect to those alleged violations and alleged violations in previous years, and the amounts of civil penalties imposed by the agency in the year covered by the report.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.8.3.1.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 93—Certification Regarding Lobbying
</HEAD>
<HD2>Certification for Contracts, Grants, Loans, and Cooperative Agreements
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned certifies, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, that:
</P>
<P>(1) No Federal appropriated funds have been paid or will be paid, by or on behalf of the undersigned, to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of an agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with the awarding of any Federal contract, the making of any Federal grant, the making of any Federal loan, the entering into of any cooperative agreement, and the extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) If any funds other than Federal appropriated funds have been paid or will be paid to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with this Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement, the undersigned shall complete and submit Standard Form-LLL, “Disclosure Form to Report Lobbying,” in accordance with its instructions.
</P>
<P>(3) The undersigned shall require that the language of this certification be included in the award documents for all subawards at all tiers (including subcontracts, subgrants, and contracts under grants, loans, and cooperative agreements) and that all subrecipients shall certify and disclose accordingly.
</P>
<P>This certification is a material representation of fact upon which reliance was placed when this transaction was made or entered into. Submission of this certification is a prerequisite for making or entering into this transaction imposed by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code. Any person who fails to file the required certification shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> for each such failure.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The amounts specified in Appendix A to Part 93 are updated annually, as adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-140), as amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (section 701 of Pub. L. 114-74). Annually adjusted amounts are published at 45 CFR part 102.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>Statement for Loan Guarantees and Loan Insurance
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned states, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, that:
</P>
<P>If any funds have been paid or will be paid to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with this commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan, the undersigned shall complete and submit Standard Form-LLL, “Disclosure Form to Report Lobbying,” in accordance with its instructions.
</P>
<P>Submission of this statement is a prerequisite for making or entering into this transaction imposed by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code. Any person who fails to file the required statement shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6754, Feb. 26, 1990, as amended at 81 FR 61565, Sept. 6, 2016]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.48.8.3.1.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 93—Disclosure Form To Report Lobbying

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec01ja91.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec01ja91.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec01ja91.005.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="94" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.49" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 94—RESPONSIBLE PROSPECTIVE CONTRACTORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 216, 289b-1, 299c-4.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 53288, Aug. 25, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 94.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.49.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part promotes objectivity in research by establishing standards that provide a reasonable expectation that the design, conduct, and reporting of research performed under PHS contracts will be free from bias resulting from Investigator financial conflicts of interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.49.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part is applicable to each Institution that submits a proposal, or that receives, Public Health Service (PHS) research funding by means of a contract and, through the implementation of this part by the Institution, to each Investigator who is planning to participate in, or is participating in such research; provided, however, that this part does not apply to SBIR Program Phase I applications.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.49.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means an entity that provides property or services under contract for the direct benefit or use of the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>Disclosure of significant financial interests</I> means an Investigator's disclosure of significant financial interests to an Institution.
</P>
<P><I>Financial conflict of interest</I> (FCOI) means a significant financial interest that could directly and significantly affect the design, conduct, or reporting of PHS-funded research.
</P>
<P><I>FCOI report</I> means an Institution's report of a financial conflict of interest to a PHS Awarding Component.
</P>
<P><I>Financial interest</I> means anything of monetary value, whether or not the value is readily ascertainable.
</P>
<P><I>HHS</I> means the United States Department of Health and Human Services, and any components of the Department to which the authority involved may be delegated.
</P>
<P><I>Institution</I> means any domestic or foreign, public or private, entity or organization (excluding a Federal agency) that submits a proposal, or that receives, PHS research funding.
</P>
<P><I>Institutional responsibilities</I> means an Investigator's professional responsibilities on behalf of the Institution, and as defined by the Institution in its policy on financial conflicts of interest, which may include for example: activities such as research, research consultation, teaching, professional practice, institutional committee memberships, and service on panels such as Institutional Review Boards or Data and Safety Monitoring Boards.
</P>
<P><I>Investigator</I> means the project director or principal Investigator and any other person, regardless of title or position, who is responsible for the design, conduct, or reporting of research funded by the PHS, or proposed for such funding, which may include, for example, collaborators or consultants.
</P>
<P><I>Key personnel</I> includes the PD/PI and any other personnel considered to be essential to work performance in accordance with HHSAR subpart 352.242-70 and identified as key personnel in the contract proposal and contract.
</P>
<P><I>Manage</I> means taking action to address a financial conflict of interest, which can include reducing or eliminating the financial conflict of interest, to ensure, to the extent possible, that the design, conduct, and reporting of research will be free from bias.
</P>
<P><I>PD/PI</I> means a project director or principal Investigator of a PHS-funded research project; the PD/PI is included in the definitions of key personnel and Investigator under this part.
</P>
<P><I>PHS</I> means the Public Health Service of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, and any components of the PHS to which the authority involved may be delegated, including the National Institutes of Health (NIH).
</P>
<P><I>PHS Awarding Component</I> means the organizational unit of the PHS that funds the research that is subject to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Public Health Service Act</I> or <I>PHS Act</I> means the statute codified at 42 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Research</I> means a systematic investigation, study or experiment designed to develop or contribute to generalizable knowledge relating broadly to public health, including behavioral and social-sciences research. The term encompasses basic and applied research (e.g., a published article, book or book chapter) and product development (e.g., a diagnostic test or drug). As used in this part, the term includes any such activity for which research funding is available from a PHS Awarding Component through a contract, whether authorized under the PHS Act or other statutory authority.
</P>
<P><I>Significant financial interest</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A financial interest consisting of one or more of the following interests of the Investigator (and those of the Investigator's spouse and dependent children) that reasonably appears to be related to the Investigator's institutional responsibilities:
</P>
<P>(i) With regard to any publicly traded entity, a <I>significant financial interest</I> exists if the value of any remuneration received from the entity in the twelve months preceding the disclosure and the value of any equity interest in the entity as of the date of disclosure, when aggregated, exceeds $5,000. For purposes of this definition, remuneration includes salary and any payment for services not otherwise identified as salary (e.g., consulting fees, honoraria, paid authorship); equity interest includes any stock, stock option, or other ownership interest, as determined through reference to public prices or other reasonable measures of fair market value;
</P>
<P>(ii) With regard to any non-publicly traded entity, a <I>significant financial interest</I> exists if the value of any remuneration received from the entity in the twelve months preceding the disclosure, when aggregated, exceeds $5,000, or when the Investigator (or the Investigator's spouse or dependent children) holds any equity interest (e.g., stock, stock option, or other ownership interest); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Intellectual property rights and interests (e.g., patents, copyrights), upon receipt of income related to such rights and interests.
</P>
<P>(2) Investigators also must disclose the occurrence of any reimbursed or sponsored travel (<I>i.e.,</I> that which is paid on behalf of the Investigator and not reimbursed to the Investigator so that the exact monetary value may not be readily available), related to their Institutional responsibilities; provided, however, that this disclosure requirement does not apply to travel that is reimbursed or sponsored by a Federal, state, or local government agency, an Institution of higher education as defined at 20 U.S.C. 1001(a), an academic teaching hospital, a medical center, or a research institute that is affiliated with an Institution of higher education. The Institution's FCOI policy will specify the details of this disclosure, which will include, at a minimum, the purpose of the trip, the identity of the sponsor/organizer, the destination, and the duration. In accordance with the Institution's FCOI policy, the Institutional official(s) will determine if further information is needed, including a determination or disclosure of monetary value, in order to determine whether the travel constitutes an FCOI with the PHS-funded research.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>significant financial interest</I> does not include the following types of financial interests: salary, royalties, or other remuneration paid by the Institution to the Investigator if the Investigator is currently employed or otherwise appointed by the Institution, including intellectual property rights assigned to the Institution and agreements to share in royalties related to such rights; any ownership interest in the Institution held by the Investigator, if the Institution is a commercial or for-profit organization; income from investment vehicles, such as mutual funds and retirement accounts, as long as the Investigator does not directly control the investment decisions made in these vehicles; income from seminars, lectures, or teaching engagements sponsored by a Federal, state, or local government agency, an Institution of higher education as defined at 20 U.S.C. 1001(a), an academic teaching hospital, a medical center, or a research institute that is affiliated with an Institution of higher education; or income from service on advisory committees or review panels for a Federal, state, or local government agency, an Institution of higher education as defined at 20 U.S.C. 1001(a), an academic teaching hospital, a medical center, or a research institute that is affiliated with an Institution of higher education.
</P>
<P><I>Small Business Innovation Research</I> (SBIR) Program means the extramural research program for small businesses that is established by the Awarding Components of the Public Health Service and certain other Federal agencies under Public Law 97-219, the Small Business Innovation Development Act, as amended. For purposes of this part, the term SBIR Program also includes the Small Business Technology Transfer (STTR) Program, which was established by Public Law 102-564.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.49.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.4   Responsibilities of Institutions regarding Investigator financial conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>Each Institution shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Maintain an up-to-date, written, enforced policy on financial conflicts of interest that complies with this part, and make such policy available via a publicly accessible Web site. If the Institution does not have any current presence on a publicly accessible Web site (and only in those cases), the Institution shall make its written policy available to any requestor within five business days of a request. If, however, the Institution acquires a presence on a publicly accessible Web site during the time of the PHS award, the requirement to post the information on that Web site will apply within 30 calendar days. If an Institution maintains a policy on financial conflicts of interest that includes standards that are more stringent than this part (e.g., that require a more extensive disclosure of financial interests), the Institution shall adhere to its policy and shall provide FCOI reports regarding identified financial conflicts of interest to the PHS Awarding Component in accordance with the Institution's own standards and within the timeframe prescribed by this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Inform each Investigator of the Institution's policy on financial conflicts of interest, the Investigator's responsibilities regarding disclosure of significant financial interests, and of these regulations, and require each Investigator to complete training regarding the same prior to engaging in research related to any PHS-funded contract and at least every four years, and immediately when any of the following circumstances apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The Institution revises its financial conflict of interest policies or procedures in any manner that affects the requirements of Investigators;
</P>
<P>(2) An Investigator is new to an Institution; or
</P>
<P>(3) An Institution finds that an Investigator is not in compliance with the Institution's financial conflict of interest policy or management plan.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Institution carries out the PHS-funded research through a subrecipient (e.g., subcontractors, or consortium members), the Institution (awardee Institution) must take reasonable steps to ensure that any subrecipient Investigator complies with this part by
</P>
<P>(1) Incorporating as part of a written agreement with the subrecipient terms that establish whether the financial conflicts of interest policy of the awardee Institution or that of the subrecipient will apply to the subrecipient's Investigators.
</P>
<P>(i) If the subrecipient's Investigators must comply with the subrecipient's financial conflicts of interest policy, the subrecipient shall certify as part of the agreement referenced above that its policy complies with this part. If the subrecipient cannot provide such certification, the agreement shall state that subrecipient Investigators are subject to the financial conflicts of interest policy of the awardee Institution for disclosing significant financial interests that are directly related to the subrecipient's work for the awardee Institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Additionally, if the subrecipient's Investigators must comply with the subrecipient's financial conflicts of interest policy, the agreement referenced above shall specify time period(s) for the subrecipient to report all identified financial conflicts of interest to the awardee Institution. Such time period(s) shall be sufficient to enable the awardee Institution to provide timely FCOI reports, as necessary, to the PHS as required by this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) Alternatively, if the subrecipient's Investigators must comply with the awardee Institution's financial conflicts of interest policy, the agreement referenced above shall specify time period(s) for the subrecipient to submit all Investigator disclosures of significant financial interests to the awardee Institution. Such time period(s) shall be sufficient to enable the awardee Institution to comply timely with its review, management, and reporting obligations under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Providing FCOI reports to the PHS Awarding Component regarding all financial conflicts of interest of all subrecipient Investigators consistent with this part, <I>i.e.,</I> prior to the expenditure of funds and within 60 days of any subsequently identified FCOI.
</P>
<P>(d) Designate an institutional official(s) to solicit and review disclosures of significant financial interests from each Investigator who is planning to participate in, or is participating in, the PHS-funded research.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Require that each Investigator who is planning to participate in the PHS-funded research disclose to the Institution's designated official(s) the Investigator's significant financial interests (and those of the Investigator's spouse and dependent children) no later than date of submission of the Institution's proposal for PHS-funded research.
</P>
<P>(2) Require each Investigator who is participating in the PHS-funded research to submit an updated disclosure of significant financial interests at least annually, in accordance with the specific time period prescribed by the Institution, during the period of the award. Such disclosure shall include any information that was not disclosed initially to the Institution pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section, or in a subsequent disclosure of significant financial interests (e.g., any financial conflict of interest identified on a PHS-funded project that was transferred from another Institution), and shall include updated information regarding any previously disclosed significant financial interest (e.g., the updated value of a previously disclosed equity interest).
</P>
<P>(3) Require each Investigator who is participating in the PHS-funded research to submit an updated disclosure of significant financial interests within thirty days of discovering or acquiring (e.g., through purchase, marriage, or inheritance) a new significant financial interest.
</P>
<P>(f) Provide guidelines consistent with this part for the designated institutional official(s) to determine whether an Investigator's significant financial interest is related to PHS-funded research and, if so related, whether the significant financial interest is a financial conflict of interest. An Investigator's significant financial interest is related to PHS-funded research when the Institution, through its designated official(s), reasonably determines that the significant financial interest: Could be affected by the PHS-funded research; or is in an entity whose financial interest could be affected by the research. The Institution may involve the Investigator in the designated official(s)'s determination of whether a significant financial interest is related to the PHS-funded research. A financial conflict of interest exists when the Institution, through its designated official(s), reasonably determines that the significant financial interest could directly and significantly affect the design, conduct, or reporting of the PHS-funded research.
</P>
<P>(g) Take such actions as necessary to manage financial conflicts of interest, including any financial conflicts of a subrecipient Investigator pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. Management of an identified financial conflict of interest requires development and implementation of a management plan and, if necessary, a retrospective review and mitigation report pursuant to § 94.5(a).
</P>
<P>(h) Provide initial and ongoing FCOI reports to the PHS as required pursuant to § 94.5(b).
</P>
<P>(i) Maintain records relating to all Investigator disclosures of financial interests and the Institution's review of, and response to, such disclosures (whether or not a disclosure resulted in the Institution's determination of a financial conflict of interest), and all actions under the Institution's policy or retrospective review, if applicable, for at least three years from the date of final payment or, where applicable, for the time periods specified in 48 CFR part 4, subpart 4.7.
</P>
<P>(j) Establish adequate enforcement mechanisms and provide for employee sanctions or other administrative actions to ensure Investigator compliance as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(k) Certify, in each contract proposal to which this part applies, that the Institution:
</P>
<P>(1) Has in effect at that Institution an up-to-date, written, and enforced administrative process to identify and manage financial conflicts of interest with respect to all research projects for which funding is sought or received from the PHS;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall promote and enforce Investigator compliance with this part's requirements including those pertaining to disclosure of significant financial interests;
</P>
<P>(3) Shall manage financial conflicts of interest and provide initial and ongoing FCOI reports to the PHS Awarding Component consistent with this part;
</P>
<P>(4) Agrees to make information available, promptly upon request, to the HHS relating to any Investigator disclosure of financial interests and the Institution's review of, and response to, such disclosure, whether or not the disclosure resulted in the Institution's determination of a financial conflict of interest; and
</P>
<P>(5) Shall fully comply with the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.49.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.5   Management and reporting of financial conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Management of financial conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to the Institution's expenditure of any funds under a PHS-funded research project, the designated official(s) of an Institution shall, consistent with § 94.4(f): review all Investigator disclosures of significant financial interests; determine whether any significant financial interests relate to PHS-funded research; determine whether a financial conflict of interest exists; and, if so, develop and implement a management plan that shall specify the actions that have been, and shall be, taken to manage such financial conflict of interest. Examples of conditions or restrictions that might be imposed to manage a financial conflict of interest include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Public disclosure of financial conflicts of interest (e.g., when presenting or publishing the research);
</P>
<P>(ii) For research projects involving human subjects research, disclosure of financial conflicts of interest directly to participants;
</P>
<P>(iii) Appointment of an independent monitor capable of taking measures to protect the design, conduct, and reporting of the research against bias, resulting from the financial conflict of interest;
</P>
<P>(iv) Modification of the research plan;
</P>
<P>(v) Change of personnel or personnel responsibilities, or disqualification of personnel from participation in all or a portion of the research;
</P>
<P>(vi) Reduction or elimination of the financial interest (e.g., sale of an equity interest); or
</P>
<P>(vii) Severance of relationships that create financial conflicts.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever, in the course of an ongoing PHS-funded research project, an Investigator who is new to participating in the research project discloses a significant financial interest or an existing Investigator discloses a new significant financial interest to the Institution, the designated official(s) of the Institution shall, within sixty days: review the disclosure of the significant financial interest; determine whether it is related to PHS-funded research; determine whether a financial conflict of interest exists; and, if so, implement, on at least an interim basis, a management plan that shall specify the actions that have been, and will be, taken to manage such financial conflict of interest. Depending on the nature of the significant financial interest, an Institution may determine that additional interim measures are necessary with regard to the Investigator's participation in the PHS-funded research project between the date of disclosure and the completion of the Institution's review.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever an Institution identifies a significant financial interest that was not disclosed timely by an Investigator or, for whatever reason, was not previously reviewed by the Institution during an ongoing PHS-funded research project (e.g., was not timely reviewed or reported by a subrecipient), the designated official(s) shall, within sixty days: review the significant financial interest; determine whether it is related to PHS-funded research; determine whether a financial conflict of interest exists; and, if so:
</P>
<P>(i) Implement, on at least an interim basis, a management plan that shall specify the actions that have been, and will be, taken to manage such financial conflict of interest going forward;
</P>
<P>(ii) (A) In addition, whenever a financial conflict of interest is not identified or managed in a timely manner including failure by the Investigator to disclose a significant financial interest that is determined by the Institution to constitute a financial conflict of interest; failure by the Institution to review or manage such a financial conflict of interest; or failure by the Investigator to comply with a financial conflict of interest management plan, the Institution shall, within 120 days of the Institution's determination of noncompliance, complete a retrospective review of the Investigator's activities and the PHS-funded research project to determine whether any PHS-funded research, or portion thereof, conducted during the time period of the noncompliance, was biased in the design, conduct, or reporting of such research.
</P>
<P>(B) The Institution is required to document the retrospective review; such documentation shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, all of the following key elements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Project number;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Project title;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) PD/PI or contact PD/PI if a multiple PD/PI model is used;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Name of the Investigator with the FCOI;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Name of the entity with which the Investigator has a financial conflict of interest;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Reason(s) for the retrospective review;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Detailed methodology used for the retrospective review (e.g., methodology of the review process, composition of the review panel, documents reviewed);
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Findings of the review; and
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Conclusions of the review.
</P>
<P>(iii) Based on the results of the retrospective review, if appropriate, the Institution shall update the previously submitted FCOI report, specifying the actions that will be taken to manage the financial conflict of interest going forward. If bias is found, the Institution is required to notify the PHS Awarding Component promptly and submit a mitigation report to the PHS Awarding Component. The mitigation report must include, at a minimum, the key elements documented in the retrospective review above and a description of the impact of the bias on the research project and the Institution's plan of action or actions taken to eliminate or mitigate the effect of the bias (e.g., impact on the research project; extent of harm done, including any qualitative and quantitative data to support any actual or future harm; analysis of whether the research project is salvageable). Thereafter, the Institution will submit FCOI reports annually, as specified elsewhere in this part. Depending on the nature of the financial conflict of interest, an Institution may determine that additional interim measures are necessary with regard to the Investigator's participation in the PHS-funded research project between the date that the financial conflict of interest or the Investigator's noncompliance is determined and the completion of the Institution's retrospective review.
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever an Institution implements a management plan pursuant to this part, the Institution shall monitor Investigator compliance with the management plan on an ongoing basis until the completion of the PHS-funded research project.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Prior to the Institution's expenditure of any funds under a PHS-funded research project, the Institution shall ensure public accessibility, via a publicly accessible Web site or written response to any requestor within five business days of a request, of information concerning any significant financial interest disclosed to the Institution that meets the following three criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The significant financial interest was disclosed and is still held by key personnel as defined in this part;
</P>
<P>(B) The Institution determines that the significant financial interest is related to the PHS-funded research; and
</P>
<P>(C) The Institution determines that the significant financial interest is a financial conflict of interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) The information that the Institution makes available via a publicly accessible Web site or written response to any requestor within five business days of a request, shall include, at a minimum, the following: The Investigator's name; the Investigator's title and role with respect to the research project; the name of the entity in which the significant financial interest is held; the nature of the significant financial interest; and the approximate dollar value of the significant financial interest (dollar ranges are permissible: $0-$4,999; $5,000-$9,999; $10,000-$19,999; amounts between $20,000-$100,000 by increments of $20,000; amounts above $100,000 by increments of $50,000), or a statement that the interest is one whose value cannot be readily determined through reference to public prices or other reasonable measures of fair market value.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Institution uses a publicly accessible Web site for the purposes of this subsection, the information that the Institution posts shall be updated at least annually. In addition, the Institution shall update the Web site within sixty days of the Institution's receipt or identification of information concerning any additional significant financial interest of the senior/key personnel for the PHS-funded research project that was not previously disclosed, or upon the disclosure of a significant financial interest of senior/key personnel new to the PHS-funded research project, if the Institution determines that the significant financial interest is related to the PHS-funded research and is a financial conflict of interest. The Web site shall note that the information provided is current as of the date listed and is subject to updates, on at least an annual basis and within 60 days of the Institution's identification of a new financial conflict of interest. If the Institution responds to written requests for the purposes of this subsection, the Institution will note in its written response that the information provided is current as of the date of the correspondence and is subject to updates, on at least an annual basis and within 60 days of the Institution's identification of a new financial conflict of interest, which should be requested subsequently by the requestor.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information concerning the significant financial interests of an individual subject to paragraph (a)(5) of this section shall remain available, for responses to written requests or for posting via the Institution's publicly accessible Web site for at least three years from the date that the information was most recently updated.
</P>
<P>(6) In addition to the types of financial conflicts of interest as defined in this part that must be managed pursuant to this section, an Institution may require the management of other financial conflicts of interest in its policy on financial conflicts of interest, as the Institution deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Reporting of financial conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to the Institution's expenditure of any funds under a PHS-funded research project, the Institution shall provide to the PHS Awarding Component an FCOI report regarding any Investigator's significant financial interest found by the Institution to be conflicting and ensure that the Institution has implemented a management plan in accordance with this part. In cases in which the Institution identifies a financial conflict of interest and eliminates it prior to the expenditure of PHS-awarded funds, the Institution shall not submit an FCOI report to the PHS Awarding Component.
</P>
<P>(2) For any significant financial interest that the Institution identifies as conflicting subsequent to the Institution's initial FCOI report during an ongoing PHS-funded research project (e.g., upon the participation of an Investigator who is new to the research project), the Institution shall provide to the PHS Awarding Component, within sixty days, an FCOI report regarding the financial conflict of interest and ensure that the Institution has implemented a management plan in accordance with this part. Pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, where such FCOI report involves a significant financial interest that was not disclosed timely by an Investigator or, for whatever reason, was not previously reviewed or managed by the Institution (e.g., was not timely reviewed or reported by a subrecipient), the Institution also is required to complete a retrospective review to determine whether any PHS-funded research, or portion thereof, conducted prior to the identification and management of the financial conflict of interest was biased in the design, conduct, or reporting of such research. Additionally, pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, if bias is found, the Institution is required to notify the PHS Awarding Component promptly and submit a mitigation report to the PHS Awarding Component.
</P>
<P>(3) Any FCOI report required under paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section shall include sufficient information to enable the PHS Awarding Component to understand the nature and extent of the financial conflict, and to assess the appropriateness of the Institution's management plan. Elements of the FCOI report shall include, but are not necessarily limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Project/Contract number;
</P>
<P>(ii) PD/PI or Contact PD/PI if a multiple PD/PI model is used;
</P>
<P>(iii) Name of the Investigator with the financial conflict of interest;
</P>
<P>(iv) Name of the entity with which the Investigator has a financial conflict of interest;
</P>
<P>(v) Nature of the financial interest (e.g., equity, consulting fee, travel reimbursement, honorarium);
</P>
<P>(vi) Value of the financial interest (dollar ranges are permissible: $0-$4,999; $5,000-$9,999; $10,000-$19,999; amounts between $20,000-$100,000 by increments of $20,000; amounts above $100,000 by increments of $50,000), or a statement that the interest is one whose value cannot be readily determined through reference to public prices or other reasonable measures of fair market value;
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of how the financial interest relates to the PHS-funded research and the basis for the Institution's determination that the financial interest conflicts with such research; and
</P>
<P>(viii) A description of the key elements of the Institution's management plan, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Role and principal duties of the conflicted Investigator in the research project;
</P>
<P>(B) Conditions of the management plan;
</P>
<P>(C) How the management plan is designed to safeguard objectivity in the research project;
</P>
<P>(D) Confirmation of the Investigator's agreement to the management plan;
</P>
<P>(E) How the management plan will be monitored to ensure Investigator compliance; and
</P>
<P>(F) Other information as needed.
</P>
<P>(4) For any financial conflict of interest previously reported by the Institution with regard to an ongoing PHS-funded research project, the Institution shall provide to the PHS Awarding Component an annual FCOI report that addresses the status of the financial conflict of interest and any changes to the management plan for the duration of the PHS-funded research project. The annual FCOI report shall specify whether the financial conflict is still being managed or explain why the financial conflict of interest no longer exists. The Institution shall provide annual FCOI reports to the PHS Awarding Component for the duration of the project period (including extensions with or without funds) in the time and manner specified by the PHS Awarding Component.
</P>
<P>(5) In addition to the types of financial conflicts of interest as defined in this part that must be reported pursuant to this section, an Institution may require the reporting of other financial conflicts of interest in its policy on financial conflicts of interest, as the Institution deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 94.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.49.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 94.6   Remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the failure of an Investigator to comply with an Institution's financial conflicts of interest policy or a financial conflict of interest management plan appears to have biased the design, conduct, or reporting of the PHS-funded research, the Institution shall promptly notify the PHS Awarding Component of the corrective action taken or to be taken. The PHS Awarding Component will consider the situation and, as necessary, take appropriate action, or refer the matter to the Institution for further action, which may include directions to the Institution on how to maintain appropriate objectivity in the PHS-funded research project.
</P>
<P>(b) The PHS Awarding Component and/or HHS may inquire at any time (before, during, or after award) into any Investigator disclosure of financial interests and the Institution's review of, and response to, such disclosure, regardless of whether or not the disclosure resulted in the Institution's determination of a financial conflict of interest. An Institution is required to submit, or permit on site review of, all records pertinent to compliance with this part. To the extent permitted by law, HHS will maintain the confidentiality of all records of financial interests. On the basis of its review of records or other information that may be available, the PHS Awarding Component may decide that a particular financial conflict of interest will bias the objectivity of the PHS-funded research to such an extent that further corrective action is needed or that the Institution has not managed the financial conflict of interest in accordance with this part. The PHS Awarding Component may determine that issuance of a Stop Work Order by the Contracting Officer or other enforcement action is necessary until the matter is resolved.
</P>
<P>(c) In any case in which the HHS determines that a PHS-funded project of clinical research whose purpose is to evaluate the safety or effectiveness of a drug, medical device, or treatment has been designed, conducted, or reported by an Investigator with a financial conflict of interest that was not managed or reported by the Institution as required by this part, the Institution shall require the Investigator involved to disclose the financial conflict of interest in each public presentation of the results of the research and to request an addendum to previously published presentations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="95" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 95—GENERAL ADMINISTRATION—GRANT PROGRAMS (PUBLIC ASSISTANCE, MEDICAL ASSISTANCE AND STATE CHILDREN'S HEALTH INSURANCE PROGRAMS)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 42 U.S.C. 622(b), 629b(a), 652(a), 652(d), 654A, 671(a), 1302, and 1396a(a).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Time Limits for States To File Claims</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 3529, Jan. 15, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 95.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart establishes a two year time limit (15 months in some cases) for a State to claim Federal financial participation in expenditures under State plans approved under the following titles of the Social Security Act:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Title I—Grants to States for Old-Age Assistance and Medical Assistance for the Aged.
</P>
<FP-1>Title IV-A—Grants to States for Aid and Services to Needy Families with Dependent Children (except for Section 402(a)(19)(G) of the Act).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Title IV-B—Child Welfare Services.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Title IV-D—Child Support and Establishment of Paternity.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Title IV-E—Foster Care and Adoption Assistance.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Title X—Grants to States for Aid to the Blind.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Title XIV—Grants to States for Aid to the Permanently and Totally Disabled.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Title XVI—Grants to States for Aid to the Aged, Blind, or Disabled (AABD), or for Such Aid and Medical Assistance for the Aged.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Title XIX—Grants to States for Medical Assistance Programs.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Title XX—Grants to States for Services.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Title XXI—Grants to States for State Children's Health Insurance Programs.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) This subpart also applies to claims for Federal financial participation by any State which are based on any provision of the Act that is enacted after issuance of these regulations and that provides, on an entitlement basis, for Federal financial participation in expenditures made under State plans or programs.
</P>
<P>(c) This subpart explains under what conditions the Secretary may decide to extend the time limit for filing claims when a State believes it has good cause for not meeting the time limit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 3529, Jan. 15, 1981, as amended at 65 FR 33632, May 24, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Adjustment to prior year costs</I> means an adjustment in the amount of a particular cost item that was previously claimed under an interim rate concept and for which it is later determined that the cost is greater or less than that originally claimed.
</P>
<P><I>Audit exception</I> means a proposed adjustment by the responsible Federal agency to any expenditure claimed by a State by virtue of an audit.
</P>
<P><I>Claim</I> means a request for Federal financial participation in the manner and format required by our program regulations, and instructions or directives issued thereunder.
</P>
<P><I>Court-ordered retroactive payment</I> means either a retroactive payment the State makes to an assistance recipient or an individual, under a Federal or State court order or a retroactive payment we make to a State under a Federal court order. Although we may accept these claims as timely, this provision does not mean that we necessarily agree to be bound by a State or Federal decision when we were not a party to the action.
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial participation</I> means the Federal government's share of an expenditure made by a State agency under any of the programs listed in § 95.1.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, Guam, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa and the Trust Territories of the Pacific. 
</P>
<P><I>State agency</I> for the purposes of expenditures for financial assistance under title IV-A and for support enforcement services under title IV-D means any agency or organization of the State or local government which is authorized to incur matchable expenses; for purposes of expenditures under titles XIX and XXI, means any agency of the State, including the State Medicaid agency or State Child Health Agency, its fiscal agents, a State health agency, or any other State or local organization which incurs matchable expenses; for purposes of expenditures under all other titles, see the definitions in the appropriate program's regulations. 
</P>
<P><I>The Act</I> means the Social Security Act, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>We, our,</I> and <I>us</I> refer to the HHS Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), and Administration for Children and Families (ACF), depending on the program involved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 3529, Jan. 15, 1981, as amended at 65 FR 33632, May 24, 2000; 75 FR 66336, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.7   Time limit for claiming payment for expenditures made after September 30, 1979.</HEAD>
<P>Under the programs listed in § 95.1, we will pay a State for a State agency expenditure made after September 30, 1979, only if the State files a claim with us for that expenditure within 2 years after the calendar quarter in which the State agency made the expenditure. Section 95.19 lists the exceptions to this rule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.10   Time limit for claiming payment for expenditures made before October 1, 1979.</HEAD>
<P>Under the programs listed in § 95.1, we will pay a State for a State agency expenditure made before October 1, 1979, only if the State filed or files a claim with us for that expenditure before January 1, 1981. Section 95.19 lists the exceptions to this rule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.11   Payment of claims subject to appropriations restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision of this Subpart, we will pay States' otherwise allowable claims for Federal financial participation under the programs covered by this subpart, subject to the availability of funds (as provided in Acts appropriating funds to the Department in effect at the time in which such claims are being considered for payment), and subject to conditions or restrictions applicable to payments out of such funds, including provisions of the first and second continuing resolutions for FY 1981 (Pub. L. 96-369 and Pub. L. 96-536) and the Supplemental Appropriations and Rescission Act, 1981 (Pub. L. 97-12) that make funds under those Acts available to pay for a State agency expenditure made before September 30, 1978, only if the State had filed a claim for that expenditure with us within one year of the expenditure.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Pub. L. 96-369, 94 Stat. 1351; Pub. L. 96-536, 94 Stat. 3166; and Pub. L. 97-12, 95 Stat. 14)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 46136, Sept. 17, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.13   In which quarter we consider an expenditure made.</HEAD>
<P>In this subpart—
</P>
<P>(a) We consider a State agency's expenditure for assistance payments under title I, IV-A, IV-E, X, XIV, or XVI (AABD) to have been made in the quarter in which a payment was made to the assistance recipient, his or her protective payee, or a vendor payee, even if the payment was for a month in a previous quarter.
</P>
<P>(b) We consider a State agency's expenditure for services under title I, IV-A, IV-B, IV-D, IV-E, X, XIV, XVI (AABD) , XIX, or XXI to have been made in the quarter in which any State agency made a payment to the service provider. 
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of title XX, the date of expenditure is governed by 45 CFR 1396.52(d).
</P>
<P>(d) We consider a State agency's expenditure for administration or training under titles I, IV-A, IV-B, IV-D, IV-E, X, XIV, XVI (AABD), XIX, or XXI to have been made in the quarter payment was made by a State agency to a private agency or individual; or in the quarter to which the costs were allocated in accordance with the regulations for each program. We consider a State agency's expenditure under these titles for non-cash expenditures such as depreciation to have been made in the quarter the expenditure was recorded in the accounting records of any State agency in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 3529, Jan. 15, 1981, as amended at 65 FR 33632, May 24, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.19" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.19   Exceptions to time limits.</HEAD>
<P>The time limits in §§ 95.7 and 95.10 do not apply to any of the following—
</P>
<P>(a) Any claim for an adjustment to prior year costs.
</P>
<P>(b) Any claim resulting from an audit exception.
</P>
<P>(c) Any claim resulting from a court-ordered retroactive payment.
</P>
<P>(d) Any claim for which the Secretary decides there was good cause for the State's not filing it within the time limit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.22   Meaning of good cause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Good cause for the late filing of a claim is lateness due to circumstances beyond the State's control. 
</P>
<P>(b) Examples of circumstances beyond the State's control include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Acts of God;
</P>
<P>(2) Documented action or inaction of the Federal government. 
</P>
<P>(c) Circumstances beyond the State's control do not include neglect or administrative inadequacy on the part of the State, State agencies, the State legislature or any of their offices, officers, or employees. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.25" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.25   When to request a waiver for good cause.</HEAD>
<P>The State should request a waiver in writing as soon as the State recognizes that it will be unable to submit a claim within the appropriate time limit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.28" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.28   What a waiver request for good cause must include.</HEAD>
<P>The State's request for waiver must include a specific explanation, justification or documentation of why the claim is or will be late. This request must establish that the lateness in filing the claim is for good cause as defined in § 95.22 and not due to neglect or administrative inadequacy. If the claim has not been filed, the State must also tell us when the claim will be filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.31   Where to send a waiver request for good cause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A request which affects the program(s) of only one HHS agency, CMS or ACF and does not affect the programs of any other agency or Federal Department should be sent to the appropriate HHS agency.
</P>
<P>(b) A request which affects programs of more than one HHS agency or Federal Department should be sent to the Director, Division of Cost Allocation in the appropriate HHS Regional Office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 3529, Jan. 15, 1981, as amended at 75 FR 66336, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.1.7.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.34   The decision to waive the time limit for good cause.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary will make a decision after reviewing the State's request for waiver. If the Secretary decides that good cause exists, the State will be notified of the extended due date. If the Secretary decides that good cause does not exist or that the request for waiver does not provide enough information to make a decision, the State will be so advised. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts B-D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Cost Allocation Plans</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 17509, Apr. 23, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 95.501" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.3.7.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.501   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes requirements for:
</P>
<P>(a) Preparation, submission, and approval of State agency cost allocation plans for public assistance programs; and
</P>
<P>(b) Adherence to approved cost allocation plans in computing claims for Federal financial participation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.503" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.3.7.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.503   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to all State agency costs applicable to awards made under titles I, IV-A, IV-B, IV-C, IV-D, IV-E, X, XIV, XVI (AABD), XIX, and XXI, of the Social Security Act, and under the Refugee Act of 1980, title IV, Chapter 2 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1521 <I>et seq.</I>), and under title V of Pub. L. 96-422, the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 33633, May 24, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.505" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.3.7.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.505   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>State agency costs</I> include all costs incurred by or allocable to the State agency except expenditures for financial assistance, medical vendor payments, and payments for services and goods provided directly to program recipients such as day care services, family planning services or household items as provided for under the approved State program plan.
</P>
<P><I>Cost allocation plan</I> means a narrative description of the procedures that the State agency will use in identifying, measuring, and allocating all State agency costs incurred in support of all programs administered or supervised by the State agency.
</P>
<P><I>FFP</I> or <I>Federal financial participation</I> means the Federal Government's share of expenditures made by a State agency under any of the programs cited in § 95.503.
</P>
<P><I>Operating Divisions</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) organizational components responsible for administering public assistance programs. These components are the Administration for Children and Families (ACF) and the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS).
</P>
<P><I>Public assistance programs</I> means the programs cited in § 95.503.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, the Northern Mariana Islands, and Guam.
</P>
<P><I>State agency</I> means the State agency administering or supervising the administration of the State plan for any program cited in § 95.503. A State agency may be an organizational part of a larger State department that also contains other components and agencies. Where that occurs, the expression <I>State agency</I> refers to the specific component or agency within the State department that is directly responsible for the administration of, or supervising the administration of, one or more programs identified in § 95.503.
</P>
<P><I>State Plan</I> means a comprehensive written commitment by the State agency to administer or supervise the administration of any of the public assistance programs cited in § 95.503 in accordance with all Federal requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 17509, Apr. 23, 1982, as amended at 75 FR 66336, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.507" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.3.7.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.507   Plan requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State shall submit a cost allocation plan for the State agency as required below to the Director, Division of Cost Allocation (DCA), in the approporiate HHS Regional Office. The plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the procedures used to identify, measure, and allocate all costs to each of the programs operated by the State agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Conform to the accounting principles and standards prescribed in Office of Management and Budget Circular A-87, and other pertinent Department regulations and instructions;
</P>
<P>(3) Be compatible with the State plan for public assistance programs described in 45 CFR Chapter II, III and XIII, and 42 CFR Chapter IV Subchapters C and D; and
</P>
<P>(4) Contain sufficient information in such detail to permit the Director, Division of Cost Allocation, after consulting with the Operating Divisions, to make an informed judgment on the correctness and fairness of the State's procedures for identifying, measuring, and allocating all costs to each of the programs operated by the State agency.
</P>
<P>(b) The cost allocation plan shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) An organizational chart showing the placement of each unit whose costs are charged to the programs operated by the State agency.
</P>
<P>(2) A listing of all Federal and all non-Federal programs performed, administered, or serviced by these organizational units.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the activities performed by each organizational unit and, where not self-explanatory an explanation of the benefits provided to Federal programs.
</P>
<P>(4) The procedures used to identify, measure, and allocate all costs to each benefiting program and activity (including activities subject to different rates of FFP).
</P>
<P>(5) The estimated cost impact resulting from the proposed changes to a previously approved plan. These estimated costs are required solely to permit an evaluation of the procedures used for identifying, measuring, and allocating costs. Therefore, approval of the cost allocation plan shall not constitute approval of these estimated costs for use in calculating claims for FFP. Where it is impractical to obtain this data, an alternative approach should then be negotiated with the Director, DCA, prior to submission of the cost allocation plan.
</P>
<P>(6) A statement stipulating that wherever costs are claimed for services provided by a governmental agency outside the State agency, that they will be supported by a written agreement that includes, at a minimum (i) the specific service(s) being purchased, (ii) the basis upon which the billing will be made by the provider agency (e.g. time reports, number of homes inspected, etc.) and (iii) a stipulation that the billing will be based on the actual cost incurred. This statement would not be required if the costs involved are specifically addressed in a State-wide cost allocation plan, local-wide cost allocation plan, or an umbrella/department cost allocation plan.
</P>
<P>(7) If the public assistance programs are administered by local government agencies under a State supervised system, the overall State agency cost allocation plan shall also include a cost allocation plan for the local agencies. It shall be developed in accordance with the requirements set forth above. More than one local agency plan shall be submitted if the accounting systems or other conditions at the local agencies preclude an equitable allocation of costs by the submission of a single plan for all local agencies. Prior to submitting multiple plans for local agencies, the State should consult with the Director, DCA. Where more than one local agency plan is submitted, the State shall identify the specific local agencies covered by each plan.
</P>
<P>(8) A certification by a duly authorized official of the State stating:
</P>
<P>(i) That the information contained in the proposed cost allocation plan was prepared in conformance with Office of Management and Budget Circular A-87.
</P>
<P>(ii) That the costs are accorded consistent treatment through the application of generally accepted accounting principles appropriate to the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(iii) That an adequate accounting and statistical system exists to support claims that will be made under the cost allocation plan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) That the information provided in support of the proposed cost allocation plan is accurate.
</P>
<P>(9) Other information as is necessary to establish the validity of the procedures used to identify, measure, and allocate costs to all programs being operated by the State agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 17509, Apr. 23, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 33633, May 24, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.509" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.3.7.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.509   Cost allocation plan amendments and certifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State shall promptly amend the cost allocation plan and submit the amended plan to the Director, DCA if any of the following events occur:
</P>
<P>(1) The procedures shown in the existing cost allocation plan become outdated because of organizational changes, changes in Federal law or regulations, or significant changes in program levels, affecting the validity of the approved cost allocation procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) A material defect is discovered in the cost allocation plan by the Director, DCA or the State.
</P>
<P>(3) The State plan for public assistance programs is amended so as to affect the allocation of costs.
</P>
<P>(4) Other changes occur which make the allocation basis or procedures in the approval cost allocation plan invalid.
</P>
<P>(b) If a State has not submitted a plan or plan amendment during a given State fiscal year, an annual statement shall be submitted to the Director, DCA certifying that its approved cost allocation plan is not outdated. This statement shall be submitted within 60 days after the end of that fiscal year. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.511" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.3.7.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.511   Approval of the cost allocation plan or plan amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, DCA, after consulting with the affected Operating Divisions, shall notify the State in writing of his/her findings. This notification will be made within 60 days after receipt of the proposed plan or amendment and shall either: (1) Advise the State that the plan or plan amendment is approved or disapproved, (2) advise the State of the changes required to make the plan or amendment acceptable, or (3) request the State to provide additional information needed to evaluate the proposed plan or amendment. If the DCA cannot make a determination within the 60-day period, it shall so advise the State.
</P>
<P>(b) For purpose of this subpart, State agency cost allocation plans which have been approved by an authorized official of the Department of HHS prior to the effective date of this regulation are considered approved until such time as a new plan or plan amendment is required by § 95.509(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.515" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.3.7.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.515   Effective date of a cost allocation plan amendment.</HEAD>
<P>As a general rule, the effective date of a cost allocation plan amendment shall be the first day of the calendar quarter following the date of the event that required the amendment (See § 95.509). However, the effective date of the amendment may be earlier or later under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) An earlier date is needed to avoid a significant inequity to either the State or the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) The information provided by the State which was used to approve a previous plan or plan amendment is later found to be materially incomplete or inaccurate, or the previously approved plan is later found to violate a Federal statute or regulation. In either situation, the effective date of any required modification to the plan will be the same as the effective date of the plan or plan amendment that contained the defect.
</P>
<P>(c) It is impractical for the State to implement the amendment on the first day of the next calendar quarter. In these instances, a later date may be established by agreement between the State and the DCA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.517" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.3.7.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.517   Claims for Federal financial participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A State must claim FFP for costs associated with a program only in accordance with its approved cost allocation plan. However, if a State has submitted a plan or plan amendment for a State agency, it may, at its option claim FFP based on the proposed plan or plan amendment, unless otherwise advised by the DCA. However, where a State has claimed costs based on a proposed plan or plan amendment the State, if necessary, shall retroactively adjust its claims in accordance with the plan or amendment as subsequently approved by the Director, DCA. The State may also continue to claim FFP under its existing approved cost allocation plan for all costs not affected by the proposed amendment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.519" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.3.7.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.519   Cost disallowance.</HEAD>
<P>If costs under a Public Assistance program are not claimed in accordance with the approved cost allocation plan (except as otherwise provided in § 95.517), or if the State failed to submit an amended cost allocation plan as required by § 95.509, the costs improperly claimed will be disallowed. 
</P>
<P>(a)(1) If the issue affects the program(s) of only one Operating Division and does not affect the programs of other Operating Divisions or Federal departments, that Operating Division will determine the amount of the disallowance and will also inform the State of its opportunity for reconsideration of the determination in accordance with the Operating Division's procedures. Prior to issuing the notification, however, the Operating Division shall consult with the DCA to ensure that the issue does not affect the programs of other Operating Divisions or Federal departments.
</P>
<P>(2) If the State wishes to request a reconsideration of the Operating Division's determination, it must submit the request in accordance with the Operating Division's procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) If the issue affects the programs of more than one Operating Division, or Federal department or the State, the Director, DCA, after consulting with the Operating Divisions, shall determine the amount inappropriately claimed under each program. The Director, DCA will notify the State of this determination, of the dollar affect of the determination on the claims made under each program, and will inform the State of its opportunity for appeal of the determination under 45 CFR part 16. The State will subsequently be notified by the appropriate Operating Division as to the disposition of the funds in question. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 17509, Apr. 23, 1982, as amended at 62 FR 38218, July 17, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Automatic Data Processing Equipment and Services—Conditions for Federal Financial Participation (FFP)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 45326, Dec. 18, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.601" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.7.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.601   Scope and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes part of the conditions under which the Department of Health and Human Services will approve the Federal Financial Participation (FFP) at the applicable rates for the costs of automated data processing incurred under an approved State plan for titles IV-B, IV-D, IV-E, XIX or XXI of the Social Security Act. The conditions of approval of this subpart add to the statutory and regulatory requirements for acquisition of Automated Data Processing (ADP) equipment and services under the specified titles of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 66336, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.605" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.7.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.605   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, the term: 
</P>
<P><I>Acceptance documents</I> means a record of satisfactory completion of an approved phase of work or contract, and acceptance thereof by the State agency. 
</P>
<P><I>Acquisition</I> means acquiring ADP equipment or services from commercial sources or from State or local government resources. 
</P>
<P><I>Acquisition Checklist</I> means the standard Department checklist that States can submit to meet prior written approval requirements instead of submitting the actual Request for Proposal (RFP), contracts or contract amendments. The Acquisition Checklist allows States to self-certify that their acquisition documents, which include RFPs, contracts, contract amendments or similar documents, meet State and Federal procurement requirements, contain appropriate language about software ownership and licensing rights in compliance with § 95.617, and provide access to documentation in compliance with § 95.615.
</P>
<P><I>Advance Planning Document (APD),</I> Initial advance automated data processing planning or Initial APD means a recorded plan of action to request funding approval for a project which will require the use of ADP service or equipment. The term APD refers to a Planning APD, or to a planning and/or development and implementation action document, i.e., Implementation APD, or to an Advance Planning Document Update. Requirements are detailed in § 95.610, paragraphs (a), (b), and (c). 
</P>
<P><I>Advance Planning Document Update (APDU)</I> is a document or record submitted annually (Annual APDU) to report project status and/or post implementation cost-savings, or, on an as-needed (As-Needed APDU) basis, to request funding approval for project continuation when significant project changes are anticipated; for incremental funding authority and project continuation when approval is being granted by phase; or to provide detailed information on project and/or budget activities as specified in § 95.610(c).
</P>
<P><I>Alternative approach to APD requirements</I> means that the State has developed an APD that does not meet all conditions for APD approval in § 95.610, resulting in the need for a waiver under § 95.627(a).
</P>
<P><I>Automated data processing</I> or <I>ADP</I> means data processing performed by a system of electronic or electrical machines so interconnected and interacting as to minimize the need for human assistance or intervention.
</P>
<P><I>Automated data processing equipment</I> or <I>ADP equipment</I> or <I>Hardware</I> means automatic equipment that accepts and stores data, performs calculations and other processing steps, and produces information. This includes: 
</P>
<P>(a) Electronic digital computers;
</P>
<P>(b) Peripheral or auxiliary equipment used in support of electronic computers;
</P>
<P>(c) Data transmission or communications equipment, and
</P>
<P>(d) Data input equipment.
</P>
<P>Automatic Data Processing Services or ADP Services means:
</P>
<P>(a) Services to operate ADP equipment, either by agency, or by State or local organizations other than the State agency; and/or
</P>
<P>(b) Services provided by private sources or by employees of the State agency or by State and local organizations other than the State agency to perform such tasks as feasibility studies, system studies, system design efforts, development of system specifications, system analysis, programming, system conversion and system implementation and include, for example, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Systems Training,
</P>
<P>(2) Systems Development,
</P>
<P>(3) Site Preparation,
</P>
<P>(4) Data Entry, and
</P>
<P>(5) Personal services related to automated systems development and operations that are specifically identified as part of a <I>Planning ADP</I> or <I>Implementation ADP.</I> As an example, a personal service would be the service of an <I>expert individual</I> to provide advice on the use of ADP software or hardware in developing a State automated management information system.
</P>
<P><I>Base contract</I> means the initial contractual activity, including all option years, allowed during a defined unit of time, for example, 2 years. The base contract includes option years but does not include amendments.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS) software</I> means proprietary software products that are ready-made and available for sale to the general public at established catalog or market prices.
</P>
<P><I>Data processing</I> means the preparation of source media containing data or basic elements of information and the use of such source media according to precise rules or procedures to accomplish such operations as classifying, sorting, calculating, summarizing, recording and transmitting.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Service.
</P>
<P><I>Design</I> or <I>system design</I> means a combination of narrative and diagrams describing the structure of a new or more efficient automatic data processing system. This includes the use of hardware to the extent necessary for the design phase.
</P>
<P><I>Development</I> means the definition of system requirements, detailing of system and program specifications, programming and testing. This includes the use of hardware to the extent necessary for the development phase.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency situation</I> is defined as a situation where:
</P>
<P>(a) A State can demonstrate to the Department an immediate need to acquire ADP equipment or services in order to continue the operation of one or more of the Social Security Act programs covered by Subpart F, and 
</P>
<P>(b) The State can clearly document that the need could not have been anticipated or planned for and the State was prevented from following the prior approval requirements of § 95.611.
</P>
<P><I>Enhanced matching rate</I> means the higher than regular rate of FFP authorized by Title IV-D, IV-E, and XIX of the Social Security Act for acquisition of services and equipment that conform to specific requirements designed to improve administration of the Child Support Enforcement, Foster Care and Adoption Assistance, and Medicaid programs. 
</P>
<P><I>Enhancement</I> means modifications which change the functions of software and hardware beyond their original purposes, not just to correct errors or deficiencies which may have been present in the software or hardware, or to improve the operational performance of the software or hardware.
</P>
<P><I>Feasibility study</I> means a preliminary study to determine whether it is sufficiently probable that effective and efficient use of ADP equipment or systems can be made to warrant a substantial investment of staff, time, and money being requested and whether the plan is capable of being accomplished successfully.
</P>
<P><I>Federal program office</I> means the Federal program office within the Department that is authorized to approve requests for the acquisition of ADP equipment or ADP services. The Federal program offices within the Administration for Children and Families (ACF) are the Children's Bureau for titles IV-B (child welfare services) and IV-E (foster care and adoption assistance), the Office of Child Support Enforcement for title IV-D (child support enforcement), and the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) for titles XIX (Medicaid) and XXI (the Children's Health Insurance Program) of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P><I>FFP</I> means Federal financial participation.
</P>
<P><I>Functional Requirements Specification</I> is defined as an initial definition of the proposed system, which documents the goals, objectives, user or programmatic requirements, management requirements, the operating environment, and the proposed design methodology, e.g., centralized or distributed. This document details what the new system and or hardware should do, not how it is to do it. The Specifications document shall be based upon a clear and accurate description of the functional requirements for the project, and shall not, in competitive procurements, lead to requirements which unduly restrict competition. The Specification document is the user's definition of the requirements the system must meet.
</P>
<P><I>General Systems Design</I> means a combination of narrative and graphic description of the generic architecture of a system as opposed to the detailed architecture of the system. A general systems design would include a systems diagram and narrative identifying overall logic flow and systems functions; a description of equipment needed (including processing data transmission and storage requirements); a description of other resource requirements which will be necessary to operate the system; a description of system performance requirements; and a description of the physical and organizational environment in which the system will operate including how the system will function within that environment (e.g. how workers will interface with the system).
</P>
<P><I>Grantee</I> means an organization receiving financial assistance directly from an HHS awarding agency to carry out a project or program.
</P>
<P><I>Independent Verification and Validation—(IV&amp;V)</I> means a well-defined standard process for examining the organizational, management, and technical aspects of a project to determine the effort's adherence to industry standards and best practices, to identify risks, and make recommendations for remediation, where appropriate.
</P>
<P><I>Implementation APD</I> means a recorded plan of action to request Federal Financial Participation (FFP) in the costs of designing, developing, and implementing the system.
</P>
<P><I>Independent Verification and Validation—(IV&amp;V)</I> means a well-defined standard process for examining the organizational, management, and technical aspects of a project to determine the effort's adherence to industry standards and best practices, to identify risks, and make recommendations for remediation, where appropriate.
</P>
<P><I>Installation</I> means the integrated testing of programs and subsystems, system conversion, and turnover to operation status. This includes the use of hardware to the extent necessary for the installation phase.
</P>
<P><I>Medicaid Management Information System (MMIS)</I> is a commonly accepted term for <I>Mechanized Claim Processing and Information Retrieval System</I> as provided by Section 1903(a)(3) and 1903(r) of the Social Security Act and at 42 CFR 433.110 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Noncompetitive</I> means solicitation of a proposal from only one source, or after solicitation of a number of sources, negotiation with selected sources based on a finding that competition is inadequate.
</P>
<P><I>Operational APD</I>—An operational APD is a record of no more than two pages to be submitted annually by State programs whose system is not in development. The Operational APD provides a short summary of the activities, method of acquisition, and annual budget for operations and software maintenance.
</P>
<P><I>Operation</I> means the automated processing of data used in the administration of State plans for titles I, IV-A, IV-B, IV-D, IV-E, X, XIV, XVI(AABD), XIX, and XXI of the Social Security Act. Operation includes the use of supplies, software, hardware, and personnel directly associated with the functioning of the mechanized system. See 45 CFR 205.38 and 307.10 for specific requirements for titles IV-A and IV-D, and 42 CFR 433.112 and 42 CFR 433.113 for specific requirements for title XIX.
</P>
<P><I>Project</I> means a defined set of information technology related tasks, undertaken by the State to improve the efficiency, economy and effectiveness of administration and/or operation of one or more of its human services programs. For example, a State may undertake a comprehensive, integrated initiative in support of its Child Support, Child Welfare and Medicaid program's intake, eligibility and case management functions. A project may also be a less comprehensive activity such as office automation, enhancements to an existing system or an upgrade of computer hardware.
</P>
<P><I>Regular matching rate</I> means the normal rate of FFP authorized by titles IV-A, IV-B, IV-D, IV-E, X, XIV, XVI(AABD), XIX, and XXI of the Social Security Act for State and local agency administration of programs authorized by those titles. 
</P>
<P><I>Requirements Analysis</I> means determining and documenting the information needs and the functional and technical requirements the proposed computerized system must meet.
</P>
<P><I>Service agreement</I> means the document signed by the State or local agency and the State or local Central Data Processing facility whenever the latter provides data processing services to the former and:
</P>
<P>(a) Identifies those ADP services the Central Data Processing facility will provide;
</P>
<P>(b) Includes, preferably as an amendable attachment, a schedule of charges for each identified ADP service, and a certification that these charges apply equally to all users;
</P>
<P>(c) Includes a description of the method(s) of accounting for the services rendered under the agreement and computing services charges;
</P>
<P>(d) Includes assurances that services provided will be timely and satisfactory; preferably through a service level agreement;
</P>
<P>(e) Includes assurances that information in the computer system as well as access, use and disposal of ADP data will be safeguarded in accordance with provisions of all applicable federal statutes and regulations, including §§ 205.50 and 307.13;
</P>
<P>(f) Requires the provider to obtain prior approval pursuant to § 95.611(a) from the Department for ADP equipment and ADP services that are acquired from commercial sources primarily to support the titles covered by this subpart and requires the provider to comply with § 95.613 for procurements related to the service agreement. ADP equipment and services are considered to be primarily acquired to support the titles covered by this subpart when the human service programs may reasonably be expected to either: be billed for more than 50 percent of the total charges made to all users of the ADP equipment and services during the time period covered by the service agreement, or directly charged for the total cost of the purchase or lease of ADP equipment or services;
</P>
<P>(g) Includes the beginning and ending dates of the period of time covered by the service agreement; and
</P>
<P>(h) Includes a schedule of expected total charges to the title covered by this subpart for the period of the service agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Service Oriented Architecture (SOA),</I> also referred to as <I>Service Component Based Architecture,</I> describes a means of organizing and developing Information Technology capabilities as collaborating services that interact with each other based on open standards. Agency SOA artifacts may include models, approach documents, inventories of services or other descriptive documents.
</P>
<P><I>Software</I> means a set of computer programs, procedures, and associated documentation used to operate the hardware.
</P>
<P><I>Software maintenance</I> means routine support activities that normally include corrective, adaptive, and perfective changes, without introducing additional functional capabilities. Corrective changes are tasks to correct minor errors or deficiencies in software. Adaptive changes are minor revisions to existing software to meet changing requirements. Perfective changes are minor improvements to application software so it will perform in a more efficient, economical, and/or effective manner. Software maintenance can include activities such as revising/creating new reports, making limited data element/data base changes, and making minor alterations to data input and display screen designs.
</P>
<P><I>State agency</I> means the State agency administering or supervising the administration of the State plan under titles I, IV, X, XIV, XVI(AABD), XIX or XXI of the Social Security Act. 
</P>
<P><I>System specifications</I> means information about the new ADP system—such as workload descriptions, input data, information to be maintained and processed, data processing techniques, and output data—which is required to determine the ADP equipment and software necessary to implement the system design.
</P>
<P><I>System study</I> means the examination of existing information flow and operational procedures within an organization. The study essentially consists of three basic phases: Data gathering investigation of the present system and new information requirements; analysis of the data gathered in the investigation; and synthesis, or refitting of the parts and relationships uncovered through the analysis into an efficient system.
</P>
<P><I>Total Acquisition Cost</I> means all anticipated expenditures (including State staff costs) for planning and implementation for the project. For purposes of this regulation total acquisition cost and project cost are synonymous.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 45326, Dec. 18, 1986, as amended at 55 FR 4375, Feb. 7, 1990, 59 FR 30708, June 15, 1994; 65 FR 33633, May 24, 2000; 75 FR 66336, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Specific Conditions for FFP</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.610" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.610   Submission of advance planning documents.</HEAD>
<P>Advance Planning Document (APD) refers to an Initial advance automated data processing planning document or Initial APD, providing a recorded plan of action to request funding approval for a project which will require the use of ADP services or equipment, including the use of shared or purchased services in lieu of State acquired stand-alone resources. Requirements are detailed in paragraph (a), (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Planning APD.</I> (1) A separate planning effort and Planning APD is optional, but highly recommended, and generally applies to large statewide system developments and/or major hardware acquisitions. States with large, independent counties requesting funding at the regular match rate for county systems are strongly encouraged to engage in planning activities commensurate with the complexity of the projected ADP project and to submit a Planning APD to allow for time and to provide funding for its planning activities. Therefore, States must consider the scope and complexity of a project to determine whether to submit a Planning APD as a separate document to HHS or whether to combine the two phases of planning and implementation into one APD covering both the Planning APD and the Implementation APD requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) The Planning APD is a relatively brief document, usually not more than 6-10 pages, which must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the problem/need that the existing capabilities can not resolve, new or changed program requirements or opportunities for improved economies and efficiencies and effectiveness of program and administration and operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) A project management plan that addresses the planning project organization, planning activities/deliverables, State and contractor resource needs, planning project procurement activities and schedule;
</P>
<P>(iii) A specific budget for the planning phase of the project;
</P>
<P>(iv) An estimated total project cost and a prospective State and Federal cost allocation/distribution, including planning and implementation;
</P>
<P>(v) A commitment to conduct/prepare the problem(s) needs assessment, feasibility study, alternatives analysis, cost benefit analysis, and to develop a Functional Requirements Specification and/or a General Systems Design (GSD);
</P>
<P>(vi) A commitment to define the State's functional requirements, based on the State's business needs which may be used for the purpose of evaluating the transfer of an existing system, including the transfer of another State's General System Design that the State may adapt to meet State specific requirements;
</P>
<P>(vii) Additional Planning APD content requirements, for enhanced funding projects as contained in § 307.15 and §§ 1355.50 through 1355.57; and
</P>
<P>(viii) An acquisition summary for the upcoming year or development phase that provides the following information on proposed acquisitions:
</P>
<P>(A) Type and scope of contract
</P>
<P>(B) Procurement strategy
</P>
<P>(C) Estimated cost or not to exceed amount
</P>
<P>(D) Timeframe of contract
</P>
<P>(E) A statement or certification that the proposed acquisition will comply with all State and Federal requirements including the retention of software ownership rights specified in § 95.617.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation APD.</I> The Implementation APD shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The results of the activities conducted under a Planning APD, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of problems/needs and outcomes/objectives;
</P>
<P>(3) A requirements analysis, feasibility study and a statement of alternative considerations including, where appropriate, the use of service-orientated architecture and a transfer of an existing system and an explanation of why such a transfer is not feasible if another alternative is identified;
</P>
<P>(4) A cost benefit analysis;
</P>
<P>(5) A personnel resource statement indicating availability of qualified and adequate numbers of staff, including a project director to accomplish the project objectives;
</P>
<P>(6) A detailed description of the nature and scope of the activities to be undertaken and the methods to be used to accomplish the project;
</P>
<P>(7) The proposed activity schedule for the project;
</P>
<P>(8) A proposed budget (including an accounting of all possible Implementation APD activity costs, e.g., system conversion, vendor and state personnel, computer capacity planning, supplies, training, hardware, software and miscellaneous ADP expenses) for the project;
</P>
<P>(9) A statement indicating the duration the State expects to use the equipment and/or system;
</P>
<P>(10) An estimate of the prospective cost allocation/distribution to the various State and Federal funding sources and the proposed procedures for distributing costs;
</P>
<P>(11) A statement setting forth the security and interface requirements to be employed and the system failure and disaster recovery/business continuity procedures available or to be implemented; and
</P>
<P>(12) Additional requirements, for acquisitions for which the State is requesting enhanced funding, as contained at § 307.15 and 42 CFR subchapter C, part 433 or funding for title IV-E agencies as contained at § 1355.52(i) of this title.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advance Planning Document Update (APDU).</I> (1) The Annual APDU, which is due 60 days prior to the expiration of the FFP approval, includes:
</P>
<P>(i) A reference to the approved APD and all approved changes;
</P>
<P>(ii) A project activity report which includes the status of the past year's major project tasks and milestones, addressing the degree of completion and tasks/milestones remaining to be completed, and discusses past and anticipated problems or delays in meeting target dates in the approved APD and approved changes to it and provides a risk management plan that assesses project risk and identifies risk mitigation strategies;
</P>
<P>(iii) A report of all project deliverables completed in the past year and degree of completion for unfinished products and tasks;
</P>
<P>(iv) An updated project activity schedule for the remainder of the project;
</P>
<P>(v) A revised budget for the entirety of the project's life-cycle, including operational and development cost categories;
</P>
<P>(vi) A project expenditures report that consists of a detailed accounting of all expenditures for project development over the past year and an explanation of the differences between projected expenses in the approved APD and actual expenditures for the past year;
</P>
<P>(vii) A report of any approved or anticipated changes to the allocation basis in the APD's approved cost allocation methodology; and
</P>
<P>(viii) An acquisition summary for the upcoming year or development phase that provides the following information on proposed acquisitions:
</P>
<P>(A) Type and scope of contract
</P>
<P>(B) Procurement strategy
</P>
<P>(C) Estimated cost or not to exceed amount
</P>
<P>(D) Timeframe of contract
</P>
<P>(E) A statement or certification that the proposed acquisition will comply with all State and Federal requirements including the retention of software ownership rights specified in § 95.617.
</P>
<P>(2) The As-Needed APDU is a document that requests approval for additional funding and/or authority for project continuation when significant changes are anticipated, when the project is being funded on a phased implementation basis, or to clarify project information requested as an approval condition of the Planning APD, Annual APDU, or Implementation APD. The As-Needed APDU may be submitted any time as a stand-alone funding or project continuation request, or may be submitted as part of the Annual APDU. The As-Needed APDU is submitted:
</P>
<P>(i) When the State anticipates incremental project expenditures (exceeding specified thresholds);
</P>
<P>(ii) When the State anticipates a schedule extension of more than 60 days for major milestones;
</P>
<P>(iii) When the State anticipates major changes in the scope of its project, e.g., a change in its procurement plan, procurement activities, system concept or development approach;
</P>
<P>(iv) When the State anticipates significant changes to its cost distribution methodology or distribution of costs among Federal programs; and/or,
</P>
<P>(v) When the State anticipates significant changes to its cost benefit projections. The As-Needed APDU shall provide supporting documentation to justify the need for a change to the approved budget.
</P>
<P>(vi) Changes to the acquisition summary in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(A) Type and scope of contract
</P>
<P>(B) Procurement strategy
</P>
<P>(C) Estimated cost or not to exceed amount
</P>
<P>(D) Timeframe of contract
</P>
<P>(E) A statement or certification that the proposed acquisition will comply with all State and Federal requirements including the retention of software ownership rights specified in § 95.617.
</P>
<P>(F) New acquisitions not summarized in the Annual APDU.
</P>
<P>(3) The Operational Advance Planning Document Update (OAPDU<I>)</I> is an annual submission of no more than two pages, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Summary of activities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquisitions; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) Annual budget by project/system receiving funding through the programs covered under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 66337, Oct. 28, 2010, as amended at 81 FR 35479, June 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.611" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.611   Prior approval conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General acquisition requirements.</I> (1) A State shall obtain prior approval from the Department which is reflected in a record, as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, when the State plans to acquire ADP equipment or services with proposed FFP at the regular matching rate that it anticipates will have total acquisition costs of $5,000,000 or more in Federal and State funds. States will be required to submit an Operational APDU only if they exceed the threshold requiring Federal approval, and only upon the receipt of a submission request, which is reflected in a record, from the Department. See definition of software maintenance under § 95.605.
</P>
<P>(2) A State must obtain prior approval from the Department which is reflected in a record, as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, when the State plans to acquire ADP equipment or services with proposed FFP at the enhanced matching rate subject to one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If authorized by § 205.35 of this title and part 307 of this title, regardless of the acquisition cost.
</P>
<P>(ii) If authorized by 42 CFR part 433, subpart C, if the contract is anticipated to or will exceed $500,000.
</P>
<P>(3) A State shall obtain prior approval from the Department, which is reflected in a record, for a sole source/non-competitive acquisition, of ADP equipment or services with a total State and Federal acquisition cost of $1,000,000 or more.
</P>
<P>(4) Except as provided for in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the State shall submit multi-program requests for Department approval, signed by the appropriate State official, to the Department's Secretary or his/her designee. For each HHS agency that has federal funding participation in the project, an additional copy must be provided to the applicable Federal program office and respective Regional Offices.
</P>
<P>(5) States shall submit requests for approval which affect only one approving component of HHS (CMS, OCSE, or Children's Bureau), to the applicable Federal program office and Regional Administrator.
</P>
<P>(6) The Department will not approve any Planning or Implementation APD that does not include all information required in § 95.610.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prior approval requirements.</I> The State agency shall obtain written approval of the Department prior to the initiation of project activity.
</P>
<P>(1) For regular FFP requests. 
</P>
<P>(i) For the Planning APD subject to the dollar thresholds specified in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For the Implementation APD subject to the dollar thresholds specified in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) For acquisition documents, an exemption from prior Federal prior approval shall be assumed in the approval of the Planning, Annual or As-Needed APDU provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The acquisition summary provides sufficient detail to base an exemption request;
</P>
<P>(B) The acquisition does not deviate from the terms of the exemption; and
</P>
<P>(C) The acquisition is not the initial acquisition for a high risk activity, such as software application development. Acquisitions, whether exempted from prior Federal approval or not, must comply with the Federal provisions contained in § 95.610(c)(1)(viii) or (c)(2)(vi) or submit an Acquisition Checklist.
</P>
<P>(iv) For noncompetitive acquisitions, including contract amendments, when the resulting contract is anticipated to exceed $1,000,000, States will be required to submit a sole source justification in addition to the acquisition document. The sole source justification can be provided as part of the Planning, Annual or As-Needed APDU.
</P>
<P>(v) If the State does not opt for an exemption or submittal of an Acquisition Checklist for the contract, prior to the execution, the State will be required to submit the contract when it is anticipated to exceed the following thresholds, unless specifically exempted by the Department:
</P>
<P>(A) Software application development—$6,000,000 or more (competitive) and $1,000,000 or more (noncompetitive);
</P>
<P>(B) Hardware and Commercial Off-the-Shelf (COTS) software—$20,000,000 or more (competitive) and $1,000,000 or more (noncompetitive);
</P>
<P>(C) Operations and Software Maintenance acquisitions combined with hardware, COTS or software application development—the thresholds stated in § 95.611(b)(1)(v)(A) and (B) apply.
</P>
<P>(vi) For contract amendments within the scope of the base contract, unless specifically exempted by the Department, prior to execution of the contract amendment involving contract cost increases which cumulatively exceed 20 percent of the base contract cost.
</P>
<P>(2) For enhanced FFP requests. 
</P>
<P>(i) For the Planning APD. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For the Implementation APD. 
</P>
<P>(iii) For the acquisition solicitation documents and contract, unless specifically exempted by the Department, prior to release of the acquisition solicitation documents or prior to execution of the contract when the contract is anticipated to or will exceed $500,000.
</P>
<P>(iv) For contract amendments, unless specifically exempted by the Department, prior to execution of the contract amendment, involving contract cost increases exceeding $500,000 or contract time extensions of more than 60 days. 
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to submit any of the above to the satisfaction of the Department may result in disapproval or suspension of project funding. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific approval requirements.</I> The State agency shall obtain written approval from the Department: 
</P>
<P>(1) For regular FFP requests. 
</P>
<P>(i) For an annual APDU for projects with a total cost of more than $5,000,000, and projects with a total estimated cost of less than $5,000,000 only if requested by the Department.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an “As Needed APDU” when changes cause any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A projected cost increase of $1,000,000 or more.
</P>
<P>(B) A schedule extension of more than 60 days for major milestones; 
</P>
<P>(C) A significant change in procurement approach, and/or scope of procurement activities beyond that approved in the APD; 
</P>
<P>(D) A change in system concept, or a change to the scope of the project; 
</P>
<P>(E) A change to the approved cost allocation methodology.
</P>
<FP>The State shall submit the “As Needed APDU” to the Department, no later than 60 days after the occurrence of the project changes to be reported in the “As Needed APDU”. 
</FP>
<P>(2) For enhanced FFP requests. 
</P>
<P>(i) For an Annual APDU. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For an “As needed” APDU when changes cause any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) A projected cost increase of $300,000 or 10 percent of the project cost, whichever is less; 
</P>
<P>(B) A schedule extension of more than 60 days for major milestones. For Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC) Family Assistance Management Information System (FAMIS)-type projects, in accordance with section 402(e)(2)(C) of the Social Security Act, any schedule change which affects the State's implementation date as specified in the approved APD requires that the Department recover 40 percent of the amount expended. The Secretary may extend the implementation date, if the implementation date is not met because of circumstances beyond the State's control. Examples of circumstances beyond the State's control are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Equipment failure due to physical damage or destruction; or, 
</P>
<P>(2) Change imposed by Federal judicial decisions, or by Federal legislation or regulations; 
</P>
<P>(C) A significant change in procurement approach, and/or a scope of procurement activities beyond that approved in the APD; 
</P>
<P>(D) A change in system concept or scope of the project; 
</P>
<P>(E) A change to the approved cost methodology; 
</P>
<P>(F) A change of more than 10% of estimated cost benefits.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>The State shall submit the “As Needed APDU” to the Department, no later than 60 days after the occurrence of the project changes to be reported in the “As Needed APDU”.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Failure to submit any of the above to the satisfaction of the Department may result in disapproval or suspension of project funding. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prompt action on requests for prior approval.</I> The Department will promptly send to the approving Federal program offices the items specified in paragraph (b) of this section. If the Department has not provided approval, disapproval, or a request for information which is reflected in a record, within 60 days of the date of the Departmental letter acknowledging receipt of a State's request, the Department will consider the request to have provisionally met the prior approval conditions of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Acquisitions not subject to prior approval.</I> If the Department has not specifically requested in a record, the submittal of additional acquisition documentation for those acquisitions summarized in the APD, the approval of the Planning, Annual or As-Needed APDU will constitute an exemption of the acquisition documents from prior Federal approval. States will be required to submit acquisition documents, contracts and contract amendments under the threshold amounts on an exception basis if requested to do so in a record by the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 45326, Dec. 18, 1986, as amended at 55 FR 4377, Feb. 7, 1990; 56 FR 12356, Mar. 25, 1991; 59 FR 30708, June 15, 1994; 61 FR 39897, July 31, 1996; 75 FR 66338, Oct. 28, 2010; 80 FR 75843, Dec. 4, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.612" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.612   Disallowance of Federal Financial Participation (FFP).</HEAD>
<P>If the Department finds that any ADP acquisition approved or modified under the provisions of § 95.611 fails to comply with the criteria, requirements, and other activities described in the approved APD to the detriment of the proper, efficient, economical and effective operation of the affected program, payment of FFP may be disallowed. In the case of a suspension of the approval of a Child Support APD for enhanced funding, <I>see</I> § 307.40(a). In the case of a suspension of the approval of an APD for a Comprehensive Child Welfare Information System (CCWIS) project and, if applicable the transitional project that preceded it, <I>see</I> § 1355.58 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 66339, Oct. 28, 2010, as amended at 81 FR 35479, June 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.613" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.613   Procurement standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Procurements of ADP equipment and services are subject to the procurement standards prescribed by 2 CFR parts 200 and 300 regardless of any conditions for prior approval. The Department retains the authority to provide greater oversight including requiring a State to comply with 2 CFR 200.319 if the Department determines that the State procurement process is an impediment to competition that could substantially impact project cost or risk of failure.
</P>
<P>(b) Those standards, as well as the requirement for prior approval, apply to ADP services and equipment acquired by a State or local agency, and the ADP services and equipment acquired by a State or local Central Data Processing facility primarily to support the Social Security Act programs covered by this subpart. Service agreements are exempt from these procurement standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 45326, Dec. 18, 1986, as amended at 75 FR 66339, Oct. 28, 2010; 81 FR 3020, Jan. 20, 2016; 89 FR 80071, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.615" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.615   Access to systems and records.</HEAD>
<P>The State agency must allow the Department access to the system in all of its aspects, including pertinent state staff, design developments, operation, and cost records of contractors and subcontractors at such intervals as are deemed necessary by the Department to determine whether the conditions for approval are being met and to determine the efficiency, economy and effectiveness of the system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 66340, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.617" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.617   Software and ownership rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The State or local government must include a clause in all procurement instruments that provides that the State or local government will have all ownership rights in software or modifications thereof and associated documentation designed, developed or installed with Federal financial participation under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal license.</I> The Department reserves a royalty-free, nonexclusive, and irrevocable license to reproduce, publish, or otherwise use and to authorize others to use for Federal Government purposes, such software, modifications, and documentation.
</P>
<P>(c) Proprietary software. Proprietary operating/vendor software packages which are provided at established catalog or market prices and sold or leased to the general public shall not be subject to the ownership provisions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. FFP is not available for proprietary applications software developed specifically for the public assistance programs covered under this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 45326, Dec. 18, 1986, as amended at 75 FR 66340, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.619" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.619   Use of ADP systems.</HEAD>
<P>ADP systems designed, developed, or installed with FFP shall be used for a period of time specified in the advance planning document, unless the Department determines that a shorter period is justified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.621" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.621   ADP reviews.</HEAD>
<P>The Department will conduct periodic onsite surveys and reviews of State and local agency ADP methods and practices to determine the adequacy of such methods and practices and to assure that ADP equipment and services are utilized for the purposes consistent with proper and efficient administration under the Act. Where practical, the Department will develop a mutually acceptable schedule between the Department and State or local agencies prior to conducting such surveys or reviews, which may include but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-installation readiness.</I> A pre-installation survey including an onsite evaluation of the physical site and the agency's readiness to productively use the proposed ADP services, equipment or system when installed and operational. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Post-installation.</I> A review conducted after installation of ADP equipment or systems to assure that the objectives for which FFP was approved are being accomplished. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Utilization.</I> A continuing review of ADP facilities to determine whether or not the ADP equipment or services are being efficiently utilized in support of approved programs or projects. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acquisitions not subject to prior approval.</I> Reviews will be conducted on an audit basis to assure that system and equipment acquisitions costing less than $200,000 or acquisitions exempted from prior approval were made in accordance with 2 CFR parts 200 and 300 and the conditions of this subpart and to determine the efficiency, economy and effectiveness of the equipment or service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>State Agency Maintenance of Service Agreements.</I> The State agency will maintain a copy of each service agreement in its files for Federal review.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ADP System Security Requirements and Review Process</I>—(1) <I>ADP System Security Requirement.</I> State agencies are responsible for the security of all ADP projects under development, and operational systems involved in the administration of HHS programs. State agencies shall determine the appropriate ADP security requirements based on recognized industry standards or standards governing security of Federal ADP systems and information processing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ADP Security Program.</I> State ADP Security requirements shall include the following components:
</P>
<P>(i) Determination and implementation of appropriate security requirements as specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishment of a security plan and, as appropriate, policies and procedures to address the following area of ADP security:
</P>
<P>(A) Physical security of ADP resources;
</P>
<P>(B) Equipment security to protect equipment from theft and unauthorized use;
</P>
<P>(C) Software and data security;
</P>
<P>(D) Telecommunications security;
</P>
<P>(E) Personnel security;
</P>
<P>(F) Contingency plans to meet critical processing needs in the event of short or long-term interruption of service;
</P>
<P>(G) Emergency preparedness; and,
</P>
<P>(H) Designation of an Agency ADP Security Manager.
</P>
<P>(iii) Periodic risk analyses. State agencies must establish and maintain a program for conducting periodic risk analyses to ensure that appropriate, cost effective safeguards are incorporated into new and existing systems. State agencies must perform risk analyses whenever significant system changes occur.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>ADP System Security Reviews.</I> State agencies shall review the ADP system security of installations involved in the administration of HHS programs on a biennial basis. At a minimum, the reviews shall include an evaluation of physical and data security operating procedures, and personnel practices.
</P>
<P>(4) Costs incurred in complying with provisions of paragraphs (f)(1)-(3) of this section are considered regular administrative costs which are funded at the regular match rate.
</P>
<P>(5) The security requirements of this section apply to all ADP systems used by State and local governments to administer programs covered under 45 CFR part 95, subpart F.
</P>
<P>(6) The State agency shall maintain reports of their biennial ADP system security reviews, together with pertinent supporting documentation, for HHS on-site review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 44853, Sept. 29, 1978, as amended at 51 FR 45329, Dec. 18, 1986; 53 FR 27, Jan. 4, 1988; 55 FR 4378, Feb. 7, 1990; 61 FR 39898, July 31, 1996; 75 FR 66340, Oct. 28, 2010; 81 FR 3020, Jan. 20, 2016; 89 FR 80071, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.623" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.623   Reconsideration of denied FFP for failure to obtain prior approval.</HEAD>
<P>For ADP equipment and services acquired by a State without prior approval, which is reflected in a record, the State may request reconsideration of the disallowance of FFP by written request to the head of the Federal program office within 30 days of the initial written disallowance determination. In such a reconsideration, the agency may take into account overall federal interests. The Department may grant a request for reconsideration if:
</P>
<P>(a) The State submitted to the Department all information required under § 95.611, satisfactorily responded to all concerns raised by the Department and received a final letter of approval from the Department; or, 
</P>
<P>(b) The State requests reconsideration of a denial by submitting in a record information that addresses the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The acquisition must be reasonable, useful and necessary;
</P>
<P>(2) The State's failure to obtain prior approval, which is reflected in a record, must have been inadvertent (i.e., the State did not knowingly avoid the prior approval requirements);
</P>
<P>(3) The request was not previously denied by HHS;
</P>
<P>(4) The acquisition must otherwise meet all other applicable Federal and State requirements, and would have been approved under part 95, subpart F had the State requested in a record, prior approval;
</P>
<P>(5) The State must not have a record of recurrent failures, under any of the programs covered by the prior approval regulations, to comply with the requirement to obtain prior approval in a record, of its automatic data processing acquisitions (i.e., submissions under these procedures, from States that have failed in the past to acquire prior approval which is reflected in a record, in accordance with part 95, subpart F, may be denied);
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 3339, Jan. 27, 1986, as amended at 55 FR 4378, Feb. 7, 1990; 75 FR 66340, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.624" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.624   Consideration for FFP in emergency situations.</HEAD>
<P>For ADP equipment and services acquired by a State after December 1, 1985 to meet emergency situations, which preclude the State from following the requirements of § 95.611, the Department will consider providing FFP upon receipt of a request from the State which is reflected in a record. In order for the Department to consider providing FFP in emergency situations, the following conditions must be met:
</P>
<P>(a) The State must submit a request to the Department, prior to the acquisition of any ADP equipment or services. The request must be reflected in a record, and include:
</P>
<P>(1) A brief description of the ADP equipment and/or services to be acquired and an estimate of their costs;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief description of the circumstances which result in the State's need to proceed prior to obtaining approval from the Department; and
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the harm which will be caused if the State does not acquire immediately the ADP equipment and services. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of the information, the Department will within 14 days take one of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform the State in writing that the request has been disapproved and the reason for disapproval; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the State in a communication reflected in a record, that the Department recognizes that an emergency exists and that within 90 days from the date of the State's initial request, the State must submit a formal request for approval which includes the information specified at § 95.611 in order for the ADP equipment or services acquisition to be considered for the Department's approval.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Department approves the request submitted under paragraph (b) of this section, FFP will be available from the date the State acquires the ADP equipment and services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 3339, Jan. 27, 1986, as amended at 55 FR 4378, Feb. 7, 1990; 75 FR 66340, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.625" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.625   Increased FFP for certain ADP systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FFP is available at enhanced matching rates for the development of individual or integrated systems and the associated computer equipment that support the administration of state plans for titles IV-D and/or XIX provided the systems meet the specifically applicable provisions referenced in paragraph (b) of the section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific reference to other regulations.</I> The applicable regulations for the Title IV-D program are contained in 45 CFR part 307. The applicable regulations for the Title IV-E program are contained in 45 CFR 1355.55. The applicable regulations for the title IV-D program are contained in 45 CFR part 307. The applicable regulations for the title XIX program are contained in 42 CFR part 433, subpart C.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 30708, June 15, 1994, as amended at 81 FR 35479, June 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.626" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.626   Independent Verification and Validation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An assessment for independent verification and validation (IV&amp;V) analysis of a State's system development effort may be required in the case of APD projects that meet any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Are at risk of missing statutory or regulatory deadlines for automation that is intended to meet program requirements;
</P>
<P>(2) Are at risk of failing to meet a critical milestone;
</P>
<P>(3) Indicate the need for a new project or total system redesign;
</P>
<P>(4) Are developing systems under waivers pursuant to sections 452(d)(3) or 627 of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P>(5) Are at risk of failure, major delay, or cost overrun in their systems development efforts;
</P>
<P>(6) Fail to timely and completely submit APD updates or other required systems documentation.
</P>
<P>(7) State's procurement policies put the project at risk, including a pattern of failing to pursue competition to the maximum extent feasible.
</P>
<P>(8) State's failure to adequately involve the State program offices in the development and implementation of the project.
</P>
<P>(b) Independent Verification and Validation efforts must be conducted by an entity that is independent from the State (unless the State receives an exception from the Department) and the entity selected must:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop a project workplan. The plan must be provided directly to the Department at the same time it is given to the State.
</P>
<P>(2) Review and make recommendations on both the management of the project, both State and vendor, and the technical aspects of the project. The IV&amp;V provider must give the results of its analysis directly to the federal agencies that required the IV&amp;V at the same time it reports to the State.
</P>
<P>(3) Consult with all stakeholders and assess the user involvement and buy-in regarding system functionality and the system's ability to support program business needs.
</P>
<P>(4) Conduct an analysis of past project performance sufficient to identify and make recommendations for improvement.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide risk management assessment and capacity planning services.
</P>
<P>(6) Develop performance metrics which allow tracking project completion against milestones set by the State.
</P>
<P>(c) The acquisition document and contract for selecting the IV&amp;V provider (or similar documents if IV&amp;V services are provided by other State agencies) must include requirements regarding the experience and skills of the key personnel proposed for the IV&amp;V analysis. The contract (or similar document if the IV&amp;V services are provided by other State agencies) must specify by name the key personnel who actually will work on the project. The acquisition documents and contract for required IV&amp;V services must be submitted to the Department for prior written approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 66340, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.627" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.8.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.627   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for a waiver.</I> A State may apply for a waiver of any requirement in subpart F by presenting an alternative approach. Waiver requests must be submitted and approved as part of the State's APD or APD Update.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver approvals.</I> The Secretary, or his or her designee, may grant a State a waiver if the State demonstrates that it has an alternative approach to a requirement in this chapter that will safeguard the State and Federal Governments' interest and that enables the State to be in substantial compliance with the other requirements of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of waiver request.</I> The State's request for approval of an alternative approach or waiver of a requirement in this chapter must demonstrate why meeting the condition is unnecessary, diminishes the State's ability to meet program requirements, or that the alternative approach leads to a more efficient, economical, and effective administration of the programs for which federal financial participation is provided, benefiting both the State and Federal Governments.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review of waiver requests.</I> The Secretary, or his or her designee, will review waiver requests to assure that all necessary information is provided, that all processes provide for effective economical and effective program operation, and that the conditions for waiver in this section are met.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agency's response to a waiver request.</I> When a waiver is approved by an agency, it becomes part of the State's approved APD and is applicable to the approving agency. A waiver is subject to the APD suspension provisions in § 95.611(c)(3). When a waiver is disapproved, the entire APD will be disapproved. The APD disapproval is a final administrative decision and is not subject to administrative appeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 66340, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.9" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Federal Financial Participation in Costs of ADP Acquisitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.631" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.9.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.631   Cost identification for purpose of FFP claims.</HEAD>
<P>The conditions of this subpart apply notwithstanding the existence of an approved cost allocation plan. State agencies shall assign and claim the costs incurred under an approved APD in accordance with the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Development costs.</I> (1) Using its normal departmental accounting system, the State agency shall specifically identify what items of costs constitute development costs, assign these costs to specific project cost centers, and distribute these costs to funding sources based on the specific identification, assignment and distribution outlined in the approved APD; (2) the methods for distributing costs set forth in the APD should provide for assigning identifiable costs, to the extent practicable, directly to program/functions. The State agency shall amend the cost allocation plan required by subpart E of this part to include the approved APD methodology for the identification, assignment and distribution of the development costs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational costs.</I> Costs incurred for the operation of an ADP system shall be identified and assigned by the State agency to funding sources in accordance with the approved cost allocation plan required by Subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service agreement costs.</I> States that operate a central data processing facility shall use their approved central service cost allocation plan required by OMB Circular A-87 to identify and assign costs incurred under service agreements with the State agency. The State agency will then distribute these costs to funding sources in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.633" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.9.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.633   Nondiscrimination requirements.</HEAD>
<P>State agencies that acquire ADP equipment and services are subject to the nondiscrimination requirements in parts 80, 84, and 90.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 10794, Feb. 19, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.635" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.9.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.635   Disallowance of Federal financial participation for automated systems that fail to comply substantially with requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal financial participation at the applicable matching rate is available for automated data processing system expenditures that meet the requirements specified under the approved APD including the approved cost allocation plan.
</P>
<P>(b) All or part of any costs for system projects that have a major failure to comply with an APD approved under applicable regulation at § 95.611, or for the Title IV-D program contained in part 307, the applicable regulations for the Title IV-E and Title IV-B programs contained in Chapter 13, subchapter G, § 1355.55, or the applicable regulations for the Title XIX program contained in 42 CFR chapter 4 subchapter C, part 433, are subject to disallowance by the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 66340, Oct. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.641" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.4.10.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.641   Applicability of rules for charging equipment in subpart G of this part.</HEAD>
<P>ADP equipment, as well as other equipment acquired under public assistance programs, is subject to subpart G of this part. Among other things, subpart G provides that a State may charge only depreciation or use allowances for equipment with unit acquisition cost of over $25,000. However, for ADP equipment HHS will consider requests for waivers of that restriction. If the acquisition of the equipment is part of an APD that is subject to the prior approval requirements of subpart F, the State may submit the request for a waiver as part of the APD. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Equipment Acquired Under Public Assistance Programs</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 41576, Sept. 21, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 95.701" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.701   Purpose and scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart prescribes requirements concerning the computation of claims for Federal financial participation in the cost of equipment under public assistance programs. This subpart also prescribes requirements for the management and disposition of equipment whose costs are claimed for Federal financial participation under these programs.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart applies to equipment purchased by State agencies (as defined in § 95.703) and to equipment purchased under service agreements with other State agencies and under cost-type contracts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.703" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.703   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart: 
</P>
<P><I>Acquisition cost</I> of an item of purchased equipment means the net invoice price of the equipment, including the cost of modifications, attachments, accessories, or auxiliary apparatus necessary to make the equipment usable for the purpose for which it was acquired. Other charges such as the cost of installation, transportation, taxes, duty or protective intransit insurance shall be included in or excluded from the unit acquisition cost in accordance with the regular accounting practices of the organization purchasing the equipment. If the item is acquired by trading in another item and paying an additional amount, <I>acquisition cost</I> means the amount received for trade-in plus the additional outlay. 
</P>
<P><I>Equipment</I> means an article of tangible personal property that has a useful life of more than two years and an acquisition cost of $500 or more. Any recipient may use its own definition of equipment, if its definition would at least include all items of equipment as defined here.
</P>
<P><I>Public Assistance Programs</I> means programs authorized by titles I, IV-A, IV-B, IV-C, IV-D, IV-E, X, XIV, XVI (AABD), XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act, and programs authorized by the Immigration and Nationality Act as amended by the Refugee Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-212). 
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, the Northern Mariana Islands and Guam.
</P>
<P><I>State Agency</I> means the State agency administering a public assistance program(s). This term includes local government public assistance agencies which administer public assistance programs under a State supervised system and the State agencies which supervise the local agencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 41576, Sept. 21, 1982, as amended at 65 FR 33633, May 24, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.705" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.705   Equipment costs—Federal financial participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing claims for Federal financial participation, equipment having a unit acquisition cost of $25,000 or less may be claimed in the period acquired or depreciated, at the option of the State agency. Equipment having a unit acquisition cost of more than $25,000 shall be depreciated. For purposes of this section, the term depreciate also includes use allowances computed in accordance with the cost principles prescribed in 2 CFR parts 200 and 300.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> (1) Equipment purchased under service agreements with other State agencies and under cost-type contracts shall be depreciated. However, equipment having a unit acquisition cost of $25,000 or less may be claimed in the period acquired if (a) the State agency approved the specific purchase and the claiming of the cost of the item, and (b) the contract or service agreement requires that the equipment or its residual value be transferred to the State agency when the equipment is no longer needed to carry out the work under the contract or service agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) Reimbursement for ADP equipment having an acquisition cost in excess of $25,000 and subject to subpart F of this part must be depreciated over its useful life unless otherwise specifically provided for by the Department. ADP equipment not subject to subpart F is subject to the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 41576, Sept. 21, 1982, as amended at 75 FR 66341, Oct. 28, 2010; 81 FR 3020, Jan. 20, 2016; 89 FR 80071, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.707" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.50.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.707   Equipment management and disposition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once equipment, whose costs are claimed for Federal financial participation (i.e., equipment that is capitalized and depreciated or is claimed in the period acquired), has reached the end of its useful life (as defined in an approved APD), the equipment shall be subject to the property disposal rules in 2 CFR 200.313.
</P>
<P>(b) The State agency is responsible for adequately managing the equipment, maintaining records on the equipment, and taking periodic physical inventories. Physical inventories may be made on the basis of statistical sampling. The following requirements apply to the disposition of this equipment:
</P>
<P>(1) If the cost of the equipment was claimed in the period acquired and the equipment is later sold, the proceeds of the sale shall be credited to current expenditures in approximate proportion to the distribution of the equipment's cost.
</P>
<P>(2) If the cost of the equipment was claimed in the period acquired and the equipment is later transferred to an activity which is not involved in the performance of programs currently or previously funded by the Federal Government, an amount equal to the fair market value of the equipment on the date of the transfer shall be credited to current expenditures in approximate proportion to the distribution of the equipment's costs.
</P>
<P>(3) If the cost of the equipment was claimed in the period acquired and the equipment is later traded in on other equipment claims for Federal financial participation in the costs of replacement equipment shall be limited to the additional outlay.
</P>
<P>(4) If the equipment was depreciated, any gain or loss on the disposition of the equipment shall be treated as a decrease or an increase to the depreciation expense of the period in which the disposition takes place. This provision does not apply to equipment whose costs were claimed for Federal financial participation through use allowances. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 41576, Sept. 21, 1982, as amended at 75 FR 66341, Oct. 28, 2010; 81 FR 3020, Jan. 20, 2016; 89 FR 80071, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="96" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 96—BLOCK GRANTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 1243 note, 7501-7507; 42 U.S.C. 300w <I>et seq.,</I> § 300x <I>et seq.,</I> § 300y <I>et seq.,</I> § 701 <I>et seq.,</I> § 8621 <I>et seq.,</I> § 9901 <I>et seq.,</I> § 1397 <I>et seq.,</I> 5 U.S.C. § 301.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the following block grant programs:
</P>
<P>(a) Community services (Pub. L. 97-35, sections 671-683) (42 U.S.C. 9901-9912).
</P>
<P>(b) Preventive health and health services (Pub. L. 97-35, section 901) (42 U.S.C. 300w-300w-8).
</P>
<P>(c) Community mental health services (Public Health Service Act, sections 1911-1920 and sections 1941-1954) (42 U.S.C. 300x-1-300x-9 and 300x-51-300x-64).
</P>
<P>(d) Substance abuse prevention and treatment (Public Health Service Act, sections 1921-1935 and sections 1941-1954) (42 U.S.C. 300x-21-300x-35 and 300x-51-300x-64).
</P>
<P>(e) Maternal and child health services (Social Security Act, Title V) (42 U.S.C. 701-709).
</P>
<P>(f) Social services, empowerment zones and enterprise communities (Pub. L. 97-35, sections 2351-55; Pub. L. 103-66, section 1371) (42 U.S.C. 1397-1397f).
</P>
<P>(g) Low-income home energy assistance (Pub. L. 97-35, sections 2601-11) (42 U.S.C. 8621-8629).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982, as amended at 58 FR 60128, Nov. 15, 1993; 64 FR 55856, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Health and Human Services or his designee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reconciliation Act</I> means the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981 (Pub. L. 97-35).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State</I> includes the fifty States, the District of Columbia, and as appropriate with respect to each block grant, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and for purposes of the block grants administered by agencies of the Public Health Service, the Federated States of Micronesia, the Republic of the Marshall Islands, and the Republic of Palau.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 37965, Oct. 13, 1987; 64 FR 55856, Oct. 15, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.10   Prerequisites to obtain block grant funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where prescribed elsewhere in this rule or in authorizing legislation, no particular form is required for a State's application or the related submission required by the statute. For the maternal and child health block grant, the application shall be in the form specified by the Secretary, as provided by section 505(a) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 705(a)).
</P>
<P>(b) The certifications required by the community services, primary care, preventive health and health services, alcohol and drug abuse and mental health services, and low-income home energy assistance block grant statutes to be made by the State's chief executive officer must be made by that individual personally, or by an individual authorized to make such certifications on behalf of the chief executive officer.
</P>
<P>(c) Effective beginning in fiscal year 2001, submission dates for applications under the social service and low-income home energy assistance block grant programs are:
</P>
<P>(1) for the social services block grant, States and territories which operate on a Federal fiscal year basis, and make requests for funding from the Department, must insure that their applications (pre-expenditure reports) for funding are submitted by September 1 of the preceding fiscal year unless the Department agrees to a later date. States and territories which operate their social services block grant on a July 1-June 30 basis, must insure that their applications are submitted by June 1 of the preceding funding period unless the Department agrees to a later date.
</P>
<P>(2) for the low-income home energy assistance program, States and territories which make requests for funding from the Department must insure that their applications for a fiscal year are submitted by September 1 of the preceding fiscal year unless the Department agrees to a later date.
</P>
<P>(d) Effective beginning in fiscal year 2001, for the low-income home energy assistance program, States and territories which make requests for funding from the Department must insure that all information necessary to complete their applications is received by December 15 of the fiscal year for which they are requesting funds unless the Department agrees to a later date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982, as amended at 64 FR 55856, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.11   Basis of award to the States.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary will award the block grant funds allotted to the State in accordance with the apportionment of funds from the Office of Management and Budget. Such awards will reflect amounts reserved for Indian Tribes and Tribal Organizations and, in FY 1982, any amounts awarded by the Department under transition authorities. The grant award constitutes the authority to carry out the program and to draw and expend funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982; 47 FR 43062, Sept. 30, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.12   Grant payment.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary will make payments at such times and in such amounts to each State from its awards in advance or by way of reimbursement in accordance with section 203 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act (42 U.S.C. 4213) and Treasury Circular No. 1075 (31 CFR part 205). When matching funds are involved, the Secretary shall take into account the ratio that such payment bears to such State's total expenditures under its awards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.13   Reallotments.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary will re-allot to eligible States those funds available as of September 1 of each fiscal year under the reallotment provisions pertaining to the alcohol and drug abuse and mental health services, maternal and child health services, and preventive health and health services block grants. The reallotment procedure for the low-income home energy assistance block grant is specified in section 2607 of the Reconciliation Act (42 U.S.C. 8626) and § 96.81 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.14   Time period for obligation and expenditure of grant funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Obligations.</I> Amounts unobligated by the State at the end of the fiscal year in which they were first allotted shall remain available for obligation during the succeeding fiscal year for all block grants except: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Primary care.</I> Amounts are available only if the Secretary determines that the State acted in accordance with section 1926(a)(1) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300y-5(a)(1)) and there is good cause for funds remaining unobligated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Low-income home energy assistance.</I> Regular LIHEAP block grant funds authorized under section 2602(b) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8621(b)) are available only in accordance with section 2607(b)(2)(B) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8626(b)(2)(B)), as follows. From allotments for fiscal year 1982 through fiscal year 1984, a maximum of 25 percent may be held available for the next fiscal year. From allotments for fiscal year 1985 through fiscal year 1990, a maximum of 15 percent of the amount payable to a grantee and not transferred to another block grant according to section 2604(f) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8623(f)) may be held available for the next fiscal year. From allotments for fiscal year 1991 through fiscal year 1993, a maximum of 10 percent of the amount payable to a grantee and not transferred to another block grant according to section 2604(f) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8623(f)) may be held available for the next fiscal year. Beginning with allotments for fiscal year 1994, a maximum of 10 percent of the amount payable to a grantee may be held available for the next fiscal year. No funds may be obligated after the end of the fiscal year following the fiscal year for which they were allotted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Expenditure.</I> No limitations exist on the time for expenditure of block grant funds, except those imposed by statute with respect to the community services, maternal and child health services, and social services block grants.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982; 47 FR 43062, Sept. 30, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 37965, Oct. 13, 1987; 60 FR 21357, May 1, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.15   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for waivers that are permitted by statute for the block grants should be submitted to the Director, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in the case of the preventive health and health services block grant; to the Administrator, Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration in the case of the community mental health services block grant and the substance abuse prevention and treatment block grant; to the Director, Maternal and Child Health Bureau in the case of the maternal and child health services block grant; and to the Director, Office of Community Services in the case of the community services block grant, the low-income home energy assistance program and the social services block grant. Beginning with fiscal year 1986, the Secretary's authority to waive the provisions of section 2605(b) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8624(b)) under the low-income home energy assistance program is repealed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 55856, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.16   Applicability of title XVII of the Reconciliation Act (31 U.S.C. 7301-7305).</HEAD>
<P>This section interprets the applicability of the general provisions governing block grants set forth in title XVII of the Reconciliation Act (31 U.S.C. 7301-7305):
</P>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section or unless inconsistent with provisions in the individual block grant statutes, 31 U.S.C. 7301-7305 apply to the community services, preventive health and health services, and alcohol and drug abuse and mental health services block grants.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement in 31 U.S.C. 7303(b) relating to public hearings does not apply to any of the block grants governed by this part. Instead, the provisions in the individual block grant statutes apply.
</P>
<P>(c) The maternal and child health services block grant is not subject to any requirements of 31 U.S.C. 7301-7305.
</P>
<P>(d) The social services and low-income home energy assistance programs are subject only to 31 U.S.C. 7304.
</P>
<P>(e) The audit provisions of 31 U.S.C. 7305 have, in most cases, been overridden by the Single Audit Act. Pub. L. 98-502, 31 U.S.C. 75, <I>et seq.,</I> and do not apply to the block grants. Pursuant to § 96.31(b)(2), certain entities may, however, elect to conduct audits under the block grant audit provisions. For entities making this election, the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 7305 apply to the community services block grant.
</P>
<P>(f) The applicability of 31 U.S.C. 7303(a) relating to the contents of a report on proposed uses of funds is specified in § 96.10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37966, Oct. 13, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.17" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.17   Annual reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for the low-income home energy assistance program activity reports, a state must make public and submit to the Department each annual report required by statute:
</P>
<P>(1) Within six months of the end of the period covered by the report; or
</P>
<P>(2) At the time the state submits its application for funding for the federal or state fiscal year, as appropriate, which begins subsequent to the expiration of that six-month period.
</P>
<P>(b) These reports are required annually for preventive health and health services (42 U.S.C. 300w-5(a)(1)), community mental health services (42 U.S.C. 300x <I>et. seq.</I>), the prevention and treatment of substance abuse block grant (42 U.S.C. 300x-21 <I>et. seq.</I>), maternal and child health services (42 U.S.C. 706(a)(1)), and the social services block grant (42 U.S.C. 1397e(a)). See § 96.82 for requirements governing the submission of activity reports for the low-income home energy assistance program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 60128, Nov. 15, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.18" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.18   Participation by faith-based organizations.</HEAD>
<P>The funds provided under this part shall be administered in compliance with the standards set forth in part 87 (Equal Treatment for Faith-based Organizations) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 42592, July 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Financial Management</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.30   Fiscal and administrative requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fiscal control and accounting procedures.</I> Except where otherwise required by Federal law or regulation, a State shall obligate and expend block grant funds in accordance with the laws and procedures applicable to the obligation and expenditure of its own funds. Fiscal control and accounting procedures must be sufficient to (a) permit preparation of reports required by the statute authorizing the block grant and (b) permit the tracing of funds to a level of expenditure adequate to establish that such funds have not been used in violation of the restrictions and prohibitions of the statute authorizing the block grant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial summary of obligation and expenditure of block grant funds</I>—(1) <I>Block grants containing time limits on both the obligation and the expenditure of funds.</I> After the close of each statutory period for the obligation of block grant funds and after the close of each statutory period for the expenditure of block grant funds, each grantee shall report to the Department:
</P>
<P>(i) Total funds obligated and total funds expended by the grantee during the applicable statutory periods; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the last obligation and the date of the last expenditure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Block grants containing time limits only on obligation of funds.</I> After the close of each statutory period for the obligation of block grant funds, each grantee shall report to the Department:
</P>
<P>(i) Total funds obligated by the grantee during the applicable statutory period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the last obligation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Block grants containing time limits only on expenditure of funds.</I> After the close of each statutory period for the expenditure of block grant funds, each grantee shall report to the Department:
</P>
<P>(i) Total funds expended by the grantee during the statutory period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the last expenditure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Submission of information.</I> Grantees shall submit the information required by paragraph (b)(1), (2), and (3) of this section on OMB Standard Form 269A, Financial Status Report (short form). Grantees are to provide the requested information within 90 days of the close of the applicable statutory grant periods.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 37966, Oct. 13, 1987; 53 FR 11656, Apr. 8, 1988; 64 FR 55857, Oct. 15, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.31   Audits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic rule.</I> Grantees and subgrantees are responsible for obtaining audits in accordance with the Single Audit Act Amendments of 1996 (31 U.S.C. 7501-7507) and revised OMB Circular A-133, “Audits of State, Local Governments, and Non-Profit Organizations.” The audits shall be made by an independent auditor in accordance with generally accepted Government auditing standards covering financial audits.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subgrantees.</I> State or local governments, as those terms are defined for purposes of the Single Audit Act Amendments of 1996, that provide Federal awards to a subgrantee, expending $300,000 or more (or other amount as specified by OMB) in Federal awards in a fiscal year, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether subgrantees have met the audit requirements of the Act. Commercial contractors (private for-profit and private and governmental organizations) providing goods and services to State and local governments are not required to have a single audit performed. State and local governments should use their own procedures to ensure that the contractor has complied with laws and regulations affecting the expenditure of Federal funds;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the subgrantee spent Federal assistance funds provided in accordance with applicable laws and regulations. This may be accomplished by reviewing an audit of the subgrantee made in accordance with the Act or through other means (e.g., program reviews) if the subgrantee has not had such an audit;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that appropriate corrective action is taken within six months after receipt of the audit report in instances of noncompliance with Federal laws and regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) Consider whether subgrantee audits necessitate adjustment of the grantee's own records; and
</P>
<P>(5) Require each subgrantee to permit independent auditors to have access to the records and financial statements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 45963, Aug. 29, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.32   Financial settlement.</HEAD>
<P>The State must repay to the Department amounts found after audit resolution to have been expended improperly. In the event that repayment is not made voluntarily, the Department will undertake recovery.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37966, Oct. 13, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.33   Referral of cases to the Inspector General.</HEAD>
<P>State or tribal officials who have information indicating the commission or potential commission of fraud or other offenses against the United States involving block grant funds should promptly provide the information to the appropriate Regional Office of Investigations of the Department's Office of the Inspector General.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37966, Oct. 13, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Direct Funding of Indian Tribes and Tribal Organizations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.40" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.40   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to the community services, alcohol and drug abuse and mental health services, preventive health and health services, primary care, and low-income home energy assistance block grants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.41   General determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department has determined that, with the exception of the circumstances addressed in paragraph (c) of this section, Indian tribes and tribal organizations would be better served by means of grants provided directly by the Department to such tribes and organizations out of their State's allotment of block grant funds than if the State were awarded its entire allotment. Accordingly, with the exception of situations described in paragraph (c) of this section, the Department will, upon request of an eligible Indian tribe or tribal organization and where provided for by statute, reserve a portion of the allotment of the State(s) in which the tribe is located, and, upon receipt of a complete application and related submission meeting statutory and regulatory requirements, grant it directly to the tribe or organization.
</P>
<P>(b) An Indian tribe or tribal organization may request direct funding under a block grant program included in this subpart regardless of whether the State in which it is located is receiving funds under the block grant program.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department has determined that Indian tribal members eligible for the funds or services provided through the block grants would be better served by the State(s) in which the tribe is located rather than by the tribe, where:
</P>
<P>(1) The tribe has not used its block grant allotment substantially in accordance with the provisions of the relevant statute(s); and
</P>
<P>(2) Following the procedures of 45 CFR 96.51, the Department has withheld tribal funds because of those deficiencies; and
</P>
<P>(3) The tribe has not provided sufficient evidence that it has removed or corrected the reason(s) for withholding. In these cases, block grant funds reserved or set aside for a direct grant to the Indian tribe will be awarded to the State(s), and the State(s) will provide block grant services to the service population of the tribe. Before awarding these funds to the State(s), the Department will allow as much time as it determines to be reasonable for the tribe to correct the conditions that led to withholding, consistent with provision of timely and meaningful services to the tribe's service population during the fiscal year. If a State(s) is awarded funds under this paragraph, the State(s) will receive all remaining funds set aside for the tribe for the Federal fiscal year for which the award is made. Where the Department has withheld funds from a tribe and the tribe has not taken satisfactory corrective action by the first day of the following fiscal year, all of the funds to serve the tribe's service population for the following fiscal year will be awarded to the State(s). The State(s) is responsible for providing services to the service population of the tribe in these cases. This paragraph also applies when funds are withheld from a tribal organization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982, as amended at 64 FR 55857, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.42   General procedures and requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Indian tribe or tribal organization applying for or receiving direct funding from the Secretary under a block grant program shall be subject to all statutory and regulatory requirements applicable to a State applying for or receiving block grant funds to the extent that such requirements are relevant to an Indian tribe or tribal organization except where otherwise provided by statute or in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A tribal organization representing more than one Indian tribe will be eligible to receive block grant funds on behalf of a particular tribe only if the tribe has by resolution authorized the organization's action.
</P>
<P>(c) If an Indian tribe or tribal organization whose service population resides in more than one State applies for block grant funds that, by statute, are apportioned on the basis of population, the allotment awarded to the tribe or organization shall be taken from the allotments of the various States in which the service population resides in proportion to the number of eligible members or households to be served in each State. If block grant funds are required to be apportioned on the basis of grants during a base year, the allotment to the Indian tribe or tribal organization shall be taken from the allotment of the State whose base year grants included the relevant grants to the tribe or organization.
</P>
<P>(d) The audit required under the block grant programs shall be conducted by an entity that is independent of the Indian tribe or tribal organization receiving grant funds from the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(e) Beginning with fiscal year 1983, any request by an Indian tribe or tribal organization for direct funding by the Secretary must be submitted to the Secretary, together with the required application and related materials, by September 1 preceding the Federal fiscal year for which funds are sought. A separate application is required for each block grant. After the September 1 deadline, tribal applications will be accepted only with the concurrence of the State (or States) in which the tribe or tribal organization is located.
</P>
<P>(f) A State receiving block grant funds is not required to use those funds to provide tangible benefits (e.g., cash or goods) to Indians who are within the service population of an Indian tribe or tribal organization that received direct funding from the Department under the same block grant program for the same fiscal year. A State, however, may not deny Indians access to intangible services funded by block grant programs (e.g., treatment at a community health center) even if the Indians are members of a tribe receiving direct funding for a similar service. A tribe receiving direct block grant funding is not required to use those funds to provide tangible benefits to non-Indians living within the tribe's service area unless the tribe and the State(s) in which the tribe is located agree in writing that the tribe will do so.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 37966, Oct. 13, 1987; 64 FR 55857, Oct. 15, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.43" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.43   Procedures during FY 1982.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to the fiscal year beginning October 1, 1981.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for direct funding must be received by the Secretary before the Secretary has awarded all of the allotment to the State involved. The application and related submission may be submitted later but must be submitted within 75 days after the beginning of the quarter in which the State qualified for block grant funds, (or by August 20, 1982 in the case of an Indian tribe located in a State that has not qualified for block grant funds in FY 1982) except that the application and related submission for the low-income home energy assistance program must be submitted by December 15, 1981. A separate request and application are required for each block grant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982; 47 FR 43062, Sept. 30, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.44" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.44   Community services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to direct funding of Indian tribes and tribal organizations under the community services block grant.
</P>
<P>(b) The terms <I>Indian tribe</I> and <I>tribal organization</I> as used in the Reconciliation Act have the same meaning given such terms in section 4(b) and 4(c) of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450b). The terms also include organized groups of Indians that the State in which they reside has determined are Indian tribes. An organized group of Indians is eligible for direct funding based on State recognition if the State has expressly determined that the group is an Indian tribe. In addition, the statement of the State's chief executive officer verifying that a tribe is recognized by that State will also be sufficient to verify State recognition for the purpose of direct funding.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of section 674(c)(2) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 9903(c)(2)) an <I>eligible Indian</I> means a member of an Indian tribe whose income is at or below the poverty line defined in section 673(2) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 9902(2)). An <I>eligible individual</I> under section 674(c)(2) of the Reconciliation Act (42 U.S.C. 9903(c)(2)) means a resident of the State whose income is at or below the poverty line.
</P>
<P>(d) An Indian tribe or tribal organization will meet the requirements of section 675(c)(1) (42 U.S.C. 9904(c)(1)) if it certifies that it agrees to use the funds to provide at least one of the services or activities listed in that section.
</P>
<P>(e) An Indian tribe or tribal organization is not required to comply with section 675(b) (42 U.S.C. 9904(b)) or to provide the certifications required by the following other provisions of the Reconciliation Act.
</P>
<P>(1) Section 675(c)(2)(A) (42 U.S.C. 9904(c)(2)(A));
</P>
<P>(2) Section 675(c)(3) (42 U.S.C. 9904(c)(3)); and
</P>
<P>(3) Section 675(c)(4) (42 U.S.C. 9904(c)(4)).
</P>
<P>(4) Section 675(c)(11) (42 U.S.C. 9904(c)(11)). 
</P>
<P>(f) In each fiscal year, Indian tribes and tribal organizations may expend for administrative expenses—comparable to the administrative expenses incurred by State at the State level—an amount not to exceed the greater of the amounts determined by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Multiplying their allotment under section 674 of the Reconciliation Act (42 U.S.C. 9903) by five percent; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Multiplying the allotment by the percentage represented by the ratio of $55,000 to the smallest State allotment (excluding territorial allotments) for that fiscal year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 37967, Oct. 13, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.45" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.45   Preventive health and health services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to direct funding of Indian tribes and tribal organizations under the preventive health and health services block grant.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of determining eligible applicants under section 1902(d) of the Public Health Service Act, a grantee that received a grant directly from the Secretary in FY 1981 under any of the programs replaced by the preventive health and health services block grant that was specifically targeted toward serving a particular Indian tribe or tribal organization will be considered eligible if the grantee is an Indian tribe or tribal organization at the time it requests funds under this part. Grantees that received funds under formula or Statewide grants, and subgrantees that received funds from any program replaced by the preventive health and health services block grant, are not eligible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.46" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.46   Substance abuse prevention and treatment services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to direct funding of Indian tribes and tribal organizations under the substance abuse prevention and treatment Block Grant.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of determining eligible applicants under section 1933(d) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300x-33(d)) an Indian tribe or tribal organization (as defined in subsections (b) and (c) of section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act) that received a direct grant under subpart I of part B of title XIX of the PHS Act (as such existed prior to October 1, 1992) in fiscal year 1991 will be considered eligible for a grant under subpart 2 of part B of title XIX of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of the substance abuse prevention and treatment Block Grant, an Indian tribe or tribal organization is not required to comply with the following statutory provisions of the Public Health Service Act: 1923 (42 U.S.C. 300x-23), 1925 (42 U.S.C. 300x-25), 1926 (42 U.S.C. 300x-26), 1928 (42 U.S.C. 300x-28), 1929 (42 U.S.C. 300x-29), and 1943(a)(1) (42 U.S.C. 300x-53(a)(1)). An Indian tribe or tribal organization is to comply with all other statutes and regulations applicable to the Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Block Grant. In each case in which an Indian Tribe receives a direct grant, the State is also responsible for providing services to Native Americans under the State's Block Grant program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 17070, Mar. 31, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.47" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.47   Primary care.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for direct funding of Indian tribes and tribal organizations under the primary care block grant must comply with 42 CFR part 51c (Grants for Community Health Services).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.48" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.48   Low-income home energy assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to direct funding of Indian tribes under the low-income home energy assistance program.
</P>
<P>(b) The terms <I>Indian tribe</I> and <I>tribal organization</I> as used in the Reconciliation Act have the same meaning given such terms in section 4(b) and 4(c) of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450b) except that the terms shall also include organized groups of Indians that the State in which they reside has expressly determined are Indian tribes or tribal organizations in accordance with State procedures for making such determinations.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of section 2604(d) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 8623(d)), an organized group of Indians is eligible for direct funding based on State recognition if the State has expressly determined that the group is an Indian tribe. A statement by the State's chief executive officer verifying that a tribe is recognized by that State will also be sufficient to verify State recognition for the purpose of direct funding.
</P>
<P>(d) The plan required by section 2604(d)(4) of the Reconciliation Act (42 U.S.C. 8623(d)(4)) shall contain the certification and information required for States under section 2605 (b) and (c) of that Act (42 U.S.C. 8624 (b) and (c)). An Indian tribe or tribal organization is not required to comply with section 2605(a)(2) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 8624(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(e) Where a tribe requests that the Secretary fund another entity to provide energy assistance for tribal members, as provided by section 2604(d)(3) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 8623(d)(3)), the Secretary shall consider the following factors in selecting the grantee: the ability of the other entity to provide low-income home energy assistance, existing tribal-State agreements as to the size and location of the service population, and the history of State services to the Indian people to be served by the other entity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.49" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.4.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.49   Due date for receipt of all information required for completion of tribal applications for the low-income home energy assistance block grants.</HEAD>
<P>Effective beginning in FY 2001, for the low-income home energy assistance program, Indian tribes and tribal organizations that make requests for direct funding from the Department must insure that all information necessary to complete their application is received by December 15 of the fiscal year for which funds are requested, unless the State(s) in which the tribe is located agrees to a later date. After December 15, funds will revert to the State(s) in which the tribe is located, unless the State(s) agrees to a later date. If funds revert to a State, the State is responsible for providing low-income home energy assistance program services to the service population of the tribe.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 55857, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.50" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.50   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to any complaint (other than a complaint alleging violation of the nondiscrimination provisions) that a State has failed to use its allotment under a block grant in accordance with the terms of the act establishing the block grant or the certifications and assurances made by the State pursuant to that act. The Secretary is not required to consider a complaint unless it is submitted as required by this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Complaints with respect to the health block grants must be submitted in writing to either the Assistant Secretary for Health or: For the preventive health and health services block grant, the Director, Centers for Disease Control; for the alcohol and drug abuse and mental health services block grant, the Administrator, Alcohol, Drug Abuse, and Mental Health Administration; for the maternal and child health services block grant, the Administrator, Health Resources and Services Administration. Complaints with respect to the social services block grant must be submitted in writing to the Assistant Secretary for Human Development Services. Complaints with respect to the low-income home energy assistance program and the community services block grant must be submitted in writing to the Director, Office of Community Services. (The address for the Director, Center for Disease Control is 1600 Clifton Road, NE., Atlanta, Georgia 30333. For each of the other officials cited above the address is 200 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201.) The complaint must identify the provision of the act, assurance, or certification that was allegedly violated; must specify the basis for the violations it charges; and must include all relevant information known to the person submitting it. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Department shall promptly furnish a copy of any complaint to the affected State. Any comments received from the State within 60 days (or such longer period as may be agreed upon between the State and the Department) shall be considered by the Department in responding to the complaint. The Department will conduct an investigation of complaints where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The Department will provide a written response to complaints within 180 days after receipt. If a final resolution cannot be provided at that time, the response will state the reasons why additional time is necessary. Under the low-income home energy assistance program, within 60 days after receipt of complaints, the Department will provide a written response to the complainant, stating the actions that it has taken to date and, if the complaint has not yet been fully resolved, the timetable for final resolution of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(e) The Department recognizes that under the block grant programs the States are primarily responsible for interpreting the governing statutory provisions. As a result, various States may reach different interpretations of the same statutory provisions. This circumstance is consistent with the intent of and statutory authority for the block grant programs. In resolving any issue raised by a complaint or a Federal audit the Department will defer to a State's interpretation of its assurances and of the provisions of the block grant statutes unless the interpretation is clearly erroneous. In any event, the Department will provide copies of complaints to the independent entity responsible for auditing the State's activities under the block grant program involved. Any determination by the Department that a State's interpretation is not clearly erroneous shall not preclude or otherwise prejudice the State auditors' consideration of the question.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982; 47 FR 43062, Sept. 30, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 37967, Oct. 13, 1987; 57 FR 1977, Jan. 16, 1992; 60 FR 21358, May 1, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.51" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.51   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department will order a State to repay amounts found not to have been expended in accordance with law of the certifications provided by the State only after the Department has provided the State notice of the order and an opportunity for a hearing. Opportunity for a hearing will not be provided, however, when the State, in resolving audit findings or at another time, has agreed that the amounts were not expended in accordance with law or the certifications. The hearing will be governed by subpart F of this part and will be held in the State if required by statute. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a State refuses to repay amounts after a final decision that is not subject to further review in the Department, the amounts may be offset against payments to the State. If a statute requires an opportunity for a hearing before such an offset may be made, the hearing will be governed by subpart F of this part and will be held in the State if required by statute.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department will withhold funds from a State only if the Department has provided the State an opportunity for a hearing. The hearing will be governed by subpart F of this part and will be held in the State if required by statute.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 37967, Oct. 13, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.52" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.52   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Decisions resulting from repayment hearings held pursuant to § 96.51(a) of this part may be appealed by either the State or the Department to the Grant Appeals Board.
</P>
<P>(b) Decisions resulting from offset hearings held pursuant to § 96.51(b) of this part may not be appealed.
</P>
<P>(c) Decisions resulting from withholding hearings held pursuant to § 96.51(c) of this part may be appealed to the Secretary by the State or the Department as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) An application for appeal must be received by the Secretary no later than 60 days after the appealing party receives a copy of the presiding officer's decision. The application shall clearly identify the questions for which review is sought and shall explain fully the party's position with respect to those questions. A copy shall be furnished to the other party.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary may permit the filing of opposing briefs, hold informal conferences, or take whatever other steps the Secretary finds appropriate to decide the appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary may refer an application for appeal to the Grant Appeals Board. Notwithstanding part 16 of this title, in the event of such a referral, the Board shall issue a recommended decision that will not become final until affirmed, reversed, or modified by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(d) Any appeal to the Grant Appeals Board under this section shall be governed by part 16 of this title except that the Board shall not hold a hearing. The Board shall accept any findings with respect to credibility of witnesses made by the presiding officer. The Board may otherwise review and supplement the record as provided for in part 16 of this title and decide the issues raised. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.53" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.53   Length of withholding.</HEAD>
<P>Under the low-income home energy assistance program and community services block grant, the Department may withhold funds until the Department finds that the reason for the withholding has been removed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 55857, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Hearing Procedure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.60" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.6.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.60   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures in this subpart apply when opportunity for a hearing is provided for by § 96.51 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.61" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.6.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.61   Initiation of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A hearing is initiated by a notice of opportunity for hearing from the Department. The notice will:
</P>
<P>(1) Be sent by mail, telegram, telex, personal delivery, or any other mode of written communication;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the facts and the action that are the subject of the opportunity for a hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) State that the notice of opportunity for hearing and the hearing are governed by these rules; and
</P>
<P>(4) State the time within which a hearing may be requested, and state the name, address, and telephone number of the Department employee to whom any request for hearing is to be addressed.
</P>
<P>(b) A State offered an opportunity for a hearing has the amount of time specified in the notice, which may not be less than 10 days after receipt of the notice, within which to request a hearing. The request may be filed by mail, telegram, telex, personal delivery, or any other mode of written communication, addressed to the designated Department employee. If no response is filed within that time, the offer is deemed to have been refused and no hearing will be held.
</P>
<P>(c) If a hearing is requested, the Department will designate a presiding officer, and (subject to § 96.51 of this part) the hearing will take place at a time and location agreed upon by the State requesting the hearing, the Department, and the presiding officer or, if agreement cannot be reached, at a reasonable time and location designated by the presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.62" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.6.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.62   Presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Department employee to whom the Secretary delegates such authority, or any other agency employee designated by an employee to whom such authority is delegated, may serve as the presiding officer and conduct a hearing under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer is to be free from bias or prejudice and may not have participated in the investigation or action that is the subject of the hearing or be subordinate to a person, other than the Secretary, who has participated in such investigation or action.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary is not precluded by this section from prior participation in the investigation or action that is the subject of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) A different presiding officer may be substituted for the one originally designated under § 96.61 of this part without notice to the parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.63" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.6.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.63   Communications to presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Those persons who are directly involved in the investigation or presentation of the position of the Department or any party at a hearing that is subject to this subpart should avoid any off-the-record communication on the matter to the presiding officer or his advisers if the communication is inconsistent with the requirement of § 96.68 of this part that the administrative record be the exclusive record for decision. If any communication of this type occurs, it is to be reduced to writing and made part of the record, and the other party provided an opportunity to respond.
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of any communications between a participant in the hearing and the presiding officer, e.g., a response by the presiding officer to a request for a change in the time of the hearing is to be sent to all parties by the person initiating the communication. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.64" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.6.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.64   Intervention.</HEAD>
<P>Participation as parties in the hearing by persons other than the State and the Department is not permitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.65" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.6.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.65   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>The use of interrogatories, depositions, and other forms of discovery shall not be allowed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.66" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.6.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.66   Hearing procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A hearing is public, except when the Secretary or the presiding officer determines that all or part of a hearing should be closed to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy (such as disclosure of information in medical records that would identify patients), to prevent the disclosure of a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information, or to protect investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes that are not available for public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) A hearing will be conducted by the presiding officer. Employees of the Department will first give a full and complete statement of the action which is the subject of the hearing, together with the information and reasons supporting it, and may present any oral or written information relevant to the hearing. The State may then present any oral or written information relevant to the hearing. Both parties may confront and conduct reasonable cross-examination of any person (except for the presiding officer and counsel for the parties) who makes any statement on the matter at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing is informal in nature, and the rules of evidence do not apply. No motions or objections relating to the admissibility of information and views will be made or considered, but either party may comment upon or rebut all such data, information, and views.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer may order the hearing to be transcribed. The State may have the hearing transcribed, at the State's expense, in which case a copy of the transcript is to be furnished to the Department at the Department's expense.
</P>
<P>(e) The presiding officer may, if appropriate, allow for the submission of post-hearing briefs. The presiding officer shall prepare a written decision, which shall be based on a preponderance of the evidence, shall include a statement of reasons for the decision, and shall be final unless appealed pursuant to § 96.52 of this part. If post-hearing briefs were not permitted, the parties to the hearing will be given the opportunity to review and comment on the presiding officer's decision prior to its being issued.
</P>
<P>(f) The presiding officer shall include as part of the decision a finding on the credibility of witnesses (other than expert witnesses) whenever credibility is a material issue.
</P>
<P>(g) The presiding officer shall furnish a copy of the decision to the parties.
</P>
<P>(h) The presiding officer has the power to take such actions and make such rulings as are necessary or appropriate to maintain order and to conduct a fair, expeditious, and impartial hearing, and to enforce the requirements of this subpart concerning the conduct of hearings. The presiding officer may direct that the hearing be conducted in any suitable manner permitted by law and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary or the presiding officer has the power to suspend, modify, or waive any provision of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.67" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.6.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.67   Right to counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Any party to a hearing under this part has the right at all times to be advised and accompanied by counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.68" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.6.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.68   Administrative record of a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The exclusive administrative record of the hearing consists of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The notice of opportunity for hearing and the response.
</P>
<P>(2) All written information and views submitted to the presiding officer at the hearing or after if specifically permitted by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(3) Any transcript of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) The presiding officer's decision and any briefs or comments on the decision under § 96.66(e) of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) All letters or communications between participants and the presiding officer or the Secretary referred to in § 96.63 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The record of the hearing is closed to the submission of information and views at the close of the hearing, unless the presiding officer specifically permits additional time for a further submission.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Social Services Block Grants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.70" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.7.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.70   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.71" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.7.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.71   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 2005 (a)(2) and (a)(5) (42 U.S.C. 1397d (a)(2) and (a)(5)) of the Social Security Act establishes prohibitions against the provision of room and board and medical care unless, among other reasons, they are an “integral but subordinate” part of a State-authorized social service. “Integral but subordinate” means that the room and board provided for a short term or medical care is a minor but essential adjunct to the service of which it is a part and is necessary to achieve the objective of that service. Room and board provided for a short term shall not be considered an integral but subordinate part of a social service when it is provided to an individual in a foster family home or other facility the primary purpose of which is to provide food, shelter, and care or supervision, except for temporary emergency shelter provided as a protective service.
</P>
<P>(b) As used in section 2005(a)(5) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1397d (a)(5)) with respect to the limitations governing the provision of services by employees of certain institutions, <I>employees</I> includes staff, contractors, or other individuals whose activities are under the professional direction or direct supervision of the institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982; 47 FR 43062, Sept. 30, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.72" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.7.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.72   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.73" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.7.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.73   Sterilization.</HEAD>
<P>If a State authorizes sterilization as a family planning service, it must comply with the provisions of 42 CFR part 441, subpart F, except that the State plan requirement under 42 CFR 441.252 does not apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 33702, Aug. 4, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.74" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.7.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.74   Annual reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual report.</I> In accordance with 42 U.S.C. 1397e, each state must submit an annual report to the Secretary by the due dates specified in § 96.17 of this part. The annual report must cover the most recently completed fiscal year and, except for the data in paragraphs (a) (1) through (4) of this section, may be submitted in the format of the state's choice. The annual report must address the requirements in section 2006(a) of the Act, include the specific data required by section 2006(c), and include other information as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of individuals who receive services paid for in whole or in part with federal funds under the Social Services Block Grant, showing separately the number of children and the number of adults who received such services (section 2006(c)(1));
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of Social Services Block Grant funds spent in providing each service, showing separately for each service the average amount spent per child recipient and per adult recipient (section 2006(c)(2));
</P>
<P>(3) The total amount of federal, state and local funds spent in providing each service, including Social Services Block Grant funds;
</P>
<P>(4) The method(s) by which each service is provided, showing separately the services provided by public agencies, private agencies, or both (section 2006(c)(4)); and
</P>
<P>(5) The criteria applied in determining eligibility for each service such as income eligibility guidelines, sliding fee scales, the effect of public assistance benefits, and any requirements for enrollment in school or training programs (section 2006(c)(3)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting requirement.</I> (1) Each state must use the uniform definitions of services in appendix A of this part, categories 1-28, in submitting the data required in paragraph (a) of this section. Where a state cannot use the uniform definitions, it should report the data under category 29, “Other Services.” The state's definitions of each of the services listed in category 29 must be included in the annual report.
</P>
<P>(2) Each state must use the reporting form issued by the Department to report the data required in paragraphs (a) (1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In reporting recipient and expenditure data, each state must report actual numbers of recipients and actual expenditures when this information is available. For purposes of this report, each state should, if possible, count only a single recipient for each service. States should also consider a service provided to a recipient for the length of the reporting period (one year) or any fraction thereof as a single service. Data based on sampling and/or estimates will be accepted when actual figures are unavailable. Each state must indicate for each service whether the data are based on actual figures, sampling, or estimates and must describe the sampling and/or estimation process(es) it used to obtain these data in the annual report. Each state must also indicate, in reporting recipient data, whether the data reflects an unduplicated count of recipients.
</P>
<P>(4) Each state must use category 30, “Other Expenditures,” to report non-service expenditures. Only total dollar amounts in this category are required, i.e., they need not be reported by recipient count or cost per adult/child. This will include carry over balances, carry forward balances, funds transferred to or from the SSBG program, and administrative costs as defined by the state.
</P>
<P>(5) Each state must use its own definition of the terms “child” and “adult” in reporting the data required in paragraphs (a) (1) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Each state's definition of “child” and “adult” must be reported as a part of the eligibility criteria for each service required in paragraph (a)(5) of this section. The data on eligibility criteria may be submitted in whatever format the state chooses as a part of its annual report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transfer of computer data.</I> In addition to making the annual report available to the public and to the Department, a state may submit the information specified in paragraphs (a) (1) through (4) of this section using electronic equipment. A full description of procedures for electronic transmission of data, and of the availability of computer diskettes, is included in appendix B to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 60129, Nov. 15, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Low-income Home Energy Assistance Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.80" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.80   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.81" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.81   Carryover and reallotment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Pursuant to section 2607(b) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8626(b)), this section concerns procedures relating to carryover and reallotment of regular LIHEAP block grant funds authorized under section 2602(b) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8621(b)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required carryover and reallotment report.</I> Each grantee must submit a report to the Department by August 1 of each year, containing the information in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(4) of this section. The Department shall make no payment to a grantee for a fiscal year unless the grantee has complied with this paragraph with respect to the prior fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of funds that the grantee requests to hold available for obligation in the next (following) fiscal year, not to exceed 10 percent of the funds payable to the grantee;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the reasons that this amount to remain available will not be used in the fiscal year for which it was allotted;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the types of assistance to be provided with the amount held available; and
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of funds, if any, to be subject to reallotment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions for reallotment.</I> If the total amount available for reallotment for a fiscal year is less than $25,000, the Department will not reallot such amount. If the total amount available for reallotment for a fiscal year is $25,000 or more, the Department will reallot such amount, except that the Department will not award less than $25 in reallotted funds to a grantee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 55858, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.82" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.82   Required report on households assisted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each grantee which is a State or an insular area which receives an annual allotment of at least $200,000 shall submit to the Department, as part of its LIHEAP grant application, the data required by section 2605(c)(1)(G) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8624(c)(1)(G)) for the 12-month period corresponding to the Federal fiscal year (October 1-September 30) preceding the fiscal year for which funds are requested. The data shall be reported separately for LIHEAP heating, cooling, crisis, and weatherization assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) Each grantee which is an insular area which receives an annual allotment of less than $200,000 or which is an Indian tribe or tribal organization which receives direct funding from the Department shall submit to the Department, as part of its LIHEAP grant application, data on the number of households receiving LIHEAP assistance during the 12-month period corresponding to the Federal fiscal year (October 1-September 30) preceding the fiscal year for which funds are requested. The data shall be reported separately for LIHEAP heating, cooling, crisis, and weatherization assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) Grantees will not receive their LIHEAP grant allotment for the fiscal year until the Department has received the report required under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 55858, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.83" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.83   Increase in maximum amount that may be used for weatherization and other energy-related home repair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section concerns requests for waivers increasing from 15 percent to up to 25 percent of LIHEAP funds allotted or available to a grantee for a fiscal year, the maximum amount that grantees may use for low-cost residential weatherization and other energy-related home repair for low-income households (hereafter referred to as “weatherization”), pursuant to section 2605(k) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8624(k)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public inspection and comment.</I> Before submitting waiver requests to the Department, grantees must make proposed waiver requests available for public inspection within their jurisdictions in a manner that will facilitate timely and meaningful review of, and comment upon, these requests. Written public comments on proposed waiver requests must be made available for public inspection upon their receipt by grantees, as must any summaries prepared of written comments, and transcripts and/or summaries of verbal comments made on proposed requests at public meetings or hearings. Proposed waiver requests, and any preliminary waiver requests, must be made available for public inspection and comment until at least March 15 of the fiscal year for which the waiver is to be requested. Copies of actual waiver requests must be made available for public inspection upon submission of the requests to the Department.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver request.</I> After March 31 of each fiscal year, the chief executive officer (or his or her designee) may request a waiver of the weatherization obligation limit for this fiscal year, if the grantee meets criteria in paragraphs (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii), and (c)(2)(iii) of this section, or can show “good cause” for obtaining a waiver despite a failure to meet one or more of these criteria. (If the request is made by the chief executive officer's designee and the Department does not have on file written evidence of the designation, the request also must include evidence of the appropriate delegation of authority.) Waiver requests must be in writing and must include the information specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(6) of this section. The grantee may submit a preliminary waiver request for a fiscal year, between February 1 and March 31 of the fiscal year for which the waiver is requested. If a grantee chooses to submit a preliminary waiver request, the preliminary request must include the information specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(6) of this section; in addition, after March 31 the chief executive officer (or his or her designee) must submit the information specified in paragraphs (c)(7) through (c)(10) of this section, to complete the preliminary waiver request.
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the total percent of its LIHEAP funds allotted or available in the fiscal year for which the waiver is requested, that the grantee desires to use for weatherization.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of whether the grantee has met each of the following three criteria: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the fiscal year for which the waiver is requested, the combined total (aggregate) number of households in the grantee's service population that will receive LIHEAP heating, cooling, and crisis assistance benefits that are provided from Federal LIHEAP allotments from regular and supplemental appropriations will not be fewer than the combined total (aggregate) number that received such benefits in the preceding fiscal year; 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the fiscal year for which the waiver is requested, the combined total (aggregate) amount, in dollars, of LIHEAP heating, cooling, and crisis assistance benefits received by the grantee's service population that are provided from Federal LIHEAP allotments from regular and supplemental appropriations will not be less than the combined total (aggregate) amount received in the preceding fiscal year; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) All LIHEAP weatherization activities to be carried out by the grantee in the fiscal year for which the wavier is requested have been shown to produce measurable savings in energy expenditures. 
</P>
<P>(3) With regard to criterion in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, a statement of the grantee's best estimate of the appropriate household totals for the fiscal year for which the wavier is requested and for the preceding fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(4) With regard to criterion in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, a statement of the grantee's best estimate of the appropriate benefit totals, in dollars, for the fiscal year for which the waiver is requested and for the preceding fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(5) With regard to criterion in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, a description of the weatherization activities to be carried out by the grantee in the fiscal year for which the wavier is requested (with all LIHEAP funds proposed to be used for weatherization, not just with the amount over 15 percent), and an explanation of the specific criteria under which the grantee has determined whether these activities have been shown to produce measurable savings in energy expenditures. 
</P>
<P>(6) A description of how and when the proposed wavier request was made available for timely and meaningful public review and comment, copies and/or summaries of public comments received on the request (including transcripts and/or summaries of any comments made on the request at public meetings or hearings), a statement of the method for reviewing public comments, and a statement of the changes, if any, that were made in response to these comments. 
</P>
<P>(7) To complete a preliminary waiver request: Official confirmation that the grantee wishes approval of the waiver request. 
</P>
<P>(8) To complete a preliminary waiver request: A statement of whether any public comments were received after preparation of the preliminary waiver request and, if so, copies and/or summaries of these comments (including transcripts and/or summaries of any comments made on the request at public meetings or hearings), and a statement of the changes, if any, that were made in response to these comments. 
</P>
<P>(9) To complete a preliminary waiver request: A statement of whether any material/substantive changes of fact have occurred in information included in the preliminary waiver request since its submission, and, if so, a description of the change(s). 
</P>
<P>(10) To complete a preliminary waiver request: A description of any other changes to the preliminary request. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>“Standard” waiver.</I> If the Department determines that a grantee has meet the three criteria in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, has provided all information required by paragraph (c) of this section, has shown adequate concern for timely and meaningful public review and comment, and has proposed weatherization that meets all relevant requirements of title XXVI of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8621 <I>et seq.</I>) and 45 CFR part 96, the Department will approve a “standard” waiver.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>“Good cause” waiver.</I> (1) If a grantee does not meet one or more of the three criteria in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, then the grantee may submit documentation that demonstrates good cause why a waiver should be granted despite the grantee's failure to meet this criterion or these criteria. “Good cause” waiver requests must include the following information, in addition to the information specified in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For each criterion under paragraph (c)(2) of this section that the grantee does not meet, an explanation of the specific reasons demonstrating good cause why the grantee does not meet the criterion and yet proposes to use additional funds for weatherization, citing measurable, quantified data, and stating the source(s) of the data used; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the grantee's LIHEAP heating, cooling, and crisis assistance eligibility standards (eligibility criteria) and benefits levels for the fiscal year for which the waiver is requested and for the preceding fiscal year; and, if eligibility standards were less restrictive and/or benefit levels were higher in the preceding fiscal year for one or more of these program components, an explanation of the reasons demonstrating good cause why a waiver should be granted in spite of this fact; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the grantee's opening and closing dates for applications for LIHEAP heating, cooling, and crisis assistance in the fiscal year for which the waiver is requested and in the preceding fiscal year, and a description of the grantee's outreach efforts for heating, cooling, and crisis assistance in the fiscal year for which the waiver is requested and in the preceding fiscal year, and, if the grantee's application period was longer and/or outreach efforts were greater in the preceding fiscal year for one or more of these program components, an explanation of the reasons demonstrating good cause why a waiver should be granted in spite of this fact; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) If the grantee took, or will take, other actions that led, or will lead, to a reduction in the number of applications for LIHEAP heating, cooling, and/or crisis assistance, from the preceding fiscal year to the fiscal year for which the waiver is requested, a description of these actions and an explanation demonstrating good cause why a waiver should be granted in spite of these actions.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Department determines that a grantee requesting a “good cause” waiver has demonstrated good cause why a waiver should be granted, has provided all information required by paragraphs (c) and (e)(1) of this section, has shown adequate concern for timely and meaningful public review and comment, and has proposed weatherization that meets all relevant requirements of title XXVI of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8621 <I>et seq.</I>) and 45 CFR part 96, the Department will approve a “good cause” waiver.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Approvals and disapprovals.</I> After receiving the grantee's complete waiver request, the Department will respond in writing within 45 days, informing the grantee whether the request is approved on either a “standard” or “good cause” basis. The Department may request additional information and/or clarification from the grantee. If additional information and/or clarification is requested, the 45-day period for the Department's response will start when the additional information and/or clarification is received. No waiver will be granted for a previous fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effective period.</I> Waivers will be effective from the date of the Department's written approval until the funds for which the waiver is granted are obligated in accordance with title XXVI of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8621 <I>et seq.</I>) and 45 CFR part 96. Funds for which a weatherization waiver was granted that are carried over to the following fiscal year and used for weatherization shall not be considered “funds allotted” or “funds available” for the purposes of calculating the maximum amount that may be used for weatherization in the succeeding fiscal year. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 21358, May 1, 1995; 60 FR 33260, June 27, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.84" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.84   Miscellaneous.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rights and responsibilities of territories.</I> Except as otherwise provided, a territory eligible for funds shall have the same rights and responsibilities as a State.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability of assurances.</I> The assurances in section 2605(b) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8624(b)), as amended, pertain to all forms of assistance provided by the grantee, with the exception of assurance 15, which applies to heating, cooling, and energy crisis intervention assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prevention of waste, fraud, and abuse.</I> Grantees must establish appropriate systems and procedures to prevent, detect, and correct waste, fraud, and abuse in activities funded under the low-income home energy assistance program. The systems and procedures are to address possible waste, fraud, and abuse by clients, vendors, and administering agencies. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>End of transfer authority.</I> Beginning with funds appropriated for FY 1994, grantees may not transfer any funds pursuant to section 2604(f) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8623(f)) that are payable to them under the LIHEAP program to the block grant programs specified in section 2604(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 1978, Jan. 16, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 55858, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.85" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.85   Income eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application of poverty income guidelines and State median income estimates.</I> In implementing the income eligibility standards in section 2605(b)(2) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8624(b)(2)), grantees using the Federal government's official poverty income guidelines and State median income estimates for households as a basis for determining eligibility for assistance shall, by October 1 of each year, or by the beginning of the State fiscal year, whichever is later, adjust their income eligibility criteria so that they are in accord with the most recently published update of the guidelines or estimates. Grantees may adjust their income eligibility criteria to accord with the most recently published revision to the poverty income guidelines or State median income estimates for households at any time between the publication of the revision and the following October 1, or the beginning of the State fiscal year, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjustment of annual median income for household size.</I> In order to determine the State median income for households that have other than four individuals, grantees shall adjust the State median income figures (published annually by the Secretary), by the following percentages:
</P>
<P>(1) One-person household, 52 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) Two-person household, 68 percent;
</P>
<P>(3) Three-person household, 84 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) Four-person household, 100 percent;
</P>
<P>(5) Five-person household, 116 percent;
</P>
<P>(6) Six-person household, 132 percent; and
</P>
<P>(7) For each additional household member above six persons, add three percentage points to the percentage adjustment for a six-person household.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 6827, Mar. 3, 1988, as amended at 64 FR 55858, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.86" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.86   Exemption from requirement for additional outreach and intake services.</HEAD>
<P>The requirement in section 2605(b)(15) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8624(b)(15)), as amended by section 704(a)(4) of the Augustus F. Hawkins Human Services Reauthorization Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-501)—concerning additional outreach and intake services—does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(a) Indian tribes and tribal organizations; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Territories whose annual LIHEAP allotments under section 2602(b) of Public Law 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8621(b)) are $200,000 or less.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 1978, Jan. 16, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.87" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.87   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.88" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.88   Administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Costs of planning and administration.</I> Any expenditure for governmental functions normally associated with administration of a public assistance program must be included in determining administrative costs subject to the statutory limitation on administrative costs, regardless of whether the expenditure is incurred by the State, a subrecipient, a grantee, or a contractor of the State. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative costs for territories and Indian tribes.</I> For Indian tribes, tribal organizations and territories with allotments of $20,000 or less, the limitation on the cost of planning and administering the low-income home energy assistance program shall be 20 percent of funds payable and not transferred for use under another block grant. For tribes, tribal organizations and territories with allotments over $20,000, the limitation on the cost of planning and administration shall be $4,000 plus 10% of the amount of funds payable (and not transferred for use under another block grant) that exceeds $20,000.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37967, Oct. 13, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.89" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.8.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.89   Exemption from standards for providing energy crisis intervention assistance.</HEAD>
<P>The performance standards in section 2604(c) of Pub. L. 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8623), as amended by section 502(a) of the Human Services Reauthorization Act of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-425)—concerning provision of energy crisis assistance within specified time limits, acceptance of applications for energy crisis benefits at geographically accessible sites, and provision to physically infirm low-income persons of the means to apply for energy crisis benefits at their residences or to travel to application sites—shall not apply under the conditions described in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) These standards shall not apply to a program in a geographical area affected by (1) a major disaster or emergency designated by the President under the Disaster Relief Act of 1974, or (2) a natural disaster identified by the chief executive officer of a State, territory, or direct-grant Indian tribe or tribal organization, if the Secretary (or his or her designee) determines that the disaster or emergency makes compliance with the standards impracticable.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary's determination will be made after communication by the chief executive officer (or his or her designee) to the Secretary (or his or her designee) of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Information substantiating the existence of a disaster or emergency;
</P>
<P>(2) Information substantiating the impracticability of compliance with the standards, including a description of the specific conditions caused by the disaster or emergency which make compliance impracticable; and
</P>
<P>(3) Information on the expected duration of the conditions that make compliance impracticable.
</P>
<FP>If the communication is made by the chief executive officer's designee and the Department does not have on file written evidence of the designation, the communication must also include:
</FP>
<P>(4) Evidence of the appropriate delegation of authority.
</P>
<P>(c) The initial communication by the chief executive officer may be oral or written. If oral, it must be followed as soon as possible by written communication confirming the information provided orally. The Secretary's exemption initially may be oral. If so, the Secretary will provide written confirmation of the exemption as soon as possible after receipt of appropriate written communication from the chief executive officer.
</P>
<P>(d) Exemption from the standards shall apply from the moment of the Secretary's determination, only in the geographical area affected by the disaster or emergency, and only for so long as the Secretary determines that the disaster or emergency makes compliance with the standards impracticable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 6827, Mar. 3, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Community Services Block Grants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.90" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.9.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.90   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to the community services block grant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.91" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.9.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.91   Audit requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to section 1745(b) of the Reconciliation Act (31 U.S.C. 1243 note) an audit is required with respect to the 2-year period beginning on October 1, 1981, and with respect to each 2-year period thereafter. In its application for funds, a State may modify the assurance required by section 675(c)(9) of the Reconciliation Act (42 U.S.C. 9904(c)(9)) to conform to the requirements of section 1745(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.92" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.9.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.92   Termination of funding.</HEAD>
<P>Where a State determines pursuant to section 675(c)(11) of the Community Services Block Grant Act that it will terminate present or future funding of any community action agency or migrant and seasonal farmworker organization which received funding in the previous fiscal year, the State must provide the organization with notice and an opportunity for hearing on the record prior to terminating funding. If a review by the Secretary of the State's final decision to terminate funding is requested pursuant to section 676A, the request must be made in writing, within 30 days of notification by the State of its final decision to terminate funding. The Department will confirm or reject the State's finding of cause, normally within 90 days. If a request for a review has been made, the State may not discontinue present or future funding until the Department confirms the State's finding of cause. If no request for a review is made within the 30-day limit, the State's decision will be effective at the expiration of that time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 37968, Oct. 13, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Primary Care Block Grants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.100" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.10.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.100   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to the primary care block grant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.101" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.10.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.101   Review of a State decision to discontinue funding of a community health center.</HEAD>
<P>Where a State determines for FY 1983, pursuant to section 1926(a)(2) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300y-5(a)(2)), that a community health center does not meet the criteria for continued funding set forth in section 330 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 254c), the State must advise the Department of the decision and the basis upon which it was made. The Department will permit the center 30 days to respond to the State's determination. After evaluating the reasons advanced by the State and the center, the Department will determine within 30 days after the center's response is due whether the center meets the requirements for receiving a grant under the Public Health Service Act. The State may not discontinue funding the center until the Department has completed its review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 29486, July 6, 1982; 47 FR 43062, Sept. 30, 1982]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.102" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.10.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.102   Carryover of unobligated funds.</HEAD>
<P>In implementing section 1925(a)(2) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300y-4(a)(2)), the Secretary will determine that there is good cause for funds remaining unobligated if planned obligations could not be carried out because of a bona fide reason or if the State has determined that program objectives would be better served by deferring obligation of the funds to the following year.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Transition Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.110-96.112" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.11.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.110-96.112   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Block Grant</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 300x-21 to 300x-35 and 300x-51 to 300x-64.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 17070, Mar. 31, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 96.120" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.120   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to the Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Block Grant administered by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration. 45 CFR part 96, subparts A through F, are applicable to this subpart to the extent that those subparts are consistent with subpart L. To the extent subparts A through F are inconsistent with subpart L, the provisions of subpart L are applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.121" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.121   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Block Grant</I> means the Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Block Grant, 42 U.S.C. 300x-21, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Early Intervention Services Relating to HIV</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) appropriate pretest counseling for HIV and AIDS; 
</P>
<P>(2) testing individuals with respect to such disease, including tests to confirm the presence of the disease, tests to diagnose the extent of the deficiency in the immune system, and tests to provide information on appropriate therapeutic measures for preventing and treating the deterioration of the immune system and for preventing and treating conditions arising from the disease; 
</P>
<P>(3) appropriate post-test counseling; and 
</P>
<P>(4) providing the therapeutic measures described in Paragraph (2) of this definition. 
</P>
<P><I>Fiscal Year,</I> unless provided otherwise, means the Federal fiscal year. 
</P>
<P><I>Interim Services or Interim Substance Abuse Services</I> means services that are provided until an individual is admitted to a substance abuse treatment program. The purposes of the services are to reduce the adverse health effects of such abuse, promote the health of the individual, and reduce the risk of transmission of disease. At a minimum, interim services include counseling and education about HIV and tuberculosis (TB), about the risks of needle-sharing, the risks of transmission to sexual partners and infants, and about steps that can be taken to ensure that HIV and TB transmission does not occur, as well as referral for HIV or TB treatment services if necessary. For pregnant women, interim services also include counseling on the effects of alcohol and drug use on the fetus, as well as referral for prenatal care. 
</P>
<P><I>Primary Prevention Programs</I> are those directed at individuals who have not been determined to require treatment for substance abuse. Such programs are aimed at educating and counseling individuals on such abuse and providing for activities to reduce the risk of such abuse. 
</P>
<P><I>Principal Agency</I> is the single State agency responsible for planning, carrying out and evaluating activities to prevent and treat substance abuse and related activities. 
</P>
<P><I>Rural Area</I> The definition of a rural area within a State shall be the latest definition of the Bureau of the Census, Department of Commerce. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> is the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services or the Secretary's designee. 
</P>
<P><I>State,</I> unless provided otherwise, includes the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, America Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Palau, Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands. 
</P>
<P><I>State Medical Director for Substance Abuse Services</I> is a licensed physician with the knowledge, skill and ability to address the multiple physical and psychological problems associated with substance abuse, and who provides the principle agency with clinical consultation and direction regarding effective substance abuse treatment, effective primary medical care, effective infection control and public health and quality assurance.
</P>
<P><I>Substance Abuse</I> is defined to include the abuse or illicit use of alcohol or other drugs.
</P>
<P><I>Tuberculosis Services</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Counseling the individual with respect to tuberculosis;
</P>
<P>(2) Testing to determine whether the individual has been infected with mycobacteria tuberculosis to determine the appropriate form of treatment for the individual; and
</P>
<P>(3) Providing for or referring the individuals infected by mycobacteria tuberculosis for appropriate medical evaluation and treatment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.122" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.122   Application content and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each fiscal year, beginning with fiscal year 1993, the State shall submit an application to such address as the Secretary determines is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) For fiscal year 1993, applicants must submit an application containing information which conforms to the assurances listed under § 96.123, the report as provided in § 96.122(f), and the State plan as provided in § 96.122(g).
</P>
<P>(c) Beginning fiscal year 1994, applicants shall only use standard application forms prescribed by the granting agency with the approval of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980. Applicants must follow all applicable instructions that bear OMB clearance numbers. The application will require the State to submit the assurances listed under § 96.123, the report as provided in § 96.122(f), and the State Plan as provided in § 96.122(g).
</P>
<P>(d) The State shall submit the application for a block grant by the date prescribed by law. The annual report required under § 96.130(e) is not required to be submitted as part of the application, but must be submitted no later than December 31 of the fiscal year for which the State is seeking a grant. Grant awards will not be made without the report required under § 96.130(e). 
</P>
<P>(e) The funding agreements and assurances in the application shall be made through certification by the State's chief executive officer personally, or by an individual authorized to make such certification on behalf of the chief executive officer. When a delegation has occurred, a copy of the current delegation of authority must be submitted with the application.
</P>
<P>(f) A report shall be submitted annually with the application and State Plan. Among other things, the report must contain information as determined by the Secretary to be necessary to determine the purposes and the activities of the State, for which the Block Grant was expended. The report shall include (but is not limited to) the following:
</P>
<P>(1) For the fiscal year three years prior to the fiscal year for which the State is applying for funds:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of whether the State exercised its discretion under applicable law to transfer Block Grant funds from substance abuse services to mental health services or vice versa, and a description of the transfers which were made;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the progress made by the State in meeting the prevention and treatment goals, objectives and activities submitted in the application for the relevant year;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the amounts expended under the Block Grant by the State agency, by activity;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the amounts expended on primary prevention and early intervention activities (if reporting on fiscal years 1990, 1991, and 1992 only) and for primary prevention activities (if reporting on fiscal years 1993 and subsequent years);
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the amounts expended for activities relating to substance abuse such as planning, coordination, needs assessment, quality assurance, training of counselors, program development, research and development and the development of information systems;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the entities, their location, and the total amount the entity received from Block Grant funds with a description of the activities undertaken by the entity;
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the use of the State's revolving funds for establishment of group homes for recovering substance abusers, as provided by § 96.129, including the amount available in the fund throughout the fiscal year and the number and amount of loans made that fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(viii) A detailed description of the State's programs for women and, in particular for pregnant women and women with dependent children, if reporting on fiscal years 1990, 1991, or 1992; and pregnant women or women with dependent children for fiscal year 1993 and subsequent fiscal years;
</P>
<P>(ix) A detailed description of the State's programs for intravenous drug users; and
</P>
<P>(x) For applications for fiscal year 1996 and subsequent fiscal years, a description of the State's expenditures for tuberculosis services and, if a designated State, early intervention services for HIV.
</P>
<P>(2) For the most recent 12 month State expenditure period for which expenditure information is complete:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the amounts expended by the principal agency for substance abuse prevention and treatment activities, by activity and source of funds;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of substance abuse funding by other State agencies and offices, by activity and source of funds when available; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the types and amounts of substance abuse services purchased by the principal agency.
</P>
<P>(3) For the fiscal year two years prior to the fiscal year for which the State is applying for funds:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the amounts obligated under the Block Grant by the principal agency, by activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the amounts obligated for primary prevention and early intervention (if reporting on fiscal years 1990, 1991, and 1992 activities only) and primary prevention activities (if reporting on fiscal years 1993 and subsequent year activities);
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the entities to which Block Grant funds were obligated;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the State's policies, procedures and laws regarding substance abuse prevention, especially the use of alcohol and tobacco products by minors;
</P>
<P>(v) For applications for fiscal year 1995 and all subsequent fiscal years, a description of the State's procedures and activities undertaken to comply with the requirement to conduct independent peer review as provided by § 96.136;
</P>
<P>(vi) For applications for fiscal year 1995 and all subsequent fiscal years, a description of the State's procedures and activities undertaken to comply with the requirement to develop capacity management and waiting list systems, as provided by §§ 96.126 and 96.131, as well as an evaluation summary of these activities; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) For applications for fiscal year 1995 and subsequent fiscal years, a description of the strategies used for monitoring program compliance with §§ 96.126(f), 96.127(b), and 96.131(f), as well as a description of the problems identified and the corrective actions taken.
</P>
<P>(4) The aggregate State expenditures by the principle agency for authorized activities for the two State fiscal years preceding the fiscal year for which the State is applying for a grant, pursuant to § 96.134(d).
</P>
<P>(5) For the previous fiscal year:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the State's progress in meeting the goals, objectives and activities included in the previous year's application, and a brief description of the recipients of the Block Grant funds;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the methods used to calculate the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The base for services to pregnant women and women with dependent children as required by § 96.124;
</P>
<P>(B) The base for tuberculosis services as required for § 96.127; and
</P>
<P>(C) For designated States, the base for HIV early intervention services as required by § 96.128; 
</P>
<P>(iii) For applications for fiscal years 1994 and 1995 only, a description of the State's progress in the development of protocols for and the implementation of tuberculosis services, and, if a designated State, early intervention services for HIV; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For applications for fiscal year 1994 only, a description of the States progress in the development, implementation, and utilization of capacity management and waiting list systems.
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the activities the State has undertaken to comply with 42 CFR part 54.
</P>
<P>(6) For the first applicable fiscal year for which the State is applying for a grant, a copy of the statute enacting the law as described in § 96.130(b) and, for subsequent fiscal years for which the State is applying for a grant, any amendment to the law described in § 96.130(b). 
</P>
<P>(7) In addition to the information above, any information that the Secretary may, from time to time, require, consistent with the Paperwork Reduction Act.
</P>
<P>(g) For each fiscal year, beginning fiscal year 1993, the State Plan shall be submitted to the Secretary and shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) For fiscal years 1993 and 1994, a statement on whether the Governor intends to exercise discretion under applicable law to transfer Block Grant funds from the Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Block Grant allotment under section 1921 of the PHS Act to the Community Mental Health Services Block Grant allotment under section 1911 of the PHS Act or vice versa and a description of the planned transfer; 
</P>
<P>(2) A budget of expenditures which provides an estimate of the use and distribution of Block Grant and other funds to be spent by the agency administering the Block Grant during the period covered by the application, by activity and source of funds; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of how the State carries out planning, including how the State identifies substate areas with the greatest need, what process the State uses to facilitate public comment on the plan, and what criteria the State uses in deciding how to allocate Block Grant funds;
</P>
<P>(4) A detailed description of the State procedures to monitor programs that reach 90% capacity pursuant to § 96.126(a);
</P>
<P>(5) A detailed description of the State procedures to implement the 14/120 day requirement provided by § 96.126(b) as well as the interim services to be provided and a description of the strategies to be used in monitoring program compliance in accordance with § 96.126(f);
</P>
<P>(6) A full description of the outreach efforts States will require entities which receive funds to provide pursuant to § 96.126(e);
</P>
<P>(7) A detailed description of the State procedures implementing TB services pursuant to § 96.127, and a description of the strategies to be used in monitoring program compliance in accordance with § 96.127(b);
</P>
<P>(8) A detailed description of the State's procedures implementing HIV services pursuant to § 96.128, if considered a designated State; 
</P>
<P>(9) A description of estimates of non-Federal dollars to be spent for early intervention services relating to HIV, if a designated State, and tuberculosis services for the fiscal year covered by the application, as well as the amounts actually spent for such services for the two previous fiscal years; 
</P>
<P>(10) For fiscal year 1993, a detailed description of the State's revolving fund for establishment of group homes for recovering substance abusers pursuant to § 96.129 and, for subsequent years, any revisions to the program; 
</P>
<P>(11) A detailed description of State procedures implementing § 96.131 relating to treatment services for pregnant women; 
</P>
<P>(12) Unless waived, a description on how the State will improve the process for referrals for treatment, will ensure that continuing education is provided, and will coordinate various activities and services as provided by § 96.132; 
</P>
<P>(13) Statewide assessment of needs as provided in § 96.133; 
</P>
<P>(14) The aggregate State dollar projected expenditures by the principal agency of a State for authorized activities for the fiscal year for which the Block Grant is to be expended, as well as the aggregate obligations or expenditures, when available, for authorized activities for the two years prior to such fiscal year as required by § 96.134; 
</P>
<P>(15) Unless waived, a description of the services and activities to be provided by the State with Block Grant funds consistent with § 96.124 for allocations to be spent on services to pregnant women and women with dependent children, alcohol and other drug treatment and prevention, including primary prevention, and any other requirement; 
</P>
<P>(16) A description of the State procedures to implement § 96.132(e) regarding inappropriate disclosure of patient records; 
</P>
<P>(17) A description of the amounts to be spent for primary prevention in accordance with § 96.125; 
</P>
<P>(18) A description of the amounts to be spent on activities relating to substance abuse such as planning coordination, needs assessment, quality assurance, training of counselors, program development, research and development and the development of information systems; 
</P>
<P>(19) A description of the State plans regarding purchasing substance abuse services; 
</P>
<P>(20) A description of how the State intends to monitor and evaluate the performance of substance abuse service providers in accordance with § 96.136; 
</P>
<P>(21) A description of the State's overall goals for Block Grant expenditures, specific objectives under each goal, and the activities the State will carry out to achieve these objectives; and 
</P>
<P>(22) Such other information as the Secretary may, from time to time, require, consistent with the Paperwork Reduction Act. 
</P>
<P>(h) The Secretary will approve an application which includes the assurances, the State plan and the report that satisfies the requirements of this part and the relevant sections of the PHS Act. As indicated above, the State is required to provide descriptions of the State's procedures to implement the provisions of the Act and the regulations. Unless provided otherwise by these regulations, the Secretary will approve procedures which are provided as examples in the regulations, or the State may submit other procedures which the Secretary determines to reasonably implement the requirements of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 17070, Mar. 31, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 1508, Jan. 19, 1996; 65 FR 45305, July 21, 2000; 66 FR 46226, Sept. 4, 2001; 68 FR 56448, Sept. 4, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.123" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.123   Assurances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application must include assurances that: 
</P>
<P>(1) the State will expend the Block Grant in accordance with the percentage to be allocated to treatment, prevention, and other activities as prescribed by law and, also, for the purposes prescribed by law; 
</P>
<P>(2) The activities relating to intravenous drug use pursuant to § 96.126 will be carried out; 
</P>
<P>(3) The TB services and referral will be carried out pursuant to § 96.127, as well as the early intervention services for HIV provided for in § 96.128, if a designated State; 
</P>
<P>(4) The revolving funds to establish group homes for recovering substance abusers is in place consistent with the provisions of § 96.129 and the loans will be made and used as provided for by law; 
</P>
<P>(5) The State has a law in effect making it illegal to sell or distribute tobacco products to minors as provided in § 96.130(b), will conduct annual, unannounced inspections as prescribed in § 96.130, will enforce such law in a manner that can reasonably be expected to reduce the extent to which tobacco products are available to individuals under the age of 18, and will submit an annual report as required under §§ 96.122(d) and 96.130(e); 
</P>
<P>(6) Pregnant women are provided preference in admission to treatment centers as provided by § 96.131, and are provided interim services as necessary and as required by law; 
</P>
<P>(7) The State will improve the process in the State for referrals of individuals to the treatment modality that is most appropriate for the individuals, will ensure that continuing education is provided to employees of any funded entity providing prevention activities or treatment services, and will coordinate prevention activities and treatment services with the provision of other appropriate services as provided by § 96.132; 
</P>
<P>(8) The State will submit an assessment of need as required by section 96.133; 
</P>
<P>(9) The State will for such year maintain aggregate State expenditures by the principal agency of a State for authorized activities at a level that is not less than the average level of such expenditures maintained by the State for the 2-year period preceding the fiscal year for which the State is applying for the grant as provided by § 96.134; 
</P>
<P>(10) The Block Grant will not be used to supplant State funding of alcohol and other drug prevention and treatment programs; 
</P>
<P>(11) For purposes of maintenance of effort pursuant to §§ 96.127(f), 96.128(f), and 96.134, the State will calculate the base using Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and the composition of the base will be applied consistently from year to year; 
</P>
<P>(12) The State will for the fiscal year for which the grant is provided comply with the restrictions on the expenditure of Block Grant funds as provided by § 96.135; 
</P>
<P>(13) The State will make the State Plan public within the State in such manner as to facilitate comment from any person (including any Federal or other public agency) during the development of the State Plan and after the submission of the State Plan (including any revisions) to the Secretary as provided by § 1941 of the PHS Act; 
</P>
<P>(14) The State will for the fiscal year for which the grant is provided, provide for independent peer review to assess the quality, appropriateness, and efficacy of treatment services provided in the State to individuals under the program involved as required by § 96.136; 
</P>
<P>(15) The State has in effect a system to protect from inappropriate disclosure patient records maintained by the State in connection with an entity which is receiving amounts from the grant; 
</P>
<P>(16) The State will comply with chapter 75 of title 31, United States Code, pertaining to audits; and 
</P>
<P>(17) The State will abide by all applicable Federal laws and regulations, including those relating to lobbying (45 CFR part 93), drug-free workplace (45 CFR 76.600), discrimination (PHS Act Sec. 1947), false statements or failure to disclose certain events (PHS Act Sec. 1946), and, as to the State of Hawaii, services for Native Hawaiians (PHS Act Sec. 1953). 
</P>
<P>(18) The State will comply with the requirements of 42 CFR part 54.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 17070, Mar. 31, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 1508, Jan. 19, 1996; 66 FR 46227, Sept. 4, 2001; 68 FR 56448, Sept. 30, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.124" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.124   Certain allocations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) States are required to expend the Block Grant on various activities in certain proportions. Specifically, as to treatment and prevention, the State shall expend the grant as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) not less than 35 percent for prevention and treatment activities regarding alcohol; and 
</P>
<P>(2) not less than 35 percent for prevention and treatment activities regarding other drugs. 
</P>
<P>(b) The States are also to expend the Block Grant on primary prevention programs as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Consistent with § 96.125, the State shall expend not less than 20 percent for programs for individuals who do not require treatment for substance abuse, which programs— 
</P>
<P>(i) educate and counsel the individuals on such abuse; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) provide for activities to reduce the risk of such abuse by the individuals; 
</P>
<P>(2) The State shall, in carrying out paragraph (b)(1) of this section— 
</P>
<P>(i) give priority to programs for populations that are at risk of developing a pattern of such abuse; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) ensure that programs receiving priority under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section develop community-based strategies for prevention of such abuse, including strategies to discourage the use of alcoholic beverages and tobacco products by individuals to whom it is unlawful to sell or distribute such beverages or products. 
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to paragraph (d) of this section, a State is required to expend the Block Grant on women services as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) The State for fiscal year 1993 shall expend not less than five percent of the grant to increase (relative to fiscal year 1992) the availability of treatment services designed for pregnant women and women with dependent children (either by establishing new programs or expanding the capacity of existing programs). The base for fiscal year 1993 shall be an amount equal to the fiscal year 1992 alcohol and drug services Block Grant expenditures and State expenditures for pregnant women and women with dependent children as described in paragraph (e) of this section, and to this base shall be added at least 5 percent of the 1993 Block Grant allotment. The base shall be calculated using Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and the composition of the base shall be applied consistently from year to year. States shall report the methods used to calculate their base for fiscal year 1992 expenditures on treatment for pregnant women and women with dependent children. 
</P>
<P>(2) For fiscal year 1994, the State shall, consistent with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, expend not less than five percent of the grant to increase (relative to fiscal year 1993) the availability of such services to pregnant women and women with dependent children. 
</P>
<P>(3) For grants beyond fiscal year 1994, the States shall expend no less than an amount equal to the amount expended by the State for fiscal year 1994.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon the request of a State, the Secretary may waive all or part of the requirement in paragraph (c) of this section if the Secretary determines that the State is providing an adequate level of services for this population. In determining whether an adequate level of services is being provided the Secretary will review the extent to which such individuals are receiving services. This determination may be supported by a combination of criminal justice data, the National Drug and Treatment Units Survey, statewide needs assessment data, waiting list data, welfare department data, including medicaid expenditures, or other State statistical data that are systematically collected. The Secretary will also consider the extent to which the State offers the minimum services required under § 96.124(e). The Secretary shall approve or deny a request for a waiver not later than 120 days after the date on which the request is made. Any waiver provided by the Secretary shall be applicable only to the fiscal year involved. 
</P>
<P>(e) With respect to paragraph (c) of this section, the amount set aside for such services shall be expended on individuals who have no other financial means of obtaining such services as provided in § 96.137. All programs providing such services will treat the family as a unit and therefore will admit both women and their children into treatment services, if appropriate. The State shall ensure that, at a minimum, treatment programs receiving funding for such services also provide or arrange for the provision of the following services to pregnant women and women with dependent children, including women who are attempting to regain custody of their children: 
</P>
<P>(1) primary medical care for women, including referral for prenatal care and, while the women are receiving such services, child care; 
</P>
<P>(2) primary pediatric care, including immunization, for their children; 
</P>
<P>(3) gender specific substance abuse treatment and other therapeutic interventions for women which may address issues of relationships, sexual and physical abuse and parenting, and child care while the women are receiving these services; 
</P>
<P>(4) therapeutic interventions for children in custody of women in treatment which may, among other things, address their developmental needs, their issues of sexual and physical abuse, and neglect; and 
</P>
<P>(5) sufficient case management and transportation to ensure that women and their children have access to services provided by paragraphs (e) (1) through (4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) Procedures for the implementation of paragraphs (c) and (e) of this section will be developed in consultation with the State Medical Director for Substance Abuse Services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.125" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.125   Primary prevention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of § 96.124, each State/Territory shall develop and implement a comprehensive prevention program which includes a broad array of prevention strategies directed <I>at individuals not identified to be in need of treatment.</I> The comprehensive program shall be provided either directly or through one or more public or nonprofit private entities. The comprehensive primary prevention program shall include activities and services provided in a variety of settings for both the general population, as well as targeting sub-groups who are at high risk for substance abuse.
</P>
<P>(b) In implementing the prevention program the State shall use a variety of strategies, as appropriate for each target group, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Information Dissemination:</I> This strategy provides awareness and knowledge of the nature and extent of alcohol, tobacco and drug use, abuse and addiction and their effects on individuals, families and communities. It also provides knowledge and awareness of available prevention programs and services. Information dissemination is characterized by one-way communication from the source to the audience, with limited contact between the two. Examples of activities conducted and methods used for this strategy include (but are not limited to) the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Clearinghouse/information resource center(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Resource directories;
</P>
<P>(iii) Media campaigns;
</P>
<P>(iv) Brochures;
</P>
<P>(v) Radio/TV public service announcements;
</P>
<P>(vi) Speaking engagements;
</P>
<P>(vii) Health fairs/health promotion; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Information lines.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Education:</I> This strategy involves two-way communication and is distinguished from the Information Dissemination strategy by the fact that interaction between the educator/facilitator and the participants is the basis of its activities. Activities under this strategy aim to affect critical life and social skills, including decision-making, refusal skills, critical analysis (e.g. of media messages) and systematic judgment abilities. Examples of activities conducted and methods used for this strategy include (but are not limited to) the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Classroom and/or small group sessions (all ages);
</P>
<P>(ii) Parenting and family management classes;
</P>
<P>(iii) Peer leader/helper programs;
</P>
<P>(iv) Education programs for youth groups; and
</P>
<P>(v) Children of substance abusers groups.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternatives:</I> This strategy provides for the participation of target populations in activities that exclude alcohol, tobacco and other drug use. The assumption is that constructive and healthy activities offset the attraction to, or otherwise meet the needs usually filled by alcohol, tobacco and other drugs and would, therefore, minimize or obviate resort to the latter. Examples of activities conducted and methods used for this strategy include (but are not limited to) the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Drug free dances and parties;
</P>
<P>(ii) Youth/adult leadership activities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Community drop-in centers; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Community service activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Problem Identification and Referral:</I> This strategy aims at identification of those who have indulged in illegal/age-inappropriate use of tobacco or alcohol and those individuals who have indulged in the first use of illicit drugs in order to assess if their behavior can be reversed through education. It should be noted, however, that this strategy does not include any activity designed to determine if a person is in need of treatment. Examples of activities conducted and methods used for this strategy include (but are not limited to) the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Employee assistance programs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Student assistance programs; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Driving while under the influence/driving while intoxicated education programs.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Community-Based Process:</I> This strategy aims to enhance the ability of the community to more effectively provide prevention and treatment services for alcohol, tobacco and drug abuse disorders. Activities in this strategy include organizing, planning, enhancing efficiency and effectiveness of services implementation, inter-agency collaboration, coalition building and networking. Examples of activities conducted and methods used for this strategy include (but are not limited to) the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Community and volunteer training, e.g., neighborhood action training, training of key people in the system, staff/officials training;
</P>
<P>(ii) Systematic planning;
</P>
<P>(iii) Multi-agency coordination and collaboration;
</P>
<P>(iv) Accessing services and funding; and
</P>
<P>(v) Community team-building.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Environmental:</I> This strategy establishes or changes written and unwritten community standards, codes and attitudes, thereby influencing incidence and prevalence of the abuse of alcohol, tobacco and other drugs used in the general population. This strategy is divided into two subcategories to permit distinction between activities which center on legal and regulatory initiatives and those which relate to the service and action-oriented initiatives. Examples of activities conducted and methods used for this strategy shall include (but not be limited to) the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Promoting the establishment and review of alcohol, tobacco and drug use policies in schools; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Technical assistance to communities to maximize local enforcement procedures governing availability and distribution of alcohol, tobacco and other drug use; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Modifying alcohol and tobacco advertising practices; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Product pricing strategies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.126" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.126   Capacity of treatment for intravenous substance abusers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to obtain Block Grant funds, the State must require programs that receive funding under the grant and that treat individuals for intravenous substance abuse to provide to the State, upon reaching 90 percent of its capacity to admit individuals to the program, a notification of that fact within seven days. In carrying out this section, the State shall establish a capacity management program which reasonably implements this section—that is, which enables any such program to readily report to the State when it reaches 90 percent of its capacity—and which ensures the maintenance of a continually updated record of all such reports and which makes excess capacity information available to such programs. 
</P>
<P>(b) In order to obtain Block Grant funds, the State shall ensure that each individual who requests and is in need of treatment for intravenous drug abuse is admitted to a program of such treatment not later than— 
</P>
<P>(1) 14 days after making the request for admission to such a program; or 
</P>
<P>(2) 120 days after the date of such request, if no such program has the capacity to admit the individual on the date of such request and if interim services, including referral for prenatal care, are made available to the individual not later than 48 hours after such request. 
</P>
<P>(c) In carrying out subsection (b), the State shall establish a waiting list management program which provides systematic reporting of treatment demand. The State shall require that any program receiving funding from the grant, for the purposes of treating injecting drug abusers, establish a waiting list that includes a unique patient identifier for each injecting drug abuser seeking treatment including those receiving interim services, while awaiting admission to such treatment. For individuals who cannot be placed in comprehensive treatment within 14 days, the State shall ensure that the program provide such individuals interim services as defined in § 96.121 and ensure that the programs develop a mechanism for maintaining contact with the individuals awaiting admission. The States shall also ensure that the programs consult the capacity management system as provided in paragraph (a) of this section so that patients on waiting lists are admitted at the earliest possible time to a program providing such treatment within reasonable geographic area. 
</P>
<P>(d) In carrying out paragraph (b)(2) of this section the State shall ensure that all individuals who request treatment and who can not be placed in comprehensive treatment within 14 days, are enrolled in interim services and those who remain active on a waiting list in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, are admitted to a treatment program within 120 days. If a person cannot be located for admission into treatment or, if a person refuses treatment, such persons may be taken off the waiting list and need not be provided treatment within 120 days. For example, if such persons request treatment later, and space is not available, they are to be provided interim services, placed on a waiting list and admitted to a treatment program within 120 days from the latter request. 
</P>
<P>(e) The State shall require that any entity that receives funding for treatment services for intravenous drug abuse carry out activities to encourage individuals in need of such treatment to undergo such treatment. The States shall require such entities to use outreach models that are scientifically sound, or if no such models are available which are applicable to the local situation, to use an approach which reasonably can be expected to be an effective outreach method. The model shall require that outreach efforts include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Selecting, training and supervising outreach workers; 
</P>
<P>(2) Contacting, communicating and following-up with high risk substance abusers, their associates, and neighborhood residents, within the constraints of Federal and State confidentiality requirements, including 42 CFR part 2; 
</P>
<P>(3) Promoting awareness among injecting drug abusers about the relationship between injecting drug abuse and communicable diseases such as HIV; 
</P>
<P>(4) Recommend steps that can be taken to ensure that HIV transmission does not occur; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Encouraging entry into treatment. 
</P>
<P>(f) The State shall develop effective strategies for monitoring programs compliance with this section. States shall report under the requirements of § 96.122(g) on the specific strategies to be used to identify compliance problems and corrective actions to be taken to address those problems. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.127" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.127   Requirements regarding tuberculosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) States shall require any entity receiving amounts from the grant for operating a program of treatment for substance abuse to follow procedures developed by the principal agency of a State for substance abuse, in consultation with the State Medical Director for Substance Abuse Services, and in cooperation with the State Department of Health/Tuberculosis Control Officer, which address how the program—
</P>
<P>(1) Will, directly or through arrangements with other public or nonprofit private entities, routinely make available tuberculosis services as defined in § 96.121 to each individual receiving treatment for such abuse;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an individual in need of such treatment who is denied admission to the program on the basis of the lack of the capacity of the program to admit the individual, will refer the individual to another provider of tuberculosis services; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Will implement infection control procedures established by the principal agency of a State for substance abuse, in cooperation with the State Department of Health/Tuberculosis Control Officer, which are designed to prevent the transmission of tuberculosis, including the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Screening of patients;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of those individuals who are at high risk of becoming infected; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Meeting all State reporting requirements while adhering to Federal and State confidentiality requirements, including 42 CFR part 2; and
</P>
<P>(4) will conduct case management activities to ensure that individuals receive such services.
</P>
<P>(b) The State shall develop effective strategies for monitoring programs compliance with this section. States shall report under the requirements of § 96.122(g) on the specific strategies to be used to identify compliance problems and corrective actions to be taken to address those problems. The principal agency, in cooperation with the State Department of Health/Tuberculosis Control Officer, shall also establish linkages with other health care providers to ensure that tuberculosis services are routinely made available. All individuals identified with active tuberculosis shall be reported to the appropriate State official as required by law and consistent with paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to services provided for by a State for purposes of compliance with this section, the State shall maintain Statewide expenditures of non-Federal amounts for such services at a level that is not less than an average level of such expenditures maintained by the State for the 2-year period preceding the first fiscal year for which the State receives such a grant. In making this determination, States shall establish a reasonable funding base for fiscal year 1993. The base shall be calculated using Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and the composition of the base shall be applied consistently from year to year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.128" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.128   Requirements regarding human immunodeficiency virus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of a designated State as described in paragraph (b) of this section, the State shall do the following—
</P>
<P>(1) with respect to individuals undergoing treatment for substance abuse, the State shall, subject to paragraph (c) of this section, carry out one or more projects to make available to the individuals early intervention services for HIV disease as defined in § 96.121 at the sites at which the individuals are undergoing such treatment;
</P>
<P>(2) for the purpose of providing such early intervention services through such projects, the State shall make available from the grant the amounts prescribed by section 1924 of the PHS Act;
</P>
<P>(3) the State shall, subject to paragraph (d) of this section, carry out such projects only in geographic areas of the State that have the greatest need for the projects;
</P>
<P>(4) the State shall require programs participating in the project to establish linkages with a comprehensive community resource network of related health and social services organizations to ensure a wide-based knowledge of the availability of these services; and
</P>
<P>(5) the State shall require any entity receiving amounts from the Block Grant for operating a substance abuse treatment program to follow procedures developed by the principal agency of a State for substance abuse, in consultation with the State Medical Director for Substance Abuse Services, and in cooperation with the State Department of Health/Communicable Disease Officer.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, a “designated State” is any State whose rate of cases of acquired immune deficiency syndrome is 10 or more such cases per 100,000 individuals (as indicated by the number of such cases reported to and confirmed by the Director of the Centers for Disease Control for the most recent calendar year for which the data are available).
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to programs that provide treatment services for substance abuse, the State shall ensure that each such program participating in a project under paragraph (a) of this section will be a program that began operation prior to the fiscal year for which the State is applying to receive the grant. A program that so began operation may participate in a project under paragraph (a) of this section without regard to whether the program has been providing early intervention services for HIV disease.
</P>
<P>(d) If the State plans to carry out 2 or more projects under paragraph (a) of this section, the State shall carry out one such project in a rural area of the State, unless the requirement is waived. The Secretary shall waive the requirement if the State certifies to the Secretary that:
</P>
<P>(1) The rate of cases of acquired immune deficiency syndrome is less than or equal to two such cases per 100,000 individuals in any rural area of the State, or there are so few infected persons that establishing a project in the area is not reasonable; or 
</P>
<P>(2) There are no rural areas in the State as defined in § 96.121. 
</P>
<P>(e) With respect to the provision of early intervention services for HIV disease to an individual, the State shall ensure that the entities comply with § 96.137 regarding payment and § 96.135 regarding restrictions on expenditure of grant. The State shall also ensure that such services will be undertaken voluntarily by, and with the informed consent of, the individual, and undergoing such services will not be required as a condition of receiving treatment services for substance abuse or any other services. 
</P>
<P>(f) With respect to services provided for a State for purposes of compliance with this section, the State shall maintain Statewide expenditures of non-Federal amounts for such services at a level that is not less than the average level of such expenditures maintained by the State for 2-year period preceding the first fiscal year for which the State receives such a grant. In making this determination, States shall establish a reasonable base for fiscal year 1993. The base shall be calculated using Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and the composition of the base shall be applied consistently from year to year. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.129" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.129   Revolving funds for establishment of homes in which recovering substance abusers may reside.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State shall establish and provide for the ongoing operation of a revolving fund as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) The purpose of the fund is to make loans for the costs of establishing programs for the provision of housing in which individuals recovering from alcohol and drug abuse may reside in groups of not less than six individuals; 
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than $100,000 will be available for the revolving fund; 
</P>
<P>(3) Loans made from the revolving fund do not exceed $4,000 and that each such loan is repaid to the revolving fund not later than 2 years after the date on which the loan is made; 
</P>
<P>(4) Each such loan is repaid by such residents through monthly installments by the date specified in the loan agreement involved; 
</P>
<P>(5) Such loans are made only to nonprofit private entities agreeing that, in the operation of the program established pursuant to the loan— 
</P>
<P>(i) The use of alcohol or any illegal drug in the housing provided by the program will be prohibited; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any resident of the housing who violates such prohibition will be expelled from the housing; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The costs of the housing, including fees for rent and utilities, will be paid by the residents of the housing; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The residents of the housing will, through a majority vote of the residents, otherwise establish policies governing residence in the housing, including the manner in which applications for residence in the housing are approved; 
</P>
<P>(6) States shall identify and clearly define legitimate purposes for which the funds will be spent, such as first month's rent, necessary furniture (e.g., beds), facility modifications (e.g., conversion of basement into a game room or extra bedrooms), and purchase of amenities which foster healthy group living (e.g., dishwasher); 
</P>
<P>(7) In managing the revolving fund, the State and the financial entity managing the fund for the State shall abide by all Federal, State and local laws and regulations; 
</P>
<P>(8) If the State decides to indirectly manage the fund using a private nonprofit entity as the fund management group, the State shall establish reasonable criteria for selecting the group, such as qualifications, expertise, experience, and capabilities of the group, and the State shall require that these entities abide by all Federal, State and local laws and regulations; 
</P>
<P>(9) The State may seek assistance to approve or deny applications from entities that meet State-established criteria; 
</P>
<P>(10) The State shall set reasonable criteria in determining the eligibility of prospective borrowers such as qualifications, expertise, capabilities, the acceptability of a proposed plan to use the funds and operate the house, and an assessment of the potential borrower's ability to pay back the funds; 
</P>
<P>(11) The State shall establish a procedure and process for applying for a loan under the program which may include completion of the application, personal interviews and submission of evidence to support eligibility requirements, as well as establish a written procedure for repayment which will set forth reasonable penalties for late or missed payments and liability and recourse for default; 
</P>
<P>(12) The State shall provide clearly defined written instructions to applicants which lays out timeliness, milestones, required documentation, notification of reasonable penalties for late or missed payments and recourse for default, notification on legitimate purposes for which the loan may be spent, and other procedures required by the State; and 
</P>
<P>(13) The State shall keep a written record of the number of loans and amount of loans provided, the identities of borrowers and the repayment history of each borrower and retain it for three years. 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements established in paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to any territory of the United States other than the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.130" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.130   State law regarding sale of tobacco products to individuals under age of 18.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, the term “first applicable fiscal year” means fiscal year 1994, except in the case of any State described in section 1926(a)(2) of the PHS Act, in which case “first applicable fiscal year” means fiscal year 1995. The term “outlet” is any location which sells at retail or otherwise distributes tobacco products to consumers including (but not limited to) locations that sell such products over-the-counter or through vending machines.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary may make a grant to a State only if the State, for the first applicable fiscal year and subsequent fiscal years, has in effect a law providing that it is unlawful for any manufacturer, retailer, or distributor of tobacco products to sell or distribute any such product to any individual under age 18 through any sales or distribution outlet, including over-the-counter and vending machine sales.
</P>
<P>(c) For the first and second applicable fiscal years, the State shall, at a minimum, conduct annually a reasonable number of random, unannounced inspections of outlets to ensure compliance with the law and plan and begin to implement any other actions which the State believes are necessary to enforce the law.
</P>
<P>(d) For the third and subsequent fiscal years, the States shall do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The State shall conduct annual, random, unannounced inspections of both over-the-counter and vending machine outlets. The random inspections shall cover a range of outlets (not preselected on the basis of prior violations) to measure overall levels of compliance as well as to identify violations.
</P>
<P>(2) Random, unannounced inspections shall be conducted annually to ensure compliance with the law and shall be conducted in such a way as to provide a probability sample of outlets. The sample must reflect the distribution of the population under age 18 throughout the State and the distribution of the outlets throughout the State accessible to youth.
</P>
<P>(e) As provided by § 96.122(d), the State shall annually submit to the Secretary a report which shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) a detailed description of the State's activities to enforce the law required in paragraph (b) of this section during the fiscal year preceding the fiscal year for which that State is seeking the grant;
</P>
<P>(2) a detailed description regarding the overall success the State has achieved during the previous fiscal year in reducing the availability of tobacco products to individuals under the age of 18, including the results of the unannounced inspections as provided by paragraph (d) of this section for which the results of over-the-counter and vending machine outlet inspections shall be reported separately;
</P>
<P>(3) a detailed description of how the unannounced inspections were conducted and the methods used to identify outlets;
</P>
<P>(4) the strategies to be utilized by the State for enforcing such law during the fiscal year for which the grant is sought; and
</P>
<P>(5) the identity of the agency or agencies designated by the Governor to be responsible for the implementation of the requirements of section 1926 of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(f) Beginning in the second applicable fiscal year, the annual report required under paragraph (e) of this section shall be made public within the State, along with the State plan as provided in section 1941 of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(g) Beginning with applications for the fourth applicable fiscal year and all subsequent fiscal years, the Secretary will negotiate with the State, as part of the State's plan, the interim performance target the State will meet for that fiscal year and in subsequent years will seek evidence of progress toward achieving or surpassing a performance objective in which the inspection failure rate would be no more than 20% within several years.
</P>
<P>(h) Beginning with the second applicable fiscal year and all subsequent fiscal years, the Secretary shall make a determination, before making a Block Grant to a State for that fiscal year, whether the State reasonably enforced its law in the previous fiscal year pursuant to this section. In making this determination, the Secretary will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) During the first and second applicable fiscal years, the State must conduct the activities prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) During the third applicable fiscal year, the State must conduct random, unannounced inspections in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) During the fourth and all subsequent applicable fiscal years, the State must do the following:
</P>
<P>(i) conduct random, unannounced inspections in accordance with paragraph (d); and
</P>
<P>(ii) except as provided by paragraph (h)(4) of this section, the State must be in substantial compliance with the target negotiated with the Secretary under paragraph (g) of this section for that fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(4) If a State has not substantially complied with the target as prescribed under paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section for any fiscal year, the Secretary, in extraordinary circumstances, may consider a number of factors, including survey data showing that the State is making significant progress toward reducing use of tobacco products by children and youth, data showing that the State has progressively decreased the availability of tobacco products to minors, the composition of the outlets inspected as to whether they were over-the-counter or vending machine outlets, and the State's plan for improving the enforcement of the law in the next fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(i) If, after notice to the State and an opportunity for a hearing, the Secretary determines under paragraph (h) of this section that the State has not maintained compliance, the Secretary will reduce the amount of the allotment in such amounts as is required by section 1926(c) of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(j) States may not use the Block Grant to fund the enforcement of their statute, except that they may expend funds from the primary prevention setaside of their Block Grant allotment under 45 CFR 96.124(b)(1) for carrying out the administrative aspects of the requirements such as the development of the sample design and the conducting of the inspections.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 1508, Jan. 19, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 46227, Sept. 4, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.131" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.131   Treatment services for pregnant women.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State is required to, in accordance with this section, ensure that each pregnant woman in the State who seeks or is referred for and would benefit from such services is given preference in admissions to treatment facilities receiving funds pursuant to the grant. In carrying out this section, the State shall require all entities that serve women and who receive such funds to provide preference to pregnant women. Programs which serve an injecting drug abuse population and who receive Block Grant funds shall give preference to treatment as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Pregnant injecting drug users;
</P>
<P>(2) Pregnant substance abusers;
</P>
<P>(3) Injecting drug users; and
</P>
<P>(4) All others.
</P>
<P>(b) The State will, in carrying out this provision publicize the availability to such women of services from the facilities and the fact that pregnant women receive such preference. This may be done by means of street outreach programs, ongoing public service announcements (radio/television), regular advertisements in local/regional print media, posters placed in targeted areas, and frequent notification of availability of such treatment distributed to the network of community based organizations, health care providers, and social service agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) The State shall in carrying out paragraph (a) of this section require that, in the event that a treatment facility has insufficient capacity to provide treatment services to any such pregnant woman who seeks the services from the facility, the facility refer the woman to the State. This may be accomplished by establishing a capacity management program, utilizing a toll-free number, an automated reporting system and/or other mechanisms to ensure that pregnant women in need of such services are referred as appropriate. The State shall maintain a continually updated system to identify treatment capacity for any such pregnant women and will establish a mechanism for matching the women in need of such services with a treatment facility that has the capacity to treat the woman.
</P>
<P>(d) The State, in the case of each pregnant woman for whom a referral under paragraph (a) of this section is made to the State—
</P>
<P>(1) will refer the woman to a treatment facility that has the capacity to provide treatment services to the woman; or
</P>
<P>(2) will, if no treatment facility has the capacity to admit the woman, make available interim services, including a referral for prenatal care, available to the woman not later than 48 hours after the woman seeks the treatment services.
</P>
<P>(e) Procedures for the implementation of this section shall be developed in consultation with the State Medical Director for Substance Abuse Services.
</P>
<P>(f) The State shall develop effective strategies for monitoring programs compliance with this section. States shall report under the requirements of § 96.122(g) on the specific strategies to be used to identify compliance problems and corrective actions to be taken to address those problems.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.132" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.132   Additional agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to individuals seeking treatment services, the State is required to improve (relative to fiscal year 1992) the process in the State for referring the individuals to treatment facilities that can provide to the individuals the treatment modality that is most appropriate for the individuals. Examples of how this may be accomplished include the development and implementation of a capacity management/waiting list management system; the utilization of a toll-free number for programs to report available capacity and waiting list data; and the utilization of standardized assessment procedures that facilitate the referral process.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to any facility for treatment services or prevention activities that is receiving amounts from a Block Grant, continuing education in such services or activities (or both, as the case may be) shall be made available to employees of the facility who provide the services or activities. The States will ensure that such programs include a provision for continuing education for employees of the facility in its funding agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) The State shall coordinate prevention and treatment activities with the provision of other appropriate services (including health, social, correctional and criminal justice, educational, vocational rehabilitation, and employment services). In evaluating compliance with this section, the Secretary will consider such factors as the existence of memoranda of understanding between various service providers/agencies and evidence that the State has included prevention and treatment services coordination in its grants and contracts.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon the request of a State, the Secretary may provide to a State a waiver of any or all of the requirements established in paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this section, if the Secretary determines that, with respect to services for the prevention and treatment of substance abuse, the requirement involved is unnecessary for maintaining quality in the provision of such services in the State. In evaluating whether to grant or deny a waiver, the Secretary will rely on information drawn from the independent peer review/quality assurance activities conducted by the State. For example, a State may be eligible for a waiver of the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section if a State already has a well developed process for referring individuals to treatment facilities that can provide to the individuals the treatment modality that is most appropriate for the individuals. The Secretary will approve or deny a request for a waiver not later than 120 days after the date on which the request is made. Any waiver provided by the Secretary for paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this section, will be applicable only to the fiscal year involved.
</P>
<P>(e) The State is also required to have in effect a system to protect from inappropriate disclosure patient records maintained by the State in connection with an activity funded under the program involved or by any entity which is receiving amounts from the grant and such system shall be in compliance with all applicable State and Federal laws and regulations, including 42 CFR part 2. This system shall include provisions for employee education on the confidentiality requirements and the fact that disciplinary action may occur upon inappropriate disclosures. This requirement cannot be waived.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.133" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.133   Submission to Secretary of Statewide assessment of needs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State is required to submit to the Secretary an assessment of the need in the State for authorized activities, both by locality and by the State in general. The State is to provide a broad range of information which includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The State is to submit data which shows the incidence and prevalence in the State of drug abuse and the incidence and prevalence in the State of alcohol abuse and alcoholism. For fiscal years 1993 through 1996, the State shall submit its best available data on the incidence and prevalence of drug and alcohol abuse and alcoholism. The State shall also provide a summary describing the weakness and bias in the data and a description on how the State plans to strengthen the data in the future.
</P>
<P>(2) The State shall provide a description on current substance abuse prevention and treatment activities: 
</P>
<P>(i) For fiscal year 1993, the State shall provide its best available data on current prevention and treatment activities in the State in such detail as it finds reasonably practicable given its own data collection activities and records.
</P>
<P>(ii) For fiscal year 1994 and subsequent years, the State shall provide a detailed description on current prevention and treatment activities in the State. This report shall include a detailed description of the intended use of the funds relating to prevention and treatment, as well as a description of treatment capacity. As to primary prevention activities, the activities must be broken down by strategies used, such as those provided in section 96.125, including the specific activities conducted. The State shall provide the following data if available: the specific risk factors being addressed by activity; the age, race/ethnicity and gender of the population being targeted by the prevention activity; and the community size and type where the activity is carried out. As to all treatment and prevention activities, including primary prevention, the State shall provide the identities of the entities that provide the services and describe the services provided. The State shall submit information on treatment utilization to describe the type of care and the utilization according to primary diagnosis of alcohol or drug abuse, or a dual diagnosis of drug and alcohol abuse. 
</P>
<P>(3) The State may describe the need for technical assistance to carry out Block Grant activities, including activities relating to the collection of incidence and prevalence data identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The State shall establish goals and objectives for improving substance abuse treatment and prevention activities and shall report activities taken in support of these goals and objectives in its application.
</P>
<P>(5) The State shall submit a detailed description on the extent to which the availability of prevention and treatment activities is insufficient to meet the need for the activities, the interim services to be made available under sections 96.126 and 96.131, and the manner in which such services are to be so available. Special attention should be provided to the following groups:
</P>
<P>(i) Pregnant addicts;
</P>
<P>(ii) Women who are addicted and who have dependent children;
</P>
<P>(iii) Injecting drug addicts; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Substance abusers infected with HIV or who have tuberculosis.
</P>
<P>(6) Documentation describing the results of the State's management information system pertaining to capacity and waiting lists shall also be submitted, as well as a summary of such information for admissions and, when available, discharges. As to prevention activities, the report shall include a description of the populations at risk of becoming substance abusers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.134" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.134   Maintenance of effort regarding State expenditures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to the principal agency of a State for carrying out authorized activities, the agency shall for each fiscal year maintain aggregate State expenditures by the principal agency for authorized activities at a level that is not less than the average level of such expenditures maintained by the State for the two year period preceding the fiscal year for which the State is applying for the grant. The Block Grant shall not be used to supplant State funding of alcohol and other drug prevention and treatment programs.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the request of a State, the Secretary may waive all or part of the requirement established in paragraph (a) of this section if the Secretary determines that extraordinary economic conditions in the State justify the waiver. The State involved must submit information sufficient for the Secretary to make the determination, including the nature of the extraordinary economic circumstances, documented evidence and appropriate data to support the claim, and documentation on the year for which the State seeks the waiver. The Secretary will approve or deny a request for a waiver not later than 120 days after the date on which the request is made. Any waiver provided by the Secretary shall be applicable only to the fiscal year involved. “Extraordinary economic conditions” mean a financial crisis in which the total tax revenue declines at least one and one-half percent, and either unemployment increases by at least one percentage point, or employment declines by at least one and one-half percent.
</P>
<P>(c) In making a Block Grant to a State for a fiscal year, the Secretary shall make a determination of whether, for the previous fiscal year or years, the State maintained material compliance with any agreement made under paragraph (a) of this section. If the Secretary determines that a State has failed to maintain such compliance, the Secretary shall reduce the amount of the allotment for the State for the fiscal year for which the grant is being made by an amount equal to the amount constituting such failure for the previous fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary may make a Block Grant for a fiscal year only if the State involved submits to the Secretary information sufficient for the Secretary to make the determination required in paragraph (a) of this section, which includes the dollar amount reflecting the aggregate State expenditures by the principal agency for authorized activities for the two State fiscal years preceding the fiscal year for which the State is applying for the grant. The base shall be calculated using Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and the composition of the base shall be applied consistently from year to year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.135" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.135   Restrictions on expenditure of grant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State shall not expend the Block Grant on the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) To provide inpatient hospital services, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) To make cash payments to intended recipients of health services;
</P>
<P>(3) To purchase or improve land, purchase, construct, or permanently improve (other than minor remodeling) any building or other facility, or purchase major medical equipment;
</P>
<P>(4) To satisfy any requirement for the expenditure of non-Federal funds as a condition for the receipt of Federal funds;
</P>
<P>(5) To provide financial assistance to any entity other than a public or nonprofit private entity; or
</P>
<P>(6) To provide individuals with hypodermic needles or syringes so that such individuals may use illegal drugs, unless the Surgeon General of the Public Health Service determines that a demonstration needle exchange program would be effective in reducing drug abuse and the risk that the public will become infected with the etiologic agent for AIDS.
</P>
<P>(b) The State shall limit expenditures on the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The State involved will not expend more than 5 percent of the grant to pay the costs of administering the grant; and
</P>
<P>(2) The State will not, in expending the grant for the purpose of providing treatment services in penal or correctional institutions of the State, expend more than an amount prescribed by section 1931(a)(3) of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Exception regarding inpatient hospital services.
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to compliance with the agreement made under paragraph (a) of this section, a State (acting through the Director of the principal agency) may expend a grant for inpatient hospital-based substance abuse programs subject to the limitations of paragraph (c)(2) of this section only when it has been determined by a physician that:
</P>
<P>(i) The primary diagnosis of the individual is substance abuse, and the physician certifies this fact;
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual cannot be safely treated in a community-based, nonhospital, residential treatment program;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Service can reasonably be expected to improve an individual's condition or level of functioning;
</P>
<P>(iv) The hospital-based substance abuse program follows national standards of substance abuse professional practice; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an individual for whom a grant is expended to provide inpatient hospital services described above, the allowable expenditure shall conform to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The daily rate of payment provided to the hospital for providing the services to the individual will not exceed the comparable daily rate provided for community-based, nonhospital, residential programs of treatment for substance abuse; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The grant may be expended for such services only to the extent that it is medically necessary, i.e., only for those days that the patient cannot be safely treated in a residential, community-based program.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary may approve a waiver for construction under paragraph (a)(3) of this section within 120 days after the date of a request only if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The State demonstrates to the Secretary that adequate treatment cannot be provided through the use of existing facilities and that alternative facilities in existing suitable buildings are not available;
</P>
<P>(2) The State has carefully designed a plan that minimizes the costs of renovation or construction;
</P>
<P>(3) The State agrees, with respect to the costs to be incurred by the State in carrying out the purpose of the waiver, to make available non-Federal contributions in cash toward such costs in an amount equal to not less than $1 for each $1 of Federal funds provided under the Block Grant; and
</P>
<P>(4) The State submits the following to support paragraphs (b)(1), (2) and (3), of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation to support paragraph (d)(1) of this section, such as local needs assessments, waiting lists, survey data and other related information;
</P>
<P>(ii) A brief description of the project to be funded, including the type(s) of services to be provided and the projected number of residential and/or outpatient clients to be served;
</P>
<P>(iii) The specific amount of Block Grant funds to be used for this project;
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of outpatient treatment slots planned or the number of residential beds planned, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(v) The estimate of the total cost of the construction or rehabilitation (and a description of how these estimates were determined), based on an independent estimate of said cost, using standardized measures as determined by an appropriate State construction certifying authority;
</P>
<P>(vi) An assurance by the State that all applicable National (e.g., National Fire Protection Association, Building Officials and Codes Administrators International), Federal (National Environmental Policy Act), State, and local standards for construction or rehabilitation of health care facilities will be complied with;
</P>
<P>(vii) Documentation of the State's commitment to obligate these funds by the end of the first year in which the funds are available, and that such funds must be expended by the end of the second year (section 1914(a)(2) of the PHS Act);
</P>
<P>(viii) A certification that there is public support for a waiver, as well as a description of the procedure used (and the results therein) to ensure adequate comment from the general public and the appropriate State and local health planning organizations, local governmental entities and public and private-sector service providers that may be impacted by the waiver request;
</P>
<P>(ix) Evidence that a State is committed to using the proposed new or rehabilitated substance abuse facility for the purposes stated in the request for at least 20 years for new construction and at least 10 years for rehabilitated facilities;
</P>
<P>(x) An assurance that, if the facility ceases to be used for such services, or if the facility is sold or transferred for a purpose inconsistent with the State's waiver request, monies will be returned to the Federal Government in an amount proportionate to the Federal assistance provided, as it relates to the value of the facility at the time services cease or the facility sold or transferred; 
</P>
<P>(xi) A description of the methods used to minimize the costs of the construction or rehabilitation, including documentation of the costs of the residential facilities in the local area or other appropriate equivalent sites in the State; 
</P>
<P>(xii) An assurance that the State shall comply with the matching requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(xiii) Any other information the Secretary may determine to be appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.136" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.136   Independent peer review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State shall for the fiscal year for which the grant is provided, provide for independent peer review to assess the quality, appropriateness, and efficacy of treatment services provided in the State to individuals under the program involved, and ensure that at least 5 percent of the entities providing services in the State under such program are reviewed. The programs reviewed shall be representative of the total population of such entities. 
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of independent peer review is to review the quality and appropriateness of treatment services. The review will focus on treatment programs and the substance abuse service system rather than on the individual practitioners. The intent of the independent peer review process is to continuously improve the treatment services to alcohol and drug abusers within the State system. “Quality,” for purposes of this section, is the provision of treatment services which, within the constraints of technology, resources, and patient/client circumstances, will meet accepted standards and practices which will improve patient/client health and safety status in the context of recovery. “Appropriateness,” for purposes of this section, means the provision of treatment services consistent with the individual's identified clinical needs and level of functioning. 
</P>
<P>(c) The independent peer reviewers shall be individuals with expertise in the field of alcohol and drug abuse treatment. Because treatment services may be provided by multiple disciplines, States will make every effort to ensure that individual peer reviewers are representative of the various disciplines utilized by the program under review. Individual peer reviewers must also be knowledgeable about the modality being reviewed and its underlying theoretical approach to addictions treatment, and must be sensitive to the cultural and environmental issues that may influence the quality of the services provided. 
</P>
<P>(d) As part of the independent peer review, the reviewers shall review a representative sample of patient/client records to determine quality and appropriateness of treatment services, while adhering to all Federal and State confidentiality requirements, including 42 CFR part 2. The reviewers shall examine the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Admission criteria/intake process; 
</P>
<P>(2) Assessments; 
</P>
<P>(3) Treatment planning, including appropriate referral, e.g., prenatal care and tuberculosis and HIV services; 
</P>
<P>(4) Documentation of implementation of treatment services; 
</P>
<P>(5) Discharge and continuing care planning; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Indications of treatment outcomes. 
</P>
<P>(e) The State shall ensure that the independent peer review will not involve practitioners/providers reviewing their own programs, or programs in which they have administrative oversight, and that there be a separation of peer review personnel from funding decisionmakers. In addition, the State shall ensure that independent peer review is not conducted as part of the licensing/certification process. 
</P>
<P>(f) The States shall develop procedures for the implementation of this section and such procedures shall be developed in consultation with the State Medical Director for Substance Abuse Services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 96.137" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.12.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 96.137   Payment schedule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Block Grant money that may be spent for §§ 96.124(c) and (e), 96.127 and 96.128 is governed by this section which ensures that the grant will be the “payment of last resort.” The entities that receive funding under the Block Grant and provides services required by the above-referenced sections shall make every reasonable effort, including the establishment of systems for eligibility determination, billing, and collection, to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Collect reimbursement for the costs of providing such services to persons who are entitled to insurance benefits under the Social Security Act, including programs under title XVIII and title XIX, any State compensation program, any other public assistance program for medical expenses, any grant program, any private health insurance, or any other benefit program; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Secure from patients or clients payments for services in accordance with their ability to pay.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.14.11.1.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 96—Uniform Definitions of Services
</HEAD>
<FP-1>1. Adoption Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2. Case Management Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3. Congregate Meals
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4. Counseling Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5. Day Care Services—Adults
</FP-1>
<FP-1>6. Day Care Services—Children
</FP-1>
<FP-1>7. Education and Training Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>8. Employment Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>9. Family Planning Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>10. Foster Care Services for Adults
</FP-1>
<FP-1>11. Foster Care Services for Children
</FP-1>
<FP-1>12. Health Related and Home Health Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>13. Home Based Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>14. Home Delivered Meals
</FP-1>
<FP-1>15. Housing Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>16. Independent and Transitional Living Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>17. Information and Referral Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>18. Legal Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>19. Pregnancy and Parenting Services for Young Parents
</FP-1>
<FP-1>20. Prevention and Intervention Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>21. Protective Services for Adults
</FP-1>
<FP-1>22. Protective Services for Children
</FP-1>
<FP-1>23. Recreational Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>24. Residential Treatment Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>25. Special Services for Persons with Developmental or Physical Disabilities, or Persons with Visual or Auditory Impairments
</FP-1>
<FP-1>26. Special Services for Youth Involved in or At Risk of Involvement in Criminal Activity
</FP-1>
<FP-1>27. Substance Abuse Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>28. Transportation Services
</FP-1>
<FP-1>29. Other Services
</FP-1>
<HD1>Uniform Definitions of Services
</HD1>
<HD2>1. Adoption Services
</HD2>
<P>Adoption services are those services or activities provided to assist in bringing about the adoption of a child. Component services and activities may include, but are not limited to, counseling the biological parent(s), recruitment of adoptive homes, and pre- and post-placement training and/or counseling.
</P>
<HD2>2. Case Management Services
</HD2>
<P>Case management services are services or activities for the arrangement, coordination, and monitoring of services to meet the needs of individuals and families. Component services and activities may include individual service plan development; counseling; monitoring, developing, securing, and coordinating services; monitoring and evaluating client progress; and assuring that clients' rights are protected.
</P>
<HD2>3. Congregate Meals
</HD2>
<P>Congregate meals are those services or activities designed to prepare and serve one or more meals a day to individuals in central dining areas in order to prevent institutionalization, malnutrition, and feelings of isolation. Component services or activities may include the cost of personnel, equipment, and food; assessment of nutritional and dietary needs; nutritional education and counseling; socialization; and other services such as transportation and information and referral.
</P>
<HD2>4. Counseling Services
</HD2>
<P>Counseling services are those services or activities that apply therapeutic processes to personal, family, situational, or occupational problems in order to bring about a positive resolution of the problem or improved individual or family functioning or circumstances. Problem areas may include family and marital relationships, parent-child problems, or drug abuse.
</P>
<HD2>5. Day Care Services—Adults
</HD2>
<P>Day care services for adults are those services or activities provided to adults who require care and supervision in a protective setting for a portion of a 24-hour day. Component services or activities may include opportunity for social interaction, companionship and self-education; health support or assistance in obtaining health services; counseling; recreation and general leisure time activities; meals; personal care services; plan development; and transportation.
</P>
<HD2>6. Day Care Services—Children
</HD2>
<P>Day care services for children (including infants, pre-schoolers, and school age children) are services or activities provided in a setting that meets applicable standards of state and local law, in a center or in a home, for a portion of a 24-hour day. Component services or activities may include a comprehensive and coordinated set of appropriate developmental activities for children, recreation, meals and snacks, transportation, health support services, social service counseling for parents, plan development, and licensing and monitoring of child care homes and facilities.
</P>
<HD2>7. Education and Training Services
</HD2>
<P>Education and training services are those services provided to improve knowledge or daily living skills and to enhance cultural opportunities. Services may include instruction or training in, but are not limited to, such issues as consumer education, health education, community protection and safety education, literacy education, English as a second language, and General Educational Development (G.E.D.). Component services or activities may include screening, assessment and testing; individual or group instruction; tutoring; provision of books, supplies and instructional material; counseling; transportation; and referral to community resources.
</P>
<HD2>8. Employment Services
</HD2>
<P>Employment services are those services or activities provided to assist individuals in securing employment or acquiring or learning skills that promote opportunities for employment. Component services or activities may include employment screening, assessment, or testing; structured job skills and job seeking skills; specialized therapy (occupational, speech, physical); special training and tutoring, including literacy training and pre-vocational training; provision of books, supplies and instructional material; counseling, transportation; and referral to community resources.
</P>
<HD2>9. Family Planning Services
</HD2>
<P>Family planning services are those educational, comprehensive medical or social services or activities which enable individuals, including minors, to determine freely the number and spacing of their children and to select the means by which this may be achieved. These services and activities include a broad range of acceptable and effective methods and services to limit or enhance fertility, including contraceptive methods (including natural family planning and abstinence), and the management of infertility (including referral to adoption). Specific component services and activities may include preconceptional counseling, education, and general reproductive health care, including diagnosis and treatment of infections which threaten reproductive capability. Family planning services do not include pregnancy care (including obstetric or prenatal care).
</P>
<HD2>10. Foster Care Services for Adults
</HD2>
<P>Foster care services for adults are those services or activities that assess the need and arrange for the substitute care and alternate living situation of adults in a setting suitable to the individual's needs. Individuals may need such services because of social, physical or mental disabilities, or as a consequence of abuse or neglect. Care may be provided in a community-based setting, or such services may arrange for institutionalization when necessary. Component services or activities include assessment of the individual's needs; case planning and case management to assure that the individual receives proper care in the placement; counseling to help with personal problems and adjusting to new situations; assistance in obtaining other necessary supportive services; determining, through periodic reviews, the continued appropriateness of and need for placement; and recruitment and licensing of foster care homes and facilities.
</P>
<HD2>11. Foster Care Services for Children
</HD2>
<P>Foster care services for children are those services or activities associated with the provision of an alternative family life experience for abused, neglected or dependent children, between birth and the age of majority, on the basis of a court commitment or a voluntary placement agreement signed by the parent or guardian. Services may be provided to children in foster family homes, foster homes of relatives, group homes, emergency shelters, residential facilities, child care institutions, pre-adoptive homes or supervised independent living situation. Component services or activities may include assessment of the child's needs; case planning and case management to assure that the child receives proper care in the placement; medical care as an integral but subordinate part of the service; counseling of the child, the child's parents, and the foster parents; referral and assistance in obtaining other necessary supportive services; periodical reviews to determine the continued appropriateness and need for placement; and recruitment and licensing of foster homes and child care institutions.
</P>
<HD2>12. Health Related and Home Health Services
</HD2>
<P>Health related and home health services are those in-home or out-of-home services or activities designed to assist individuals and families to attain and maintain a favorable condition of health. Component services and activities may include providing an analysis or assessment of an individual's health problems and the development of a treatment plan; assisting individuals to identify and understand their health needs; assisting individuals to locate, provide or secure, and utilize appropriate medical treatment, preventive medical care, and health maintenance services, including in-home health services and emergency medical services; and providing follow-up services as needed.
</P>
<HD2>13. Home Based Services
</HD2>
<P>Home based services are those in-home services or activities provided to individuals or families to assist with household or personal care activities that improve or maintain adequate family well-being. These services may be provided for reasons of illness, incapacity, frailty, absence of a caretaker relative, or to prevent abuse and neglect of a child or adult. Major service components include homemaker services, chore services, home maintenance services, and household management services. Component services or activities may include protective supervision of adults and/or children to help prevent abuse, temporary non-medical personal care, house-cleaning, essential shopping, simple household repairs, yard maintenance, teaching of homemaking skills, training in self-help and self-care skills, assistance with meal planning and preparation, sanitation, budgeting, and general household management.
</P>
<HD2>14. Home Delivered Meals
</HD2>
<P>Home-delivered meals are those services or activities designed to prepare and deliver one or more meals a day to an individual's residence in order to prevent institutionalization, malnutrition, and feelings of isolation. Component services or activities may include the cost of personnel, equipment, and food; assessment of nutritional and dietary needs; nutritional education and counseling; socialization services; and information and referral.
</P>
<HD2>15. Housing Services
</HD2>
<P>Housing services are those services or activities designed to assist individuals or families in locating, obtaining, or retaining suitable housing. Component services or activities may include tenant counseling; helping individuals and families to identify and correct substandard housing conditions on behalf of individuals and families who are unable to protect their own interests; and assisting individuals and families to understand leases, secure utilities, make moving arrangements and minor renovations.
</P>
<HD2>16. Independent and Transitional Living Services
</HD2>
<P>Independent and transitional living services are those services and activities designed to help older youth in foster care or homeless youth make the transition to independent living, or to help adults make the transition from an institution, or from homelessness, to independent living. Component services or activities may include educational and employment assistance, training in daily living skills, and housing assistance. Specific component services and activities may include supervised practice living and post-foster care services.
</P>
<HD2>17. Information and Referral Services
</HD2>
<P>Information and referral services are those services or activities designed to provide information about services provided by public and private service providers and a brief assessment of client needs (but not diagnosis and evaluation) to facilitate appropriate referral to these community resources.
</P>
<HD2>18. Legal Services
</HD2>
<P>Legal services are those services or activities provided by a lawyer or other person(s) under the supervision of a lawyer to assist individuals in seeking or obtaining legal help in civil matters such as housing, divorce, child support, guardianship, paternity, and legal separation. Component services or activities may include receiving and preparing cases for trial, provision of legal advice, representation at hearings, and counseling.
</P>
<HD2>19. Pregnancy and Parenting Services for Young Parents
</HD2>
<P>Pregnancy and parenting services are those services or activities for married or unmarried adolescent parents and their families designed to assist young parents in coping with the social, emotional, and economic problems related to pregnancy and in planning for the future. Component services or activities may include securing necessary health care and living arrangements; obtaining legal services; and providing counseling, child care education, and training in and development of parenting skills.
</P>
<HD2>20. Prevention and Intervention Services
</HD2>
<P>Prevention and intervention services are those services or activities designed to provide early identification and/or timely intervention to support families and prevent or ameliorate the consequences of, abuse, neglect, or family violence, or to assist in making arrangement for alternate placements or living arrangements where necessary. Such services may also be provided to prevent the removal of a child or adult from the home. Component services and activities may include investigation; assessment and/or evaluation of the extent of the problem; counseling, including mental health counseling or therapy as needed; developmental and parenting skills training; respite care; and other services including supervision, case management, and transportation.
</P>
<HD2>21. Protective Services for Adults
</HD2>
<P>Protective services for adults are those services or activities designed to prevent or remedy abuse, neglect or exploitation of adults who are unable to protect their own interests. Examples of situations that may require protective services are injury due to maltreatment or family violence; lack of adequate food, clothing or shelter; lack of essential medical treatment or rehabilitation services; and lack of necessary financial or other resources. Component services or activities may include investigation; immediate intervention; emergency medical services; emergency shelter; developing case plans; initiation of legal action (if needed); counseling for the individual and the family; assessment/evaluation of family circumstances; arranging alternative or improved living arrangements; preparing for foster placement, if needed; and case management and referral to service providers.
</P>
<HD2>22. Protective Services for Children
</HD2>
<P>Protective services for children are those services or activities designed to prevent or remedy abuse, neglect, or exploitation of children who may be harmed through physical or mental injury, sexual abuse or exploitation, and negligent treatment or maltreatment, including failure to be provided with adequate food, clothing, shelter, or medical care. Component services or activities may include immediate investigation and intervention; emergency medical services; emergency shelter; developing case plans; initiation of legal action (if needed); counseling for the child and the family; assessment/evaluation of family circumstances; arranging alternative living arrangement; preparing for foster placement, if needed; and case management and referral to service providers.
</P>
<HD2>23. Recreational Services
</HD2>
<P>Recreational services are those services or activities designed to provide, or assist individuals to take advantage of, individual or group activities directed towards promoting physical, cultural, and/or social development.
</P>
<HD2>24. Residential Treatment Services
</HD2>
<P>Residential treatment services provide short-term residential care and comprehensive treatment and services for children or adults whose problems are so severe or are such that they cannot be cared for at home or in foster care and need the specialized services provided by specialized facilities. Component services and activities may include diagnosis and psychological evaluation; alcohol and drug detoxification services; individual, family, and group therapy and counseling; remedial education and GED preparation; vocational or pre-vocational training; training in activities of daily living; supervised recreational and social activities; case management; transportation; and referral to and utilization of other services.
</P>
<HD2>25. Special Services for Persons With Developmental or Physical Disabilities, or Persons With Visual or Auditory Impairments
</HD2>
<P>Special services for persons with developmental or physical disabilities, or persons with visual or auditory impairments, are services or activities to maximize the potential of persons with disabilities, help alleviate the effects of physical, mental or emotional disabilities, and to enable these persons to live in the least restrictive environment possible. Component services or activities may include personal and family counseling; respite care; family support; recreation; transportation; aid to assist with independent functioning in the community; and training in mobility, communication skills, the use of special aids and appliances, and self-sufficiency skills. Residential and medical services may be included only as an integral, but subordinate, part of the services.
</P>
<HD2>26. Special Services for Youth Involved in or at Risk of Involvement With Criminal Activity
</HD2>
<P>Special services for youth involved in or at risk of involvement with criminal activity are those services or activities for youth who are, or who may become, involved with the juvenile justice system and their families. Components services or activities are designed to enhance family functioning and/or modify the youth's behavior with the goal of developing socially appropriate behavior and may include counseling, intervention therapy, and residential and medical services if included as an integral but subordinate part of the service.
</P>
<HD2>27. Substance Abuse Services
</HD2>
<P>Substance abuse services are those services or activities that are primarily designed to deter, reduce, or eliminate substance abuse or chemical dependence. Except for initial detoxification services, medical and residential services may be included but only as an integral but subordinate part of the service. Component substance abuse services or activities may include a comprehensive range of personal and family counseling methods, methadone treatment for opiate abusers, or detoxification treatment for alcohol abusers. Services may be provided in alternative living arrangements such as institutional settings and community-based halfway houses.
</P>
<HD2>28. Transportation Services
</HD2>
<P>Transportation services are those services or activities that provide or arrange for the travel, including travel costs, of individuals in order to access services, or obtain medical care or employment. Component services or activities may include special travel arrangements such as special modes of transportation and personnel to accompany or assist individuals or families to utilize transportation.
</P>
<HD2>29. Other Services
</HD2>
<P>Other Services are services that do not fall within the definitions of the preceding 28 services. The definition used by the State for each of these services should appear elsewhere in the annual report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 60128, Nov. 15, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.51.14.11.1.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 96 [Reserved]






</HEAD>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="97" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.52" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 97—CONSOLIDATION OF GRANTS TO THE INSULAR AREAS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 501, Pub. L. 95-134, as amended, 48 U.S.C. 1469a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 56468, Dec. 16, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 97.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.52.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.10   What is a consolidated grant?</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, a <I>consolidated grant</I> means a grant award to an insular area, the funds of which are derived from the allocations under two or more of the programs specified in § 97.12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.52.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.11   Which jurisdictions may apply for a consolidated grant?</HEAD>
<P>The following jurisdictions (insular areas), as appropriate with respect to each block and formula grant program, may apply for a consolidated grant under this part: the Virgin Islands; Guam; American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands; and the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands (the Republic of Palau). In addition, the Federated States of Micronesia and the Republic of the Marshall Islands may apply for a consolidated grant for certain PHS programs as indicated in § 97.12.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 38346, Aug. 13, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.52.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.12   Which grants may be consolidated?</HEAD>
<P>(a) These regulations apply to the consolidation of grants under the programs listed in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and to any additional program(s) as determined by the Secretary. The list of programs will be periodically updated in the Code of Federal Regulations through publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) Block Grants.
</P>
<P>(1) Preventive Health and Health Services, 42 U.S.C. 300w-300w-10. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Certain Public Health Service programs for which the Federated States of Micronesia and the Republic of the Marshall Islands may apply for a consolidated grant.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Alcohol and Drug Abuse and Mental Health Services, 42 U.S.C. 300x-300x-9. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 in § 97.12(a)(1).</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Maternal and Child Health Services, 42 U.S.C. 701-709. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See footnote 1 in § 97.12(a)(1).</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Social Services, 42 U.S.C. 1397-1397f.
</P>
<P>(5) Community Services, 42 U.S.C. 9901-9912.
</P>
<P>(6) Low-Income Home Energy Assistance, 42 U.S.C. 8621-8629.
</P>
<P>(7) Community Youth Activity, 42 U.S.C. 11841. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 1 in § 97.12(a)(1).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) Other Grants.
</P>
<P>(1) Child Welfare Services, 42 U.S.C. 620, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Developmental Disabilities, 42 U.S.C. 6021-6030.
</P>
<P>(3) Aging Supportive Services and Senior Centers, 42 U.S.C. 3030d.
</P>
<P>(4) Congregate Meals for the Elderly, 42 U.S.C. 3030e.
</P>
<P>(5) Home Delivered Meals for the Elderly, 42 U.S.C. 3030f.
</P>
<P>(6) Child Abuse and Neglect State Grants, 42 U.S.C. 5103(b).
</P>
<P>(7) Dependent Care Planning and Development State Grants, 42 U.S.C. 9871, et. seq.
</P>
<P>(8) Family Violence Prevention and Services, 42 U.S.C. 10401, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(9) Children's Justice Act, 42 U.S.C. 5101, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(10) Child Development Associate Scholarship Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 10901, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(11) Emergency Community Services Homeless, 42 U.S.C. 11301.
</P>
<P>(12) Community Food and Nutrition, 42 U.S.C. 9910a.
</P>
<P>(13) Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals, 42 U.S.C. 9501.
</P>
<P>(14) Projects for Assistance in Transition from Homelessness, 42 U.S.C. 290 (cc-21) <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 38346, Aug. 13, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.52.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.13   How does an insular area apply for a consolidated grant?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An insular area may apply for a consolidated grant in lieu of filing an individual application for any of the programs listed in § 97.12 for which the insular area is eligible.
</P>
<P>(b) The chief executive officer or his designee may submit a consolidated grant application at any time prior to expenditure of the funds proposed for consolidation. The application must specify the amount of funds proposed for consolidation, the titles of the programs that are the sources of funds that are to be consolidated and the titles of the programs under whose statutory authority the funds are to be expended.
</P>
<P>(c) The application must contain the assurances, certifications, and other information required by the statutes and regulations applicable to those programs under which funds will be expended. If any of the requirements for these latter programs are substantially the same, they may be met by a single assurance, certification, or narrative, as appropriate. The application need not meet the application or other requirements for programs which are sources of funds for the consolidated grant but under whose authority no funds will be expended.
</P>
<P>(d) If after receiving a consolidated grant, an insular area wishes to use funds for a purpose authorized by an eligible program that is not included in the consolidated grant, or by an eligible program that was included in the grant but was not intended as a program under which funds would be expended, the insular area must submit an amended application indicating the proposed change and containing the assurances, certifications and other information applicable to that program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.52.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.14   How will grant awards be made?</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary, or his designee, will award a consolidated grant to each insular area that applies for a consolidated grant and meets the requirements of this part and of the statutes and regulations applicable to the programs under whose authority the consolidated grant funds will be expended. As long as the amount requested does not exceed the amount for which the insular area is eligible under the programs that are being consolidated, the amount of the award will equal the amount requested in the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.52.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.15   For what purposes can grant funds be used?</HEAD>
<P>Funds awarded under a consolidated grant must be used for purposes authorized by the statutes and regulations of the programs included in the consolidated grant. In its application for a consolidated grant the insular area is to indicate the amount of funds that will be allocated to the eligible programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 97.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.52.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 97.16   What fiscal, matching and administrative requirements apply to grantees?</HEAD>
<P>(a) An insular area receiving a consolidated grant must comply with the statutes and regulations applicable to the programs under which the funds are to be used, except as otherwise provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In regard to programs included in a consolidated grant, an insular area need not comply with any of the statutory or regulatory provisions requiring recipients to match federal funds with their own or other funds.
</P>
<P>(c) A single report may be submitted in lieu of any individual reports that may be required under the programs included in a consolidated grant. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="98" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 98—CHILD CARE AND DEVELOPMENT FUND
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 618, 9857 <I>et seq.</I>








</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Goals, Purposes and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.1   Purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purposes of the CCDF are:
</P>
<P>(1) To allow each State maximum flexibility in developing child care programs and policies that best suit the needs of children and parents within that State;
</P>
<P>(2) To promote parental choice to empower working parents to make their own decisions regarding the child care services that best suits their family's needs;
</P>
<P>(3) To encourage States to provide consumer education information to help parents make informed choices about child care services and to promote involvement by parents and family members in the development of their children in child care settings;
</P>
<P>(4) To assist States in delivering high-quality, coordinated early childhood care and education services to maximize parents' options and support parents trying to achieve independence from public assistance;
</P>
<P>(5) To assist States in improving the overall quality of child care services and programs by implementing the health, safety, licensing, training, and oversight standards established in this subchapter and in State law (including State regulations);
</P>
<P>(6) To improve child care and development of participating children; and
</P>
<P>(7) To increase the number and percentage of low-income children in high-quality child care settings.
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of this part is to provide the basis for administration of the Fund. These regulations provide that State, Territorial, and Tribal Lead Agencies:
</P>
<P>(1) Maximize parental choice of safe, healthy and nurturing child care settings through the use of certificates and through grants and contracts, and by providing parents with information about child care programs;
</P>
<P>(2) Include in their programs a broad range of child care providers, including center-based care, family child care, in home care, care provided by relatives and sectarian child care providers;
</P>
<P>(3) Improve the quality and supply of child care and before- and after-school care services that meet applicable requirements and promote healthy child development and learning and family economic stability;
</P>
<P>(4) Coordinate planning and delivery of services at all levels, including Federal, State, Tribal, and local;
</P>
<P>(5) Design flexible programs that provide for the changing needs of recipient families and engage families in their children's development and learning;
</P>
<P>(6) Administer the CCDF responsibly to ensure that statutory requirements are met and that adequate information regarding the use of public funds is provided;
</P>
<P>(7) Design programs that provide uninterrupted service to families and providers, to the extent allowed under the statute, to support parental education, training, and employment and continuity of care that minimizes disruptions to children's learning and development;
</P>
<P>(8) Provide a progression of training and professional development opportunities for caregivers, teachers, and directors to increase their effectiveness in supporting children's development and learning and strengthen and retain (including through financial incentives and compensation improvements) the child care workforce.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67573, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part and part 99:
</P>
<P><I>The Act</I> refers to the Child Care and Development Block Grant Act of 1990, section 5082 of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990, Pub. L. 101-508, as amended and codified at 42 U.S.C. 9858 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>ACF</I> means the Administration for Children and Families;
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> is a request for funding that includes the information required at § 98.13;
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families, Department of Health and Human Services;
</P>
<P><I>Caregiver</I> means an individual who provides child care services directly to an eligible child on a person-to-person basis;
</P>
<P><I>Categories of care</I> means center-based child care, family child care, and in home care;
</P>
<P><I>Center-based child care provider</I> means a provider licensed or otherwise authorized to provide child care services for fewer than 24 hours per day per child in a non-residential setting, unless care in excess of 24 hours is due to the nature of the parent(s)' work;
</P>
<P><I>Child care certificate</I> means a certificate (that may be a check, or other disbursement) that is issued by a grantee directly to a parent who may use such certificate only as payment for child care services or as a deposit for child care services if such a deposit is required of other children being cared for by the provider, pursuant to § 98.30. Nothing in this part shall preclude the use of such certificate for sectarian child care services if freely chosen by the parent. For the purposes of this part, a child care certificate is assistance to the parent, not assistance to the provider;
</P>
<P><I>Child Care and Development Fund (CCDF)</I> means the child care programs conducted under the provisions of the Child Care and Development Block Grant Act, as amended. The Fund consists of Discretionary Funds authorized under section 658B of the amended Act, and Mandatory and Matching Funds appropriated under section 418 of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P><I>Child care provider that receives assistance</I> means a child care provider that receives Federal funds under the CCDF pursuant to grants, contracts, or loans, but does not include a child care provider to whom Federal funds under the CCDF are directed only through the operation of a certificate program;
</P>
<P><I>Child care services,</I> for the purposes of § 98.50, means the care given to an eligible child by an eligible child care provider;
</P>
<P><I>Child experiencing homelessness</I> means a child who is homeless as defined in section 725 of SubtitleVII-B of the McKinney-Vento Act (42 U.S.C. 11434a);
</P>
<P><I>Child with a disability</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A child with a disability, as defined in section 602 of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1401);
</P>
<P>(2) A child who is eligible for early intervention services under part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1431 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) A child who is less than 13 years of age and who is eligible for services under section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794); and
</P>
<P>(4) A child with a disability, as defined by the State, Territory or Tribe involved;
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means the erection of a facility that does not currently exist;
</P>
<P><I>The Department</I> means the Department of Health and Human Services;
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means a person who has primary responsibility for the daily operations and management for a child care provider, which may include a family child care provider, and which may serve children from birth to kindergarten entry and children in school-age child care;
</P>
<P><I>Discretionary funds</I> means the funds authorized under section 658B of the Child Care and Development Block Grant Act. The Discretionary funds were formerly referred to as the Child Care and Development Block Grant;
</P>
<P><I>Eligible child</I> means an individual who meets the requirements of § 98.20;
</P>
<P><I>Eligible child care provider</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A center-based child care provider, a family child care provider, an in-home child care provider, or other provider of child care services for compensation that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is licensed, regulated, or registered under applicable State or local law as described in § 98.40; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Satisfies State and local requirements, including those referred to in § 98.41 applicable to the child care services it provides; or
</P>
<P>(2) A child care provider who is 18 years of age or older who provides child care services only to eligible children who are, by marriage, blood relationship, or court decree, the grandchild, great grandchild, siblings (if such provider lives in separate residence), niece, or nephew of such provider, and complies with any applicable requirements that govern child care provided by the relative involved;
</P>
<P><I>English learner</I> means an individual who is an English learner, as defined in section 8101 of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 or who is limited English proficient, as defined in section 637 of the Head Start Act (42 U.S.C. 9832);
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means real property or modular unit appropriate for use by a grantee to carry out a child care program;
</P>
<P><I>Family child care provider</I> means one or more individual(s) who provide child care services for fewer than 24 hours per day per child, in a private residence other than the child's residence, unless care in excess of 24 hours is due to the nature of the parent(s)' work;
</P>
<P><I>Indian Tribe</I> means any Indian Tribe, band, nation, or other organized group or community, including any Alaska Native village or regional or village corporation as defined in or established pursuant to the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. § 1601 <I>et seq.</I>) that is recognized as eligible for the special programs and services provided by the United States to Indians because of their status as Indians;
</P>
<P><I>In-home child care provider</I> means an individual who provides child care services in the child's own home;
</P>
<P><I>Lead Agency</I> means the State, territorial or tribal entity, or joint interagency office, designated or established under §§ 98.10 and 98.16(a) to which a grant is awarded and that is accountable for the use of the funds provided. The Lead Agency is the entire legal entity even if only a particular component of the entity is designated in the grant award document;
</P>
<P><I>Licensing or regulatory requirements</I> means requirements necessary for a provider to legally provide child care services in a State or locality, including registration requirements established under State, local or tribal law;
</P>
<P><I>Liquidation period</I> means the applicable time period during which a fiscal year's grant shall be liquidated pursuant to the requirements at § 98.60.;
</P>
<P><I>Major renovation</I> means any renovation that has a cost equal to or exceeding $350,000 in CCDF funds for child care centers and $50,000 in CCDF funds for family child care homes, which amount shall be adjusted annually for inflation and published on the Office of Child Care website. If renovation costs exceed these thresholds and do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Structural changes to the foundation, roof, floor, exterior or load-bearing walls of a facility, or the extension of a facility to increase its floor area; or
</P>
<P>(2) Extensive alteration of a facility such as to significantly change its function and purpose for direct child care services, even if such renovation does not include any structural change; and improve the health, safety, and/or quality of child care, then it shall not be considered major renovation;


</P>
<P><I>Mandatory funds</I> means the general entitlement child care funds described at section 418(a)(1) of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P><I>Matching funds</I> means the remainder of the general entitlement child care funds that are described at section 418(a)(2) of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P><I>Modular unit</I> means a portable structure made at another location and moved to a site for use by a grantee to carry out a child care program;
</P>
<P><I>Obligation period</I> means the applicable time period during which a fiscal year's grant shall be obligated pursuant to § 98.60;
</P>
<P><I>Parent</I> means a parent by blood, marriage or adoption and also means a legal guardian, or other person standing <I>in loco parentis</I>;
</P>
<P><I>The Plan</I> means the Plan for the implementation of programs under the CCDF;
</P>
<P><I>Program period</I> means the time period for using a fiscal year's grant and does not extend beyond the last day to liquidate funds;
</P>
<P><I>Programs</I> refers generically to all activities under the CCDF, including child care services and other activities pursuant to § 98.50 as well as quality activities pursuant to § 98.53;
</P>
<P><I>Provider</I> means the entity providing child care services;
</P>
<P><I>The regulation</I> refers to the actual regulatory text contained in parts 98 and 99 of this chapter;
</P>
<P><I>Real property</I> means land, including land improvements, structures and appurtenances thereto, excluding movable machinery and equipment;
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services;
</P>
<P><I>Sectarian organization or sectarian child care provider</I> means religious organizations or religious providers generally. The terms embrace any organization or provider that engages in religious conduct or activity or that seeks to maintain a religious identity in some or all of its functions. There is no requirement that a sectarian organization or provider be managed by clergy or have any particular degree of religious management, control, or content;
</P>
<P><I>Sectarian purposes and activities</I> means any religious purpose or activity, including but not limited to religious worship or instruction;
</P>
<P><I>Services for which assistance is provided</I> means all child care services funded under the CCDF, either as assistance directly to child care providers through grants, contracts, or loans, or indirectly as assistance to parents through child care certificates;


</P>
<P><I>Sliding fee scale</I> means a system of cost-sharing by a family based on income and size of the family, in accordance with § 98.45(l);


</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the States and the District of Columbia, and includes Territories and Tribes unless otherwise specified;


</P>
<P><I>Teacher</I> means a lead teacher, teacher, teacher assistant, or teacher aide who is employed by a child care provider for compensation on a regular basis, or a family child care provider, and whose responsibilities and activities are to organize, guide, and implement activities in a group or individual basis, or to assist a teacher or lead teacher in such activities, to further the cognitive, social, emotional, and physical development of children from birth to kindergarten entry and children in school-age child care;
</P>
<P><I>Territory</I> means the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Marianas Islands;
</P>
<P><I>Territory mandatory funds</I> means the child care funds set aside at section 418(a)(3)(C) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 618(a)(3)(C)) for payments to the Territories;
</P>
<P><I>Tribal mandatory funds</I> means the child care funds set aside at section 418(a)(3)(B) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 618(a)(3)(B)) for payments to Indian Tribes and tribal organizations;
</P>
<P><I>Tribal organization</I> means the recognized governing body of any Indian Tribe, or any legally established organization of Indians, including a consortium, which is controlled, sanctioned, or chartered by such governing body or which is democratically elected by the adult members of the Indian community to be served by such organization and which includes the maximum participation of Indians in all phases of its activities: Provided, that in any case where a contract is let or grant is made to an organization to perform services benefiting more than one Indian Tribe, the approval of each such Indian Tribe shall be a prerequisite to the letting or making of such contract or grant; and
</P>
<P><I>Types of providers</I> means the different classes of providers under each category of care. For the purposes of the CCDF, types of providers include non-profit providers, for-profit providers, sectarian providers and relatives who provide care.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67573, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 15411, Mar. 1, 2024; 89 FR 52396, June 24, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.3   Effect on State law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nothing in the Act or this part shall be construed to supersede or modify any provision of a State constitution or State law that prohibits the expenditure of public funds in or by sectarian organizations, except that no provision of a State constitution or State law shall be construed to prohibit the expenditure in or by sectarian institutions of any Federal funds provided under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) If a State law or constitution would prevent CCDF funds from being expended for the purposes provided in the Act, without limitation, then States shall segregate State and Federal funds.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Application Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.10   Lead Agency responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>The Lead Agency (which may be an appropriate collaborative agency), or a joint interagency office, as designated or established by the Governor of the State (or by the appropriate Tribal leader or applicant), shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Administer the CCDF program, directly or through other governmental or non-governmental agencies, in accordance with § 98.11;
</P>
<P>(b) Apply for funding under this part, pursuant to § 98.13;
</P>
<P>(c) Consult with appropriate representatives of local government in developing a Plan to be submitted to the Secretary pursuant to § 98.14(b);
</P>
<P>(d) Hold at least one public hearing in accordance with § 98.14(c);
</P>
<P>(e) Coordinate CCDF services pursuant to § 98.12; and
</P>
<P>(f) Consult, collaborate, and coordinate in the development of the State Plan in a timely manner with Indian Tribes or tribal organizations in the State (at the option of the Tribe or tribal organization).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67574, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.11   Administration under contracts and agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Lead Agency has broad authority to administer the program through other governmental or non-governmental agencies. In addition, the Lead Agency can use other public or private local agencies to implement the program; however:
</P>
<P>(1) The Lead Agency shall retain overall responsibility for the administration of the program, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The Lead Agency shall serve as the single point of contact for issues involving the administration of the grantee's CCDF program; and
</P>
<P>(3) Administrative and implementation responsibilities undertaken by agencies other than the Lead Agency shall be governed by written agreements that specify the mutual roles and responsibilities of the Lead Agency and the other agencies in meeting the requirements of this part. The contents of the written agreement may vary based on the role the agency is asked to assume or the type of project undertaken, but must include, at a minimum, tasks to be performed, a schedule for completing tasks, a budget which itemizes categorical expenditures consistent with CCDF requirements at § 98.65(h), and indicators or measures to assess performance.
</P>
<P>(b) In retaining overall responsibility for the administration of the program, the Lead Agency shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine the basic usage and priorities for the expenditure of CCDF funds;
</P>
<P>(2) Promulgate all rules and regulations governing overall administration of the Plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Submit all reports required by the Secretary;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that the program complies with the approved Plan and all Federal requirements;
</P>
<P>(5) Oversee the expenditure of funds by subrecipients and contractors, in accordance with 75 CFR parts 351 to 353;
</P>
<P>(6) Monitor programs and services;
</P>
<P>(7) Fulfill the responsibilities of any subgrantee in any: disallowance under subpart G; complaint or compliance action under subpart J; or hearing or appeal action under part 99 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(8) Ensure that all State and local or non-governmental agencies through which the State administers the program, including agencies and contractors that determine individual eligibility, operate according to the rules established for the program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67574, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.12   Coordination and consultation.</HEAD>
<P>The Lead Agency shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Coordinate the provision of services for which assistance is provided under this part with the agencies listed in § 98.14(a).
</P>
<P>(b) Consult, in accordance with § 98.14(b), with representatives of general purpose local government during the development of the Plan; and
</P>
<P>(c) Coordinate, to the maximum extent feasible, per § 98.10(f) with any Indian Tribes in the State receiving CCDF funds in accordance with subpart I of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67574, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.13   Applying for Funds.</HEAD>
<P>The Lead Agency of a State or Territory shall apply for Child Care and Development funds by providing the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The amount of funds requested at such time and in such manner as prescribed by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) The following assurances or certifications:
</P>
<P>(1) An assurance that the Lead Agency will comply with the requirements of the Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(2) A lobbying certification that assures that the funds will not be used for the purpose of influencing pursuant to 45 CFR part 93, and, if necessary, a Standard Form LLL (SF-LLL) that discloses lobbying payments;
</P>
<P>(3) An assurance that the Lead Agency provides a drug-free workplace pursuant to 45 CFR 76.600, or a statement that such an assurance has already been submitted for all HHS grants;
</P>
<P>(4) A certification that no principals have been debarred pursuant to 2 CFR 180.300;


</P>
<P>(5) Assurances that the Lead Agency will comply with the applicable provisions regarding nondiscrimination at 45 CFR part 80 (implementing title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended), 45 CFR part 84 (implementing section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended), 45 CFR part 86 (implementing title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended) and 45 CFR part 91 (implementing the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended), and;
</P>
<P>(6) Assurances that the Lead Agency will comply with the applicable provisions of Public Law 103-277, Part C—Environmental Tobacco Smoke, also known as the Pro-Children Act of 1994, regarding prohibitions on smoking.
</P>
<P>(c) The Child Care and Development Fund Plan, at times and in such manner as required in § 98.17; and
</P>
<P>(d) Such other information as specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 89 FR 15412, Mar. 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.14   Plan process.</HEAD>
<P>In the development of each Plan, as required pursuant to § 98.17, the Lead Agency shall:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Coordinate the provision of child care services funded under this part with other Federal, State, and local child care and early childhood development programs (including such programs for the benefit of Indian children, infants and toddlers, children with disabilities, children experiencing homelessness, and children in foster care) to expand accessibility and continuity of care as well as full-day services. The Lead Agency shall also coordinate the provision of services with the State, and if applicable, tribal agencies responsible for:
</P>
<P>(i) Public health, including the agency responsible for immunizations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Employment services/workforce development;
</P>
<P>(iii) Public education (including agencies responsible for prekindergarten services, if applicable, and early intervention and preschool services provided under Part B and C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1400));
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing Temporary Assistance for Needy Families;
</P>
<P>(v) Child care licensing;
</P>
<P>(vi) Head Start collaboration, as authorized by the Head Start Act (42 U.S.C. 9831 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vii) State Advisory Council on Early Childhood Education and Care (designated or established pursuant to the Head Start Act (42 U.S.C. 9831 <I>et seq.</I>)) or similar coordinating body;
</P>
<P>(viii) Statewide after-school network or other coordinating entity for out-of-school time care (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(ix) Emergency management and response;
</P>
<P>(x) Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP) authorized by the National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1766) and other relevant nutrition programs;
</P>
<P>(xi) Services for children experiencing homelessness, including State Coordinators of Education for Homeless Children and Youth (EHCY State Coordinators) and, to the extent practicable, local liaisons designated by Local Educational Agencies (LEAs) in the State as required by the McKinney-Vento Act (42 U.S.C. 11432) and Continuum of Care grantees;
</P>
<P>(xii) Medicaid and the State children's health insurance programs (42 U.S.C. 1396 <I>et seq.,</I> 1397aa <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(xiii) Mental health services; and
</P>
<P>(xiv) Child care resources and referral agencies, child care consumer education organizations, and providers of early childhood education training and professional development.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide a description of the results of the coordination with each of these agencies in the CCDF Plan.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Lead Agency elects to combine funding for CCDF services with any other early childhood program, provide a description in the CCDF Plan of how the Lead Agency will combine and use the funding.
</P>
<P>(4) Demonstrate in the CCDF Plan how the State, Territory, or Tribe encourages partnerships among its agencies, other public agencies, Indian Tribes and Tribal organizations, and private entities, including faith-based and community-based organizations, to leverage existing service delivery systems for child care and development services and to increase the supply and quality of child care and development services and to increase the supply and quality of child care services for children who are less than 13 years of age, such as by implementing voluntary shared service alliance models.
</P>
<P>(b) Consult with appropriate representatives of local governments;
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Hold at least one hearing in the State, after at least 20 days of statewide public notice, to provide to the public an opportunity to comment on the provision of child care services under the Plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing required by paragraph (c)(1) shall be held before the Plan is submitted to ACF, but no earlier than nine months before the Plan becomes effective.
</P>
<P>(3) In advance of the hearing required by this section, the Lead Agency shall make available to the public the content of the Plan as described in § 98.16 that it proposes to submit to the Secretary, which shall include posting the Plan content on a Web site.
</P>
<P>(d) Make the submitted and final Plan, any Plan amendments, and any approved requests for temporary relief (in accordance with § 98.19) publicly available on a Web site.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67574, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.15   Assurances and certifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Lead Agency shall include the following assurances in its CCDF Plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon approval, it will have in effect a program that complies with the provisions of the CCDF Plan, and that is administered in accordance with the Child Care and Development Block Grant Act of 1990, as amended, section 418 of the Social Security Act, and all other applicable Federal laws and regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) The parent(s) of each eligible child within the area served by the Lead Agency who receives or is offered child care services for which financial assistance is provided is given the option either:
</P>
<P>(i) To enroll such child with a child care provider that has a grant or contract for the provision of the service; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To receive a child care certificate as defined in § 98.2;
</P>
<P>(3) In cases in which the parent(s), pursuant to § 98.30, elects to enroll their child with a provider that has a grant or contract with the Lead Agency, the child will be enrolled with the eligible provider selected by the parent to the maximum extent practicable;
</P>
<P>(4) In accordance with § 98.30, the child care certificate offered to parents shall be of a value commensurate with the subsidy value of child care services provided under a grant or contract;
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to State and local regulatory requirements (or tribal regulatory requirements), health and safety requirements, payment rates, and registration requirements, State or local (or tribal) rules, procedures or other requirements promulgated for the purpose of the CCDF will not significantly restrict parental choice from among categories of care or types of providers, pursuant to § 98.30(f).
</P>
<P>(6) That if expenditures for pre-Kindergarten services are used to meet the maintenance-of-effort requirement, the State has not reduced its level of effort in full-day/full-year child care services, pursuant to § 98.55(h)(1).
</P>
<P>(7) Training and professional development requirements comply with § 98.44 and are applicable to caregivers, teaching staff, and directors working for child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF.
</P>
<P>(8) To the extent practicable, enrollment and eligibility policies support the fixed costs of providing child care services by delinking provider payment rates from an eligible child's occasional absences in accordance with § 98.45(m);


</P>
<P>(9) The State will maintain or implement early learning and developmental guidelines that are developmentally appropriate for all children from birth to kindergarten entry, describing what such children should know and be able to do, and covering the essential domains of early childhood development (cognition, including language arts and mathematics; social, emotional and physical development; and approaches toward learning) for use statewide by child care providers and caregivers. Such guidelines shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Be research-based and developmentally, culturally, and linguistically appropriate, building in a forward progression, and aligned with entry to kindergarten;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be implemented in consultation with the State educational agency and the State Advisory Council on Early Childhood Education and Care (designated or established pursuant to section 642B(b)(I)(A)(i) of the Head Start Act (42 U.S.C. 9837b(b)(1)(A)(i)) or similar coordinating body, and in consultation with child development and content experts; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Be updated as determined by the State.
</P>
<P>(10) Funds received by the State to carry out this subchapter will not be used to develop or implement an assessment for children that—
</P>
<P>(i) Will be the primary or sole basis for a child care provider being determined to be ineligible to participate in the program carried out under this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Will be used as the primary or sole basis to provide a reward or sanction for an individual provider;
</P>
<P>(iii) Will be used as the primary or sole method for assessing program effectiveness; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Will be used to deny children eligibility to participate in the program carried out under this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(11) To the extent practicable and appropriate, any code or software for child care information systems or information technology that a Lead Agency or other agency expends CCDF funds to develop must be made available upon request to other public agencies, including public agencies in other States, for their use in administering child care or related programs.
</P>
<P>(b) The Lead Agency shall include the following certifications in its CCDF Plan:
</P>
<P>(1) The State has developed the CCDF Plan in consultation with the State Advisory Council on Early Childhood Education and Care (designated or established pursuant to section 642B(b)(I)(A)(i) of the Head Start Act (42 U.S.C. 9837b(b)(1)(A)(i))) or similar coordinating body, pursuant to § 98.14(a)(1)(vii);
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with § 98.31, the Lead Agency has procedures in place to ensure that providers of child care services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF, afford parents unlimited access to their children and to the providers caring for their children, during the normal hours of operations and whenever such children are in the care of such providers;
</P>
<P>(3) As required by § 98.32, the State maintains a record of substantiated parental complaints and makes information regarding such complaints available to the public on request;
</P>
<P>(4) It will collect and disseminate to parents of eligible children, the general public and, where applicable, child care providers, consumer education information that will promote informed child care choices, information on access to other programs for which families may be eligible, and information on developmental screenings, as required by § 98.33;
</P>
<P>(5) In accordance with § 98.33(a), that the State makes public, through a consumer-friendly and easily accessible Web site, the results of monitoring and inspection reports, as well as the number of deaths, serious injuries, and instances of substantiated child abuse that occurred in child care settings;
</P>
<P>(6) There are in effect licensing requirements applicable to child care services provided within the State, pursuant to § 98.40;
</P>
<P>(7) There are in effect within the State (or other area served by the Lead Agency), under State or local (or tribal) law, requirements designed to protect the health and safety of children that are applicable to child care providers that provide services for which assistance is made available under the CCDF, pursuant to § 98.41;
</P>
<P>(8) In accordance with § 98.42(a), procedures are in effect to ensure that child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF comply with all applicable State or local (or tribal) health and safety requirements;
</P>
<P>(9) Caregivers, teachers, and directors of child care providers comply with the State's, Territory's, or Tribe's procedures for reporting child abuse and neglect as required by section 106(b)(2)(B)(i) of the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act (42 U.S.C. 5106a(b)(2)(B)(i)), if applicable, or other child abuse reporting procedures and laws in the service area, as required by § 98.41(e);
</P>
<P>(10) There are in effect monitoring policies and practices pursuant to § 98.42;
</P>
<P>(11) Payment rates for the provision of child care services, in accordance with § 98.45, are sufficient to ensure equal access for eligible children to comparable child care services in the State or sub-State area that are provided to children whose parents are not eligible to receive assistance under this program or under any other Federal or State child care assistance programs;
</P>
<P>(12) Payment practices of child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF reflect generally accepted payment practices of child care providers that serve children who do not receive CCDF assistance, pursuant to § 98.45(m); and
</P>
<P>(13) There are in effect policies to govern the use and disclosure of confidential and personally identifiable information about children and families receiving CCDF assistance and child care providers receiving CCDF funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67575, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 15412, Mar. 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.16" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.16   Plan provisions.</HEAD>
<P>A CCDF Plan shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Specification of the Lead Agency whose duties and responsibilities are delineated in § 98.10;
</P>
<P>(b) A description of processes the Lead Agency will use to monitor administrative and implementation responsibilities undertaken by agencies other than the Lead Agency including descriptions of written agreements, monitoring and auditing procedures, and indicators or measures to assess performance pursuant to § 98.11(a)(3);
</P>
<P>(c) The assurances and certifications listed under § 98.15;
</P>
<P>(d)(1) A description of how the CCDF program will be administered and implemented, if the Lead Agency does not directly administer and implement the program;
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of the public or private entities designated to receive private donated funds and the purposes for which such funds will be expended, pursuant to § 98.55(f);
</P>
<P>(e) A description of the coordination and consultation processes involved in the development of the Plan and the provision of services, including a description of public-private partnership activities that promote business involvement in meeting child care needs pursuant to § 98.14;
</P>
<P>(f) A description of the public hearing process, pursuant to § 98.14(c);
</P>
<P>(g) Definitions of the following terms for purposes of determining eligibility, pursuant to §§ 98.20(a) and 98.46:
</P>
<P>(1) Special needs child;
</P>
<P>(2) Physical or mental incapacity (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(3) Attending (a job training or educational program);
</P>
<P>(4) Job training and educational program;
</P>
<P>(5) Residing with;
</P>
<P>(6) Working;
</P>
<P>(7) Protective services (if applicable), including whether children in foster care are considered in protective services for purposes of child care eligibility; and whether respite care is provided to custodial parents of children in protective services.
</P>
<P>(8) Very low income; and
</P>
<P>(9) In loco parentis;
</P>
<P>(h) A description and demonstration of eligibility determination and redetermination processes to promote continuity of care for children and stability for families receiving CCDF services, including:
</P>
<P>(1) An eligibility redetermination period of no less than 12 months in accordance with § 98.21(a);
</P>
<P>(2) A graduated phase-out for families whose income exceeds the Lead Agency's threshold to initially qualify for CCDF assistance, but does not exceed 85 percent of State median income, pursuant to § 98.21(b);
</P>
<P>(3) Processes that take into account irregular fluctuation in earnings, pursuant to § 98.21(c);
</P>
<P>(4) Processes to incorporate additional eligible children in the family size in accordance with § 98.21(d);
</P>
<P>(5) Procedures and policies for presumptive eligibility in accordance with § 98.21(e), including procedures for tracking the number of presumptively eligible children;
</P>
<P>(6) Procedures and policies to ensure that parents are not required to unduly disrupt their education, training, or employment to complete initial eligibility determination or re-determination, pursuant to § 98.21(f);
</P>
<P>(7) Processes for using eligibility for other programs to verify eligibility for CCDF in accordance with § 98.21(g);
</P>
<P>(8) Limiting any requirements to report changes in circumstances in accordance with § 98.21(h);
</P>
<P>(9) Policies that take into account children's development and learning when authorizing child care services pursuant to § 98.21(i); and,
</P>
<P>(10) Other policies and practices such as timely eligibility determination and processing of applications;
</P>
<P>(i) For child care services pursuant to § 98.50:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of such services and activities;
</P>
<P>(2) Any limits established for the provision of in-home care and the reasons for such limits pursuant to § 98.30(e)(1)(iii);
</P>
<P>(3) A list of political subdivisions in which such services and activities are offered, if such services and activities are not available throughout the entire service area;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of how the Lead Agency will meet the needs of certain families specified at § 98.50(e);
</P>
<P>(5) Any eligibility criteria, priority rules, and definitions established pursuant to §§ 98.20 and 98.46;
</P>
<P>(j) A description of the activities to provide comprehensive consumer and provider education, including the posting of monitoring and inspection reports, pursuant to § 98.33, to increase parental choice, and to improve the quality of child care, pursuant to § 98.53;
</P>
<P>(k) A description of the sliding fee scale(s) (including any factors other than income and family size used in establishing the fee scale(s)) that provide(s) for cost-sharing by the families that receive child care services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF and how co-payments are affordable for families, pursuant to § 98.45(l). This shall include a description of the criteria established by the Lead Agency, if any, for waiving contributions for families;
</P>
<P>(l) A description of the health and safety requirements, applicable to all providers of child care services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF, in effect pursuant to § 98.41, and any exemptions to those requirements for relative providers made in accordance with § 98.42(c);
</P>
<P>(m) A description of child care standards for child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF, in accordance with § 98.41(d), that includes group size limits, child-staff ratios, and required qualifications for caregivers, teachers, and directors;
</P>
<P>(n) A description of monitoring and other enforcement procedures in effect to ensure that child care providers comply with applicable health and safety requirements pursuant to § 98.42;
</P>
<P>(o) A description of criminal background check requirements, policies, and procedures in accordance with § 98.43, including a description of the requirements, policies, and procedures in place to respond to other States', Territories', and Tribes' requests for background check results in order to accommodate the 45 day timeframe;
</P>
<P>(p) A description of training and professional development requirements for caregivers, teaching staff, and directors of providers of services for which assistance is provided in accordance with § 98.44;
</P>
<P>(q) A description of the child care certificate payment system(s), including the form or forms of the child care certificate, pursuant to § 98.30(c);
</P>
<P>(r) Payment rates and a summary of the facts, including a local market rate survey or alternative methodology relied upon to determine that the rates provided are sufficient to ensure equal access pursuant to § 98.45;
</P>
<P>(s) A detailed description of the State's hotline for complaints, its process for substantiating and responding to complaints, whether or not the State uses monitoring as part of its process for responding to complaints for both CCDF and non-CCDF providers, how the State maintains a record of substantiated parental complaints, and how it makes information regarding those complaints available to the public on request, pursuant to § 98.32;
</P>
<P>(t) A detailed description of the procedures in effect for affording parents unlimited access to their children whenever their children are in the care of the provider, pursuant to § 98.31;
</P>
<P>(u) A detailed description of the licensing requirements applicable to child care services provided, any exemption to licensing requirements that is applicable to child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF and a demonstration of why such exemption does not endanger the health, safety, or development of children, and a description of how such licensing requirements are effectively enforced, pursuant to § 98.40;
</P>
<P>(v) Pursuant to § 98.33(f), the definitions or criteria used to implement the exception, provided in section 407(e)(2) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 607(e)(2)), to individual penalties in the TANF work requirement applicable to a single custodial parent caring for a child under age six;
</P>
<P>(w)(1) When any Matching funds under § 98.55(b) are claimed, a description of the efforts to ensure that pre-Kindergarten programs meet the needs of working parents;
</P>
<P>(2) When State pre-Kindergarten expenditures are used to meet more than 10% of the amount required at § 98.55(c)(1), or for more than 10% of the funds available at § 98.55(b), or both, a description of how the State will coordinate its pre-Kindergarten and child care services to expand the availability of child care;






</P>
<P>(x) A description of the Lead Agency's strategies (which may include alternative payment rates to child care providers, the provision of direct grants or contracts, offering child care certificates, or other means) to increase the supply and improve the quality of child care services for children in underserved areas, infants and toddlers, children with disabilities as defined by the Lead Agency, and children who receive care during nontraditional hours, including whether the Lead Agency plans to use grants and contracts in building supply and how supply-building mechanisms will address the needs identified. The description must identify shortages in the supply of high-quality child care providers, list the data sources used to identify shortages, and describe the method of tracking progress to support equal access and parental choice. If the Lead Agency chooses to employ grants and contracts to meet the purposes of this section, the Lead Agency must provide CCDF families the option to choose a certificate for the purpose of acquiring care;










</P>
<P>(y) A description of how the Lead Agency will improve the quality of child care services for children in underserved geographic areas, infants and toddlers, children with disabilities as defined by the Lead Agency, and children who receive care during nontraditional hours;




</P>
<P>(z) A description of how the Lead Agency prioritizes increasing access to high-quality child care and development services for children of families in areas that have significant concentrations of poverty and unemployment and that do not have sufficient numbers of such programs, pursuant to § 98.46;
</P>
<P>(aa) A description of how the Lead Agency develops and implements strategies to strengthen the business practices of child care providers to expand the supply, and improve the quality of, child care services;
</P>
<P>(bb) A demonstration of how the State, Territory or Tribe will address the needs of children, including the need for safe child care, before, during and after a state of emergency declared by the Governor or a major disaster or emergency (as defined by section 102 of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5122) through a Statewide Disaster Plan (or Disaster Plan for a Tribe's service area) that:
</P>
<P>(1) For a State, is developed in collaboration with the State human services agency, the State emergency management agency, the State licensing agency, the State health department or public health department, local and State child care resource and referral agencies, and the State Advisory Council on Early Childhood Education and Care (designated or established pursuant to section 642B(b)(I)(A)(i) of the Head Start Act (42 U.S.C. 9837b(b)(1)(A)(i))) or similar coordinating body; and
</P>
<P>(2) Includes the following components:
</P>
<P>(i) Guidelines for continuation of child care subsidies and child care services, which may include the provision of emergency and temporary child care services during a disaster, and temporary operating standards for child care after a disaster;
</P>
<P>(ii) Coordination of post-disaster recovery of child care services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Requirements that child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF, as well as other child care providers as determined appropriate by the State, Territory or Tribe, have in place:
</P>
<P>(A) Procedures for evacuation, relocation, shelter-in-place, lock-down, communication and reunification with families, continuity of operations, accommodations of infants and toddlers, children with disabilities, and children with chronic medical conditions; and
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for staff and volunteer emergency preparedness training and practice drills, including training requirements for child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under CCDF at § 98.41(a)(1)(vii);




</P>
<P>(cc) A description of payment practices applicable to providers of child care services for which assistance is provided under this part, pursuant to § 98.45(m), including practices to ensure timely payment for services, to delink provider payments from children's occasional absences to the extent practicable, and to reflect generally-accepted payment practices;








</P>
<P>(dd) A description of internal controls to ensure integrity and accountability, processes in place to investigate and recover fraudulent payments and to impose sanctions on clients or providers in response to fraud, and procedures in place to document and verify eligibility, pursuant to § 98.68;




</P>
<P>(ee) A description of how the Lead Agency will provide outreach and services to eligible families with limited English proficiency and persons with disabilities and facilitate participation of child care providers with limited English proficiency and disabilities in the subsidy system;
</P>
<P>(ff) A description of policies to prevent suspension, expulsion, and denial of services due to behavior of children birth to age five in child care and other early childhood programs receiving assistance under this part, which must be disseminated as part of consumer and provider education efforts in accordance with § 98.33(b)(1)(v);
</P>
<P>(gg) Designation of a State, territorial, or tribal entity to which child care providers must submit reports of any serious injuries or deaths of children occurring in child care, in accordance with § 98.42(b)(4);
</P>
<P>(hh) A description of how the Lead Agency will support child care providers in the successful engagement of families in children's learning and development;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of how the Lead Agency will respond to complaints submitted through the national hotline and website, required in section 658L(b) of the CCDBG Act of 2014 (42 U.S.C.9858j(b)), including the designee responsible for receiving and responding to such complaints regarding both licensed and license-exempt child care providers; and


</P>
<P>(jj) Such other information as specified by the Secretary.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67576, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 15412, Mar. 1, 2024; 89 FR 52396, June 24, 2024; 91 FR 25807, May 12, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.17" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.17   Period covered by Plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For States, Territories, and Indian Tribes the Plan shall cover a period of three years.
</P>
<P>(b) The Lead Agency shall submit a new Plan prior to the expiration of the time period specified in paragraph (a) of this section, at such time as required by the Secretary in written instructions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67578, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.18" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.18   Approval and disapproval of Plans and Plan amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Plan approval.</I> The Assistant Secretary will approve a Plan that satisfies the requirements of the Act and this part. Plans will be approved not later than the 90th day following the date on which the Plan submittal is received, unless a written agreement to extend that period has been secured.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plan amendments.</I> (1) Approved Plans shall be amended whenever a substantial change in the program occurs. A Plan amendment shall be submitted within 60 days of the effective date of the change. Plan amendments will be approved or denied not later than the 90th day following the date on which the amendment is received, unless a written agreement to extend that period has been secured.
</P>
<P>(2) Lead Agencies must ensure advanced written notice is provided to affected parties (<I>i.e.,</I> parents and child care providers) of substantial changes in the program that adversely affect eligibility, payment rates, and/or sliding fee scales.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeal of disapproval of a Plan or Plan amendment.</I> (1) An applicant or Lead Agency dissatisfied with a determination of the Assistant Secretary pursuant to paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section with respect to any Plan or amendment may, within 60 days after the date of receipt of notification of such determination, file a petition with the Assistant Secretary asking for reconsideration of the issue of whether such Plan or amendment conforms to the requirements for approval under the Act and pertinent Federal regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 30 days after receipt of such petition, the Assistant Secretary shall notify the applicant or Lead Agency of the time and place at which the hearing for the purpose of reconsidering such issue will be held.
</P>
<P>(3) Such hearing shall be held not less than 30 days, nor more than 90 days, after the notification is furnished to the applicant or Lead Agency, unless the Assistant Secretary and the applicant or Lead Agency agree in writing on another time.
</P>
<P>(4) Action pursuant to an initial determination by the Assistant Secretary described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section that a Plan or amendment is not approvable shall not be stayed pending the reconsideration, but in the event that the Assistant Secretary subsequently determines that the original decision was incorrect, the Assistant Secretary shall certify restitution forthwith in a lump sum of any funds incorrectly withheld or otherwise denied. The hearing procedures are described in part 99 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67578, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.19" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.2.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.19   Requests for temporary waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requests for relief.</I> The Secretary may temporarily waive one or more of the requirements contained in the Act or this part, with the exception of State Match and Maintenance of Effort requirements for a State, consistent with the conditions described in section 658I(c)(1) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 9858g(c)(1)), provided that the waiver request:
</P>
<P>(1) Describes circumstances that prevent the State, Territory, or Tribe from complying with any statutory or regulatory requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) By itself, contributes to or enhances the State's, Territory's, or Tribe's ability to carry out the purposes of the Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Will not contribute to inconsistency with the purposes of the Act or this part, and;
</P>
<P>(4) Meets the requirements set forth in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types.</I> Types of waivers include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Transitional and legislative waivers.</I> Lead Agencies may apply for temporary waivers meeting the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section that would provide transitional relief from conflicting or duplicative requirements preventing implementation, or an extended period of time in order for a State, territorial or tribal legislature to enact legislation to implement the provisions of this subchapter. Such waivers are:
</P>
<P>(i) Limited to a two-year period;
</P>
<P>(ii) May not be extended, notwithstanding paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Are designed to provide States, Territories and Tribes at most one full legislative session to enact legislation to implement the provisions of the Act or this part, and;
</P>
<P>(iv) Are conditional, dependent on progress towards implementation, and may be terminated by the Secretary at any time in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waivers for extraordinary circumstances.</I> States, Territories and Tribes may apply for waivers meeting the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section, in cases of extraordinary circumstances, which are defined as temporary circumstances or situations, such as a natural disaster or financial crisis. Such waivers are:
</P>
<P>(i) Limited to an initial period of no more than 2 years from the date of approval;
</P>
<P>(ii) May be extended, in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, for at most one additional year from the date of approval of the extension, and;
</P>
<P>(iii) May be terminated by the Secretary at any time in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> Waiver requests must be submitted to the Secretary in writing and:
</P>
<P>(1) Indicate which type of waiver, as detailed in paragraph (b) of this section, the State, Territory or Tribe is requesting;
</P>
<P>(2) Detail each sanction or provision of the Act or regulations that the State, Territory or Tribe seeks relief from;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe how a waiver from that sanction or provision will, by itself, improve delivery of child care services for children; and
</P>
<P>(4) Certify and describe how the health, safety, and well-being of children served through assistance received under this part will not be compromised as a result of the waiver.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification.</I> Within 90 days after receipt of the waiver request or, if additional follow up information has been requested, the receipt of such information, the Secretary will notify the Lead Agency of the approval or disapproval of the request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Termination.</I> The Secretary shall terminate approval of a request for a waiver authorized under the Act or this section if the Secretary determines, after notice and opportunity for a hearing based on the rules of procedure in part 99 of this chapter, that the performance of a State, Territory or Tribe granted relief under this section has been inadequate, or if such relief is no longer necessary to achieve its original purposes.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Renewal.</I> Where permitted, the Secretary may approve or disapprove a request from a State, Territory or Tribe for renewal of an existing waiver under the Act or this section for a period no longer than one year. A State, Territory or Tribe seeking to renew their waiver approval must inform the Secretary of this intent no later than 30 days prior to the expiration date of the waiver. The State, Territory or Tribe shall re-certify in its extension request the provisions in paragraph (a) of this section, and shall also explain the need for additional time of relief from such sanction(s) or provisions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Restrictions.</I> The Secretary may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Permit Lead Agencies to alter the federal eligibility requirements for eligible children, including work requirements, job training, or educational program participation, that apply to the parents of eligible children under this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Waive anything related to the Secretary's authority under this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) Require or impose any new or additional requirements in exchange for receipt of a waiver if such requirements are not specified in the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67578, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 15413, Mar. 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Eligibility for Services</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.20   A child's eligibility for child care services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for services under § 98.50, a child shall, at the time of eligibility determination or redetermination:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Be under 13 years of age; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) At the option of the Lead Agency, be under age 19 and physically or mentally incapable of caring for himself or herself, or under court supervision;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Reside with a family whose income does not exceed 85 percent of the State's median income (SMI), which must be based on the most recent SMI data that is published by the Bureau of the Census, for a family of the same size; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose family assets do not exceed $1,000,000 (as certified by such family member); and 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Reside with a parent or parents who are working or attending a job training or educational program; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Receive, or need to receive, protective services, which may include specific populations of vulnerable children as identified by the Lead Agency, and reside with a parent or parents other than the parent(s) described in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) At grantee option, the requirements in paragraph (a)(2) of this section may be waived for families eligible for child care pursuant to this paragraph, if determined to be necessary on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(B) At grantee option, the waiver provisions in paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(A) of this section apply to children in foster care when defined in the Plan, pursuant to § 98.16(g)(7).
</P>
<P>(b) A grantee or other administering agency may establish eligibility conditions or priority rules in addition to those specified in this section and § 98.46, which shall be described in the Plan pursuant to § 98.16(i)(5), so long as they do not:
</P>
<P>(1) Discriminate against children on the basis of race, national origin, ethnic background, sex, religious affiliation, or disability;
</P>
<P>(2) Limit parental rights provided under subpart D of this part; 
</P>
<P>(3) Violate the provisions of this section, § 98.46, or the Plan. In particular, such conditions or priority rules may not be based on a parent's preference for a category of care or type of provider. In addition, such additional conditions or rules may not be based on a parent's choice of a child care certificate; or
</P>
<P>(4) Impact eligibility other than at the time of eligibility determination or redetermination.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of implementing the citizenship eligibility verification requirements mandated by title IV of the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act, 8 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.,</I> only the citizenship and immigration status of the child, who is the primary beneficiary of the CCDF benefit, is relevant. Therefore, a Lead Agency or other administering agency may not condition a child's eligibility for services under § 98.50 based upon the citizenship or immigration status of their parent or the provision of any information about the citizenship or immigration status of their parent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67579, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.21   Eligibility determination processes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Lead Agency shall re-determine a child's eligibility for child care services no sooner than 12 months following the initial determination or most recent redetermination, subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) During the period of time between determinations or redeterminations, if the child met all of the requirements in § 98.20(a) on the date of the most recent eligibility determination or redetermination, the child shall be considered eligible and will receive services at least at the same level, regardless of:
</P>
<P>(i) A change in family income, if that family income does not exceed 85 percent of SMI for a family of the same size; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A temporary change in the ongoing status of the child's parent as working or attending a job training or educational program. A temporary change shall include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) Any time-limited absence from work for an employed parent due to reasons such as need to care for a family member or an illness;;
</P>
<P>(B) Any interruption in work for a seasonal worker who is not working between regular industry work seasons;
</P>
<P>(C) Any student holiday or break for a parent participating in training or education;
</P>
<P>(D) Any reduction in work, training or education hours, as long as the parent is still working or attending training or education;
</P>
<P>(E) Any other cessation of work or attendance at a training or education program that does not exceed three months or a longer period of time established by the Lead Agency;
</P>
<P>(F) Any change in age, including turning 13 years old during the eligibility period; and
</P>
<P>(G) Any change in residency within the State, Territory, or Tribal service area.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Lead Agencies have the option, but are not required, to discontinue assistance due to a parent's loss of work or cessation of attendance at a job training or educational program that does not constitute a temporary change in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section. However, if the Lead Agency exercises this option, it must continue assistance at least at the same level for a period of not less than three months after each such loss or cessation in order for the parent to engage in job search and resume work, or resume attendance at a job training or educational activity.
</P>
<P>(ii) At the end of the minimum three-month period of continued assistance, if the parent is engaged in a qualifying work, education, or training activity with income below 85% of SMI, assistance cannot be terminated and the child must continue receiving assistance until the next scheduled re-determination, or at Lead Agency option, for an additional minimum 12-month eligibility period.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a Lead Agency chooses to initially qualify a family for CCDF assistance based on a parent's status of seeking employment or engaging in job search, the Lead Agency has the option to end assistance after a minimum of three months if the parent has still not found employment, although assistance must continue if the parent becomes employed during the job search period.


</P>
<P>(3) Lead Agencies cannot increase family co-payment amounts, established in accordance with § 98.45(k), within the minimum 12-month eligibility period except as described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Because a child meeting eligibility requirements at the most recent eligibility determination or redetermination is considered eligible between redeterminations as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, any payment for such a child shall not be considered an error or improper payment under subpart K of this part due to a change in the family's circumstances.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1), the Lead Agency may discontinue assistance prior to the next re-determination in limited circumstances where there have been:
</P>
<P>(i) Excessive unexplained absences despite multiple attempts by the Lead Agency or designated entity to contact the family and provider, including prior notification of possible discontinuation of assistance;
</P>
<P>(A) If the Lead Agency chooses this option, it shall define the number of unexplained absences that shall be considered excessive;
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) A change in residency outside of the State, Territory, or Tribal service area; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Substantiated fraud or intentional program violations that invalidate prior determinations of eligibility.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Lead Agencies that establish family income eligibility at a level less than 85 percent of SMI for a family of the same size (in order for a child to initially qualify for assistance) must provide a graduated phase-out by implementing two-tiered eligibility thresholds, with the second tier of eligibility (used at the time of eligibility re-determination) set at:
</P>
<P>(i) 85 percent of SMI for a family of the same size; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An amount lower than 85 percent of SMI for a family of the same size, but above the Lead Agency's initial eligibility threshold, that:
</P>
<P>(A) Takes into account the typical household budget of a low income family; and
</P>
<P>(B) Provides justification that the second eligibility threshold is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Sufficient to accommodate increases in family income over time that are typical for low-income workers and that promote and support family economic stability; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Reasonably allows a family to continue accessing child care services without unnecessary disruption.
</P>
<P>(2) At re-determination, a child shall be considered eligible (pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section) if their parents, at the time of redetermination, are working or attending a job training or educational program even if their income exceeds the Lead Agency's income limit to initially quality for assistance, as long as their income does not exceed the second tier of the eligibility described in (b)(1);
</P>
<P>(3) A family meeting the conditions described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be eligible for services pursuant to the conditions described in § 98.20 and all other paragraphs of this section, with the exception of the co-payment restrictions at paragraph (a)(3) of this section. To help families transition off of child care assistance, Lead Agencies may gradually adjust co-pay amounts for families whose children are determined eligible under the graduated phase-out conditions described in paragraph (b)(2) and may require additional reporting on changes in family income as described in paragraph (h)(3) of this section, provided such requirements do not constitute an undue burden, pursuant to conditions described in paragraphs (h)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section.


</P>
<P>(c) The Lead Agency shall establish processes for initial determination and redetermination of eligibility that take into account irregular fluctuation in earnings, including policies that ensure temporary increases in income, including temporary increases that result in monthly income exceeding 85 percent of SMI (calculated on a monthly basis), do not affect eligibility or family co-payments.
</P>
<P>(d) The Lead Agency shall establish policies and processes to incorporate additional eligible children in the family size (<I>e.g.,</I> siblings or foster siblings), including ensuring a minimum of 12 months of eligibility between eligibility determination and redetermination as described in paragraph (a) of this section for children previously determined eligible and for new children who are determined eligible, without placing undue reporting burden on families.
</P>
<P>(e) At a Lead Agency's option, a child may be considered presumptively eligible for up to three months and begin to receive child care subsidy prior to full documentation and eligibility determination:
</P>
<P>(1) The Lead Agency may issue presumptive eligibility prior to full documentation of a child's eligibility if the Lead Agency first obtains a less burdensome minimum verification requirement from the family.
</P>
<P>(2) If, after full documentation is provided, a child is determined to be ineligible, the Lead Agency shall ensure that a child care provider is paid and shall not recover funds paid or owed to a child care provider for services provided as a result of the presumptive eligibility determination except in cases of fraud or intentional program violation by the provider.
</P>
<P>(3) Any CCDF payment made on behalf of a presumptively eligible child prior to the final eligibility determination shall not be considered an error or improper payment under subpart K of this part and will not be subject to disallowance so long as the payment was not for a service period longer than the period of presumptive eligibility.
</P>
<P>(4) If a child is determined to be eligible, the period of presumptive eligibility will apply to the minimum of 12 months of eligibility prior to re-determination described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The Secretary may deny the use of federal funds for direct services under presumptive eligibility for Lead Agencies under a corrective action plan for error rate reporting pursuant to § 98.102(c).
</P>
<P>(f) The Lead Agency shall establish procedures and policies to ensure parents, especially parents receiving assistance through the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) program are not required to unduly disrupt their education, training, or employment in order to complete the eligibility determination or re-determination process, including the use of online applications and other measures, to the extent practicable.
</P>
<P>(g) At the Lead Agency's option, enrollment in other benefit programs or documents or verification used for other benefit programs may be used to verify eligibility as appropriate according to § 98.68(c) for CCDF, such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Benefit programs with income eligibility requirements aligned with the income eligibility at § 98.20(a)(2)(i) may be used to verify a family's income eligibility; and
</P>
<P>(2) Benefit programs with other eligibility requirements aligned with § 98.20(a)(3) may verify:
</P>
<P>(i) A family's work or attendance at a job training or educational program;
</P>
<P>(ii) A family's status as receiving, or need to receive, protective services; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Other information needed for eligibility.
</P>
<P>(h) The Lead Agency shall specify in the Plan any requirements for parents to notify the Lead Agency of changes in circumstances during the minimum 12-month eligibility period, and describe efforts to ensure such requirements do not place an undue burden on eligible families that could impact continued eligibility between redeterminations.
</P>
<P>(1) The Lead Agency must require families to report a change at any point during the minimum 12-month period, limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) If the family's income exceeds 85% of SMI, taking into account irregular income fluctuations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) At the option of the Lead Agency, the family has experienced a non-temporary cessation of work, training, or education.
</P>
<P>(2) Any additional requirements the Lead Agency chooses, at its option, to impose on parents to provide notification of changes in circumstances to the Lead Agency or entities designated to perform eligibility functions shall not constitute an undue burden on families. Any such requirements shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Limit notification requirements to items that impact a family's eligibility (<I>e.g.,</I> only if income exceeds 85 percent of SMI, or there is a non-temporary change in the status of the child's parent as working or attending a job training or educational program) or those that enable the Lead Agency to contact the family or pay providers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not require an office visit in order to fulfill notification requirements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Offer a range of notification options (<I>e.g.,</I> phone, email, online forms, extended submission hours) to accommodate the needs of parents;
</P>
<P>(3) During a period of graduated phase-out, the Lead Agency may require additional reporting on changes in family income in order to gradually adjust family co-payments, if desired, as described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Lead Agencies must allow families the option to voluntarily report changes on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(i) Lead Agencies are required to act on this information provided by the family if it would reduce the family's co-payment or increase the family's subsidy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Lead Agencies are prohibited from acting on information that would reduce the family's subsidy unless the information provided indicates the family's income exceeds 85 percent of SMI for a family of the same size, taking into account irregular income fluctuations, or, at the option of the Lead Agency, the family has experienced a non-temporary change in the work, training, or educational status.
</P>
<P>(i) Lead Agencies must take into consideration children's development and learning and promote continuity of care when authorizing child care services.
</P>
<P>(j) Lead Agencies are not required to limit authorized child care services strictly based on the work, training, or educational schedule of the parent(s) or the number of hours the parent(s) spend in work, training, or educational activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67579, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 15413, Mar. 1, 2024; 89 FR 52397, June 24, 2024; 89 FR 85071, Oct. 25, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Program Operations (Child Care Services)—Parental Rights and Responsibilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.30   Parental choice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parent or parents of an eligible child who receives or is offered child care services shall be offered a choice:
</P>
<P>(1) To enroll the child with an eligible child care provider that has a grant or contract for the provision of such services, if such services are available; or
</P>
<P>(2) To receive a child care certificate as defined in § 98.2. Such choice shall be offered any time that child care services are made available to a parent.


</P>
<P>(b) When a parent elects to enroll the child with a provider that has a grant or contract for the provision of child care services, the child will be enrolled with the provider selected by the parent to the maximum extent practicable.




</P>
<P>(c) In cases in which a parent elects to use a child care certificate, such certificate:
</P>
<P>(1) Will be issued directly to the parent;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall be of a value commensurate with the subsidy value of the child care services provided under paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) May be used as a deposit for child care services if such a deposit is required of other children being cared for by the provider;
</P>
<P>(4) May be used for child care services provided by a sectarian organization or agency, including those that engage in religious activities, if those services are chosen by the parent;
</P>
<P>(5) May be expended by providers for any sectarian purpose or activity that is part of the child care services, including sectarian worship or instruction;
</P>
<P>(6) Shall not be considered a grant or contract to a provider but shall be considered assistance to the parent.
</P>
<P>(d) Child care certificates shall be made available to any parents offered child care services.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) For child care services, certificates under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall permit parents to choose from a variety of child care categories, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Center-based child care;
</P>
<P>(ii) Family child care; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In-home child care, with limitations, if any, imposed by the Lead Agency and described in its Plan at § 98.16(i)(2). Under each of the above categories, care by a sectarian provider may not be limited or excluded.
</P>
<P>(2) Lead Agencies shall provide information regarding the range of provider options under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, including care by sectarian providers and relatives, to families offered child care services.
</P>
<P>(f) With respect to State and local regulatory requirements under § 98.40, health and safety requirements under § 98.41, and payment rates under § 98.45, CCDF funds will not be available to a Lead Agency if State or local rules, procedures or other requirements promulgated for purposes of the CCDF significantly restrict parental choice by:
</P>
<P>(1) Expressly or effectively excluding:
</P>
<P>(i) Any category of care or type of provider, as defined in § 98.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any type of provider within a category of care; or
</P>
<P>(2) Having the effect of limiting parental access to or choice from among such categories of care or types of providers, as defined in § 98.2, with the exception of in-home care; or
</P>
<P>(3) Excluding a significant number of providers in any category of care or of any type as defined in § 98.2.
</P>
<P>(g) As long as provisions at paragraph (f) of this section are met, parental choice provisions shall not be construed as prohibiting a Lead Agency from establishing policies that require providers of child care services for which assistance is provided under this part to meet higher standards of quality, such as those identified in a quality rating and improvement system or other transparent system of quality indicators.
</P>
<P>(h) Parental choice provisions shall not be construed as prohibiting a Lead Agency from providing parents with information and incentives that encourage the selection of high-quality child care.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67580, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 15413, Mar. 1, 2024; 91 FR 25807, May 12, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.31   Parental access.</HEAD>
<P>The Lead Agency shall have in effect procedures to ensure that providers of child care services for which assistance is provided afford parents unlimited access to their children, and to the providers caring for their children, during normal hours of provider operation and whenever the children are in the care of the provider. The Lead Agency shall provide a detailed description in the Plan of such procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67581, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.32   Parental complaints.</HEAD>
<P>The State shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish or designate a hotline or similar reporting process for parents to submit complaints about child care providers;
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain a record of substantiated parent complains;
</P>
<P>(c) Make information regarding such parental complaints available to the public on request; and
</P>
<P>(d) The Lead Agency shall provide a detailed description in the Plan of how:
</P>
<P>(1) Complaints are substantiated and responded to, including whether or not the State uses monitoring as part of its process for responding to complaints for both CCDF and non-CCDF providers; and,
</P>
<P>(2) A record of substantiated complaints is maintained and is made available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67581, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.33   Consumer and provider education.</HEAD>
<P>The Lead Agency shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Certify that it will collect and disseminate consumer education information to parents of eligible children, the general public, and providers through a consumer-friendly and easily accessible Web site that ensures the widest possible access to services for families who speak languages other than English and persons with disabilities, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Lead Agency processes, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The process for licensing child care providers pursuant to § 98.40;
</P>
<P>(ii) The process for conducting monitoring and inspections of child care providers pursuant to § 98.42;
</P>
<P>(iii) Policies and procedures related to criminal background checks for child care providers pursuant to § 98.43; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The offenses that prevent individuals from serving as child care providers.
</P>
<P>(2) A localized list of all licensed child care providers, and, at the discretion of the Lead Agency, all eligible child care providers (other than an individual who is related to all children for whom child care services are provided), differentiating between licensed and license-exempt providers, searchable by zip code;
</P>
<P>(3) The quality of a provider as determined by the Lead Agency through a quality rating and improvement system or other transparent system of quality indicators, if such information is available for the provider;
</P>
<P>(4) Results of monitoring and inspection reports for all eligible and licensed child care providers (other than an individual who is related to all children for whom child care services are provided), including those required at § 98.42 and those due to major substantiated complaints about failure to comply with provisions at § 98.41 and Lead Agency child care policies. Lead Agencies shall post in a timely manner full monitoring and inspection reports, either in plain language or with a plain language summary, for parents and child care providers to understand, and shall establish a process for correcting inaccuracies in the reports. Such results shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on the date of such inspection;
</P>
<P>(ii) Areas of compliance and non-compliance;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on corrective action taken by the State and child care provider, where applicable;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any health and safety violations, including any fatalities and serious injuries occurring at the provider, prominently displayed on the report or summary; and
</P>
<P>(v) A minimum of 3 years of results where available.
</P>
<P>(5) Aggregate data for each year for eligible providers including:
</P>
<P>(i) Number of deaths (for each provider category and licensing status);
</P>
<P>(ii) Number of serious injuries (for each provider category and licensing status);
</P>
<P>(iii) Instances of substantiated child abuse that occurred in child care settings; and,
</P>
<P>(iv) Total number of children in care (for each provider category and licensing status).
</P>
<P>(6) Referrals to local child care resource and referral organizations.
</P>
<P>(7) Directions on how parents can contact the Lead Agency or its designee and other programs to help them understand information included on the Web site.
</P>
<P>(8) The sliding fee scale for parent co-payments pursuant to § 98.45(l), including the co-payment amount a family may expect to pay and policies for waiving co-payments.
</P>
<P>(b) Certify that it will collect and disseminate, through resource and referral organizations or other means as determined by the State, including, but not limited to, through the Web site described in paragraph (a) of this section, to parents of eligible children and the general public, and where applicable providers, information about:
</P>
<P>(1) The availability of the full diversity of child care services to promote informed parental choice, including information about:
</P>
<P>(i) The availability of child care services under this part and other programs for which families may be eligible, as well as the availability of financial assistance to obtain child care services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Other programs for which families that receive assistance under this part may be eligible, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) (42 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(B) Head Start and Early Head Start (42 U.S.C. 9831 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(C) Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Program (LIHEAP) (42 U.S.C. 8621 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(D) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) (7 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(E) Special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (42 U.S.C. 1786);
</P>
<P>(F) Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP) (42 U.S.C. 1766);
</P>
<P>(G) Medicaid and the State children's health insurance programs (42 U.S.C. 1396 <I>et seq.,</I> 1397aa <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) Programs carried out under section 619 and part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) (20 U.S.C. 1419, 1431 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iv) Research and best practices concerning children's development, meaningful parent and family engagement, and physical health and development, particularly healthy eating and physical activity; and
</P>
<P>(v) State policies regarding social emotional behavioral health of children which may include positive behavioral health intervention and support models for birth to school-age or age-appropriate, and policies to prevent suspension and expulsion of children birth to age five in child care and other early childhood programs, as described in the Plan pursuant to § 98.16(ee), receiving assistance under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Provide information on developmental screenings to parents as part of the intake process for families receiving assistance under this part, and to providers through training and education, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Information on existing resources and services the State can make available in conducting developmental screenings and providing referrals to services when appropriate for children who receive assistance under this part, including the coordinated use of the Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment program (42 U.S.C. 1396 <I>et seq.</I>) and developmental screening services available under section 619 and part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1419, 1431 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of how a family or eligible child care provider may utilize the resources and services described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section to obtain developmental screenings for children who receive assistance under this part who may be at risk for cognitive or other developmental delays, which may include social, emotional, physical, or linguistic delays.
</P>
<P>(d) For families that receive assistance under this part, provide specific information about the child care provider selected by the parent, including health and safety requirements met by the provider pursuant to § 98.41, any licensing or regulatory requirements met by the provider, date the provider was last inspected, any history of violations of these requirements, and any voluntary quality standards met by the provider. Information must also describe how CCDF subsidies are designed to promote equal access in accordance with § 98.45, how to submit a complaint through the hotline at § 98.32(a), and how to contact local resource and referral agencies or other community-based supports that assist parents in finding and enrolling in quality child care.
</P>
<P>(e) Provide linkages to databases related to paragraph (a) to HHS for implementing a national Web site and other uses as determined by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(f) Inform parents who receive TANF benefits about the requirement at section 407(e)(2) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 607(e)(2)) that the TANF agency make an exception to the individual penalties associated with the work requirement for any single custodial parent who has a demonstrated inability to obtain needed child care for a child under six years of age. The information may be provided directly by the Lead Agency, or, pursuant to § 98.11, other entities, and shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The procedures the TANF agency uses to determine if the parent has a demonstrated inability to obtain needed child care;
</P>
<P>(2) The criteria or definitions applied by the TANF agency to determine whether the parent has a demonstrated inability to obtain needed child care, including:
</P>
<P>(i) “Appropriate child care”;
</P>
<P>(ii) “Reasonable distance”;
</P>
<P>(iii) “Unsuitability of informal child care”;
</P>
<P>(iv) “Affordable child care arrangements”;
</P>
<P>(3) The clarification that assistance received during the time an eligible parent receives the exception referred to in paragraph (f) of this section will count toward the time limit on Federal benefits required at section 408(a)(7) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 608(a)(7)).
</P>
<P>(g) Include in the triennial Plan the definitions or criteria the TANF agency uses in implementing the exception to the work requirement specified in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67581, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 15414, Mar. 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.4.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.34   Parental rights and responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing under this part shall be construed or applied in any manner to infringe on or usurp the moral and legal rights and responsibilities of parents or legal guardians.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Program Operations (Child Care Services)—Lead Agency and Provider Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.40" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.40   Compliance with applicable State and local regulatory requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lead Agencies shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Certify that they have in effect licensing requirements applicable to child care services provided within the area served by the Lead Agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in the Plan exemption(s) to licensing requirements, if any, for child care services for which assistance is provided, and a demonstration for how such exemption(s) do not endanger the health, safety, or development of children who receive services from such providers. Lead Agencies must provide the required description and demonstration for any exemptions based on:
</P>
<P>(i) Provider category, type, or setting;
</P>
<P>(ii) Length of day;
</P>
<P>(iii) Providers not subject to licensing because the number of children served falls below a State-defined threshold; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other exemption to licensing requirements; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a detailed description in the Plan of the requirements under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and of how they are effectively enforced.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) This section does not prohibit a Lead Agency from imposing more stringent standards and licensing or regulatory requirements on child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF than the standards or requirements imposed on other child care providers.
</P>
<P>(2) Any such additional requirements shall be consistent with the safeguards for parental choice in § 98.30(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67582, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.41   Health and safety requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Lead Agency shall certify that there are in effect, within the State (or other area served by the Lead Agency), under State, local or tribal law, requirements (appropriate to provider setting and age of children served) that are designed, implemented, and enforced to protect the health and safety of children. Such requirements must be applicable to child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under this part. Such requirements, which are subject to monitoring pursuant to § 98.42, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Include health and safety topics consisting of, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) The prevention and control of infectious diseases (including immunizations); with respect to immunizations, the following provisions apply:
</P>
<P>(A) As part of their health and safety provisions in this area, Lead Agencies shall assure that children receiving services under the CCDF are age-appropriately immunized. Those health and safety provisions shall incorporate (by reference or otherwise) the latest recommendation for childhood immunizations of the respective State, territorial, or tribal public health agency.
</P>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding this paragraph (a)(1)(i), Lead Agencies may exempt:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Children who are cared for by relatives (defined as grandparents, great grandparents, siblings (if living in a separate residence), aunts, and uncles), provided there are no other unrelated children who are cared for in the same setting.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Children who receive care in their own homes, provided there are no other unrelated children who are cared for in the home.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Children whose parents object to immunization on religious grounds.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Children whose medical condition contraindicates immunization.
</P>
<P>(C) Lead Agencies shall establish a grace period that allows children experiencing homelessness and children in foster care to receive services under this part while providing their families (including foster families) a reasonable time to take any necessary action to comply with immunization and other health and safety requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The length of such grace period shall be established in consultation with the State, Territorial or Tribal health agency.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any payment for such child during the grace period shall not be considered an error or improper payment under subpart K of this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Lead Agency may also, at its option, establish grace periods for other children who are not experiencing homelessness or in foster care.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Lead Agencies must coordinate with licensing agencies and other relevant State, Territorial, Tribal, and local agencies to provide referrals and support to help families of children receiving services during a grace period comply with immunization and other health and safety requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prevention of sudden infant death syndrome and use of safe sleeping practices;
</P>
<P>(iii) Administration of medication, consistent with standards for parental consent;
</P>
<P>(iv) Prevention and response to emergencies due to food and allergic reactions;
</P>
<P>(v) Building and physical premises safety, including identification of and protection from hazards, bodies of water, and vehicular traffic;
</P>
<P>(vi) Prevention of shaken baby syndrome, abusive head trauma, and child maltreatment;
</P>
<P>(vii) Emergency preparedness and response planning for emergencies resulting from a natural disaster, or a man-caused event (such as violence at a child care facility), within the meaning of those terms under section 602(a)(1) of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5195a(a)(1)) that shall include procedures for evacuation, relocation, shelter-in-place and lock down, staff and volunteer emergency preparedness training and practice drills, communication and reunification with families, continuity of operations, and accommodation of infants and toddlers, children with disabilities, and children with chronic medical conditions;
</P>
<P>(viii) Handling and storage of hazardous materials and the appropriate disposal of biocontaminants;
</P>
<P>(ix) Appropriate precautions in transporting children, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(x) Pediatric first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation;
</P>
<P>(xi) Recognition and reporting of child abuse and neglect, in accordance with the requirement in paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(xii) May include requirements relating to:
</P>
<P>(A) Nutrition (including age-appropriate feeding);
</P>
<P>(B) Access to physical activity;
</P>
<P>(C) Caring for children with special needs; or
</P>
<P>(D) Any other subject area determined by the Lead Agency to be necessary to promote child development or to protect children's health and safety.
</P>
<P>(2) Include minimum health and safety training on the topics above, as described in § 98.44.
</P>
<P>(b) Lead Agencies may not set health and safety standards and requirements other than those required in paragraph (a) of this section that are inconsistent with the parental choice safeguards in § 98.30(f).
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements in paragraph (a) of this section shall apply to all providers of child care services for which assistance is provided under this part, within the area served by the Lead Agency, except the relatives specified at § 98.42(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Lead Agencies shall describe in the Plan standards for child care services for which assistance is provided under this part, appropriate to strengthening the adult and child relationship in the type of child care setting involved, to provide for the safety and developmental needs of the children served, that address:
</P>
<P>(1) Group size limits for specific age populations;
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate ratio between the number of children and the number of caregivers, in terms of age of children in child care; and
</P>
<P>(3) Required qualifications for caregivers in child care settings as described at § 98.44(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(e) Lead Agencies shall certify that caregivers, teachers, and directors of child care providers within the State or service area will comply with the State's, Territory's, or Tribe's child abuse reporting requirements as required by section 106(b)(2)(B)(i) of the Child Abuse and Prevention and Treatment Act (42 U.S.C. 5106a(b)(2)(B)(i)) or other child abuse reporting procedures and laws in the service area.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67582, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.42   Enforcement of licensing and health and safety requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Lead Agency shall certify in the Plan that procedures are in effect to ensure that child care providers of services for which assistance is made available in accordance with this part, within the area served by the Lead Agency, comply with all applicable State, local, or tribal health and safety requirements, including those described in § 98.41.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Lead Agency shall certify in the Plan it has monitoring policies and practices applicable to all child care providers and facilities eligible to deliver services for which assistance is provided under this part. The Lead Agency shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure individuals who are hired as licensing inspectors are qualified to inspect those child care providers and facilities and have received training in related health and safety requirements appropriate to provider setting and age of children served. Training shall include, but is not limited to, those requirements described in § 98.41, and all aspects of the State, Territory, or Tribe's licensure requirements;
</P>
<P>(2) Require inspections of child care providers and facilities, performed by licensing inspectors (or qualified inspectors designated by the Lead Agency), as specified below:
</P>
<P>(i) For licensed child care providers and facilities,
</P>
<P>(A) Not less than one pre-licensure inspection for compliance with health, safety, and fire standards, and
</P>
<P>(B) Not less than annually, an unannounced inspection for compliance with all child care licensing standards, which shall include an inspection for compliance with health and safety, (including, but not limited to, those requirements described in § 98.41) and fire standards (inspectors may inspect for compliance with all three standards at the same time); and
</P>
<P>(ii) For license-exempt child care providers and facilities that are eligible to provide services for which assistance is made available in accordance with this part, an annual inspection for compliance with health and safety (including, but not limited to, those requirements described in § 98.41), and fire standards;
</P>
<P>(iii) Coordinate, to the extent practicable, monitoring efforts with other Federal, State, and local agencies that conduct similar inspections.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Lead Agency may, at its option:
</P>
<P>(A) Use differential monitoring or a risk-based approach to design annual inspections, provided that the contents covered during each monitoring visit is representative of the full complement of health and safety requirements;
</P>
<P>(B) Develop alternate monitoring requirements for care provided in the child's home that are appropriate to the setting; and
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure the ratio of licensing inspectors to such child care providers and facilities is maintained at a level sufficient to enable the State, Territory, or Tribe to conduct effective inspections on a timely basis in accordance with the applicable Federal, State, Territory, Tribal, and local law;
</P>
<P>(4) Require child care providers to report to a designated State, Territorial, or Tribal entity any serious injuries or deaths of children occurring in child care.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section and § 98.41, Lead Agencies may exclude grandparents, great grandparents, siblings (if such providers live in a separate residence), aunts, or uncles, from the term “child care providers.” If the Lead Agency chooses to exclude these providers, the Lead Agency shall provide a description and justification in the CCDF Plan, pursuant to § 98.16(l), of requirements, if any, that apply to these providers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67583, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.43" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.43   Criminal background checks.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) States, Territories, and Tribes, through coordination of the Lead agency with other State, territorial, and tribal agencies, shall have in effect:
</P>
<P>(i) Requirements, policies, and procedures to require and conduct background checks, and make a determination of eligibility for child care staff members (including prospective child care staff members) of all licensed, regulated, or registered child care providers and all child care providers eligible to deliver services for which assistance is provided under this part as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section;


</P>
<P>(ii) Licensing, regulation, and registration requirements, as applicable, that prohibit the employment of child care staff members as described in paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Requirements, policies, and procedures in place to respond as expeditiously as possible to other States', Territories', and Tribes' requests for background check results in order to accommodate the 45 day timeframe required in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Child care provider means a center based child care provider, a family child care provider, or another provider of child care services for compensation and on a regular basis that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not an individual who is related to all children for whom child care services are provided; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is licensed, regulated, or registered under State law or eligible to receive assistance provided under this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Child care staff member means an individual (other than an individual who is related to all children for whom child care services are provided):
</P>
<P>(A) Who is employed by a child care provider for compensation, including contract employees or self-employed individuals;
</P>
<P>(B) Whose activities involve the care or supervision of children for a child care provider or unsupervised access to children who are cared for or supervised by a child care provider; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any individual residing in a family child care home who is age 18 and older.
</P>
<P>(b) A criminal background check for a child care staff member under paragraph (a) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal Bureau of Investigation fingerprint check using Next Generation Identification;
</P>
<P>(2) A search of the National Crime Information Center's National Sex Offender Registry; and
</P>
<P>(3) A search of the following registries, repositories, or databases in the State where the child care staff member resides and each State where such staff member resided during the preceding five years:
</P>
<P>(i) State criminal registry or repository, with the use of fingerprints being:
</P>
<P>(A) Required in the State where the staff member resides;
</P>
<P>(B) Optional in other States;
</P>
<P>(ii) State sex offender registry or repository; and
</P>
<P>(iii) State-based child abuse and neglect registry and database.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The State, Territory, or Tribe in coordination with the Lead Agency shall find a child care staff member ineligible for employment for services for which assistance is made available in accordance with this part, if such individual:
</P>
<P>(i) Refuses to consent to the criminal background check described in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Knowingly makes a materially false statement in connection with such criminal background check;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is registered, or is required to be registered, on a State sex offender registry or repository or the National Sex Offender Registry; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Has been convicted of a felony consisting of:
</P>
<P>(A) Murder, as described in section 1111 of title 18, United States Code;
</P>
<P>(B) Child abuse or neglect;
</P>
<P>(C) A crime against children, including child pornography;
</P>
<P>(D) Spousal abuse;
</P>
<P>(E) A crime involving rape or sexual assault;
</P>
<P>(F) Kidnapping;
</P>
<P>(G) Arson;
</P>
<P>(H) Physical assault or battery; or
</P>
<P>(I) Subject to paragraph (e)(4) of this section, a drug-related offense committed during the preceding 5 years; or
</P>
<P>(v) Has been convicted of a violent misdemeanor committed as an adult against a child, including the following crimes: child abuse, child endangerment, and sexual assault, or of any misdemeanor involving child pornography.


</P>
<P>(2) A child care provider described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section shall be ineligible for assistance provided in accordance with this subchapter if the provider employs a staff member who is ineligible for employment under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) A child care provider covered by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section shall submit a request, to the appropriate State, Territorial, or Tribal agency, defined clearly on the State or Territory Web site described in paragraph (g) of this section, for a criminal background check described in paragraph (b) of this section, for each child care staff member (including prospective child care staff members) of the provider.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the provider shall submit such a request:
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to the date an individual becomes a child care staff member of the provider; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Not less than once during each 5-year period for any existing staff member.
</P>
<P>(3) A child care provider shall not be required to submit a request under paragraph (d)(2) of this section for a child care staff member if:
</P>
<P>(i) The staff member received qualifying results from a background check described in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(A) Within 5 years before the latest date on which such a submission may be made; and
</P>
<P>(B) While employed by or seeking employment by another child care provider within the State;
</P>
<P>(ii) The State provided to the first provider a qualifying background check result, consistent with this subchapter, for the staff member; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The staff member is employed by a child care provider within the State, or has been separated from employment from a child care provider within the State for a period of not more than 180 consecutive days.
</P>
<P>(4) A prospective staff member may begin work for a child care provider described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section after receiving qualifying results for either the check described at paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(3)(i) of this section in the State where the prospective staff member resides. Pending completion of all background check components in paragraph (b) of this section, the staff member must be supervised at all times by an individual who received a qualifying result on a background check described in paragraph (b) of this section within the past five years.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Background check results.</I> (1) The State, Territory, or Tribe shall carry out the request of a child care provider for a criminal background check as expeditiously as possible, but not to exceed 45 days after the date on which the provider submitted the request, and shall provide the results of the criminal background check to such provider and to the current or prospective staff member.
</P>
<P>(2) States, Territories, and Tribes shall ensure the privacy of background check results by:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the results of the criminal background check to the provider in a statement that indicates whether a child care staff member (including a prospective child care staff member) is eligible or ineligible for employment described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, without revealing any disqualifying crime or other related information regarding the individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the child care staff member is ineligible for such employment due to the background check, the State, Territory, or Tribe will, when providing the results of the background check, include information related to each disqualifying crime, in a report to the staff member or prospective staff member, along with information on the opportunity to appeal, described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) No State, Territory, or Tribe shall publicly release or share the results of individual background checks, except States and Tribes may release aggregated data by crime as listed under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section from background check results, as long as such data is not personally identifiable information.
</P>
<P>(3) States, Territories, and Tribes shall provide for a process by which a child care staff member (including a prospective child care staff member) may appeal the results of a criminal background check conducted under this section to challenge the accuracy or completeness of the information contained in such member's criminal background report. The State, Territory, and Tribe shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Each child care staff member is given notice of the opportunity to appeal;
</P>
<P>(ii) A child care staff member will receive clear instructions about how to complete the appeals process if the child care staff member wishes to challenge the accuracy or completeness of the information contained in such member's criminal background report;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the staff member files an appeal, the State, Territory, or Tribe will attempt to verify the accuracy of the information challenged by the child care staff member, including making an effort to locate any missing disposition information related to the disqualifying crime;
</P>
<P>(iv) The appeals process is completed in a timely manner for each child care staff member; and
</P>
<P>(v) Each child care staff member shall receive written notice of the decision. In the case of a negative determination, the decision should indicate the State's efforts to verify the accuracy of information challenged by the child care staff member, as well as any additional appeals rights available to the child care staff member.
</P>
<P>(4) States, Territories, and Tribes may allow for a review process through which the State, Territory, or Tribe may determine that a child care staff member (including a prospective child care staff member) disqualified for a crime specified in paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(I) of this section is eligible for employment described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The review process shall be consistent with title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in this section shall be construed to create a private right of action if a provider has acted in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fees for background checks.</I> Fees that a State, Territory, or Tribe may charge for the costs of processing applications and administering a criminal background check as required by this section shall not exceed the actual costs for the processing and administration.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Transparency.</I> The State or Territory must ensure that its policies and procedures under this section, including the process by which a child care provider or other State or Territory may submit a background check request, are published in the Web site of the State or Territory as described in § 98.33(a) and the Web site of local lead agencies.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Disqualification for other crimes.</I> (1) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent a State, Territory, or Tribe from disqualifying individuals as child care staff members based on their conviction for crimes not specifically listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section that bear upon the fitness of an individual to provide care for and have responsibility for the safety and well-being of children.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this section shall be construed to alter or otherwise affect the rights and remedies provided for child care staff members or prospective staff members residing in a State that disqualifies individuals as child care staff members for crimes not specifically provided for under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67584, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 15414, Mar. 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.44" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.44   Training and professional development.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Lead Agency must describe in the Plan the State or Territory framework for training, professional development, and postsecondary education for caregivers, teachers, and directors, including those working in school-age care, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is developed in consultation with the State Advisory Council on Early Childhood Education and Care (designated or established pursuant to section 642B(b)(1)(A)(i) of the Head Start Act (42 U.S.C. 9837b(b)(1)(A)(i))) or similar coordinating body;
</P>
<P>(2) May engage training and professional development providers, including higher education in aligning training and education opportunities with the State's framework;
</P>
<P>(3) Addresses professional standards and competencies, career pathways, advisory structure, articulation, and workforce information and financing;
</P>
<P>(4) Establishes qualifications in accordance with § 98.41(d)(3) designed to enable child care and school-age care providers that provide services for which assistance is provided in accordance with this part to promote the social, emotional, physical, and cognitive development of children and improve the knowledge and skills of caregivers, teachers and directors in working with children and their families;
</P>
<P>(5) Includes professional development conducted on an ongoing basis, providing a progression of professional development (which may include encouraging the pursuit of postsecondary education);
</P>
<P>(6) Reflects current research and best practices relating to the skills necessary for caregivers, teachers, and directors to meet the developmental needs of participating children and engage families, including culturally and linguistically appropriate practices; and
</P>
<P>(7) Improves the quality, diversity, stability, and retention (including financial incentives and compensation improvements) of caregivers, teachers, and directors.
</P>
<P>(b) The Lead Agency must describe in the Plan its established requirements for pre-service or orientation (to be completed within three months) and ongoing professional development for caregivers, teachers, and directors of child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under the CCDF that, to the extent practicable, align with the State framework:
</P>
<P>(1) Accessible pre-service or orientation training in health and safety standards appropriate to the setting and age of children served that addresses:
</P>
<P>(i) Each of the requirements relating to matters described in § 98.41(a)(1)(i) through (xi) and specifying critical health and safety training that must be completed before caregivers, teachers, and directors are allowed to care for children unsupervised;
</P>
<P>(ii) At the Lead Agency option, matters described in § 98.41(a)(1)(xii); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Child development, including the major domains (cognitive, social, emotional, physical development and approaches to learning);
</P>
<P>(2) Ongoing, accessible professional development, aligned to a progression of professional development, including the minimum annual requirement for hours of training and professional development for eligible caregivers, teachers and directors, appropriate to the setting and age of children served, that:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintains and updates health and safety training standards described in § 98.41(a)(1)(i) through (xi), and at the Lead Agency option, in § 98.41(a)(1)(xii);
</P>
<P>(ii) Incorporates knowledge and application of the State's early learning and developmental guidelines for children birth to kindergarten (where applicable);
</P>
<P>(iii) Incorporates social-emotional behavior intervention models for children birth through school-age, which may include positive behavior intervention and support models including preventing and reducing expulsions and suspensions of preschool-aged and school-aged children;
</P>
<P>(iv) To the extent practicable, are appropriate for a population of children that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Different age groups;
</P>
<P>(B) English learners;
</P>
<P>(C) Children with developmental delays and disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(D) Native Americans, including Indians, as the term is defined in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450b) (including Alaska Natives within the meaning of that term), and Native Hawaiians (as defined in section 6207 of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965);
</P>
<P>(v) To the extent practicable, awards continuing education units or is credit-bearing; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Shall be accessible to caregivers, teachers, and directors supported through Indian tribes or tribal organizations that receive assistance under this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67585, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.45" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.45   Equal access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Lead Agency shall certify that the payment rates for the provision of child care services under this part are sufficient to ensure equal access, for eligible families in the area served by the Lead Agency, to child care services comparable to those provided to families not eligible to receive CCDF assistance or child care assistance under any other Federal, State, or tribal programs.
</P>
<P>(b) The Lead Agency shall provide in the Plan a summary of the data and facts relied on to determine that its payment rates ensure equal access. At a minimum, the summary shall include facts showing:
</P>
<P>(1) How a choice of the full range of providers is made available, and the extent to which child care providers participate in the CCDF subsidy system and any barriers to participation including barriers related to payment rates and practices, based on information obtained in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) How payment rates are adequate and have been established based on the most recent market rate survey or alternative methodology conducted in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) How base payment rates enable providers to meet health, safety, quality, and staffing requirements in accordance with paragraphs (f)(1)(ii)(A) and (f)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) How the Lead Agency took the cost of higher quality into account in accordance with paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, including how payment rates for higher-quality care, as defined by the Lead Agency using a quality rating and improvement system or other system of quality indicators, relate to the estimated cost of care at each level of quality;


</P>
<P>(5) How co-payments based on a sliding fee scale are affordable, as stipulated at paragraph (l) of this section; if applicable, a rationale for the Lead Agency's policy on whether child care providers may charge additional amounts to families above the required family co-payment, including a demonstration that the policy promotes affordability and access; analysis of the interaction between any such additional amounts with the required family co-payments, and of the ability of subsidy payment rates to provide access to care without additional fees; and data on the extent to which CCDF providers charge such additional amounts (based on information obtained in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section);




</P>
<P>(6) How the Lead Agency's payment practices support equal access to a range of providers by providing stability of funding and encouraging more child care providers to serve children receiving CCDF subsidies, in accordance with paragraph (m) of this section;
</P>
<P>(7) How and on what factors the Lead Agency differentiates payment rates; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any additional facts the Lead Agency considered in determining that its payment rates ensure equal access.
</P>
<P>(c) The Lead Agency shall demonstrate in the Plan that it has developed and conducted, not earlier than two years before the date of the submission of the Plan, either:
</P>
<P>(1) A statistically valid and reliable survey of the market rates for child care services; or
</P>
<P>(2) An alternative methodology, such as a cost estimation model, that has been:
</P>
<P>(i) Proposed by the Lead Agency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Approved in advance by ACF.
</P>
<P>(d) The Lead Agency must:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the market rate survey or alternative methodology reflects variations by geographic location, category of provider, and age of child;
</P>
<P>(2) Track through the market rate survey or alternative methodology, or through a separate source, information on the extent to which:
</P>
<P>(i) Child care providers are participating in the CCDF subsidy program and any barriers to participation, including barriers related to payment rates and practices; and
</P>
<P>(ii) CCDF child care providers charge amounts to families more than the required family co-payment (under paragraph (l) of this section) in instances where the provider's price exceeds the subsidy payment, including data on the size and frequency of any such amounts.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior to conducting the market rate survey or alternative methodology, the Lead Agency must consult with:
</P>
<P>(1) The State Advisory Council on Early Childhood Education and Care (designated or established pursuant to section 642B(b)(1)(A)(i) of the Head Start Act (42 U.S.C. 9837b(b)(1)(A)(i)) or similar coordinating body, local child care program administrators, local child care resource and referral agencies, and other appropriate entities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Organizations representing child care caregivers, teachers, and directors.
</P>
<P>(f) After conducting the market rate survey or alternative methodology, the Lead Agency must:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare a detailed report containing the results, and make the report widely available, including by posting it on the Internet, not later than 30 days after the completion of the report. The report must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The results of the market rate survey or alternative methodology;
</P>
<P>(ii) The estimated cost of care necessary (including any relevant variation by geographic location, category of provider, or age of child) to support:
</P>
<P>(A) Child care providers' implementation of the health, safety, quality, and staffing requirements at §§ 98.41 through 98.44; and
</P>
<P>(B) Higher-quality care, as defined by the Lead Agency using a quality rating and improvement system or other system of quality indicators, at each level;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Lead Agency's response to stakeholder views and comments; and,
</P>
<P>(iv) The data and summary required at paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Set payment rates for CCDF assistance:
</P>
<P>(i) In accordance with the results of the most recent market rate survey or alternative methodology conducted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) With base payment rates established at least at a level sufficient for child care providers to meet health, safety quality, and staffing requirements in accordance with paragraph (f)(1)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Taking into consideration the cost of providing higher-quality child care services, including consideration of the information at each level of higher quality required by paragraph (f)(1)(ii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking into consideration the views and comments of the public obtained in accordance with paragraph (e) and through other processes determined by the Lead Agency; and
</P>
<P>(v) Without, to the extent practicable, reducing the number of families receiving CCDF assistance.
</P>
<P>(g) To facilitate parent choice, increase program quality, build supply, and better reflect the cost of providing care, it is permissible for a Lead Agency to pay an eligible child care provider the Lead Agency's established payment rate at paragraph (a) of this section, which may be more than the price charged to children not receiving CCDF subsidies.
</P>
<P>(h) A Lead Agency may not establish different payment rates based on a family's eligibility status, such as TANF status.
</P>
<P>(i) Payment rates under paragraph (a) of this section shall be consistent with the parental requirements in § 98.30
</P>
<P>(j) Nothing in this section shall be construed to create a private right of action if the Lead Agency acts in accordance with the Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(k) Nothing in this part shall be construed to prevent a Lead Agency from differentiating payment rates on the basis of such factors as:
</P>
<P>(1) Geographic location of child care providers (such as location in an urban or rural area);
</P>
<P>(2) Age or particular needs of children (such as the needs of children with disabilities, children served by child protective services, and children experiencing homelessness);
</P>
<P>(3) Whether child care providers provide services during the weekend or other non-traditional hours; or
</P>
<P>(4) The Lead Agency's determination that such differential payment rates may enable a parent to choose high-quality child care that best fits the parents' needs.
</P>
<P>(l) Lead Agencies shall establish, and periodically revise, by rule, a sliding fee scale(s) for families that receive CCDF child care services that:
</P>
<P>(1) Helps families afford child care and enables choice of a range of child care options;
</P>
<P>(2) Is based on income and the size of the family and may be based on other factors as appropriate, but may not be based on the cost of care or amount of subsidy payment;


</P>
<P>(3) Provides for affordable family co-payments that are not a barrier to families receiving assistance under this part; and




</P>
<P>(4) At Lead Agency discretion, allows for co-payments to be waived for families whose incomes are at or below 150 percent of the poverty level for a family of the same size, that have children who are in foster or kinship care or otherwise receive or need to receive protective services, that are experiencing homelessness, that have children who have a disability as defined at § 98.2, that are enrolled in Head Start or Early Head Start (42 U.S.C. 9831 <I>et seq.</I>), or that meet other criteria established by the Lead Agency.


</P>
<P>(m) The Lead Agency shall demonstrate in the Plan that it has established payment practices applicable to all CCDF child care providers that:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure timeliness of payment by either:
</P>
<P>(i) Paying prospectively prior to the delivery of services; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Paying within no more than 21 calendar days of the receipt of a complete invoice for services.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent practicable, support the fixed costs of providing child care services by delinking provider payments from a child's occasional absences by:
</P>
<P>(i) Paying based on a child's enrollment rather than attendance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing full payment if a child attends at least 85 percent of the authorized time;
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing full payment if a child is absent for five or fewer days in a month; or,
</P>
<P>(iv) An alternative approach for which the Lead Agency provides a justification in its Plan.
</P>
<P>(3) Reflect generally accepted payment practices of child care providers that serve children who do not receive CCDF subsidies, which must include (unless the Lead Agency provides evidence that such practices are not generally-accepted in the State or service area):
</P>
<P>(i) Paying on a part-time or full-time basis (rather than paying for hours of service or smaller increments of time); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Paying for reasonable mandatory registration fees that the provider charges to private-paying parents.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure child care providers receive payment for any services in accordance with a written payment agreement or authorization for services that includes, at a minimum, information regarding payment policies, including rates, schedules, any fees charged to providers, and the dispute resolution process required by paragraph (m)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure child care providers receive prompt notice of changes to a family's eligibility status that may impact payment, and that such notice is sent to providers no later than the day the Lead Agency becomes aware that such a change will occur.
</P>
<P>(6) Include timely appeal and resolution processes for any payment inaccuracies and disputes.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67586, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 15414, Mar. 1, 2024; 91 FR 25807, May 12, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.46" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.46   Priority for child care services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lead Agencies shall give priority for services provided under § 98.50(a) to:
</P>
<P>(1) Children of families with very low family income (considering family size);
</P>
<P>(2) Children with special needs, which may include any vulnerable populations as defined by the Lead Agency; and
</P>
<P>(3) Children experiencing homelessness.
</P>
<P>(b) Lead Agencies shall prioritize increasing access to high-quality child care and development services for children of families in areas that have significant concentrations of poverty and unemployment and that do not have a sufficient number of such programs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67587, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.47" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.47   List of providers.</HEAD>
<P>If a Lead Agency does not have a registration process for child care providers who are unlicensed or unregulated under State, local, or tribal law, it is required to maintain a list of the names and addresses of unlicensed or unregulated providers of child care services for which assistance is provided under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998. Redesignated at 81 FR 67584, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.48" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.48   Nondiscrimination in admissions on the basis of religion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Child care providers (other than family child care providers, as defined in § 98.2) that receive assistance through grants and contracts under the CCDF shall not discriminate in admissions against any child on the basis of religion.
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not prohibit a child care provider from selecting children for child care slots that are not funded directly (i.e., through grants or contracts to providers) with assistance provided under the CCDF because such children or their family members participate on a regular basis in other activities of the organization that owns or operates such provider.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, if 80 percent or more of the operating budget of a child care provider comes from Federal or State funds, including direct or indirect assistance under the CCDF, the Lead Agency shall assure that before any further CCDF assistance is given to the provider,
</P>
<P>(1) The grant or contract relating to the assistance, or
</P>
<P>(2) The admission policies of the provider specifically provide that no person with responsibilities in the operation of the child care program, project, or activity will discriminate, on the basis of religion, in the admission of any child.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998. Redesignated at 81 FR 67584, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.49" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.5.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.49   Nondiscrimination in employment on the basis of religion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In general, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, nothing in this part modifies or affects the provision of any other applicable Federal law and regulation relating to discrimination in employment on the basis of religion.
</P>
<P>(1) Child care providers that receive assistance through grants or contracts under the CCDF shall not discriminate, on the basis of religion, in the employment of caregivers as defined in § 98.2.
</P>
<P>(2) If two or more prospective employees are qualified for any position with a child care provider, this section shall not prohibit the provider from employing a prospective employee who is already participating on a regular basis in other activities of the organization that owns or operates the provider.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section shall not apply to employees of child care providers if such employees were employed with the provider on November 5, 1990.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a sectarian organization may require that employees adhere to the religious tenets and teachings of such organization and to rules forbidding the use of drugs or alcohol.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, if 80 percent or more of the operating budget of a child care provider comes from Federal and State funds, including direct and indirect assistance under the CCDF, the Lead Agency shall assure that, before any further CCDF assistance is given to the provider,
</P>
<P>(1) The grant or contract relating to the assistance, or
</P>
<P>(2) The employment policies of the provider specifically provide that no person with responsibilities in the operation of the child care program will discriminate, on the basis of religion, in the employment of any individual as a caregiver, as defined in § 98.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998. Redesignated at 81 FR 67584, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Use of Child Care and Development Funds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.50" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.6.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.50   Child care services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Direct child care services shall be provided:
</P>
<P>(1) To eligible children, as described in § 98.20;
</P>
<P>(2) Using a sliding fee scale, as described in § 98.45(l);


</P>
<P>(3) Using funding methods provided for in § 98.30; and




</P>
<P>(4) Based on the priorities in § 98.46.
</P>
<P>(b) Of the aggregate amount of funds expended by a State or Territory (<I>i.e.,</I> Discretionary, Mandatory, and Federal and State share of Matching funds):
</P>
<P>(1) No less than nine percent shall be used for activities designed to improve the quality of child care services and increase parental options for, and access to, high-quality child care as described at § 98.53; and
</P>
<P>(2) No less than three percent shall be used to carry out activities at § 98.53(a)(4) as such activities relate to the quality of care for infants and toddlers.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this section shall preclude the State or Territory from reserving a larger percentage of funds to carry out activities described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Funds expended from each fiscal year's allotment on quality activities pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Must be in alignment with an assessment of the Lead Agency's need to carry out such services and care as required at § 98.53(a);
</P>
<P>(2) Must include measurable indicators of progress in accordance with § 98.53(g); and
</P>
<P>(3) May be provided directly by the Lead Agency or through grants or contracts with local child care resource and referral organizations or other appropriate entities.
</P>
<P>(d) Of the aggregate amount of funds expended (<I>i.e.,</I> Discretionary, Mandatory, and Federal and State share of Matching Funds), no more than five percent may be used for administrative activities as described at § 98.54.
</P>
<P>(e) Not less than 70 percent of the State and Territory Mandatory and Federal and State share of State Matching Funds shall be used to meet the child care needs of families who:
</P>
<P>(1) Are receiving assistance under a State program under Part A of title IV of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Are attempting through work activities to transition off such assistance program; and
</P>
<P>(3) Are at risk of becoming dependent on such assistance program.
</P>
<P>(f) From Discretionary amounts provided for a fiscal year, the Lead Agency shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Reserve the minimum amount required under paragraph (b) of this section for quality activities, and the funds for administrative costs described at paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) From the remainder, use not less than 70 percent to fund direct services (provided by the Lead Agency).
</P>
<P>(g) Of the funds remaining after applying the provisions of paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section, the Lead Agency shall spend a substantial portion of funds to provide direct child care services to low-income families who are working or attending training or education.
</P>
<P>(h) Pursuant to § 98.16(i)(4), the Plan shall specify how the State will meet the child care needs of families described in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67587, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 15415, Mar. 1, 2024; 89 FR 52397, June 24, 2024; 91 FR 25807, May 12, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.51" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.6.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.51   Services for children experiencing homelessness.</HEAD>
<P>Lead Agencies shall expend funds on activities that improve access to quality child care services for children experiencing homelessness, including:
</P>
<P>(a) The use of procedures to permit enrollment (after an initial eligibility determination) of children experiencing homelessness while required documentation is obtained;
</P>
<P>(1) If, after full documentation is provided, a family experiencing homelessness is found ineligible,
</P>
<P>(i) The Lead Agency shall pay any amount owed to a child care provider for services provided as a result of the initial eligibility determination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any CCDF payment made prior to the final eligibility determination shall not be considered an error or improper payment under subpart K of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) Training and technical assistance for providers and appropriate Lead Agency (or designated entity) staff on identifying and serving children experiencing homelessness and their families; and
</P>
<P>(c) Specific outreach to families experiencing homelessness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67588, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.52" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.6.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.52   Child care resource and referral system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Lead Agency may expend funds to establish or support a system of local or regional child care resource and referral organizations that is coordinated, to the extent determined appropriate by the Lead Agency, by a statewide public or private nonprofit, community-based or regionally based, lead child care resource and referral organization.
</P>
<P>(b) If a Lead Agency uses funds as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the local or regional child care resource and referral organizations supported shall, at the direction of the Lead Agency:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide parents in the State with consumer education information referred to in § 98.33 (except as otherwise provided in that paragraph), concerning the full range of child care options (including faith-based and community-based child care providers), analyzed by provider, including child care provided during nontraditional hours and through emergency child care centers, in their political subdivisions or regions;
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent practicable, work directly with families who receive assistance under this subchapter to offer the families support and assistance, using information described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, to make an informed decision about which child care providers they will use, in an effort to ensure that the families are enrolling their children in the most appropriate child care setting to suit their needs and one that is of high quality (as determined by the Lead Agency);
</P>
<P>(3) Collect data and provide information on the coordination of services and supports, including services under section 619 and part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1431, <I>et seq.</I>), for children with disabilities (as defined in section 602 of such Act (20 U.S.C. 1401));
</P>
<P>(4) Collect data and provide information on the supply of and demand for child care services in political subdivisions or regions within the State and submit such information to the State;
</P>
<P>(5) Work to establish partnerships with public agencies and private entities, including faith-based and community-based child care providers, to increase the supply and quality of child care services in the State; and
</P>
<P>(6) As appropriate, coordinate their activities with the activities of the State Lead Agency and local agencies that administer funds made available in accordance with this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67588, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.53" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.6.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.53   Activities to improve the quality of child care.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Lead Agency must expend funds from each fiscal year's allotment on quality activities pursuant to §§ 98.50(b) and 98.83(g) in accordance with an assessment of need by the Lead Agency. Such funds must be used to carry out at least one of the following quality activities to improve the quality of child care services for all children, regardless of CCDF receipt, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section:


</P>
<P>(1) Supporting the training, professional development, and postsecondary education of the child care workforce as part of a progression of professional development through activities such as those included at § 98.44, in addition to:
</P>
<P>(i) Offering training, professional development, and postsecondary education opportunities for child care caregivers, teachers and directors that:
</P>
<P>(A) Relate to the use of scientifically based, developmentally-appropriate, culturally-appropriate, and age-appropriate strategies to promote the social, emotional, physical, and cognitive development of children, including those related to nutrition and physical activity; and
</P>
<P>(B) Offer specialized training, professional development, and postsecondary education for caregivers, teachers and directors caring for those populations prioritized at § 98.44(b)(2)(iv), and children with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Incorporating the effective use of data to guide program improvement and improve opportunities for caregivers, teachers and directors to advance on their progression of training, professional development, and postsecondary education;
</P>
<P>(iii) Including effective, age-appropriate behavior management strategies and training, including positive behavior interventions and support models for birth to school-age, that promote positive social and emotional development and reduce challenging behaviors, including reducing suspensions and expulsions of children under age five for such behaviors;
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing training and outreach on engaging parents and families in culturally and linguistically appropriate ways to expand their knowledge, skills, and capacity to become meaningful partners in supporting their children's positive development;
</P>
<P>(v) Providing training corresponding to the nutritional and physical activity needs of children to promote healthy development;
</P>
<P>(vi) Providing training or professional development for caregivers, teachers and directors regarding the early neurological development of children; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Connecting child care caregivers, teachers, and directors with available Federal and State financial aid that would assist these individuals in pursuing relevant postsecondary education, or delivering financial resources directly through programs that provide scholarships and compensation improvements for education attainment and retention.
</P>
<P>(2) Improving upon the development or implementation of the early learning and development guidelines at § 98.15(a)(9) by providing technical assistance to eligible child care providers in order to enhance the cognitive, physical, social, and emotional development and overall well-being of participating children.
</P>
<P>(3) Developing, implementing, or enhancing a tiered quality rating and improvement system for child care providers and services to meet consumer education requirements at § 98.33, which may:
</P>
<P>(i) Support and assess the quality of child care providers in the State, Territory, or Tribe;
</P>
<P>(ii) Build on licensing standards and other regulatory standards for such providers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be designed to improve the quality of different types of child care providers and services;
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe the safety of child care facilities;
</P>
<P>(v) Build the capacity of early childhood programs and communities to promote parents' and families' understanding of the early childhood system and the rating of the program in which the child is enrolled;
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide, to the maximum extent practicable, financial incentives and other supports designed to expand the full diversity of child care options and help child care providers improve the quality of services; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Accommodate a variety of distinctive approaches to early childhood education and care, including but not limited to, those practiced in faith-based settings, community-based settings, child centered settings, or similar settings that offer a distinctive approach to early childhood development.
</P>
<P>(4) Improving the supply and quality of child care programs and services for infants and toddlers through activities, which may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Establishing or expanding high-quality community or neighborhood based family and child development centers, which may serve as resources to child care providers in order to improve the quality of early childhood services provided to infants and toddlers from low-income families and to help eligible child care providers improve their capacity to offer high-quality, age-appropriate care to infants and toddlers from low-income families;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishing or expanding the operation of community or neighborhood-based family child care networks;
</P>
<P>(iii) Promoting and expanding child care providers' ability to provide developmentally appropriate services for infants and toddlers through, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Training and professional development for caregivers, teachers and directors, including coaching and technical assistance on this age group's unique needs from statewide networks of qualified infant-toddler specialists; and
</P>
<P>(B) Improved coordination with early intervention specialists who provide services for infants and toddlers with disabilities under part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1431. <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iv) If applicable, developing infant and toddler components within the Lead Agency's quality rating and improvement system described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section for child care providers for infants and toddlers, or the development of infant and toddler components in the child care licensing regulations or early learning and development guidelines;
</P>
<P>(v) Improving the ability of parents to access transparent and easy to understand consumer information about high-quality infant and toddler care as described at § 98.33; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Carrying out other activities determined by the Lead Agency to improve the quality of infant and toddler care provided, and for which there is evidence that the activities will lead to improved infant and toddler health and safety, infant and toddler cognitive and physical development, or infant and toddler well-being, including providing health and safety training (including training in safe sleep practices, first aid, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation for providers and caregivers.
</P>
<P>(5) Establishing or expanding a statewide system of child care resource and referral services.
</P>
<P>(6) Facilitating compliance with Lead Agency requirements for inspection, monitoring, training, and health and safety, and with licensing standards.
</P>
<P>(7) Evaluating and assessing the quality and effectiveness of child care programs and services offered, including evaluating how such programs positively impact children.
</P>
<P>(8) Supporting child care providers in the voluntary pursuit of accreditation by a national accrediting body with demonstrated, valid, and reliable program standards of high-quality.
</P>
<P>(9) Supporting Lead Agency or local efforts to develop or adopt high-quality program standards relating to health, mental health, nutrition, physical activity, and physical development.
</P>
<P>(10) Carrying out other activities, including implementing consumer education provisions at § 98.33, determined by the Lead Agency to improve the quality of child care services provided, and for which measurement of outcomes relating to improvement of provider preparedness, child safety, child well-being, or entry to kindergarten is possible.
</P>
<P>(b) Lead Agencies are strongly encouraged to engage families and providers with direct experience in the child care subsidy system to improve the quality of child care and child care subsidy policy. Lead Agencies may expend quality funds to support such engagement including:
</P>
<P>(1) Planning and implementing an engagement strategy to solicit and implement feedback from families, child care providers, and staff who have direct experience with the child care subsidy program and/or quality improvement activities;
</P>
<P>(2) Compensating participating parents, child care providers, and child care staff for their time and for expenses incurred as a result of their participation (<I>i.e.</I> transportation, child care); and
</P>
<P>(3) Hiring parents, child care providers, or child care staff to serve as subject matter experts in the development or refinement of subsidy policy and quality initiatives.
</P>
<P>(c) Pursuant to § 98.16(j), the Lead Agency shall describe in its Plan the activities it will fund under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Non-Federal expenditures required by § 98.55(c) (<I>i.e.,</I> the maintenance-of effort amount) are not subject to the requirement at paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Activities to improve the quality of child care services are not restricted to activities affecting children meeting eligibility requirements under § 98.20 or to child care providers of services for which assistance is provided under this part.
</P>
<P>(f) Unless expressly authorized by law, targeted funds for quality improvement and other set asides that may be included in appropriations law may not be used towards meeting the quality expenditure minimum requirement at § 98.50(b).
</P>
<P>(g) States shall annually prepare and submit reports, including a quality progress report and expenditure report, to the Secretary, which must be made publicly available and shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) An assurance that the State was in compliance with requirements at § 98.50(b) in the preceding fiscal year and information about the amount of funds reserved for that purpose;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the activities carried out under this section to comply with § 98.50(b);
</P>
<P>(3) The measures the State will use to evaluate its progress in improving the quality of child care programs and services in the State, and data on the extent to which the State had met these measures;
</P>
<P>(4) A report describing any changes to State regulations, enforcement mechanisms, or other State policies addressing health and safety based on an annual review and assessment of serious child injuries and any deaths occurring in child care programs serving children receiving assistance under this part, and in other regulated and unregulated child care centers and family child care homes, to the extent possible; and
</P>
<P>(5) A description of how the Lead Agency responded to complaints submitted through the national hotline and Web site, required in section 658L(b) of the CCDBG Act (42 U.S.C. 9858j(b)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67588, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 15415, Mar. 1, 2024; 89 FR 52397, June 24, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.54" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.6.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.54   Administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not more than five percent of the aggregate funds expended by the Lead Agency from each fiscal year's allotment, including the amounts expended in the State pursuant to § 98.55(b), shall be expended for administrative activities. These activities may include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Salaries and related costs of the staff of the Lead Agency or other agencies engaged in the administration and implementation of the program pursuant to § 98.11. Program administration and implementation include the following types of activities:
</P>
<P>(i) Planning, developing, and designing the Child Care and Development Fund program;
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing local officials and the public with information about the program, including the conduct of public hearings;
</P>
<P>(iii) Preparing the application and Plan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Developing agreements with administering agencies in order to carry out program activities;
</P>
<P>(v) Monitoring program activities for compliance with program requirements;
</P>
<P>(vi) Preparing reports and other documents related to the program for submission to the Secretary;
</P>
<P>(vii) Maintaining substantiated complaint files in accordance with the requirements of § 98.32;
</P>
<P>(viii) Coordinating the provision of Child Care and Development Fund services with other Federal, State, and local child care, early childhood development programs, and before-and after-school care programs;
</P>
<P>(ix) Coordinating the resolution of audit and monitoring findings;
</P>
<P>(x) Evaluating program results; and
</P>
<P>(xi) Managing or supervising persons with responsibilities described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (x) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Travel costs incurred for official business in carrying out the program;
</P>
<P>(3) Administrative services, including such services as accounting services, performed by grantees or subgrantees or under agreements with third parties;
</P>
<P>(4) Audit services as required at § 98.65;
</P>
<P>(5) Other costs for goods and services required for the administration of the program, including rental or purchase of equipment, utilities, and office supplies; and
</P>
<P>(6) Indirect costs as determined by an indirect cost agreement or cost allocation plan pursuant to § 98.57.
</P>
<P>(b) The following activities do not count towards the five percent limitation on administrative expenditures in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishment and maintenance of computerized child care information systems;
</P>
<P>(2) Establishing and operating a certificate program;
</P>
<P>(3) Eligibility determination and redetermination;
</P>
<P>(4) Preparation/participation in judicial hearings;
</P>
<P>(5) Child care placement;
</P>
<P>(6) Recruitment, licensing, inspection of child care providers;
</P>
<P>(7) Training for Lead Agency or sub recipient staff on billing and claims processes associated with the subsidy program;
</P>
<P>(8) Reviews and supervision of child care placements;
</P>
<P>(9) Activities associated with payment rate setting;
</P>
<P>(10) Resource and referral services; and
</P>
<P>(11) Training for child care staff.
</P>
<P>(c) The five percent limitation at paragraph (a) of this section applies only to the States and Territories. The amount of the limitation at paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to Tribes or tribal organizations.
</P>
<P>(d) Non-Federal expenditures required by § 98.55(c) (<I>i.e.,</I> the maintenance-of-effort amount) are not subject to the five percent limitation at paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) If a Lead Agency enters into agreements with sub-recipients for operation of the CCDF program, the amount of the contract or grant attributable to administrative activities as described in this section shall be counted towards the five percent limit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 67588, 67590, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.55" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.6.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.55   Matching fund requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal matching funds are available for expenditures in a State based upon the formula specified at § 98.63(a).
</P>
<P>(b) Expenditures in a State under paragraph (a) of this section will be matched at the Federal medical assistance rate for the applicable fiscal year for allowable activities, as described in the approved State Plan, that meet the goals and purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to receive Federal matching funds for a fiscal year under paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) States shall also expend an amount of non-Federal funds for child care activities in the State that is at least equal to the State's share of expenditures for fiscal year 1994 or 1995 (whichever is greater) under sections 402(g) and (i) of the Social Security Act as these sections were in effect before October 1, 1995; and
</P>
<P>(2) The expenditures shall be for allowable services or activities, as described in the approved State Plan if appropriate, that meet the goals and purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(3) All Mandatory Funds are obligated in accordance with § 98.60(d)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(d) The same expenditure may not be used to meet the requirements under both paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section in a fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(e) An expenditure in the State for purposes of this subpart may be:
</P>
<P>(1) Public funds when the funds are:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriated directly to the Lead Agency specified at § 98.10, or transferred from another public agency to that Lead Agency and under its administrative control, or certified by the contributing public agency as representing expenditures eligible for Federal match;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not used to match other Federal funds; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not Federal funds, or are Federal funds authorized by Federal law to be used to match other Federal funds; or
</P>
<P>(2) Donated from private sources when the donated funds:
</P>
<P>(i) Are donated without any restriction that would require their use for a specific individual, organization, facility or institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Do not revert to the donor's facility or use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Are not used to match other Federal funds;
</P>
<P>(iv) Shall be certified both by the Lead Agency and by the donor (if funds are donated directly to the Lead Agency) or the Lead Agency and the entity designated by the State to receive donated funds pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section (if funds are donated directly to the designated entity) as available and representing funds eligible for Federal match; and
</P>
<P>(v) Shall be subject to the audit requirements in § 98.65 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) Donated funds need not be transferred to or under the administrative control of the Lead Agency in order to qualify as an expenditure eligible to receive Federal match under this section. They may be given to the public or private entities designated by the State to implement the child care program in accordance with § 98.11 provided that such entities are identified and designated in the State Plan to receive donated funds in accordance with § 98.16(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(g) The following are not counted as an eligible State expenditure under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) In-kind contributions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Family contributions to the cost of care as required by § 98.45(l).




</P>
<P>(h) Public pre-kindergarten (pre-K) expenditures:
</P>
<P>(1) May be used to meet the maintenance-of-effort requirement only if the State has not reduced its expenditures for full-day/full-year child care services; and
</P>
<P>(2) May be eligible for Federal match if the State includes in its Plan, as provided in § 98.16(w), a description of the efforts it will undertake to ensure that pre-K programs meet the needs of working parents.
</P>
<P>(3) In any fiscal year, a State may use public pre-K funds for up to 20% of the funds serving as maintenance-of-effort under this subsection. In addition, in any fiscal year, a State may use other public pre-K funds as expenditures serving as State matching funds under this subsection; such public pre-K funds used as State expenditures may not exceed 30% of the amount of a State's expenditures required to draw down the State's full allotment of Federal matching funds available under this subsection.
</P>
<P>(4) If applicable, the CCDF Plan shall reflect the State's intent to use public pre-K funds in excess of 10%, but not for more than 20% of its maintenance-of-effort or 30% of its State matching funds in a fiscal year. Also, the Plan shall describe how the State will coordinate its pre-K and child care services to expand the availability of child care.
</P>
<P>(i) Matching funds are subject to the obligation and liquidation requirements at § 98.60(d)(4).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 72 FR 27979, May 18, 2007. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 67588, 67590, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 52397, June 24, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.56" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.6.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.56   Restrictions on the use of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Funds authorized under section 418 of the Social Security Act and section 658B of the Child Care and Development Block Grant Act, and all funds transferred to the Lead Agency pursuant to section 404(d) of the Social Security Act, shall be expended consistent with these regulations. Funds transferred pursuant to section 404(d) of the Social Security Act shall be treated as Discretionary Funds;
</P>
<P>(2) Funds shall be expended in accordance with applicable State and local laws, except as superseded by § 98.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Construction.</I> (1) For State and local agencies and nonsectarian agencies or organizations, no funds shall be expended for the purchase or improvement of land, or for the purchase, construction, or permanent improvement of any building or facility. However, funds may be expended for minor remodeling, and for upgrading child care facilities to assure that providers meet State and local child care standards, including applicable health and safety requirements. Improvements or upgrades to a facility which are not specified under the definitions of construction or major renovation at § 98.2 may be considered minor remodeling and are, therefore, not prohibited.
</P>
<P>(2) For sectarian agencies or organizations, the prohibitions in paragraph (b)(1) of this section apply; however, funds may be expended for minor remodeling only if necessary to bring the facility into compliance with the health and safety requirements established pursuant to § 8.41.
</P>
<P>(3) Tribes and tribal organizations are subject to the requirements at § 98.84 regarding construction and renovation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tuition.</I> Funds may not be expended for students enrolled in grades 1 through 12 for:
</P>
<P>(1) Any service provided to such students during the regular school day;
</P>
<P>(2) Any service for which such students receive academic credit toward graduation; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any instructional services that supplant or duplicate the academic program of any public or private school.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sectarian purposes and activities.</I> Funds provided under grants or contracts to providers may not be expended for any sectarian purpose or activity, including sectarian worship or instruction. Assistance provided to parents through certificates is not a grant or contract. Funds provided through child care certificates may be expended for sectarian purposes or activities, including sectarian worship or instruction when provided as part of the child care services.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-Federal share for other Federal programs.</I> The CCDF may not be used as the non-Federal share for other Federal grant programs, unless explicitly authorized by statute.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 67588, 67590, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.57" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.6.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.57   Cost allocation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Lead Agency and subgrantees shall keep on file cost allocation plans or indirect cost agreements, as appropriate, that have been amended to include costs allocated to the CCDF.
</P>
<P>(b) Subgrantees that do not already have a negotiated indirect rate with the Federal government should prepare and keep on file cost allocation plans or indirect cost agreements, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) Approval of the cost allocation plans or indirect cost agreements is not specifically required by these regulations, but these plans and agreements are subject to review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998. Redesignated at 81 FR 67588, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Financial Management</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.60" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.7.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.60   Availability of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The CCDF is available, subject to the availability of appropriations, in accordance with the apportionment of funds from the Office of Management and Budget as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Discretionary Funds are available to States, Territories, and Tribes;
</P>
<P>(2) State Mandatory and Matching Funds are available to States;
</P>
<P>(3) Territory Mandatory Funds are available to Territories; and
</P>
<P>(4) Tribal Mandatory Funds are available to Tribes.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the availability of appropriations, in accordance with relevant statutory provisions and the apportionment of funds from the Office of Management and Budget, the Secretary:
</P>
<P>(1) May withhold a portion of the CCDF funds made available for a fiscal year for the provision of technical assistance, for research, evaluation, and demonstration, and for a national toll free hotline and Web site;
</P>
<P>(2) Will award the remaining CCDF funds to grantees that have an approved application and Plan.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary may make payments in installments, and in advance or by way of reimbursement, with necessary adjustments due to overpayments or underpayments.
</P>
<P>(d) The following obligation and liquidation provisions apply to States and Territories:
</P>
<P>(1) Discretionary Fund allotments shall be obligated in the fiscal year in which funds are awarded or in the succeeding fiscal year. Unliquidated obligations as of the end of the succeeding fiscal year shall be liquidated within one year.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Mandatory Funds for States requesting Matching Funds per § 98.55 shall be obligated in the fiscal year in which the funds are granted and are available until expended.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mandatory Funds for States that do not request Matching Funds are available until expended.
</P>
<P>(3) Mandatory Funds for Territories shall be obligated in the fiscal year in which funds are granted and liquidated no later than the end of the succeeding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(4) Both the Federal and non-Federal share of the Matching Fund shall be obligated in the fiscal year in which the funds are granted and liquidated no later than the end of the succeeding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(5) Except for paragraph (d)(6) of this section, determination of whether funds have been obligated and liquidated will be based on:


</P>
<P>(i) State or local law; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is no applicable State or local law, the regulation at2 CFR 200.1, Expenditures and Obligations.
</P>
<P>(6) Obligations may include subgrants or contracts that require the payment of funds to a third party (e.g., subgrantee or contractor). However, the following are not considered third party subgrantees or contractors:
</P>
<P>(i) A local office of the Lead Agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Another entity at the same level of government as the Lead Agency; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A local office of another entity at the same level of government as the Lead Agency.
</P>
<P>(7) In instances where the Lead Agency issues child care certificates, funds for child care services provided through a child care certificate will be considered obligated when a child care certificate is issued to a family in writing that indicates:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of funds that will be paid to a child care provider or family, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific length of time covered by the certificate, which is limited to the date established for redetermination of the family's eligibility, but shall be no later than the end of the liquidation period.
</P>
<P>(8) In instances where third party agencies issue child care certificates, the obligation of funds occurs upon entering into agreement through a subgrant or contract with such agency, rather than when the third party issues certificates to a family.
</P>
<P>(9) Any funds not obligated during the obligation period specified in paragraph (d) of this section will revert to the Federal government. Any funds not liquidated by the end of the applicable liquidation period specified in paragraph (d) of this section will also revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(e) The following obligation and liquidation provisions apply to Tribal Discretionary and Tribal Mandatory Funds:
</P>
<P>(1) Tribal grantees shall obligate all funds by the end of the fiscal year following the fiscal year for which the grant is awarded. Any funds not obligated during this period will revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(2) Obligations that remain unliquidated at the end of the succeeding fiscal year shall be liquidated within the next fiscal year. Any tribal funds that remain unliquidated by the end of this period will also revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(f) Cash advances shall be limited to the minimum amounts needed and shall be timed to be in accord with the actual, immediate cash requirements of the State Lead Agency, its subgrantee or contractor in carrying out the purpose of the program in accordance with 31 CFR part 205.
</P>
<P>(g) Funds that are returned (e.g., loan repayments, funds deobligated by cancellation of a child care certificate, unused subgrantee funds) as well as program income (e.g., contributions made by families directly to the Lead Agency or subgrantee for the cost of care where the Lead Agency or subgrantee has made a full payment to the child care provider) shall,
</P>
<P>(1) if received by the Lead Agency during the applicable obligation period, described in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, be used for activities specified in the Lead Agency's approved plan and must be obligated by the end of the obligation period; or
</P>
<P>(2) if received after the end of the applicable obligation period described at paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, be returned to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(h) Repayment of loans made to child care providers as part of a quality improvement activity pursuant to § 98.53, may be made in cash or in services provided in-kind. Payment provided in-kind shall be based on fair market value. All loans shall be fully repaid.
</P>
<P>(i) Lead Agencies shall recover child care payments that are the result of fraud. These payments shall be recovered from the party responsible for committing the fraud.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 3020, Jan. 20, 2016; 81 FR 67591, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 15415, Mar. 1, 2024; 89 FR 52397, June 24, 2024; 89 FR 80071, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.61" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.7.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.61   Allotments from the Discretionary Fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico an amount equal to the funds appropriated for the Child Care and Development Block Grant, less amounts reserved for technical assistance, research, and the national hotline and Web site, pursuant to § 98.60(b), and amounts reserved for the Territories and Tribes, pursuant to § 98.60(b) and paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, shall be allotted based upon the formula specified in section 658O(b) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 9858m(b)).
</P>
<P>(b) For the U.S. Territories of Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands of the United States, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands an amount up to one-half of one percent of the amount appropriated for the Child Care and Development Block Grant shall be reserved.
</P>
<P>(1) Funds shall be allotted to these Territories based upon the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) A Young Child factor—the ratio of the number of children in the Territory under five years of age to the number of such children in all Territories; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An Allotment Proportion factor—determined by dividing the per capita income of all individuals in all the Territories by the per capita income of all individuals in the Territory.
</P>
<P>(A) Per capita income shall be:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Equal to the average of the annual per capita incomes for the most recent period of three consecutive years for which satisfactory data are available at the time such determination is made; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Determined every two years.
</P>
<P>(B) Per capita income determined, pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, will be applied in establishing the allotment for the fiscal year for which it is determined and for the following fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(C) If the Allotment Proportion factor determined at paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Exceeds 1.2, then the Allotment Proportion factor of the Territory shall be considered to be 1.2; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is less than 0.8, then the Allotment Proportion factor of the Territory shall be considered to be 0.8.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The formula used in calculating a Territory's allotment is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24jy98.000.gif"/>
<P>(ii) For purposes of the formula specified at paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the term “YCF<E T="52">t</E>” means the Territory's Young Child factor as defined at paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of the formula specified at paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the term “APF<E T="52">t</E>” means the Territory's Allotment Proportion factor as defined at paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) For Indian Tribes and tribal organizations, including any Alaskan Native Village or regional or village corporation as defined in or established pursuant to the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>) not less than two percent of the amount appropriated for the Child Care and Development Block Grant shall be reserved.
</P>
<P>(1) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, grants to individual tribal grantees will be equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) A base amount as set by the Secretary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An additional amount per Indian child under age 13 (or such similar age as determined by the Secretary from the best available data), which is determined by dividing the amount of funds available, less amounts set aside for eligible Tribes, pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, by the number of all Indian children living on or near tribal reservations or other appropriate area served by the tribal grantee, pursuant to § 98.80(e).
</P>
<P>(2) Grants to Tribes with fewer than 50 Indian children that apply as part of a consortium, pursuant to § 98.80(b)(1), are equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) A portion of the base amount, pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, that bears the same ratio as the number of Indian children in the Tribe living on or near the reservation, or other appropriate area served by the tribal grantee, pursuant to § 98.80(e), does to 50; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An additional amount per Indian child, pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Tribal consortia will receive grants that are equal to the sum of the individual grants of their members.
</P>
<P>(d) All funds reserved for Territories at paragraph (b) of this section will be allotted to Territories, and all funds reserved for Tribes at paragraph (c) of this section will be allotted to tribal grantees. Any funds that are returned by the Territories after they have been allotted will revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(e) For other organizations, up to $2,000,000 may be reserved from the tribal funds reserved at paragraph (c) of this section. From this amount the Secretary may award a grant to a Native Hawaiian Organization, as defined in section 4009(4) of the Augustus F. Hawkins-Robert T. Stafford Elementary and Secondary School Improvement Amendments of 1988 (20 U.S.C. 4909(4)) and to a private non-profit organization established for the purpose of serving youth who are Indians or Native Hawaiians. The Secretary will establish selection criteria and procedures for the award of grants under this subsection by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(f) Lead Agencies shall expend any funds that may be set-aside for targeted activities pursuant to annual appropriations law as directed by the Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67591, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.62" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.7.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.62   Allotments from the Mandatory Fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the 50 States and the District of Columbia will be allocated from the funds appropriated under section 418(a)(3)(A) of the Social Security Act, less the amounts reserved for technical assistance pursuant to § 98.60(b)(1) an amount of funds equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) the Federal share of its child care expenditures under subsections (g) and (i) of section 402 of the Social Security Act (as in effect before October 1, 1995) for fiscal year 1994 or 1995 (whichever is greater); or
</P>
<P>(2) the average of the Federal share of its child care expenditures under the subsections referred to in subparagraph (a)(1) of this section for fiscal years 1992 through 1994.
</P>
<P>(b) For Indian Tribes and tribal organizations will be allocated from the funds appropriated under section 418(a)(3)(B) of the Social Security Act shall be allocated according to the formula at paragraph (c) of this section. In Alaska, only the following 13 entities shall receive allocations under this subpart, in accordance with the formula at paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The Metlakatla Indian Community of the Annette Islands Reserve:
</P>
<P>(2) Arctic Slope Native Association;
</P>
<P>(3) Kawerak, Inc.;
</P>
<P>(4) Maniilaq Association;
</P>
<P>(5) Association of Village Council Presidents;
</P>
<P>(6) Tanana Chiefs Conference;
</P>
<P>(7) Cook Inlet Tribal Council;
</P>
<P>(8) Bristol Bay Native Association;
</P>
<P>(9) Aleutian and Pribilof Islands Association;
</P>
<P>(10) Chugachmuit;
</P>
<P>(11) Tlingit and Haida Central Council;
</P>
<P>(12) Kodiak Area Native Association; and
</P>
<P>(13) Copper River Native Association.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Grants to individual Tribes with 50 or more Indian children, and to Tribes with fewer than 50 Indian children that apply as part of a consortium pursuant to § 98.80(b)(1), will be equal to an amount per Indian child under age 13 (or such similar age as determined by the Secretary from the best available data), which is determined by dividing the amount of funds available, by the number of Indian children in each Tribe's service area pursuant to § 98.80(e).
</P>
<P>(2) Tribal consortia will receive grants that are equal to the sum of the individual grants of their members.
</P>
<P>(d) The Territories will be allocated from the funds appropriated under section 418(a)(3)(C) of the Social Security Act based upon the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) A Young Child factor—the ratio of the number of children in the Territory under five years of age to the number of such children in all Territories; and
</P>
<P>(2) An Allotment Proportion factor—determined by dividing the per capita income of all individuals in all the Territories by the per capita income of all individuals in the Territory.
</P>
<P>(i) Per capita income shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) Equal to the average of the annual per capita incomes for the most recent period of three consecutive years for which satisfactory data are available at the time such determination is made; and
</P>
<P>(B) Determined every two years.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 89 FR 15415, Mar. 1, 2024


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.63" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.7.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.63   Allotments from the Matching Fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To each of the 50 States and the District of Columbia there is allocated an amount equal to its share of the total available under section 418(a)(3) of the Social Security Act. That amount is based on the same ratio as the number of children under age 13 residing in the State bears to the national total of children under age 13. The number of children under 13 is derived from the best data available to the Secretary for the second preceding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, the amounts available under section 418(a)(3) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 618(a)(3)) excludes the amounts reserved and allocated under § 98.60(b)(1) for technical assistance, research and evaluation, and the national toll-free hotline and Web site and under § 98.62(a) and (b) for the Mandatory Fund.
</P>
<P>(c) Amounts under this section are available pursuant to the requirements at § 98.55(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67591, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.64" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.7.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.64   Reallotment and redistribution of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) According to the provisions of this section State and Tribal Discretionary Funds are subject to reallotment, and State Matching Funds and Territory Mandatory Funds are subject to redistribution. State funds are reallotted or redistributed only to States as defined for the original allocation. Tribal funds are reallotted only to Tribes. Mandatory Funds granted to Territories are redistributed only to Territories. Discretionary Funds granted to the Territories are not subject to reallotment. Any Discretionary funds granted to the Territories that are returned after they have been allotted will revert to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) Any portion of a State's Discretionary Fund allotment that is not required to carry out its Plan, in the period for which the allotment is made available, shall be reallotted to other States in proportion to the original allotments. For purposes of this paragraph the term “State” means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. The other Territories and the Tribes may not receive reallotted State Discretionary Funds.
</P>
<P>(1) Each year, the State shall report to the Secretary either the dollar amount from the previous year's grant that it will be unable to obligate by the end of the obligation period or that all funds will be obligated during such time. Such report shall be postmarked by April 1st.
</P>
<P>(2) Based upon the reallotment reports submitted by States, the Secretary will reallot funds.
</P>
<P>(i) If the total amount available for reallotment is $25,000 or more, funds will be reallotted to States in proportion to each State's allotment for the applicable fiscal year's funds, pursuant to § 98.61(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) If the amount available for reallotment is less than $25,000, the Secretary will not reallot any funds, and such funds will revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an individual reallotment amount to a State is less than $500, the Secretary will not issue the award, and such funds will revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(3) If a State does not submit a reallotment report by the deadline for report submittal, either:
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary will determine that the State does not have any funds available for reallotment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a report postmarked after April 1st, any funds reported to be available for reallotment shall revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(4) States receiving reallotted funds shall obligate and expend these funds in accordance with § 98.60. The reallotment of funds does not extend the obligation period or the program period for expenditure of such funds.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Any portion of the Matching Fund granted to a State that is not obligated in the period for which the grant is made shall be redistributed. Funds, if any, will be redistributed on the request of, and only to, those other States that have met the requirements of § 98.55(c) in the period for which the grant was first made. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1), the term “State” means the 50 States and the District of Columbia. Territorial and tribal grantees may not receive redistributed Matching Funds.
</P>
<P>(2) Matching Funds allotted to a State under § 98.63(a), but not granted, shall also be redistributed in the manner described in paragraph (1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of Matching Funds granted to a State that will be made available for redistribution will be based on the State's financial report to ACF for the Child Care and Development Fund (ACF-696) and is subject to the monetary limits at paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) A State eligible to receive redistributed Matching Funds shall also use the ACF-696 to request its share of the redistributed funds, if any.
</P>
<P>(5) A State's share of redistributed Matching Funds is based on the same ratio as the number of children under 13 residing in the State to the number of children residing in all States eligible to receive and that request the redistributed Matching Funds.
</P>
<P>(6) Redistributed funds are considered part of the grant for the fiscal year in which the redistribution occurs.
</P>
<P>(d) Any portion of a Tribe's allotment of Discretionary Funds that is not required to carry out its Plan, in the period for which the allotment is made available, shall be reallotted to other tribal grantees in proportion to their original allotments. States and Territories may not receive reallotted tribal funds.
</P>
<P>(1) Each year, the Tribe shall report to the Secretary either the dollar amount from the previous year's grant that it will be unable to obligate by the end of the obligation period or that all funds will be obligated during such time. Such report shall be postmarked by a deadline established by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) Based upon the reallotment reports submitted by Tribes, the Secretary will reallot Tribal Discretionary Funds among the other Tribes.
</P>
<P>(i) If the total amount available for reallotment is $25,000 or more, funds will be reallotted to other tribal grantees in proportion to each Tribe's original allotment for the applicable fiscal year pursuant to § 98.62(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) If the total amount available for reallotment is less than $25,000, the Secretary will not reallot any funds, and such funds will revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an individual reallotment amount to an applicant Tribe is less than $500, the Secretary will not issue the award, and such funds will revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(3) If a Tribe does not submit a reallotment report by the deadline for report submittal, either:
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary will determine that Tribe does not have any funds available for reallotment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a report received after the deadline established by the Secretary, any funds reported to be available for reallotment shall revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(4) Tribes receiving reallotted funds shall obligate and expend these funds in accordance with § 98.60. The reallotment of funds does not extend the obligation period or the program period for expenditure of such funds.</P>
<P>(e)(1) Any portion of the Mandatory Funds that are not obligated in the period for which the grant is made shall be redistributed. Territory Mandatory Funds, if any, will be redistributed on the request of, and only to, those other Territories that have obligated their entire Territory Mandatory Fund allocation in full for the period for which the grant was first made.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of Mandatory Funds granted to a Territory that will be made available for redistribution will be based on the Territory's financial report to ACF for the Child Care and Development Fund (ACF-696) and is subject to the monetary limits at paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A Territory eligible to receive redistributed Mandatory Funds shall also use the ACF-696 to request its share of the redistributed funds, if any.
</P>
<P>(4) A Territory's share of redistributed Mandatory Funds is based on the same ratio as § 98.62(d).
</P>
<P>(5) Redistributed funds are considered part of the grant for the fiscal year in which the redistribution occurs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67591, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 15416, Mar. 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.65" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.7.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.65   Audits and financial reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Lead Agency shall have an audit conducted after the close of each program period in accordance with 2 CFR part 200, subpart F, and the Single Audit Act Amendments of 1996.
</P>
<P>(b) Lead Agencies are responsible for ensuring that subgrantees are audited in accordance with appropriate audit requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) Not later than 30 days after the completion of the audit, Lead Agencies shall submit a copy of their audit report to the legislature of the State or, if applicable, to the Tribal Council(s). Lead Agencies shall also submit a copy of their audit report to the HHS Inspector General for Audit Services, as well as to their cognizant agency, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) Any amounts determined through an audit not to have been expended in accordance with these statutory or regulatory provisions, or with the Plan, and that are subsequently disallowed by the Department shall be repaid to the Federal government, or the Secretary will offset such amounts against any other CCDF funds to which the Lead Agency is or may be entitled.
</P>
<P>(e) Lead Agencies shall provide access to appropriate books, documents, papers and records to allow the Secretary to verify that CCDF funds have been expended in accordance with the statutory and regulatory requirements of the program, and with the Plan.
</P>
<P>(f) The audit required in paragraph (a) of this section shall be conducted by an agency that is independent of the State, Territory or Tribe as defined by generally accepted government auditing standards issued by the Comptroller General, or a public accountant who meets such independent standards.
</P>
<P>(g) Lead Agencies shall submit financial reports, in a manner specified by ACF, quarterly for each fiscal year until funds are expended.
</P>
<P>(h) At a minimum, a State or territorial Lead Agency's quarterly report shall include the following information on expenditures under CCDF grant funds, including Discretionary (which includes realloted funding and any funds transferred from the TANF block grant), Mandatory, and Matching Funds (which includes redistributed funding); and State Matching and Maintenance-of-Effort (MOE) Funds:
</P>
<P>(1) Child care administration;
</P>
<P>(2) Quality activities, including any sub-categories of quality activities as required by ACF;
</P>
<P>(3) Direct services for both grant or contracted slots and certificates;
</P>
<P>(4) Non-direct services, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Establishment and maintenance of computerized child care information systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) Certificate program cost/eligibility determination;
</P>
<P>(iii) All other non-direct services; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other information as specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(i) Tribal Lead Agencies shall submit financial reports annually in a manner specified by ACF.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67591, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 15416, Mar. 1, 2024; 89 FR 80071, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.66" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.7.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.66   Disallowance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any expenditures not made in accordance with the Act, the implementing regulations, or the approved Plan, will be subject to disallowance.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Department, as the result of an audit or a review, finds that expenditures should be disallowed, the Department will notify the Lead Agency of this decision in writing.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If the Lead Agency agrees with the finding that amounts were not expended in accordance with the Act, these regulations, or the Plan, the Lead Agency shall fulfill the provisions of the disallowance notice and repay any amounts improperly expended; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Lead Agency may appeal the finding:
</P>
<P>(i) By requesting reconsideration from the Assistant Secretary, pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By following the procedure in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A Lead Agency may appeal the disallowance decision to the Departmental Appeals Board in accordance with 45 CFR part 16.
</P>
<P>(e) The Lead Agency may appeal a disallowance of costs that the Department has determined to be unallowable under an award. A grantee may not appeal the determination of award amounts or disposition of unobligated balances.
</P>
<P>(f) The Lead Agency's request for reconsideration in (c)(2)(i) of this section shall be postmarked no later than 30 days after the receipt of the disallowance notice. A Lead Agency may request an extension within the 30-day time frame. The request for reconsideration, pursuant to (c)(2)(i) of this section, need not follow any prescribed form, but it shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the disallowance;
</P>
<P>(2) The Lead Agency's reasons for believing that the disallowance was improper; and
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the disallowance decision issued pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) Upon receipt of a request for reconsideration, pursuant to (c)(2)(i) of this section, the Assistant Secretary or the Assistant Secretary's designee will inform the Lead Agency that the request is under review.
</P>
<P>(2) The Assistant Secretary or the designee will review any material submitted by the Lead Agency and any other necessary materials.
</P>
<P>(3) If the reconsideration decision is adverse to the Lead Agency's position, the response will include a notification of the Lead Agency's right to appeal to the Departmental Appeals Board, pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) If a Lead Agency refuses to repay amounts after a final decision has been made, the amounts will be offset against future payments to the Lead Agency.
</P>
<P>(i) The appeals process in this section is not applicable if the disallowance is part of a compliance review, pursuant to § 98.90, the findings of which have been appealed by the Lead Agency.
</P>
<P>(j) Disallowances under the CCDF program are subject to interest regulations at 45 CFR part 30. Interest will begin to accrue from the date of notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.67" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.7.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.67   Fiscal requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lead Agencies shall expend and account for CCDF funds in accordance with their own laws and procedures for expending and accounting for their own funds.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specified in this part, contracts that entail the expenditure of CCDF funds shall comply with the laws and procedures generally applicable to expenditures by the contracting agency of its own funds.
</P>
<P>(c) Fiscal control and accounting procedures shall be sufficient to permit:
</P>
<P>(1) Preparation of reports required by the Secretary under this subpart and under subpart H; and
</P>
<P>(2) The tracing of funds to a level of expenditure adequate to establish that such funds have not been used in violation of the provisions of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.68" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.7.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.68   Program integrity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lead Agencies are required to describe in their Plan effective internal controls that are in place to ensure integrity and accountability, while maintaining continuity of services, in the CCDF program. These shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Processes to ensure sound fiscal management;
</P>
<P>(2) Processes to identify areas of risk;
</P>
<P>(3) Processes to train child care providers and staff of the Lead Agency and other agencies engaged in the administration of CCDF about program requirements and integrity; and
</P>
<P>(4) Regular evaluation of internal control activities.
</P>
<P>(b) Lead Agencies are required to describe in their Plan the processes that are in place to:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify fraud or other program violations, which may include, but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Record matching and database linkages;
</P>
<P>(ii) Review of attendance and billing records;
</P>
<P>(iii) Quality control or quality assurance reviews; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Staff training on monitoring and audit processes.
</P>
<P>(2) Investigate and recover fraudulent payments and to impose sanctions on clients or providers in response to fraud.
</P>
<P>(c) Lead Agencies must describe in their Plan the procedures that are in place for documenting and verifying that children receiving assistance under this part meet eligibility criteria at the time of eligibility determination and redetermination. Because a child meeting eligibility requirements at the most recent eligibility determination or redetermination is considered eligible during the period between redeterminations as described in § 98.21(a)(1):
</P>
<P>(1) The Lead Agency shall pay any amount owed to a child care provider for services provided for such a child during this period under a payment agreement or authorization for services; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any CCDF payment made for such a child during this period shall not be considered an error or improper payment under subpart K of this part due to a change in the family's circumstances, as set forth at § 98.21(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67591, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Program Reporting Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.70" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.8.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.70   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Quarterly Case-level Report—
</P>
<P>(1) State and territorial Lead Agencies that receive assistance under the CCDF shall prepare and submit to the Department, in a manner specified by the Secretary, a quarterly case-level report of monthly family case-level data. Data shall be collected monthly and submitted quarterly. States may submit the data monthly if they choose to do so.
</P>
<P>(2) The information shall be reported for the three-month federal fiscal period preceding the required report. The first report shall be submitted no later than August 31, 1998, and quarterly thereafter. The first report shall include data from the third quarter of FFY 1998 (April 1998 through June 1998). States and Territorial Lead Agencies which choose to submit case-level data monthly must submit their report for April 1998 no later than July 30, 1998. Following reports must be submitted every thirty days thereafter.
</P>
<P>(3) State and territorial Lead Agencies choosing to submit data based on a sample shall submit a sampling plan to ACF for approval 60 days prior to the submission of the first quarterly report. States are not prohibited from submitting case-level data for the entire population receiving CCDF services.
</P>
<P>(4) Quarterly family case-level reports to the Secretary shall include the information listed in § 98.71(a).
</P>
<P>(b) Annual Report—
</P>
<P>(1) State and territorial Lead Agencies that receive assistance under CCDF shall prepare and submit to the Secretary an annual report. The report shall be submitted, in a manner specified by the Secretary, by December 31 of each year and shall cover the most recent federal fiscal year (October through September).
</P>
<P>(2) The first annual aggregate report shall be submitted no later than December 31, 1997, and every twelve months thereafter.
</P>
<P>(3) Biennial reports to Congress by the Secretary shall include the information listed in § 98.71(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Tribal Annual Report—
</P>
<P>(1) Tribal Lead Agencies that receive assistance under CCDF shall prepare and submit to the Secretary an annual aggregate report.
</P>
<P>(2) The report shall be submitted in the manner specified by the Secretary by December 31 of each year and shall cover services for children and families served with CCDF funds during the preceding Federal Fiscal Year.
</P>
<P>(3) Biennial reports to Congress by the Secretary shall include the information listed in § 98.71(c).
</P>
<P>(d) State and territorial Lead Agencies shall make the following reports publicly available on a Web site in a timely manner:
</P>
<P>(1) Annual administrative data reports under paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Quarterly financial reports under § 98.65(g); and
</P>
<P>(3) Annual quality progress reports under § 98.53(g).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67592, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 52397, June 24, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.71" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.8.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.71   Content of report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At a minimum, a State or territorial Lead Agency's quarterly case-level report to the Secretary, as required in § 98.70, shall include the following information on services provided under CCDF grant funds, including Federal Discretionary (which includes any funds transferred from the TANF Block Grant), Mandatory, and Matching Funds; and State Matching and Maintenance-of-Effort (MOE) Funds:
</P>
<P>(1) The total monthly family income and family size used for determining eligibility;
</P>
<P>(2) Zip code of residence of the family and zip code of the location of the child care provider;
</P>
<P>(3) Gender and month/year of birth of children;
</P>
<P>(4) Ethnicity and race of children;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the head of the family is a single parent
</P>
<P>(6) The sources of family income and assistance from employment (including self-employment), cash or other assistance under the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families program under Part A of title IV of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 609(a)(7)), cash or other assistance under a State program for which State spending is counted toward the maintenance of effort requirement under section 409(a)(7) of the Social Security Act, housing assistance, assistance under the Food Stamp Act of 1977, and other assistance programs;
</P>
<P>(7) The month/year child care assistance to the family started;
</P>
<P>(8) The type(s) of child care in which the child was enrolled (such as family child care, in-home care, or center-based child care;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the child care provider was a relative;
</P>
<P>(10) The total monthly child care copayment by the family;
</P>
<P>(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) The total expected dollar amount per month to be received by the provider for each child;
</P>
<P>(13) The total hours per month of such care;
</P>
<P>(14) Unique identifier of the head of the family unit receiving child care assistance, and of the child care provider;
</P>
<P>(15) Reasons for receiving care;
</P>
<P>(16) Whether the family is experiencing homelessness;
</P>
<P>(17) Whether the parent(s) are in the military service;
</P>
<P>(18) Whether the child has a disability;
</P>
<P>(19) Primary language spoken at home;
</P>
<P>(20) Date of the child care provider's most recent health, safety and fire inspection meeting the requirements of § 98.42(b)(2);
</P>
<P>(21) Indicator of the quality of the child care provider; and
</P>
<P>(22) Any additional information that the Secretary shall require.
</P>
<P>(b) At a minimum, a State or territorial Lead Agency's annual aggregate report to the Secretary, as required in § 98.70(b), shall include the following information on services provided through all CCDF grant funds, including Federal Discretionary (which includes any funds transferred from the TANF Block Grant), Mandatory, and Matching Funds; and State Matching and MOE Funds:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of child care providers that received funding under CCDF as separately identified based on the types of providers listed in section 658P(5) of the amended Child Care and Development Block Grant Act;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of children served by payments through certificates or vouchers, contracts or grants, and cash under public benefit programs, listed by the primary type of child care services provided during the last month of the report period (or the last month of service for those children leaving the program before the end of the report period);
</P>
<P>(3) The manner in which consumer education information was provided to parents and the number of parents to whom such information was provided;
</P>
<P>(4) The total number (without duplication) of children and families served under CCDF;
</P>
<P>(5) For Lead Agencies implementing presumptive eligibility in accordance with § 98.21(e):
</P>
<P>(i) The number of presumptively eligible children ultimately determined fully eligible;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of presumptively eligible children for whom the family does not complete the documentation for full eligibility verification; and,
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of presumptively eligible children who are determined not to be eligible after full verification;
</P>
<P>(6) The number of child fatalities by type of care; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any additional information that the Secretary shall require.
</P>
<P>(c) A Tribal Lead Agency's annual report as required in § 98.70(c), shall include such information as the Secretary shall require.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67592, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 15416, Mar. 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Indian Tribes</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.80" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.9.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.80   General procedures and requirements.</HEAD>
<P>An Indian Tribe or tribal organization (as described in subpart G of these regulations) may be awarded grants to plan and carry out programs for the purpose of increasing the availability, affordability, and quality of child care and childhood development programs subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) An Indian Tribe applying for or receiving CCDF funds shall be subject to the requirements under this part as specified in this section based on the size of the awarded funds. The Secretary shall establish thresholds for Tribes' total CCDF allotments pursuant to §§ 98.61(c) and 98.62(b) to be divided into three categories:
</P>
<P>(1) Large allocations;
</P>
<P>(2) Medium allocations; and
</P>
<P>(3) Small allocations.
</P>
<P>(b) An Indian Tribe applying for or receiving CCDF funds shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Have at least 50 children under 13 years of age (or such similar age, as determined by the Secretary from the best available data) in order to be eligible to operate a CCDF program. This limitation does not preclude an Indian Tribe with fewer than 50 children under 13 years of age from participating in a consortium that receives CCDF funds; and
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrate its current service delivery capability, including skills, personnel, resources, community support, and other necessary components to satisfactorily carry out the proposed program.
</P>
<P>(c) A consortium representing more than one Indian Tribe may be eligible to receive CCDF funds on behalf of a particular Tribe if:
</P>
<P>(1) The consortium adequately demonstrates that each participating Tribe authorizes the consortium to receive CCDF funds on behalf of each Tribe or tribal organization in the consortium;
</P>
<P>(2) The consortium consists of Tribes that each meet the eligibility requirements for the CCDF program as defined in this part, or that would otherwise meet the eligibility requirements if the Tribe or tribal organization had at least 50 children under 13 years of age;
</P>
<P>(3) All the participating consortium members are in geographic proximity to one another (including operation in a multi-State area) or have an existing consortium arrangement; and
</P>
<P>(4) The consortium demonstrates that it has the managerial, technical and administrative staff with the ability to administer government funds, manage a CCDF program and comply with the provisions of the Act and of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The awarding of a grant under this section shall not affect the eligibility of any Indian child to receive CCDF services provided by the State or States in which the Indian Tribe is located.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of the CCDF, the determination of the number of children in the Tribe, pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall include Indian children living on or near reservations, with the exception of Tribes in Alaska, California and Oklahoma.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67592, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.81" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.9.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.81   Application and Plan procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to receive CCDF funds, a Tribal Lead Agency shall apply for funds pursuant to § 98.13, except that the requirement at § 98.13(b)(2) does not apply.
</P>
<P>(b) Tribal Lead Agencies with large and medium allocations shall submit a CCDF Plan, as described at § 98.16, with the following additions and exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) The Plan shall include the basis for determining family eligibility.
</P>
<P>(i) If the Tribe's median income is below a certain level established by the Secretary, then, at the Tribe's option, any Indian child in the Tribe's service area shall be considered eligible to receive CCDF funds, regardless of the family's income, work, or training status, provided that provision for services still goes to those with the highest need.
</P>
<P>(ii) The basis for determining family eligibility may be determined by the Tribe notwithstanding family income or assets as described in § 98.20(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining eligibility, the following terms shall also be defined:
</P>
<P>(i) Indian child; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Indian reservation or tribal service area.
</P>
<P>(3) The Tribal Lead Agency shall also assure that:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant shall coordinate, to the maximum extent feasible, with the Lead Agency in the State in which the applicant shall carry out CCDF programs or activities, pursuant to § 98.82; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an applicant located in a State other than Alaska, California, or Oklahoma, CCDF programs and activities shall be carried out on an Indian reservation for the benefit of Indian children, pursuant to § 98.83(b).
</P>
<P>(4) The Plan shall include any information, as prescribed by the Secretary, necessary for determining the number of children in accordance with §§ 98.61(c), 98.62(c), and 98.80(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(5) The Plan shall include a description of the Tribe's payment rates, how they are established, and how they support quality including, where applicable, cultural and linguistic appropriateness.
</P>
<P>(6) The Plan is not subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The early learning and developmental guidelines requirement at § 98.15(a)(9);
</P>
<P>(ii) The certification to develop the CCDF Plan in consultation with the State Advisory Council at § 98.15(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensing requirements applicable to child care services at §§ 98.15(b)(6) and §§ 98.16(u);
</P>
<P>(iv) The identification of the public or private entities designated to receive private funds at § 98.16(d)(2);
</P>
<P>(v) A definition of very low income at § 98.16(g)(8);
</P>
<P>(vi) A description at § 98.16(i)(4) of how the Lead Agency will meet the needs of certain families specified at § 98.50(e);
</P>
<P>(vii) The description of the sliding fee scale at § 98.16(k);
</P>
<P>(viii) The description of the market rate survey or alternative methodology at § 98.16(r);
</P>
<P>(ix) The description relating to Matching Funds at § 98.16(w);
</P>
<P>(x) The description of how the Lead Agency prioritizes increasing access to high-quality child care in areas with high concentration of poverty at § 98.16(aa); and


</P>
<P>(xi) The description of provider payment practices at § 98.16(cc).




</P>
<P>(8) A consortium shall also provide the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A list of participating or constituent members, including demonstrations from these members pursuant to § 98.80(c)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of how the consortium is coordinating services on behalf of its members, pursuant to § 98.83(c)(1); and
</P>
<P>(iii) As part of its initial Plan, the additional information required at § 98.80(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(9) Plans for Tribal Lead Agencies with medium allocations are not subject to the following requirements unless the Tribe chooses to include such services, and, therefore, the associated requirements, in its program:
</P>
<P>(i) The assurance at § 98.15(a)(2) regarding options for services;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of any limits established for the provision of in-home care at § 98.16(i)(2), or
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the child care certificate payment system(s) at § 98.16(q).
</P>
<P>(c) Tribal Lead Agencies with small allocations shall submit an abbreviated CCDF Plan, as described by the Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67593, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 15416, Mar. 1, 2024; 89 FR 90608, Nov. 18, 2024; 91 FR 25808, May 12, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.82" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.9.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.82   Coordination.</HEAD>
<P>Tribal applicants shall coordinate the development of the Plan and the provision of services, to the extent practicable, as required by §§ 98.12 and 98.14 and:
</P>
<P>(a) To the maximum extent feasible, with the Lead Agency in the State or States in which the applicant will carry out the CCDF program; and
</P>
<P>(b) With other Federal, State, local, and tribal child care and childhood development programs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67593, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.83" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.9.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.83   Requirements for tribal programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The grantee shall designate an agency, department, or unit to act as the Tribal Lead Agency to administer the CCDF program.
</P>
<P>(b) With the exception of Alaska, California, and Oklahoma, programs and activities for the benefit of Indian children shall be carried out on or near an Indian reservation.
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of a tribal grantee that is a consortium:
</P>
<P>(1) A brief description of the direct child care services funded by CCDF for each of their participating Tribes shall be provided by the consortium in their three-year CCDF Plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Variations in CCDF programs or requirements and in child care licensing, regulatory and health and safety requirements shall be specified in written agreements between the consortium and the Tribe.
</P>
<P>(3) If a Tribe elects to participate in a consortium arrangement to receive one part of the CCDF (<I>e.g.,</I> Discretionary Funds), it may not join another consortium or apply as a direct grantee to receive the other part of the CCDF (<I>e.g.,</I> Tribal Mandatory Funds).
</P>
<P>(4) If a Tribe relinquishes its membership in a consortium at any time during the fiscal year, CCDF funds awarded on behalf of the member Tribe will remain with the tribal consortium to provide direct child care services to other consortium members for that fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Tribal Lead Agencies shall not be subject to:
</P>
<P>(i) The requirement to produce a consumer education website at § 98.33(a). Tribal Lead Agencies still must collect and disseminate the provider-specific consumer education information described at § 98.33(a) through (d), but may do so using methods other than a website;
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirement to have licensing applicable to child care services at § 98.40;
</P>
<P>(iii) The requirement for a training and professional development framework at § 98.44(a);
</P>
<P>(iv) The market rate survey or alternative methodology described at § 98.45(b)(2) and the related requirements at § 98.45(c), (d), (e), and (f);
</P>
<P>(v) The requirement for a sliding fee scale at § 98.45(l);
</P>
<P>(vi) The requirement to have provider payment practices that reflect generally accepted payment practices at § 98.45(m);
</P>
<P>(vii) The requirement that Lead Agencies shall give priority for services to children of families with very low family income at § 98.46(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(viii) The requirement that Lead Agencies shall prioritize increasing access to high-quality child care in areas with significant concentrations of poverty and unemployment at § 98.46(b);
</P>
<P>(ix) The requirements about Mandatory and Matching Funds at § 98.50(e);
</P>
<P>(x) The requirement to complete the quality progress report at § 98.53(g);
</P>
<P>(xi) The requirement that Lead Agencies shall expend no more than five percent from each year's allotment on administrative costs at § 98.54(a); and
</P>
<P>(xii) The Matching fund requirements at §§ 98.55 and 98.63.
</P>
<P>(2) Tribal Lead Agencies with large, medium, and small allocations shall be subject to the provision at § 98.42(b)(2) to require inspections of child care providers and facilities, unless a Tribal Lead Agency describes an alternative monitoring approach in its Plan and provides adequate justification for the approach.
</P>
<P>(3) Tribal Lead Agencies with large, medium, and small allocations shall be subject to the requirement at § 98.43 to conduct comprehensive criminal background checks, unless the Tribal Lead Agency describes an alternative background check approach in its Plan and provides adequate justification for the approach.
</P>
<P>(e) Tribal Lead Agencies with medium and small allocations shall not be subject to the requirement for certificates at § 98.30(a) and (d).
</P>
<P>(f) Tribal Lead Agencies with small allocations must spend their CCDF funds in alignment with the goals and purposes described in § 98.1. These Tribes shall have flexibility in how they spend their CCDF funds and shall be subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The health and safety requirements described in § 98.41;
</P>
<P>(2) The monitoring requirements at §§ 98.42 and 98.83(d)(2); and
</P>
<P>(3) The background checks requirements described in §§ 98.43 and 98.83(d)(3);
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements to spend funds on activities to improve the quality of child care described in §§ 98.83(g) and 98.53;
</P>
<P>(5) The use of funds requirements at § 98.56 and cost allocation requirement at § 98.57;
</P>
<P>(6) The financial management requirements at subpart G of this part that are applicable to Tribes;
</P>
<P>(7) The reporting requirements at subpart H of this part that are applicable to Tribes;
</P>
<P>(8) The eligibility definitions at § 98.81(b)(2);
</P>
<P>(9) The 15 percent limitation on administrative activities at § 98.83(i);
</P>
<P>(10) The monitoring, non-compliance, and complaint provisions at subpart J of this part; and
</P>
<P>(11) Any other requirement established by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(g) Of the aggregate amount of funds expended (<I>i.e.,</I> Discretionary and Mandatory Funds):
</P>
<P>(1) For Tribal Lead Agencies with large, medium, and small allocations, no less than nine percent shall be used for activities designed to improve the quality of child care services and increase parental options for, and access to, high-quality child care as described at § 98.53; and
</P>
<P>(2) For Tribal Lead Agencies with large and medium allocations, no less than three percent shall be used to carry out activities at § 98.53(a)(4) as such activities relate to the quality of care for infants and toddlers.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this section shall preclude the Tribal Lead Agencies from reserving a larger percentage of funds to carry out activities described in paragraph (g)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) The base amount of any tribal grant is not subject to the administrative cost limitation at paragraph (i) of this section, the direct services requirement at § 98.50(f)(2), or the quality expenditure requirement at § 98.53(a). The base amount may be expended for any costs consistent with the purposes and requirements of the CCDF.
</P>
<P>(i) Not more than 15 percent of the aggregate CCDF funds expended by the Tribal Lead Agency from each fiscal year's (including amounts used for construction and renovation in accordance with § 98.84, but not including the base amount provided under paragraph (h) of this section) shall be expended for administrative activities. Amounts used for construction and major renovation in accordance with § 98.84 are not considered administrative costs.
</P>
<P>(j)(1) CCDF funds are available for costs incurred by the Tribal Lead Agency only after the funds are made available by Congress for Federal obligation unless costs are incurred for planning activities related to the submission of an initial CCDF Plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Federal obligation of funds for planning costs, pursuant to paragraph (j)(1) of this section, is subject to the actual availability of the appropriation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 67593, Sept. 30, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 3186, Jan. 11, 2017; 89 FR 15416, Mar. 1, 2024; 89 FR 52397, June 24, 2024; 89 FR 85071, Oct. 25, 2024; 91 FR 25808, May 12, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.84" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.9.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.84   Construction and renovation of child care facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon requesting and receiving approval from the Secretary, Tribal Lead Agencies may use amounts provided under §§ 98.61(c) and 98.62(b) to make payments for construction or major renovation of child care facilities (including paying the cost of amortizing the principal and paying interest on loans).
</P>
<P>(b) To be approved by the Secretary, a request shall be made in accordance with uniform procedures established by program instruction and, in addition, shall demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate facilities are not otherwise available to enable the Tribal Lead Agency to carry out child care programs;
</P>
<P>(2) The lack of such facilities will inhibit the operation of child care programs in the future; and
</P>
<P>(3) The use of funds for construction or major renovation will not result in a decrease in the level of child care services provided by the Tribal Lead Agency as compared to the level of services provided by the Tribal Lead Agency in the preceding fiscal year. The Secretary shall waive this requirement if:
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary determines that the decrease in the level of child care services provided by the Indian tribe or tribal organization is temporary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Indian tribe or tribal organization submits to the Secretary a plan that demonstrates that after the date on which the construction or renovation is completed:
</P>
<P>(A) The level of direct child care services will increase; or
</P>
<P>(B) The quality of child care services will improve.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Tribal Lead Agency may use CCDF funds for reasonable and necessary planning costs associated with assessing the need for construction or renovation or for preparing a request, in accordance with the uniform procedures established by program instruction, to spend CCDF funds on construction or major renovation.
</P>
<P>(2) A Tribal Lead Agency may only use CCDF funds to pay for the costs of an architect, engineer, or other consultant for a project that is subsequently approved by the Secretary. If the project later fails to gain the Secretary's approval, the Tribal Lead Agency must pay for the architectural, engineering or consultant costs using non-CCDF funds.
</P>
<P>(d) Tribal Lead Agencies that receive approval from the Secretary to use CCDF funds for construction or major renovation shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Federal share requirements and use of property requirements at 2 CFR 200.311;
</P>
<P>(2) Transfer and disposition of property requirements at 2 CFR 200.311(d);
</P>
<P>(3) Title requirements at 2 CFR 200.311(a);
</P>
<P>(4) Cost principles and allowable cost requirements at subpart E of2 CFR parts 200 and 300;
</P>
<P>(5) Program income requirements at 2 CFR 200.307;
</P>
<P>(6) Procurement procedures at 2 CFR 200.317 through 200.327; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any additional requirements established by program instruction, including requirements concerning:
</P>
<P>(i) The recording of a Notice of Federal Interest in the property;
</P>
<P>(ii) Rights and responsibilities in the event of a grantee's default on a mortgage;
</P>
<P>(iii) Insurance and maintenance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Submission of plans, specifications, inspection reports, and other legal documents; and
</P>
<P>(v) Modular units.
</P>
<P>(e) In lieu of obligation and liquidation requirements at § 98.60(e), Tribal Lead Agencies shall obligate CCDF funds used for construction or major renovation by the end of the second fiscal year following the fiscal year for which the grant is awarded. Tribal construction and major renovation funds must be liquidated at the end of the second succeeding fiscal year following this obligation deadline. Any Tribal construction and major renovation funds that remain unliquidated by the end of this period will revert to the Federal government.
</P>
<P>(f) Tribal Lead Agencies may expend funds, without requesting approval pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, for minor renovation.
</P>
<P>(g) A new tribal grantee (i.e., one that did not receive CCDF funds the preceding fiscal year) may spend no more than an amount equivalent to its Tribal Mandatory allocation on construction and renovation. A new tribal grantee must spend an amount equivalent to its Discretionary allocation on activities other than construction or renovation (i.e., direct services, quality activities, or administrative costs).
</P>
<P>(h) A construction or renovation project that requires and receives approval by the Secretary must include as part of the construction and renovation costs:
</P>
<P>(1) planning costs as allowed at § 98.84(c);
</P>
<P>(2) labor, materials and services necessary for the functioning of the facility; and
</P>
<P>(3) initial equipment for the facility. Equipment means items which are tangible, nonexpendable personal property having a useful life of more than five years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 3020, Jan. 20, 2016; 81 FR 67594, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 15417, Mar. 1, 2024; 89 FR 80071, Oct. 2, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Monitoring, Non-compliance and Complaints</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.90" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.10.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.90   Monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary will monitor programs funded under the CCDF for compliance with:
</P>
<P>(1) The Act;
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) The provisions and requirements set forth in the CCDF Plan approved under § 98.18;
</P>
<P>(b) If a review or investigation reveals evidence that the Lead Agency, or an entity providing services under contract or agreement with the Lead Agency, has failed to substantially comply with the Plan or with one or more provisions of the Act or implementing regulations, the Secretary will issue a preliminary notice to the Lead Agency of possible non-compliance. The Secretary shall consider comments received from the Lead Agency within 60 days (or such longer period as may be agreed upon between the Lead Agency and the Secretary).
</P>
<P>(c) Pursuant to an investigation conducted under paragraph (a) of this section, a Lead Agency shall make appropriate books, documents, papers, manuals, instructions, and records available to the Secretary, or any duly authorized representatives, for examination or copying on or off the premises of the appropriate entity, including subgrantees and contractors, upon reasonable request.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Lead Agencies and subgrantees shall retain all CCDF records, as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, and any other records of Lead Agencies and subgrantees that are needed to substantiate compliance with CCDF requirements, for the period of time specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Lead Agencies and subgrantees shall provide through an appropriate provision in their contracts that their contractors will retain and permit access to any books, documents, papers, and records of the contractor that are directly pertinent to that specific contract.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Length of retention period.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, records specified in paragraph (c) of this section shall be retained for three years from the day the Lead Agency or subgrantee submits the Financial Reports required by the Secretary, pursuant to § 98.65(g), for the program period.
</P>
<P>(2) If any litigation, claim, negotiation, audit, disallowance action, or other action involving the records has been started before the expiration of the three-year retention period, the records shall be retained until completion of the action and resolution of all issues that arise from it, or until the end of the regular three-year period, whichever is later.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.91" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.10.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.91   Non-compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If after reasonable notice to a Lead Agency, pursuant to § 98.90 or § 98.93, a final determination is made that:
</P>
<P>(1) There has been a failure by the Lead Agency, or by an entity providing services under contract or agreement with the Lead Agency, to comply substantially with any provision or requirement set forth in the Plan approved under § 98.16; or
</P>
<P>(2) If in the operation of any program for which funding is provided under the CCDF, there is a failure by the Lead Agency, or by an entity providing services under contract or agreement with the Lead Agency, to comply substantially with any provision of the Act or this part, the Secretary will provide to the Lead Agency a written notice of a finding of non-compliance. This notice will be issued within 60 days of the preliminary notification in § 98.90(b), or within 60 days of the receipt of additional comments from the Lead Agency, whichever is later, and will provide the opportunity for a hearing, pursuant to part 99.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice in paragraph (a) of this section will include all relevant findings, as well as any penalties or sanctions to be applied, pursuant to § 98.92.
</P>
<P>(c) Issues subject to review at the hearing include the finding of non-compliance, as well as any penalties or sanctions to be imposed pursuant to § 98.92.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.92" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.10.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.92   Penalties and sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon a final determination that the Lead Agency has failed to substantially comply with the Act, the implementing regulations, or the Plan, one of the following penalties will be applied:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary will disallow any improperly expended funds;
</P>
<P>(2) An amount equal to or less than the improperly expended funds will be deducted from the administrative portion of the State allotment for the following fiscal year; or
</P>
<P>(3) A combination of the above options will be applied.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to imposing the penalties described in paragraph (a) of this section, the Secretary may impose other appropriate sanctions, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Disqualification of the Lead Agency from the receipt of further funding under the CCDF; or
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A penalty of not more than four percent of the funds allotted under § 98.61 (i.e., the Discretionary Funds) for a Fiscal Year shall be withheld if the Secretary determines that the Lead Agency has failed to implement a provision of the Act, these regulations, or the Plan required under § 98.16;
</P>
<P>(ii) This penalty will be withheld no earlier than the second full quarter following the quarter in which the Lead Agency was notified of the proposed penalty;
</P>
<P>(iii) This penalty will not be applied if the Lead Agency corrects the failure or violation before the penalty is to be applied or if it submits a plan for corrective action that is acceptable to the Secretary; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The Lead Agency may show cause to the Secretary why the amount of the penalty, if applied, should be reduced.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A penalty of five percent of the funds allotted under § 98.61 (<I>i.e.,</I> the Discretionary Funds) for a Fiscal Year shall be withheld for any For Fiscal Year the Secretary determines that the Lead Agency has failed to give priority for service in accordance with § 98.46(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) This penalty will be withheld no earlier than the first full Fiscal Year following the determination to apply the penalty;
</P>
<P>(iii) This penalty will not be applied if the Lead Agency corrects its failure to comply and amends its CCDF Plan within six months of being notified of the failure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The Secretary may waive a penalty for one year in the event of extraordinary circumstances, such as a natural disaster.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) A penalty of five percent of the funds allotted under § 98.61 (<I>i.e.,</I> the Discretionary Funds) for a Fiscal Year shall be withheld for any Fiscal Year that the Secretary determines that the State, Territory, or Tribe has failed to comply substantially with the criminal background check requirements at § 98.43;
</P>
<P>(ii) This penalty will be withheld no earlier than the first full Fiscal Year following the determination to apply the penalty; and
</P>
<P>(iii) This penalty will not be applied if the State, Territory, or Tribe corrects the failure before the penalty is to be applied or if it submits a plan for corrective action that is acceptable to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) If a Lead Agency is subject to additional sanctions as provided under paragraph (b) of this section, specific identification of any additional sanctions being imposed will be provided in the notice provided pursuant to § 98.91.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section, or in § 98.90 or § 98.91, will preclude the Lead Agency and the Department from informally resolving a possible compliance issue without following all of the steps described in §§ 98.90, 98.91 and 98.92. Penalties and/or sanctions, as described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, may nevertheless be applied, even though the issue is resolved informally.
</P>
<P>(e) It is at the Secretary's sole discretion to choose the penalty to be imposed under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, July 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67594, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.93" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.10.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.93   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to any complaint (other than a complaint alleging violation of the nondiscrimination provisions) that a Lead Agency has failed to use its allotment in accordance with the terms of the Act, the implementing regulations, or the Plan. The Secretary is not required to consider a complaint unless it is submitted as required by this section. Complaints with respect to discrimination should be referred to the Office of Civil Rights of the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) Complaints with respect to the CCDF shall be submitted in writing to the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families. The complaint shall identify the provision of the Plan, the Act, or this part that was allegedly violated, specify the basis for alleging the violation(s), and include all relevant information known to the person submitting it.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department shall promptly furnish a copy of any complaint to the affected Lead Agency. Any comments received from the Lead Agency within 60 days (or such longer period as may be agreed upon between the Lead Agency and Department) shall be considered by the Department in responding to the complaint. The Department will conduct an investigation of complaints, where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The Department will provide a written response to complaints within 180 days after receipt. If a final resolution cannot be provided at that time, the response will state the reasons why additional time is necessary.
</P>
<P>(e) Complaints that are not satisfactorily resolved through communication with the Lead Agency will be pursued through the process described in § 98.90.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 39981, Sept. 24, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 67595, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Error Rate Reporting</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 50898, Sept. 5, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 98.100" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.11.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.100   Error Rate Report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability</I>—The requirements of this subpart apply to the fifty States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Generally</I>—States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico shall calculate, prepare and submit to the Department, a report of errors occurring in the administration of CCDF grant funds, at times and in a manner specified by the Secretary in instructions. States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico must use this report to calculate their error rates, which is defined as the percentage of cases with an error (expressed as the total number of cases with an error compared to the total number of cases); the percentage of cases with an improper payment (expressed as the total number of cases with an improper payment compared to the total number of cases); the percentage of improper payments (expressed as the total amount of improper payments in the sample compared to the total dollar amount of payments made in the sample); the average amount of improper payment; and the estimated annual amount of improper payments. The report also will provide strategies for reducing their error rates and allow States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico to set target error rates for the next cycle.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Error Defined</I>—For purposes of this subpart, an “error” shall mean any violation or misapplication of statutory, contractual, administrative, or other legally applicable requirements governing the administration of CCDF grant funds, regardless of whether such violation results in an improper payment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Improper Payment Defined</I>—For purposes of this subpart, “improper payment.”
</P>
<P>(1) Means any payment of CCDF grant funds that should not have been made or that was made in an incorrect amount (including overpayments and underpayments) under statutory, contractual, administrative, or other legally applicable requirements governing the administration of CCDF grant funds; and
</P>
<P>(2) Includes any payment of CCDF grant funds to an ineligible recipient, any payment of CCDF grant funds for an ineligible service, any duplicate payment of CCDF grant funds and payments of CCDF grant funds for services not received. Because a child meeting eligibility requirements at the most recent eligibility determination or redetermination is considered eligible between redeterminations as described in § 98.21(a)(1), any payment for such a child shall not be considered an error or improper payment due to a change in the family's circumstances, as set forth at § 98.21(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Costs of Preparing the Error Rate Report</I>—Provided the error rate calculations and reports focus on client eligibility, expenses incurred by the States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico in complying with this rule, including preparation of required reports, shall be considered a cost of direct service related to eligibility determination and therefore is not subject to the five percent limitation on CCDF administrative costs pursuant to § 98.54(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 50898, Sept. 5, 2007, as amended at 81 FR 67595, Sept. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.101" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.11.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.101   Case Review Methodology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Case Reviews and Sampling</I>—In preparing the error reports required by this subpart, States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico shall conduct comprehensive reviews of case records using a methodology established by the Secretary. For purposes of the case reviews, States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico shall select a random sample of case records which is estimated to achieve the calculation of an estimated annual amount of improper payments with a 90 percent confidence interval of ±5.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methodology and Forms</I>—States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico must prepare and submit forms issued by the Secretary, following the accompanying instructions setting forth the methodology to be used in conducting case reviews and calculating the error rates.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting Frequency and Cycle</I>—States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico shall conduct case reviews and submit error rate reports to the Department according to a staggered three-year cycle established by the Secretary such that each State, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico will be selected once, and only once, in every three years.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access to Federal Staff</I>—States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico must provide access to Federal staff to participate and provide oversight in case reviews and error rate calculations, including access to forms related to determining error rates.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Record Retention</I>—Records pertinent to the case reviews and submission of error rate reports shall be retained for a period of five years from the date of submission of the applicable error rate report or, if the error rate report was revised, from the date of submission of the revision. Records must be made available to Federal staff upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 98.102" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.53.11.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 98.102   Content of Error Rate Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Baseline Submission Report</I>—At a minimum, States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico shall submit an initial error rate report to the Department, as required in § 98.100, which includes the following information on errors and resulting improper payments occurring in the administration of CCDF grant funds, including Federal Discretionary Funds (which includes any funds transferred from the TANF Block Grant), Mandatory and Matching Funds and State Matching and Maintenance-of-Effort (MOE Funds):
</P>
<P>(1) Percentage of cases with an error (regardless of whether such error resulted in an over or under payment), expressed as the total number of cases in the sample with an error compared to the total number of cases in the sample;
</P>
<P>(2) Percentage of cases with an improper payment (both over and under payments), expressed as the total number of cases in the sample with an improper payment compared to the total number of cases in the sample;
</P>
<P>(3) Percentage of improper payments (both over and under payments), expressed as the total dollar amount of improper payments in the sample compared to the total dollar amount of payments made in the sample;
</P>
<P>(4) Average amount of improper payments (gross over and under payments, divided by the total number of cases in the sample that had an improper payment (both over and under payments));
</P>
<P>(5) Estimated annual amount of improper payments (which is a projection of the results from the sample to the universe of cases statewide during the 12-month review period) calculated by multiplying the percentage of improper payments by the total dollar amount of child care payments that the State, the District of Columbia or Puerto Rico paid during the 12-month review period;
</P>
<P>(6) For each category of data listed above, targets for errors and improper payments in the next reporting cycle;
</P>
<P>(7) Summary of methodology used to arrive at estimate, including fieldwork preparation, sample generation, record review and error rate computation processes;
</P>
<P>(8) Discussion of the causes of improper payments identified and actions that will be taken to correct those causes in order to reduce the error rates;
</P>
<P>(9) Description of the information systems and other infrastructure that assist the State, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico in identifying and reducing improper payments, or if the State, the District of Columbia or Puerto Rico does not have these tools, a description of actions that will be taken to acquire the necessary information systems and other infrastructure; and
</P>
<P>(10) Such other information as specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standard Report</I>—At a minimum, the State, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico shall submit an error rate report to the Department, as required in § 98.100, made subsequent to the baseline submission report as set forth in § 98.102(a) which includes the following information on errors and resulting improper payments occurring in the administration of CCDF grant funds, including Federal Discretionary Funds (which includes any funds transferred from the TANF Block Grant), Mandatory and Matching Funds and State Matching and Maintenance-of-Effort (MOE Funds):
</P>
<P>(1) All the information reported in the baseline submission, as set forth in § 98.102(a), updated for the current cycle;
</P>
<P>(2) For each category of data listed in § 98.102(a)(1) through (5), States, the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico must include data and targets from the prior cycle in addition to data from the current cycle and targets for the next cycle;
</P>
<P>(3) Description of whether the State, the District of Columbia or Puerto Rico met error rate targets set in the prior cycle and, if not, an explanation of why not;
</P>
<P>(4) Discussion of the causes of improper payments identified in the prior cycle and actions that were taken to correct those causes, in addition to a discussion on the causes of improper payments identified in the current cycle and actions that will be taken to correct those causes in order to reduce the error rates; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other information as specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) Any Lead Agency with an improper payment rate that exceeds a threshold established by the Secretary must submit to the Assistant Secretary for approval a comprehensive corrective action plan, as well as subsequent reports describing progress in implementing the plan.
</P>
<P>(1) The corrective action plan must be submitted within 60 days of the deadline for submitting the Lead Agency's standard error rate report required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The corrective action plan must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of a senior accountable official;
</P>
<P>(ii) Root causes of error as identified on the Lead Agency's most recent ACF-404 and other root causes identified;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed descriptions of actions to reduce improper payments and the name and/or title of the individual responsible for ensuring actions are completed;
</P>
<P>(iv) Milestones to indicate progress towards action completion and error reduction goals;
</P>
<P>(v) A timeline for completing each action of the plan within 1 year, and for reducing the improper payment rate below the threshold established by the Secretary; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Targets for future improper payment rates.
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent progress reports including updated corrective action plans must be submitted as requested by the Assistant Secretary until the Lead Agency's improper payment rate no longer exceeds the threshold.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to carry out actions as described in the approved corrective action plan or to fulfill requirements in this paragraph (c) will be grounds for a penalty or sanction under § 98.92.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 50898, Sept. 5, 2007, as amended at 81 FR 67595, Sept. 30, 2016; 89 FR 15417, Mar. 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="99" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 99—PROCEDURE FOR HEARINGS FOR THE CHILD CARE AND DEVELOPMENT FUND
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 618, 9858.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 34428, Aug. 4, 1992, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 99 appear at 63 FR 39998, July 24, 1998.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.1   Scope of rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The rules of procedure in this section govern the practice for hearings afforded by the Department to Lead Agencies pursuant to § 98.18(c) or § 98.91, and the practice relating to the decisions of such hearings. 
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part is intended to preclude or limit negotiations between the Department and the Lead Agency, whether before, during, or after the hearing, to resolve the issues which are, or otherwise would be, considered at the hearing. Such negotiations and resolution of issues are not part of the hearing and are not governed by the rules in this part, except as expressly provided herein. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.2   Presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) (1) The presiding officer at a hearing shall be the Assistant Secretary or the Assistant Secretary's designee. 
</P>
<P>(2) The designation of the presiding officer shall be in writing. A copy of the designation shall be served on all parties. 
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer, for all hearings, shall be bound by all applicable laws and regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.3   Records to be public.</HEAD>
<P>All pleadings, correspondence, exhibits, transcripts of testimony, exceptions, briefs, decisions, and other documents filed in the docket in any proceeding may be inspected and copied in the office of the Assistant Secretary. Inquiries may be made at the Administration for Children and Families, 370 L'Enfant Promenade SW., Washington, DC 20447. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.4   Suspension of rules.</HEAD>
<P>With notice to all parties, the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families or the presiding officer, with respect to pending matters, may modify or waive any rule in this part upon determination that no party will be unduly prejudiced and the ends of justice will thereby be served. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.5   Filing and service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An original and two copies of all papers in the proceedings shall be filed with the presiding officer. For exhibits and transcripts of testimony, only the originals need be filed. 
</P>
<P>(b) All papers in the proceedings shall be served on all parties by personal delivery or by certified mail. Service on the party's designated attorney will be deemed service on the party. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Preliminary Matters—Notice and Parties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.11   Notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Proceedings commence when the Assistant Secretary mails a notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing to the Lead Agency. The notice shall state the time and place for the hearing, and the issues which will be considered. A copy of the notice shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.12   Time of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The hearing shall be scheduled not less than 30 days nor more than 90 days after the date of the notice of the hearing furnished to the applicant or Lead Agency, unless otherwise agreed to, in writing, by the parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.13   Place.</HEAD>
<P>The hearing shall be held in the city in which the regional office of the Department responsible for oversight of the Lead Agency is located or in such other place as the Assistant Secretary determines, considering both the circumstances of the case and the convenience and necessity of the parties or their representatives. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.14" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.14   Issues at hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary may, prior to a hearing under § 98.91 of this part, notify the Lead Agency in writing of additional issues which will be considered at the hearing. Such notice shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If such notice is received by the Lead Agency less than 20 days before the date of the hearing, a postponement of the hearing shall be granted at the request of the Lead Agency or any other party. The hearing shall be held on a date 20 days after such notice was received, or on such later date as agreed to by the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(b) If, as a result of negotiations between the Department and the Lead Agency, the submittal of a Plan amendment, a change in the Lead Agency program, or other action by the Lead Agency, any issue is resolved in whole or in part, but new or modified issues are presented, as specified by the Assistant Secretary, the hearing shall proceed on such new or modified issues. A notice of such new or modified issues shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If such notice is received by the Lead Agency less than 20 days before the date of the hearing, a postponement of the hearing shall be granted at the request of the Lead Agency or any other party. The hearing shall be held on a date 20 days after such notice was received, or on such later date as agreed to by the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If, at any time, the Assistant Secretary finds that the Lead Agency has come into compliance with Federal statutes and regulations on any issue, in whole or in part, the Assistant Secretary shall remove such issue from the proceedings, in whole or in part, as may be appropriate. If all issues are removed, the Assistant Secretary shall terminate the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to the removal of any issue from the hearing, in whole or in part, the Assistant Secretary shall provide all parties other than the Department and the Lead Agency (see § 99.15(b)) with written notice of the intention, and the reasons for it. Such notice shall include a copy of the proposed CCDF Plan provision on which the Lead Agency and Assistant Secretary have settled. The parties shall have 15 days from the receipt of such notice to file their views or any information on the merits of the proposed Plan provision and the merits of the Assistant Secretary's reasons for removing the issue from the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(d) The issues considered at the hearing shall be limited to those issues of which the Lead Agency is notified, as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, and new or modified issues described in paragraph (b) of this section; they shall not include issues or parts of issues removed from the proceedings pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.15" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.15   Request to participate in hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department and the Lead Agency are parties to the hearing without making a specific request to participate. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Other individuals or groups may be recognized as parties, if the issues to be considered at the hearing have directly caused them injury and their interest is immediately within the zone of interests to be protected by the governing Federal statute and regulations. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any individual or group wishing to participate as a party shall file a petition with the presiding officer within 15 days after notice of the hearing has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall serve a copy on each party of record at that time, in accordance with § 99.5(b). Such petition shall concisely state: 
</P>
<P>(i) Petitioner's interest in the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Who will appear for petitioner; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The issues on which petitioner wishes to participate; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether petitioner intends to present witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any party may, within 5 days of receipt of such petition, file comments on it. 
</P>
<P>(4) The presiding officer shall promptly determine whether each petitioner has the requisite interest in the proceedings and shall permit or deny participation accordingly. Where petitions to participate as parties are made by individuals or groups with common interests, at the presiding officer's discretion, the presiding officer may request that all such petitioners designate a single representative or may recognize one or more of such petitioners to represent all such petitioners. The presiding officer shall give each petitioner written notice of the decision on the petition, and if the petition is denied, the presiding officer shall briefly state the grounds for denial. If the petition is denied, the presiding officer may recognize the petitioner as an amicus curiae. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Any interested person or organization wishing to participate as an amicus curiae shall file a petition with the presiding officer before the commencement of the hearing. Such petition shall concisely state: 
</P>
<P>(i) The petitioner's interest in the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Who will represent the petitioner; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The issues on which petitioner intends to present argument. 
</P>
<P>An amicus curiae is not a party but may participate as provided in this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer may grant the petition upon finding that the petitioner has a legitimate interest in the proceedings, that such participation will not unduly delay the outcome, and it may contribute materially to the proper disposition of the issues. 
</P>
<P>(3) An amicus curiae may present a brief oral statement at the hearing, at the point in the proceedings specified by the presiding officer. The amicus curiae may submit a written statement of position to the presiding officer prior to the beginning of a hearing and shall serve a copy on each party. The amicus curiae may also submit a brief or written statement at such time as the parties submit briefs and shall serve a copy on each party. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Hearing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.21" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.21   Authority of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer shall have the duty to conduct a fair hearing, to avoid delay, maintain order, and make a record of the proceedings. The presiding officer shall have all powers necessary to accomplish these ends, including, but not limited to, the power to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Change the date, time, and place of the hearing, upon due notice to the parties. This authority includes the power to continue the hearing in whole or in part; 
</P>
<P>(2) Hold conferences to settle or simplify the issues in a proceeding, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(3) Regulate participation of parties and <I>amici curiae</I> and require parties and <I>amici curiae</I> to state their position with respect to the various issues in the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(4) Administer oaths and affirmations; 
</P>
<P>(5) Rule on all pending motions and other procedural items including issuance of protective orders or other relief to a party against whom discovery is sought; 
</P>
<P>(6) Regulate the course of the hearing and conduct of counsel therein; 
</P>
<P>(7) Examine witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(8) Receive, rule on, exclude or limit evidence or discovery; 
</P>
<P>(9) Fix the time for filing motions, petitions, briefs, or other items in matters pending; 
</P>
<P>(10) If the presiding officer is the Assistant Secretary, make a final decision; 
</P>
<P>(11) If the presiding officer is not the Assistant Secretary, certify the entire record including the recommended findings and proposed decision to the Assistant Secretary; and 
</P>
<P>(12) Take any action authorized by the rules in this part or in conformance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 551 through 559. 
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer does not have authority to compel by subpoena the production of witnesses, papers, or other evidence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.22" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.22   Rights of parties.</HEAD>
<P>All parties may: 
</P>
<P>(a) Appear by counsel or other authorized representative, in all hearing proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(b) Participate in any prehearing conference held by the presiding officer; 
</P>
<P>(c) Agree to stipulations as to facts which will be made a part of the record; 
</P>
<P>(d) Make opening statements at the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(e) Present relevant evidence on the issues at the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(f) Present witnesses who then must be available for cross-examination by all other parties; 
</P>
<P>(g) Present oral arguments at the hearing; and 
</P>
<P>(h) Submit written briefs, proposed findings of fact, and proposed conclusions of law, after the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.23" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.23   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>The Department, the Lead Agency, and any individuals or groups recognized as parties shall have the right to conduct discovery (including depositions) against opposing parties. Rules 26-37 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure shall apply to such proceedings; there will be no fixed rule on priority of discovery. Upon written motion, the presiding officer shall promptly rule upon any objection to such discovery action initiated pursuant to this section. The presiding officer shall also have the power to grant a protective order or relief to any party against whom discovery is sought and to restrict or control discovery so as to prevent undue delay in the conduct of the hearing. Upon the failure of any party to make discovery, the presiding officer may, at the presiding officer's discretion, issue any order and impose any sanction (other than contempt orders) authorized by rule 37 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.24" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.24   Evidentiary purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of the hearing is to receive factual evidence and expert opinion testimony related to the issues in the proceeding. Argument will not be received in evidence; rather, it should be presented in statements, memoranda, or briefs, as determined by the presiding officer. Brief opening statements, which shall be limited to statement of the party's position and what the party intends to prove, may be made at hearings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.25" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.25   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Testimony. Testimony shall be given orally under oath or affirmation by witnesses at the hearing. Witnesses shall be available at the hearing for cross-examination by all parties. 
</P>
<P>(b) Stipulations and exhibits. Two or more parties may agree to stipulations of fact. Such stipulations, or any exhibit proposed by any party, shall be exchanged at the prehearing conference or otherwise prior to the hearing if the presiding officer so requires. 
</P>
<P>(c) Rules of evidence. Technical rules of evidence shall not apply to hearings conducted pursuant to this part, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most credible evidence available and to subject testimony to test by cross-examination shall be applied where reasonably necessary by the presiding officer. A witness may be cross-examined on any matter material to the proceeding without regard to the scope of direct examination. The presiding officer may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence. All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by the parties, and opportunity shall be given to refute facts and arguments advanced on either side of the issues. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.26" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.26   Unsponsored written material.</HEAD>
<P>Letters expressing views or urging action and other unsponsored written material regarding matters at issue in a hearing will be placed in the correspondence section of the docket of the proceeding. These data are not deemed part of the evidence or record in the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.27" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.27   Official transcript.</HEAD>
<P>The Department will designate the official reporter for all hearings. The official transcripts of testimony taken, together with any stipulations, exhibits, briefs, or memoranda of law filed therewith shall be filed with the Department. Transcripts of testimony in hearings may be obtained from the official reporter by the parties and the public at rates not to exceed the maximum rates fixed by the contract between the Department and the reporter. Upon notice to all parties, the presiding officer may authorize corrections to the transcript which involve matters of substance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.28" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.28   Record for decision.</HEAD>
<P>The transcript of testimony, exhibits, and all papers and requests filed in the proceedings, except the correspondence section of the docket, including rulings and any recommended or initial decision, shall constitute the exclusive record for decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Posthearing Procedures, Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.31   Posthearing briefs.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer shall fix the time for filing posthearing briefs, which may contain proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The presiding officer shall also fix the time for reply briefs, if permitted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.32   Decisions following hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Assistant Secretary is the presiding officer, the Assistant Secretary shall issue the decision within 60 days after the time for submission of posthearing briefs has expired. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If the presiding officer is not the Assistant Secretary, the presiding officer shall certify the entire record, including the recommended findings and proposed decision, to the Assistant Secretary within 60 days after the time for submission of posthearing briefs has expired. The Assistant Secretary shall serve a copy of the recommended findings and proposed decision upon all parties, and amici, if any. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any party may, within 20 days of receipt of the recommended findings and proposed decision, file exceptions and a supporting brief or statement with the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Assistant Secretary shall thereupon review the recommended decision and, within 45 days after the receipt of the exceptions to the recommended findings and proposed decision, issue the decision. 
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the Assistant Secretary under this section shall be the final decision of the Secretary and shall constitute “final agency action” within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 704. The Assistant Secretary's decision shall be promptly served on all parties, and amici, if any. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 99.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.54.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 99.33   Effective date of Assistant Secretary's decision.</HEAD>
<P>If, in the case of a hearing pursuant to § 98.18(b) of this chapter, the Assistant Secretary concludes that a Plan amendment does not comply with the Federal statutes and regulations, the decision that further payments will not be made to the Lead Agency, or payments will be limited to categories under other parts of the CCDF Plan not affected, shall specify the effective date for the withholding of Federal funds. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="100" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 100—INTERGOVERNMENTAL REVIEW OF DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES PROGRAMS AND ACTIVITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Executive Order 12372, July 14, 1982 (47 FR 30959), as amended April 8, 1983 (48 FR 15887): sec. 401, Intergovernmental Cooperation Act of 1968, as amended (31 U.S.C. 6506); sec. 204, Demonstration Cities and Metropolitan Development Act of 1966, as amended (42 U.S.C. 3334).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 29200, June 24, 1983, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 100.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.1   What is the purpose of these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part implement Executive Order 12372, “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs,” issued July 14, 1982 and amended on April 8, 1983. These regulations also implement applicable provisions of section 401 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act of 1968 and section 204 of the Demonstration Cities and Metropolitan Development Act of 1966.
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations are intended to foster an intergovernmental partnership and a strengthened Federalism by relying on state processes and on state, areawide, regional and local coordination for review of proposed Federal financial assistance and direct Federal development.
</P>
<P>(c) These regulations are intended to aid the internal management of the Department, and are not intended to create any right or benefit enforceable at law by a party against the Department or its officers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.2   What definitions apply to these regulations?</HEAD>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
</P>
<P><I>Order</I> means Executive Order 12372, issued July 14, 1982, and amended April 8, 1983 and titled “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs.”
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of HHS or an official or employee of the Department acting for the Secretary under a delegation of authority. 
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the 50 states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, American Samoa, the U.S. Virgin Islands, or the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.3   What programs and activities of the Department are subject to these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary publishes in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a list of the Department's programs and activities that are subject to these regulations and identifies which of these are subject to the requirements of section 204 of the Demonstration Cities and Metropolitan Development Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.4" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.5" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.5   What is the Secretary's obligation with respect to Federal interagency coordination?</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary, to the extent practicable, consults with and seeks advice from all other substantially affected Federal departments and agencies in an effort to assure full coordination between such agencies and the Department regarding programs and activities covered under these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.6" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.6   What procedures apply to the selection of programs and activities under these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A state may select any program or activity published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 100.3 of this part for intergovernmental review under these regulations. Each state, before selecting programs and activities, shall consult with local elected officials.
</P>
<P>(b) Each state that adopts a process shall notify the Secretary of the Department's programs and activities selected for that process.
</P>
<P>(c) A state may notify the Secretary of changes in its selections at any time. For each change, the state shall submit to the Secretary an assurance that the state has consulted with local elected officials regarding the change. The Department may establish deadlines by which states are required to inform the Secretary of changes in their program selections.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary uses a state's process as soon as feasible, depending on individual programs and activities, after the Secretary is notified of its selections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.7" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.7   How does the Secretary communicate with state and local officials concerning the Department's programs and activities?</HEAD>
<P>(a) For those programs and activities selected by a state process under § 100.6, the Secretary, to the extent permitted by law:
</P>
<P>(1) Uses the state process to determine views of state and local elected officials; and,
</P>
<P>(2) Communicates with state and local elected officials, through the state process, as early in a program planning cycle as is reasonably feasible to explain specific plans and actions.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary provides notice to directly affected state, areawide, regional, and local entities in a state of proposed Federal finanical assistance or direct Federal development if:
</P>
<P>(1) The state has not adopted a process under the Order; or
</P>
<P>(2) The assistance or development invovles a program or activity not selected for the state process.
</P>
<FP>This notice may be made by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or other appropriate means, which the Department in its discretion deems appropriate.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.8" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.8   How does the Secretary provide states an opportunity to comment on proposed Federal financial assistance and direct Federal development?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in unusal circumstances, the Secretary gives state processes or directly affected state, areawide, regional and local officials and entities:
</P>
<P>(1) At least 30 days from the date established by the Secretary to comment on proposed direct Federal development or Federal financial assistance in the form of noncompeting continuation awards; and
</P>
<P>(2) At least 60 days from the date established by the Secretary to comment on proposed direct Federal development or Federal financial assistance other than noncompeting continuation awards.
</P>
<P>(b) This section also applies to comments in cases in which the review, coordination, and communication with the Department have been delegated.
</P>
<P>(c) Applicants for programs and activities subject to section 204 of the Demonstration Cities and Metropolitan Act shall allow areawide agencies a 60-day opportunity for review and comment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.9" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.9   How does the Secretary receive and respond to comments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary follows the procedures in § 100.10 if:
</P>
<P>(1) A state office or official is designated to act as a single point of contact between a state process and all Federal agencies, and
</P>
<P>(2) That office or official transmits a state process recommendation for a program selected under § 100.6.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The single point of contract is not obligated to transmit comments from state, areawide, regional or local officials and entities where there is no state process recommendation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a state process recommendation is transmitted by a single point of contact, all comments from state, areawide, regional, and local officials and entities that differ from it must also be transmitted.
</P>
<P>(c) If a state has not established a process, or is unable to submit a state process recommendation, state, areawide, regional and local officials and entities may submit comments either to the applicant or to the Department.
</P>
<P>(d) If a program or activity is not selected for review under a state process, state, areawide, regional and local officials and entities may submit comments either to the applicant or to the Department. In addition, if a state process recommendation for a nonselected program or activity is transmitted to the Department by the single point of contact, the Secretary follows the procedures of § 100.10 of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary considers comments which do not constitute a state process recommendation submitted under these regulations and for which the Secretary is not required to apply the procedures of § 100.10 of this part, when such comments are provided by a single point of contact, by the applicant, or directly to the Department by a commenting party.
</P>
<P>(f) If an applicant receives comments under § 100.9(a)(2), (c) or (d) of this part, it must forward such comments to the Department with its application materials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.10" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.10   How does the Secretary make efforts to accommodate intergovernmental concerns?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a state process provides a state process recommendation to the Department through its single point of contact, the Secretary either:
</P>
<P>(1) Accepts the recommendation;
</P>
<P>(2) Reaches a mutually agreeable solution with the state process; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Provides the single point of contact with such written explanation of the decision as the Secretary in this or her discretion deems appropriate. The Secretary may also supplement the written explanation by providing the explanation to the single point of contact by telephone, other telecommunication, or other means.
</P>
<P>(b) In any explanation under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Secretary informs the single point of contact that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department will not implement its decision for at least ten days after the single point of contact receives the explanation; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary has reviewed the decision and determined that, because of unsual circumstances, the waiting period of at least ten days is not feasible.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of computing the waiting period under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a single point of contact is presumed to have received written explanation 5 days after the date such notification is dated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.11" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.11   What are the Secretary's obligations in interstate situations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying proposed Federal financial assistance and direct Federal development that have an impact on interstate areas;
</P>
<P>(2) Notifying appropriate officials and entities in states which have adopted a process and which select the Department's program or activity.
</P>
<P>(3) Making efforts to identify and notify the affected state, areawide, regional, and local officials and entities in those states that have not adopted a process under the Order or do not select the Department's program or activity;
</P>
<P>(4) Responding pursuant to § 100.10 of this part if the Secretary receives a recommendation from a designated areawide agency transmitted by a single point of contact, in cases in which the review, coordination, and communication with the Department have been delegated.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary uses the procedures in § 100.10 if a state process provides a state process recommendation to the Department through a single point of contact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.12" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.12   How may a state simplify, consolidate, or substitute federally required state plans?</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Simplify</I> means that a state may develop its own format, choose its own submission date, and select the planning period for a state plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consolidate</I> means that a state may meet statutory and regulatory requirements by combining two or more plans into one document and that the state can select the format, submission date, and planning period for the consolidated plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Substitute</I> means that a state may use a plan or other document that it has developed for its own purposes to meet Federal requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) If not inconsistent with law, a state may decide to try to simplify, consolidate, or substitute federally required state plans without prior approval by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary reviews each state plan that a state has simplified, consolidated, or substituted and accepts the plan only if its contents meet Federal requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.13" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.55.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.13   May the Secretary waive any provision of these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>In an emergency, the Secretary may waive any provision of these regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="101" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 101—HEALTH RESOURCES PRIORITIES AND ALLOCATIONS SYSTEM (HRPAS)




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended (50 U.S.C. 4501, <I>et seq.</I>), and Executive Order 13603 (77 FR 16651, 3 CFR, March 16, 2012).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 9025, Feb. 9, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides guidance and procedures for use of Defense Production Act (DPA) of 1950 section 101 priorities and allocations authority with respect to health resources necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense. The guidance and procedures in this part are consistent with the guidance and procedures provided in other regulations that form the Federal Priorities and Allocations System (FPAS). Guidance and procedures for use of the DPA priorities and allocations authority with respect to other types of resources are provided for: food resources, food resource facilities, livestock resources, veterinary resources, plant health resources, and the domestic distribution of farm equipment and commercial fertilizer in 7 CFR part 789; all forms of energy in 10 CFR part 217; all forms of civil transportation in 49 CFR part 33; and all other materials, services, and facilities, including construction materials in 15 CFR part 700.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.2   Priorities and allocations authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 201 of Executive Order (E.O.) 13603, delegates the President's priorities and allocations authority under section 101 of the DPA. Section 101 of the DPA provides the President with authority to require acceptance and priority performance of contracts and orders (other than contracts of employment) to promote the national defense over performance of any other contracts or orders, and to allocate materials, services, and facilities as deemed necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense to a number of agencies. Section 201 of E.O. 13603 delegates the President's authority to specific agencies as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of Agriculture with respect to food resources, food resource facilities, livestock resources, veterinary resources, plant health resources, and the domestic distribution of farm equipment and commercial fertilizer;
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of Energy with respect to all forms of energy;
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary of Health and Human Services with respect to health resources;
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary of Transportation with respect to all forms of civil transportation;
</P>
<P>(5) The Secretary of Defense with respect to water resources; and
</P>
<P>(6) The Secretary of Commerce for all other materials, services, and facilities, including construction materials.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 202 of E.O. 13603 states that the authority delegated in section 201, except as provided in section 201(e) of E.O. 13603, may be used only to support programs that have been determined in writing as necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense:
</P>
<P>(1) By the Secretary of Defense with respect to military production and construction, military assistance to foreign nations, military use of civil transportation, stockpiles managed by the Department of Defense, space, and directly related activities.
</P>
<P>(2) By the Secretary of Energy with respect to energy production and construction, distribution, and use, and directly related activities; and
</P>
<P>(3) By the Secretary of Homeland Security with respect to all other national defense programs, including civil defense and continuity of Government.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 201(e) of E.O. 13603 provides that each department that is delegated allocations authority under section 201(a) of E.O. 13603 may use this authority with respect to control of the general distribution of any material (including applicable services) in the civilian market only after:
</P>
<P>(1) Making the finding required under section 101(b) of the DPA; and
</P>
<P>(2) The finding has been approved by the President.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.3   Program eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>Certain programs to promote the national defense are approved for priorities and allocations support. These include programs for military and energy production or construction, military or critical infrastructure assistance to any foreign nation, homeland security, stockpiling, space, and any directly related activity. Other eligible programs include emergency preparedness activities conducted pursuant to title VI of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5121 <I>et seq.</I>), and critical infrastructure protection and restoration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.20" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions pertain to all sections of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Allocation</I> means the control of the distribution of materials, services, or facilities for a purpose deemed necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense.
</P>
<P><I>Allocation order</I> means an official action to control the distribution of materials, services, or facilities for a purpose deemed necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense.
</P>
<P><I>Allotment</I> means an official action that specifies the maximum quantity or use of a material, service, or facility authorized for a specific use to promote the national defense.
</P>
<P><I>Approved program</I> means a program determined by the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of Energy, or the Secretary of Homeland Security to be necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense, under the authority of the Defense Production Act and in accordance with section 202 of E.O. 13603.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means the erection, addition, extension, or alteration of any building, structure, or project, using materials or products which are to be an integral and permanent part of the building, structure, or project. Construction does not include maintenance and repair.
</P>
<P><I>Critical infrastructure</I> means any systems and assets, whether physical or cyber-based, so vital to the United States that the degradation or destruction of such systems and assets would have a debilitating impact on national security, including, but not limited to, national economic security and national public health or safety.
</P>
<P><I>Defense Production Act</I> or <I>DPA</I> means the Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended (50 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Delegate agency</I> means a Federal Government agency authorized by delegation from the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) to place priority ratings on contracts or orders needed to support approved programs.
</P>
<P><I>Directive</I> means an official action that requires a person to take or refrain from taking certain actions in accordance with its provisions.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency preparedness</I> means all those activities and measures designed or undertaken to prepare for or minimize the effects of a hazard upon the civilian population, to deal with the immediate emergency conditions which would be created by the hazard, and to effectuate emergency repairs to, or the emergency restoration of, vital utilities and facilities destroyed or damaged by the hazard. “Emergency Preparedness” includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Measures to be undertaken in preparation for anticipated hazards (including the establishment of appropriate organizations, operational plans, and supporting agreements, the recruitment and training of personnel, the conduct of research, the procurement and stockpiling of necessary materials and supplies, the provision of suitable warning systems, the construction or preparation of shelters, shelter areas, and control centers, and, when appropriate, the nonmilitary evacuation of the civilian population).
</P>
<P>(2) Measures to be undertaken during a hazard (including the enforcement of passive defense regulations prescribed by duly established military or civil authorities, the evacuation of personnel to shelter areas, the control of traffic and panic, and the control and use of lighting and civil communications).
</P>
<P>(3) Measures to be undertaken following a hazard (including activities for firefighting; rescue; emergency medical, health and sanitation services; monitoring for specific dangers of special weapons; unexploded bomb reconnaissance; essential debris clearance; emergency welfare measures; and immediately essential emergency repair or restoration of damaged vital facilities).
</P>
<P><I>Facilities</I> includes all types of buildings, structures, or other improvements to real property (but excluding farms, churches or other places of worship, and private dwelling houses), and services relating to the use of any such building, structure, or other improvement.
</P>
<P><I>Farm equipment</I> means equipment, machinery, and repair parts manufactured for use on farms in connection with the production or preparation for market use of food resources.
</P>
<P><I>Fertilizer</I> means any product or combination of products that contain one or more of the elements nitrogen, phosphorous, and potassium for use as a plant nutrient.
</P>
<P><I>Food resource facilities</I> means plants, machinery, vehicles (including on farm), and other facilities required for the production, processing, distribution, and storage (including cold storage) of food resources, and for the domestic distribution of farm equipment and fertilizer (excluding transportation thereof).
</P>
<P><I>Food resources</I> means all commodities and products, (simple, mixed, or compound), or complements to such commodities or products, that are capable of being ingested by other human beings or animals, irrespective of other uses to which such commodities or products may be put, at all stages of processing from the raw commodity to the products thereof in vendible form for human or animal consumption. “Food resources” also means potable water packaged in commercially marketable containers, all starches, sugars, vegetable and animal or marine fats and oils, seed, cotton, hemp, and flax fiber, but does not mean any such material after it loses its identity as an agricultural commodity or agriculture product.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard</I> means an emergency or disaster resulting from:
</P>
<P>(1) A natural disaster; or
</P>
<P>(2) An accidental or man-caused event.
</P>
<P><I>Health resources</I> means drugs, biological products, medical devices, materials, facilities, health supplies, services and equipment required to diagnose, mitigate, or prevent the impairment of, improve, treat, cure, or restore the physical or mental health conditions of the population.
</P>
<P><I>Homeland Security</I> includes efforts—
</P>
<P>(1) To prevent terrorist attacks within the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) To reduce the vulnerability of the United States to terrorism;
</P>
<P>(3) To minimize damage from a terrorist attack in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(4) To recover from a terrorist attack in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial resource</I> means all materials, services, and facilities, including construction materials, the authority for which has not been delegated to other agencies under E.O. 13603. The term “Industrial resource” does not include food resources, food resource facilities, livestock resources, veterinary resources, and the domestic distribution of farm equipment and commercial fertilizer; all forms of energy; health resources; all forms of civil transportation; and water resources.
</P>
<P><I>Item</I> means any raw, in process, or manufactured material, article, commodity, supply, equipment, component, accessory, part, assembly, or product of any kind, technical information, process, or service.
</P>
<P><I>Maintenance and Repair and/or Operating Supplies</I> (<I>MRO</I>) includes the following—
</P>
<P>(1) “<I>Maintenance</I>” is the upkeep necessary to continue any plant, facility, or equipment in working condition;
</P>
<P>(2) “<I>Repair</I>” is the restoration of any plant, facility, or equipment to working condition when it has been rendered unsafe or unfit for service by wear and tear, damage, or failure of parts;
</P>
<P>(3) “<I>Operating Supplies</I>” are any resources carried as operating supplies according to a person's established accounting practice. “Operating Supplies” may include hand tools and expendable tools, jigs, dies, fixtures used on production equipment, lubricants, cleaners, chemicals, and other expendable items; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>MRO</I> does not include items produced or obtained for sale to other persons or for installation upon or attachment to the property of another person, or items required for the production of such items; items needed for the replacement of any plant, facility, or equipment; or items for the improvement of any plant, facility, or equipment by replacing items which are still in working condition with items of a new or different kind, quality, or design.
</P>
<P><I>Materials</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(1) Any raw materials (including minerals, metals, and advanced processed materials), commodities, articles, components (including critical components), products, and items of supply; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any technical information or services ancillary to the use of any such materials, commodities, articles, components, products, or items.
</P>
<P><I>National defense</I> means programs for military and energy production or construction, military or critical infrastructure assistance to any foreign nation, homeland security, stockpiling, space, and any directly related activity. Such term includes emergency preparedness activities conducted pursuant to title VI of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5121, <I>et seq.</I>) and critical infrastructure protection and restoration.
</P>
<P><I>Official action</I> means an action taken by HHS under the authority of the DPA, E.O. 13603, and this part or another regulation under the FPAS. Such actions include the issuance of Rating Authorizations, Directives, Set Asides, Allotments, Letters of Understanding, and Demands for Information, Inspection Authorizations, and Administrative Subpoenas.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes any individual, corporation, partnership, association, or any other organized group of persons, or legal successor or representative thereof; or any State or local government or agency thereof; and for purposes of administration of this part, includes the Federal Government and any authorized foreign government or international organization or agency thereof, delegated authority as provided in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Priority rating</I> is an identifying code assigned by HHS, a Delegate Agency or authorized person placed on all rated orders for health resources and consisting of the rating symbol and program identification symbol.
</P>
<P><I>Program Identification Symbols</I> is an abbreviation used to indicate which approved program is supported by a rated order.
</P>
<P><I>Rated order</I> means a prime contract, a subcontract, or a purchase order in support of an approved program issued in accordance with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Resource department</I> means any agency delegated priorities and allocations authority as specified in § 101.2.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of HHS.
</P>
<P><I>Services</I> includes any effort that is needed for or incidental to—
</P>
<P>(1) The development, production, processing, distribution, delivery, or use of a health resource.
</P>
<P>(2) The construction of facilities.
</P>
<P>(3) Other national defense programs and activities.
</P>
<P><I>Set-aside</I> means an official action that requires a person to reserve materials, services, or facilities capacity in anticipation of the receipt of rated orders.
</P>
<P><I>Stafford Act</I> means title VI (Emergency Preparedness) of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 5121 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Water resources</I> means all usable water, from all sources, within the jurisdiction of the United States, that can be managed, controlled, and allocated to meet emergency requirements, except “water resources” do not include usable water that qualifies as “food resources”.
</P>
<P><I>Working day</I> means any day that the recipient of an order is open for business.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Placement of Rated Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.30" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.30   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The priorities and allocations authorities of the President under section 101 of the DPA with respect to health resources have been delegated to the Secretary under E.O. 13603. The Secretary may re-delegate the Secretary's priorities authorities under the DPA to authorize a Delegate Agency to assign priority ratings to orders for health resources needed for use in approved programs.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to 87 FR 58363 published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on September 26, 2022, the Secretary delegated to the Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response (the ASPR) within the Administration for Strategic Preparedness and Response (ASPR), the authority under section 201 of E.O. 13603 to exercise priorities authority under section 101 of the DPA. This delegation authorized the ASPR, on behalf of the Secretary, to approve DO—[-[M1-M9] priority rating requests for health resources that promote the national defense, though this delegation excludes the authority to approve all priorities provisions for health resources that require DX—[-[M1-M9] priority ratings.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.31" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.31   Priority ratings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Levels of priority.</I> (1) There are two levels of priority established by the HRPAS, identified by the rating symbols “DO” and “DX”.
</P>
<P>(2) All DO rated orders have equal priority with each other and take precedence over unrated orders. All DX rated orders have equal priority with each other and take precedence over DO rated orders and unrated orders. (For resolution of conflicts among rated orders of equal priority, see § 101.34(c).
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, a Directive regarding priority treatment for a given item issued by HHS for that item takes precedence over any DX rated order, DO rated order, or unrated order, as stipulated in the Directive. (For a full discussion of Directives, see § 101.62.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Priority ratings.</I> A priority rating is an identifying code assigned by a Delegate Agency or authorized person placed on all rated orders for health resources. It consists of the rating symbol and the program identification symbol.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.32" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.32   Elements of a rated order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each rated order must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The appropriate priority rating (<I>e.g.,</I> DO-[M1-M9 or DX—[-[M1-M9];
</P>
<P>(2) A required delivery date or dates. The words “immediately” or “as soon as possible” do not constitute a delivery date. A “requirements contract,” “basic ordering agreement,” “prime vendor contract,” or similar procurement document bearing a priority rating may contain no specific delivery date or dates and may provide for the furnishing of items or service from time-to-time or within a stated period against specific purchase orders, such as “calls,” “requisitions,” and “delivery orders.” These purchase orders must specify a required delivery date or dates and are to be considered as rated as of the date of their receipt by the supplier and not as of the date of the original procurement document;
</P>
<P>(3) The written signature on a manually placed order, or the digital signature or name on an electronically placed order, of an individual authorized to sign rated orders for the person placing the order. The signature or use of the name certifies that the rated order is authorized under this part and that the requirements of this part are being followed; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that reads in substance:
</P>
<P>(b) This is a rated order certified for national defense use, and you are required to follow all the provisions of the Health Resources Priorities and Allocations System regulation at 45 CFR part 101.
</P>
<P>(c) Additional element required for certain emergency preparedness rated orders. If the rated order is placed in support of emergency preparedness requirements and expedited action is necessary and appropriate to meet these requirements, the following statement must be included in the order: “This rated order is placed for the purpose of emergency preparedness. It must be accepted or rejected within [Insert a time limit no less than the minimum applicable time limit specified in § 101. 33(e)].”




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.33" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.33   Acceptance and rejection of rated orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory acceptance.</I> (1) Except as otherwise specified in this section, a person shall accept every rated order received and must fill such orders regardless of any other rated or unrated orders that have been accepted.
</P>
<P>(2) A person shall not discriminate against rated orders in any manner such as by charging higher prices or by imposing different terms and conditions than for comparable unrated orders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory rejection.</I> Unless otherwise directed by HHS for a rated order involving health resources:
</P>
<P>(1) A person shall not accept a rated order for delivery on a specific date if unable to fill the order by that date. However, the person must inform the customer of the earliest date on which delivery can be made and offer to accept the order on the basis of that date. Scheduling conflicts with previously accepted lower rated or unrated orders are not sufficient reason for rejection under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A person shall not accept a DO rated order for delivery on a date which would interfere with delivery of any previously accepted DO or DX rated orders. However, the person must offer to accept the order based on the earliest delivery date otherwise possible.
</P>
<P>(3) A person shall not accept a DX rated order for delivery on a date which would interfere with delivery of any previously accepted DX rated orders but must offer to accept the order based on the earliest delivery date otherwise possible.
</P>
<P>(4) If a person is unable to fill all of the rated orders of equal priority status received on the same day, the person must accept, based upon the earliest delivery dates, only those orders which can be filled, and reject the other orders. For example, a person must accept order A requiring delivery on December 15 before accepting order B requiring delivery on December 31. However, the person must offer to accept the rejected orders based on the earliest delivery dates otherwise possible.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional rejection.</I> Unless otherwise directed by HHS for a rated order involving health resources, rated orders may be rejected in any of the following cases as long as a supplier does not discriminate among customers:
</P>
<P>(1) If the person placing the order is unwilling or unable to meet regularly established terms of sale or payment;
</P>
<P>(2) If the order is for an item not supplied or for a service not capable of being performed;
</P>
<P>(3) If the order is for an item or service produced, acquired, or provided only for the supplier's own use for which no orders have been filled for two years prior to the date of receipt of the rated order. If, however, a supplier has sold some of these items or provided similar services, the supplier is obligated to accept rated orders up to that quantity or portion of production or service, whichever is greater, sold or provided within the past two years;
</P>
<P>(4) If the person placing the rated order, other than the U.S. Government, makes the item or performs the service being ordered;
</P>
<P>(5) If acceptance of a rated order or performance against a rated order would violate any other regulation, official action, or order of the HHS issued under the authority of the DPA or another relevant statute.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Customer notification requirements.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a person must accept or reject a rated order in writing or electronically within fifteen (15) working days after receipt of a DO-rated order and within ten (10) working days after receipt of a DX-rated order. If the order is rejected, the person must give reasons in writing or electronically for the rejection.
</P>
<P>(2) If a person has accepted a rated order and subsequently finds that shipment or performance will be delayed, the person must notify the customer immediately, give the reasons for the delay, and advise of a new shipment or performance date. If notification is given verbally, written (hard copy) or electronic confirmation must be provided within one (1) working day of the verbal notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exception for emergency response conditions.</I> If the rated order is placed for the purpose of emergency preparedness, and expedited action is necessary or appropriate to meet these requirements and the order includes the statement as set forth in § 101.32(a)(4)(b), a person must accept or reject a rated order and transmit the acceptance or rejection in writing or in an electronic format within the time frame specified in the rated order (usually within two working days after receipt of the order). The minimum times for acceptance or rejection that such orders may specify are six (6) hours after receipt if the order is issued by an authorized person in response to a hazard that has occurred; or twelve (12) hours after receipt if the order is issued by an authorized person to prepare for an imminent hazard.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.34" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.34   Preferential scheduling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person must schedule operations, including the acquisition of all needed production items or services, in a timely manner to satisfy the delivery requirements of each rated order. Modifying production or delivery schedules is necessary only when required delivery dates for rated orders cannot otherwise be met.
</P>
<P>(b) DO rated orders must be given production preference over unrated orders, if necessary, to meet required delivery dates, even if this requires the diversion of items being processed or ready for delivery or services being performed against unrated orders. Similarly, DX rated orders must be given preference over DO rated orders and unrated orders. (Examples: If a person receives a DO rated order with a delivery date of June 3 and if meeting that date would mean delaying production or delivery of an item for an unrated order, the unrated order must be delayed. If a DX rated order is received calling for delivery on July 15 and a person has a DO rated order requiring delivery on June 2 and operations can be scheduled to meet both deliveries, there is no need to alter production schedules to give any additional preference to the DX rated order. However, if business operations cannot be altered to meet both the June 2 and July 15 delivery dates, then the DX rated order must be given priority over the DO rated order.)
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If a person finds that delivery or performance against any accepted rated orders conflicts with the delivery or performance against other accepted rated orders of equal priority status, the person shall give precedence to the conflicting orders in the sequence in which they are to be delivered or performed (not to the receipt dates). If the conflicting orders are scheduled to be delivered or performed on the same day, the person shall give precedence to those orders that have the earliest receipt dates.
</P>
<P>(2) If a person is unable to resolve rated order delivery or performance conflicts under this section, the person should promptly seek special priorities assistance as provided in §§ 101.40 through 101.44. If the person's customer objects to the rescheduling of delivery or performance of a rated order, the customer should promptly seek special priorities assistance as provided in §§ 101.40 through 101.44. For any rated order against which delivery or performance will be delayed, the person must notify the customer as provided in § 101.33(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) If a person is unable to purchase needed production items in time to fill a rated order by its required delivery date, the person must fill the rated order by using inventoried production items. A person who uses inventoried items to fill a rated order may replace those items with the use of a rated order as provided in § 101.37(b).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.35" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.35   Extension of priority ratings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person must use rated orders with suppliers to obtain items or services needed to fill a rated order. The person must use the priority rating indicated on the customer's rated order, except as otherwise provided in this part or as directed by HHS.
</P>
<P>(b) The priority rating must be included on each successive order placed to obtain items or services needed to fill a customer's rated order. This continues from contractor to subcontractor to supplier throughout the entire procurement chain.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.36" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.36   Changes or cancellations of priority ratings and rated orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The priority rating on a rated order may be changed or canceled by:
</P>
<P>(1) An official action of HHS; or
</P>
<P>(2) Written notification from the person who placed the rated order (including a Delegate Agency).
</P>
<P>(b) If an unrated order is amended to make it a rated order, or a DO rating is changed to a DX rating, the supplier must give the appropriate preferential treatment to the order as of the date the change is received by the supplier.
</P>
<P>(c) An amendment to a rated order that significantly alters a supplier's original production or delivery schedule shall constitute a new rated order as of the date of its receipt. The supplier must accept or reject the amended order according to the provisions of § 101.33.
</P>
<P>(d) The following amendments do not constitute a new rated order: a change in shipping destination; a reduction in the total amount of the order; an increase in the total amount of the order which has negligible impact upon deliveries; a minor variation in size or design (prior to the start of production); or a change which is agreed upon between the supplier and the customer.
</P>
<P>(e) If a person no longer needs items or services to fill a rated order, any rated orders placed with suppliers for the items or services, or the priority rating on those orders, must be canceled.
</P>
<P>(f) When a priority rating is added to an unrated order, or is changed or canceled, all suppliers must be promptly notified in writing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.37" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.37   Use of rated orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person must use rated orders to obtain:
</P>
<P>(1) Items which will be physically incorporated into other items to fill rated orders, including that portion of such items normally consumed or converted into scrap or by-products in the course of processing;
</P>
<P>(2) Containers or other packaging materials required to make delivery of the finished items against rated orders;
</P>
<P>(3) Services, other than contracts of employment, needed to fill rated orders;
</P>
<P>(4) MRO needed to produce the finished items to fill rated orders.
</P>
<P>(b) A person may use a rated order to replace inventoried items (including finished items) if such items were used to fill rated orders, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The order must be placed within 90 days of the date of use of the inventory.
</P>
<P>(2) A DO rating symbol and the program identification symbol indicated on the customer's rated order must be used on the order. A DX rating may not be used even if the inventory was used to fill a DX rated order.
</P>
<P>(3) If the priority ratings on rated orders from one customer or several customers contain different program identification symbols, the rated orders may be combined.
</P>
<P>(c) A person may combine DX and DO rated orders from one customer or several customers if the items or services covered by each level of priority are identified separately and clearly.
</P>
<P>(d) Combining rated and unrated orders.
</P>
<P>(1) A person may combine rated and unrated order quantities on one purchase order provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The rated quantities are separately and clearly identified; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The four elements of a rated order, as required by § 101.32, are included on the order with the statement required in § 101.32(a)(4) modified to read in substance: “This purchase order contains rated order quantities certified for national defense use, and you are required to follow all applicable provisions of the Health Resources Priorities and Allocations System regulations at 45 CFR part 101 only as it pertains to the rated quantities”.
</P>
<P>(2) A supplier must accept or reject the rated portion of the purchase order as provided in § 101.33 and give preferential treatment only to the rated quantities as required by this part. This part may not be used to require preferential treatment for the unrated portion of the order.
</P>
<P>(3) Any supplier who believes that rated and unrated orders are being combined in a manner contrary to the intent of this part or in a fashion that causes undue or exceptional hardship may submit a request for adjustment or exception under § 101.80.
</P>
<P>(e) A person may place a rated order for the minimum commercially procurable quantity even if the quantity needed to fill a rated order is less than that minimum. However, a person must combine rated orders as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, if possible, to obtain minimum procurable quantities.
</P>
<P>(f) A person is not required to place a priority rating on an order for less than one-half of the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (as established in the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) (see 48 CFR 2.101) or in other authorized acquisition regulatory or management systems) whichever amount is greater, provided that delivery can be obtained in a timely fashion without the use of the priority rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.38" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.3.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.38   Limitations on placing rated orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General limitations.</I> (1) A person may not place a DO or DX rated order pursuant to this part unless the person in receipt of the rated order has been explicitly authorized to do so by HHS or a Delegate Agency or is otherwise permitted to do so by this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Rated orders may not be used to obtain:
</P>
<P>(i) Delivery on a date earlier than needed;
</P>
<P>(ii) A greater quantity of the item or services than needed, except to obtain a minimum procurable quantity. Separate rated orders may not be placed solely for the purpose of obtaining minimum procurable quantities on each order;
</P>
<P>(iii) Items or services in advance of the receipt of a rated order, except as specifically authorized by HHS (see § 101.41(c) for information on obtaining authorization for a priority rating in advance of a rated order);
</P>
<P>(iv) Items that are not needed to fill a rated order, except as specifically authorized by HHS, or as otherwise permitted by this part; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any of the following items unless specific priority rating authority has been obtained from HHS, a Delegate Agency, or the Department of Commerce, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) Items for plant improvement, expansion, or construction, unless they will be physically incorporated into a construction project covered by a rated order; or
</P>
<P>(B) Production or construction equipment or items to be used for the manufacture of production equipment. [For information on requesting priority rating authority, see § 101.41.]
</P>
<P>(C) Any items related to the development of chemical or biological warfare capabilities or the production of chemical or biological weapons unless such development or production has been authorized by the President or the Secretary of Defense. This provision does not however prohibit the use of the priority and allocations authority to acquire or produce qualified countermeasures that are necessary to treat, identify, or prevent harm from any biological or chemical agent that may pose a public health threat affecting national security.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Jurisdictional limitations.</I> Unless authorized by the resource agency with jurisdiction, the provisions of this part are not applicable to the following resources:
</P>
<P>(1) Food resources, food resource facilities, livestock resources, veterinary resources, plant health resources, and the domestic distribution of farm equipment and commercial fertilizer (Resource agency with jurisdiction—Department of Agriculture);
</P>
<P>(2) All forms of energy (Resource agency with jurisdiction—Department of Energy);
</P>
<P>(3) All forms of civil transportation (Resource agency with jurisdiction—Department of Transportation);
</P>
<P>(4) Water resources (Resource agency with jurisdiction—Department of Defense/U.S. Army Corps of Engineers);
</P>
<P>(5) All materials, services, and facilities, including construction materials (industrial resources) for which the authority has not been delegated to other agencies under E.O. 13603 (Resource agency with jurisdiction—Department of Commerce);
</P>
<P>(6) The priorities and allocations authority of this part may not be applied to communications services (Resource agency with jurisdiction—National Communications System under E.O. 13618 of July 6, 2012).




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Special Priorities Assistance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.40" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.40   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once a priority rating has been authorized pursuant to this part, further action by HHS is generally not needed. However, from time-to-time, production or delivery problems will arise in connection with rated orders for health resources as covered under this part. In this event, a person should immediately contact ASPR for guidance, as specified in § 101.93. ASPR serves as the lead policy office for emergency preparedness and response operations on behalf of HHS and manages the Department's delegated DPA authorities. If ASPR is unable to resolve the problem or to authorize the use of a priority rating and believes additional assistance is warranted, ASPR may forward the request to another agency with resource jurisdiction, such as the Department of Commerce, as appropriate, for action. Special priorities assistance is provided to alleviate problems that do arise.
</P>
<P>(b) Special priorities assistance is available for any reason consistent with this part. Generally, special priorities assistance is provided to expedite deliveries, resolve delivery conflicts, place rated orders, locate suppliers, or to verify information supplied by customers and vendors. Special priorities assistance may also be used to request rating authority for items that are not normally eligible for priority treatment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.41" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.41   Requests for priority rating authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rating authority for items or services not normally rated.</I> If a rated order is likely to be delayed because a person is unable to obtain items or services not normally rated under this part, the person may request the authority to use a priority rating in ordering the needed items or services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rating authority for production or construction equipment.</I> (1) A request for priority rating authority for production or construction equipment must be submitted to the U.S. Department of Commerce on Form BIS-999.
</P>
<P>(2) When the use of a priority rating is authorized for the procurement of production or construction equipment, a rated order may be used either to purchase or to lease such equipment. However, in the latter case, the equipment may be leased only from a person engaged in the business of leasing such equipment or from a person willing to lease rather than sell.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rating authority in advance of a rated prime contract.</I> (1) In certain cases, and upon specific request HHS may authorize a person to place a priority rating on an order to a supplier in advance of the issuance of a rated prime contract. In these instances, the person requesting advance-rating authority must obtain sponsorship of the request from HHS or the appropriate Delegate Agency. The person shall also assume any business risk associated with the placing of rated orders in the event the rated prime contract is not issued.
</P>
<P>(2) The person must state the following in the request: It is understood that the authorization of a priority rating in advance of our receiving a rated prime contract from the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and our use of that priority rating with our suppliers in no way commits HHS or any other government agency to enter into a contract or order or to expend funds. Further, we understand that the Federal Government shall not be liable for any cancellation charges, termination costs, or other damages that may accrue if a rated prime contract is not eventually placed and, as a result, we must subsequently cancel orders placed with the use of the priority rating authorized as a result of this request.
</P>
<P>(3) In reviewing requests for rating authority in advance of a rated prime contract, HHS will consider, among other things, the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The probability that the prime contract will be awarded;
</P>
<P>(ii) The impact of the resulting rated orders on suppliers and on other authorized programs;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the contractor is the sole source;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the item being produced has a long lead time;
</P>
<P>(v) The time period for which the rating is being requested;
</P>
<P>(4) HHS may require periodic reports on the use of the rating authority granted under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a rated prime contract is not issued, the person shall promptly notify all suppliers who have received rated orders pursuant to the advanced rating authority that the priority rating on those orders is cancelled.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.42" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.42   Examples of assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) While special priorities assistance may be provided for any reason in support of this part, it is usually provided in situations where:
</P>
<P>(1) A person is experiencing difficulty in obtaining delivery against a rated order by the required delivery date; or
</P>
<P>(2) A person cannot locate a supplier for an item or service needed to fill a rated order.
</P>
<P>(b) Other examples of special priorities assistance include:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensuring that rated orders receive preferential treatment by suppliers;
</P>
<P>(2) Resolving production or delivery conflicts between various rated orders;
</P>
<P>(3) Assisting in placing rated orders with suppliers;
</P>
<P>(4) Verifying the urgency of rated orders; and
</P>
<P>(5) Determining the validity of rated orders.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.43" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.43   Criteria for assistance.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for special priorities assistance should be timely, <I>i.e.,</I> the request has been submitted promptly and enough time exists for HHS, or the Delegate Agency to affect a meaningful resolution to the problem, and must establish that:
</P>
<P>(a) There is an urgent need for the item; and
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant has made a reasonable effort to resolve the problem.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.44" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.4.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.44   Instances where assistance may not be provided.</HEAD>
<P>Special priorities assistance is provided at the discretion of HHS or the Delegate Agency when it is determined that such assistance is warranted to meet the objectives of this part. Examples where assistance may not be provided include situations when a person is attempting to:
</P>
<P>(a) Secure a price advantage;
</P>
<P>(b) Obtain delivery prior to the time required to fill a rated order;
</P>
<P>(c) Gain competitive advantage;
</P>
<P>(d) Disrupt an industry apportionment program in a manner designed to provide a person with an unwarranted share of scarce items; or
</P>
<P>(e) Overcome a supplier's regularly established terms of sale or conditions of doing business.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Allocation Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.50" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.50   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Allocation orders will:
</P>
<P>(1) Only be used when there is insufficient supply of a material, service, or facility to satisfy national defense supply requirements through the use of the priorities authority or when the use of the priorities authority would cause a severe and prolonged disruption in the supply of materials, services, or facilities available to support normal U.S. economic activities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not be used to ration materials or services at the retail level.
</P>
<P>(b) Allocation orders, when used, will be distributed equitably among the suppliers of the materials, services, or facilities being allocated and not require any person to relinquish a disproportionate share of the civilian market.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.51" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.51   General procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Before the Department of Health and Human Services uses its allocations authority to address a supply problem within its resource jurisdiction, it will develop a plan that includes:
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of the written determination made in accordance with section 202 of Executive Order 13603, that the program or programs that would be supported by the allocation action are necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense.
</P>
<P>(b) A detailed description of the situation to include any unusual events or circumstances that have created the requirement for an allocation action;
</P>
<P>(c) A statement of the specific objective(s) of the allocation action;
</P>
<P>(d) A list of the materials, services, or facilities to be allocated;
</P>
<P>(e) A list of the sources of the materials, services, or facilities that will be subject to the allocation action;
</P>
<P>(f) A detailed description of the provisions that will be included in the allocation orders, including the type(s) of allocation orders, the percentages or quantity of capacity or output to be allocated for each purpose, and the duration of the allocation action (<I>i.e.,</I> anticipated start and end dates);
</P>
<P>(g) An evaluation of the impact of the proposed allocation action on the civilian market; and
</P>
<P>(h) Proposed actions, if any, to mitigate disruptions to civilian market operations.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.52" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.52   Controlling the general distribution of a material in the civilian market.</HEAD>
<P>No allocation action taken by HHS may be used to control the general distribution of a material in the civilian market, unless the Secretary has:
</P>
<P>(a) Made a written finding that:
</P>
<P>(1) Such material is a scarce and critical material essential to the national defense, and
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of the national defense for such material cannot otherwise be met without creating a significant dislocation of the normal distribution of such material in the civilian market to such a degree as to create appreciable hardship;
</P>
<P>(b) Submitted the finding for the President's approval through the Assistant to the President and National Security Advisor and the Assistant to the President for Homeland Security and Counterterrorism; and
</P>
<P>(c) The President has approved the finding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.53" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.53   Types of allocation orders.</HEAD>
<P>There are three types of allocation orders available for communicating allocation actions.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Set-aside.</I> An official action that requires a person to reserve materials, services, or facilities capacity in anticipation of the receipt of rated orders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Directive.</I> An official action that requires a person to take or refrain from taking certain actions in accordance with its provisions. A directive can require a person to: Stop or reduce production of an item; prohibit the use of selected materials, services, or facilities; or divert the use of materials, services, or facilities from one purpose to another; and
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Allotment.</I> An official action that specifies the maximum quantity of a material, service, or facility authorized for a specific use to promote the national defense.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.54" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.5.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.54   Elements of an allocation order.</HEAD>
<P>Allocation orders may be issued directly to the affected persons or by constructive notice through publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> This section describes the elements that each order must include.
</P>
<P>(a) Each allocation order must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A detailed description of the required allocation action(s), including its relationship to any received DX rated orders, DO rated orders, and unrated orders;
</P>
<P>(2) Specific start and end calendar dates for each required allocation action;
</P>
<P>(3) The written signature on a manually placed order or the digital signature on an electronically placed order of the Secretary of HHS.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Elements to be included in orders issued directly to affected persons:
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that reads in substance: “This is an allocation order certified for national defense use. [Insert the name of the person receiving the order] is required to comply with this order, in accordance with the provisions of the Health Resources Priorities and Allocations System regulation (45 CFR part 101);
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Elements to be included in an allocation order that gives constructive notice through publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E><I>:</I>
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that reads in substance: “This is an allocation order certified for national defense use. [Insert the name(s) of the person(s) to whom the order applies or a description of the class of persons to whom the order applies] is (are) required to comply with this order, in accordance with the provisions of the Health Resources Priorities and Allocations System regulation (45 CFR part 101).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.55" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.5.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.55   Mandatory acceptance of an allocation order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise specified in this section (see paragraph (c) of this section), a person shall accept and comply with every allocation order received.
</P>
<P>(b) A person shall not discriminate against an allocation order in any manner such as by charging higher prices for materials, services, or facilities covered by the order or by imposing terms and conditions for contracts and orders involving allocated materials, services, or facilities that differ from the person's terms and conditions for contracts and orders for the materials, services, or facilities prior to receiving the allocation order.
</P>
<P>(c) If a person is unable to comply fully with the required action(s) specified in an allocation order, the person must notify the ASPR, as specified in § 101.93, immediately, explain the extent to which compliance is possible, and give the reasons why full compliance is not possible. If notification is given verbally, then written or electronic confirmation must be provided within one (1) working day. Such notification does not release the person from complying with the order to the fullest extent possible, until the person is notified by HHS that the order has been changed or cancelled.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.56" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.5.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.56   Changes or cancellations of an allocation order.</HEAD>
<P>An allocation order may be changed or canceled by an official action of HHS. Notice of such changes or cancellations may be provided directly to persons to whom the order being cancelled or modified applies or constructive notice may be provided by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Official Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.60" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.6.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.60   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HHS may take specific official actions to implement the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) These official actions include, but are not limited to, Rating Authorizations, Directives, and Letters of Understanding (See § 101.20.)




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.61" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.6.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.61   Rating Authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Rating Authorization is an official action granting specific priority rating authority that:
</P>
<P>(1) Permits a person to place a priority rating on an order for an item or service not normally ratable under this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) Authorizes a person to modify a priority rating on a specific order or series of contracts or orders.
</P>
<P>(b) To request priority rating authority, see § 101.41.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.62" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.6.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.62   Directives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Directive is an official action that requires a person to take or refrain from taking certain actions in accordance with its provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) A person must comply with each Directive issued. However, a person may not use or extend a Directive to obtain any items from a supplier, unless expressly authorized to do so in the Directive.
</P>
<P>(c) A Directive takes precedence over all DX rated orders, DO rated orders, and unrated orders previously or subsequently received, unless a contrary instruction appears in the Directive.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.63" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.6.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.63   Letters of Understanding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Letter of Understanding is an official action that may be issued in resolving special priorities assistance cases to reflect an agreement reached by all parties including HHS, the Department of Commerce (if applicable), a Delegate Agency (if applicable), the supplier, and the customer.
</P>
<P>(b) A Letter of Understanding is not used to alter scheduling between rated orders, to authorize the use of priority ratings, to impose restrictions under this part. Rather, Letters of Understanding are used to confirm production or shipping schedules that do not require modifications to other rated orders.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Compliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.70" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.7.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.70   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HHS may take specific official actions for any reason necessary or appropriate to the enforcement or the administration of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action. Such actions include Administrative Subpoenas, Demands for Information, and Inspection Authorizations.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who places or receives a rated order or an allocation order must comply with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Willful violation of the provisions of title I or section 705 of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action of HHS is a criminal act, punishable as provided in the DPA and other applicable statutes, and as set forth in § 101.74.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.71" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.7.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.71   Audits and investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Audits and investigations are official examinations of books, records, documents, other writings, and information to ensure that the provisions of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, and official actions have been properly followed. An audit or investigation may also include interviews and a systems evaluation to detect problems or failures in the implementation of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) When undertaking an audit or investigation, HHS shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Define the scope and purpose in the official action given to the person under investigation; and
</P>
<P>(2) Have ascertained that the information sought, or other adequate and authoritative data are not available from any Federal or other responsible agency.
</P>
<P>(c) In administering this part, HHS may issue the following documents that constitute official actions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Administrative Subpoenas.</I> An Administrative Subpoena requires a person to appear as a witness before an official designated by HHS to testify under oath on matters of which that person has knowledge relating to the enforcement or the administration of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or official actions. An Administrative Subpoena may also require the production of books, papers, records, documents and physical objects or property.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demands for Information.</I> A Demand for Information requires a person to furnish to a duly authorized representative of HHS any information necessary or appropriate to the enforcement or the administration of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or official actions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inspection Authorizations.</I> An Inspection Authorization requires a person to permit a duly authorized representative of HHS to interview the person's employees or agents, to inspect books, records, documents, other writings, and information, including electronically-stored information, in the person's possession or control at the place where that person usually keeps them or otherwise, and to inspect a person's property when such interviews and inspections are necessary or appropriate to the enforcement or the administration of the DPA and related statutes, this part, or official actions.
</P>
<P>(d) The production of books, records, documents, other writings, and information will not be required at any place other than where they are usually kept, if, prior to the return date specified in the Administrative Subpoena or Demand for Information, a duly authorized official of HHS is furnished with copies of such material that are certified under oath to be true copies. As an alternative, a duly authorized representative of HHS may enter into a stipulation with a person as to the content of the material.
</P>
<P>(e) An Administrative Subpoena, Demand for Information, or Inspection Authorization shall include the name, title, or official position of the person to be served, the evidence sought to be adduced, and its general relevance to the scope and purpose of the audit, investigation, or other inquiry. If employees or agents are to be interviewed; if books, records, documents, other writings, or information are to be produced; or if property is to be inspected; the Administrative Subpoena, Demand for Information, or Inspection Authorization will describe them with particularity.
</P>
<P>(f) Service of documents shall be made in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) Service of a Demand for Information or Inspection Authorization shall be made personally, or by Certified Mail-Return Receipt Requested at the person's last known address. Service of an Administrative Subpoena shall be made personally. Personal service may also be made by leaving a copy of the document with someone at least 18 years old at the person's last known dwelling or place of business.
</P>
<P>(2) Service upon other than an individual may be made by serving a partner, corporate officer, or a managing or general agent authorized by appointment or by law to accept service of process. If an agent is served, a copy of the document shall be mailed to the person named in the document.
</P>
<P>(3) Any individual 18 years of age or over may serve an Administrative Subpoena, Demand for Information, or Inspection Authorization. When personal service is made, the individual making the service shall prepare an affidavit as to the manner in which service was made and the identity of the person served, and return the affidavit, and in the case of subpoenas, the original document, to the issuing officer. In case of failure to make service, the reasons for the failure shall be stated on the original document.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.72" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.7.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.72   Compulsory process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person refuses to permit a duly authorized representative of HHS to have access to any premises or to the source of information necessary to the administration or the enforcement of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or official actions, HHS, through its authorized representative may seek compulsory process. Compulsory process means the institution of appropriate legal action, including ex parte application for an inspection warrant or its equivalent, in any forum of appropriate jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) Compulsory process may be sought in advance of an audit, investigation, or other inquiry, if, in the judgment of the Secretary there is reason to believe that a person will refuse to permit an audit, investigation, or other inquiry, or that other circumstances exist which make such process desirable or necessary.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.73" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.7.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.73   Notification of failure to comply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the conclusion of an audit, investigation, or other inquiry, or at any other time, HHS may inform the person in writing of HHS' position regarding that person's non-compliance with the requirements of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action.
</P>
<P>(b) In cases where HHS determines that failure to comply with the provisions of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action was inadvertent, the person may be informed in writing of the particulars involved and the corrective action to be taken. Failure to take corrective action may then be construed as a willful violation of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.74" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.7.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.74   Violations, penalties, and remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Willful violation of the provisions of the DPA, and related statutes (when applicable), this part, or an official action, is a crime and upon conviction, a person may be punished by fine or imprisonment, or both. The maximum penalties provided by the DPA are a $10,000 fine, or one year in prison, or both.
</P>
<P>(b) The Government may also seek an injunction from a court of appropriate jurisdiction to prohibit the continuance of any violation of, or to enforce compliance with, the DPA, this part, or an official action.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to secure the effective enforcement of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, and official actions, the following are prohibited:
</P>
<P>(1) No person may solicit, influence, or permit another person to perform any act prohibited by, or to omit any act required by, the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action.
</P>
<P>(2) No person may conspire or act in concert with any other person to perform any act prohibited by, or to omit any act required by, the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action.
</P>
<P>(3) No person shall deliver any item if the person knows or has reason to believe that the item will be accepted, redelivered, held, or used in violation of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action. In such instances, the person must immediately notify HHS that, in accordance with this provision, delivery has not been made.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.75" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.7.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.75   Compliance conflicts.</HEAD>
<P>If compliance with any provision of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action would prevent a person from filling a rated order or from complying with another provision of the DPA and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action, the person must immediately notify HHS, as specified in § 101.93, for resolution of the conflict.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Adjustments, Exceptions, and Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.80" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.8.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.80   Adjustments or exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may submit a request to HHS for an adjustment or exception on the ground that:
</P>
<P>(1) A provision of this part or an official action results in an undue or exceptional hardship on that person not suffered generally by others in similar situations and circumstances; or
</P>
<P>(2) The consequences of following a provision of this part or an official action are contrary to the intent of the DPA and other applicable statutes, or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Each request for adjustment or exception must be in writing and contain a complete statement of all the facts and circumstances related to the provision of this part or official action from which adjustment is sought and a full and precise statement of the reasons why relief should be provided.
</P>
<P>(c) The submission of a request for adjustment or exception shall not relieve any person from the obligation of complying with the provision of this part or official action in question while the request is being considered unless such interim relief is granted in writing by the Secretary or the Secretary's designated representative.
</P>
<P>(d) A decision of the Secretary or the Secretary's designated representative under this section may be appealed to the Secretary. (For information on the appeal procedure, see § 101.81.)




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.81" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.8.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.81   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person whose request for adjustment or exception was denied by the Secretary or the Secretary's designated representative under § 101.80, may appeal to the Secretary who, through the Secretary's designated representative, shall review and reconsider the denial.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an appeal must be received by the Secretary no later than 45 business days after receipt of a written notice of denial. After this 45-business day period, an appeal may be accepted at the discretion of the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) For requests for adjustment or exception involving rated orders placed for the purpose of emergency preparedness (see § 101.33(e)), an appeal must be received by the Secretary, no later than 15 business days after receipt of a written notice of denial. Contract performance under the order shall not be stayed pending resolution of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) Each appeal must be in writing and contain a complete statement of all the facts and circumstances related to the action appealed from and a full and precise statement of the reasons the decision should be modified or reversed.
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to the written materials submitted in support of an appeal, an appellant may request, in writing, an opportunity for an informal hearing. This request may be granted or denied at the discretion of the Secretary or the Secretary's designated representative.
</P>
<P>(e) When a hearing is granted, the Secretary may designate an HHS employee to act as the Secretary's representative and hearing officer to conduct the hearing and to prepare a report. The hearing officer shall determine all procedural questions and impose such time or other limitations deemed reasonable. In the event that the hearing officer decides that a printed transcript is necessary, all expenses shall be borne by the appellant.
</P>
<P>(f) When determining an appeal, the Secretary may consider all information submitted during the appeal as well as any recommendations, reports, or other relevant information and documents available to HHS or consult with any other persons or groups.
</P>
<P>(g) The submission of an appeal under this section shall not relieve any person from the obligation of complying with the provision of this part or official action in question while the appeal is being considered unless such relief is granted in writing by the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.90" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.9.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.90   Protection against claims.</HEAD>
<P>A person shall not be held liable for damages or penalties for any act or failure to act resulting directly or indirectly from compliance with any provision of this part, or an official action, notwithstanding that such provision or action shall subsequently be declared invalid by judicial or other competent authority.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.91" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.9.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.91   Records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Persons are required to make and preserve for at least three years, accurate and complete records of any transaction covered by this part or an official action.
</P>
<P>(b) Records must be maintained in sufficient detail to permit the determination, upon examination, of whether each transaction complies with the provisions of this part or any official action. However, this part does not specify any method or system to be used.
</P>
<P>(c) Records required to be maintained by this part must be made available for examination on demand by duly authorized representatives of HHS as provided in § 101.71.
</P>
<P>(d) In addition, persons must develop, maintain, and submit any other records and reports to HHS that may be required for the administration of the DPA and other applicable statutes, and this part.
</P>
<P>(e) DPA section 705(d), as implemented by E.O. 13603, provides that information obtained under this section which the Secretary deems confidential, or with reference to which a request for confidential treatment is made by the person furnishing such information, shall not be published or disclosed unless the Secretary determines that the withholding of this information is contrary to the interest of the national defense. Information required to be submitted to HHS in connection with the enforcement or administration of the DPA, this part, or an official action, is deemed to be confidential under DPA section 705(d) and shall be handled in accordance with applicable Federal law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.92" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.9.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.92   Applicability of this part and official actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part and all official actions, unless specifically stated otherwise, apply to transactions in any state, territory, or possession of the United States and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(b) This part and all official actions apply not only to deliveries to other persons but also include deliveries to affiliates and subsidiaries of a person and deliveries from one branch, division, or section of a single entity to another branch, division, or section under common ownership or control.
</P>
<P>(c) This part shall not be construed to affect any administrative actions taken by HHS, or any outstanding contracts or orders placed pursuant to any of the regulations, orders, schedules, or delegations of authority previously issued by HHS pursuant to authority granted to HHS, by the President under the DPA and E.O. 13603. Such actions, contracts, or orders shall continue in full force and effect under this part unless modified or terminated by proper authority.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.93" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.9.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.93   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>All communications concerning this part, including requests for copies of the part and explanatory information, requests for guidance or clarification, and requests for adjustment or exception shall be addressed to the Administration for Strategic Preparedness and Response, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Washington, DC 20201. Ref: HRPAS, or email <I>aspr.dpa@hhs.gov</I>.
</P>
<P> 
</P>
<P> 
</P>
<P> 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix 1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.56.9.11.5.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix 1 to Part 101
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Program identification
<br/>symbol
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Approved program
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Agency
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">M1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Emergency Support Function 8 Public Health and Medical Services</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Department of Health and Human Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">M2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Strategic National Stockpile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Department of Health and Human Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">M3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Biodefense and Related Medical Countermeasures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Department of Health and Human Services.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">M4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASPR Critical Infrastructure Protection Program</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Department of Health and Human Services.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P> 
</P>
<P> 
</P>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="102" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.57" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 102—ADJUSTMENT OF CIVIL MONETARY PENALTIES FOR INFLATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 101-410, Sec. 701 of Pub. L. 114-74, 31 U.S.C. 3801-3812.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 61565, Sept. 6, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 102.1" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.57.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to each statutory provision under the laws administered by the Department of Health and Human Services concerning the civil monetary penalties which may be assessed or enforced by an agency pursuant to Federal law or is assessed or enforced pursuant to civil judicial actions in the Federal courts or administrative proceedings. The regulations cited in this part supersede existing HHS regulations setting forth civil monetary penalty amounts. If applicable, the HHS agencies responsible for specific civil monetary penalties will amend their regulations to reflect the adjusted amounts and/or a cross-reference to 45 CFR part 102 in separate actions as soon as practicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.2" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.57.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.2   Applicability date.</HEAD>
<P>The increased penalty amounts set forth in the right-most column of the table in Section 102.3, “Maximum Adjusted Penalty ($)”, apply to all civil monetary penalties which are assessed after August 1, 2016, including those penalties whose associated violations occurred after November 2, 2015.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 102.3" NODE="45:1.0.1.1.57.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 102.3   Penalty adjustment and table.</HEAD>
<P>The adjusted statutory penalty provisions and their applicable amounts are set out in the following table. The right-most column in the table, “Maximum Adjusted Penalty ($)”, provides the maximum adjusted civil penalty amounts. The civil monetary penalty amounts are adjusted annually.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 102.3—Civil Monetary Penalty Authorities Administered by HHS
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">U.S.C. section(s)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CFR 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HHS


<br/>agency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date of last


<br/>penalty

<br/>figure or

<br/>adjustment 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2024


<br/>Maximum

<br/>adjusted

<br/>penalty

<br/>($)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2025


<br/>Maximum

<br/>adjusted

<br/>penalty

<br/>($) 
<sup>4</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21 U.S.C.:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(b)(2)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for violations related to drug samples resulting in a conviction of any representative of manufacturer or distributor in any 10-year period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127,983</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">131,308
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(b)(2)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for violation related to drug samples resulting in a conviction of any representative of manufacturer or distributor after the second conviction in any 10-yr period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,559,636</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,626,135
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(b)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failure to make a report required by 21 U.S.C. 353(d)(3)(E) relating to drug samples</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">255,964</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">262,614
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(1)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person who violates a requirement related to devices for each such violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34,568</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,466
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for aggregate of all violations related to devices in a single proceeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,304,629</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,364,503
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(2)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any individual who introduces or delivers for introduction into interstate commerce food that is adulterated per 21 U.S.C. 342(a)(2)(B) or any individual who does not comply with a recall order under 21 U.S.C. 350l</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97,179</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99,704
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of any other person (other than an individual) for such introduction or delivery of adulterated food</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">485,893</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">498,517
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for aggregate of all such violations related to adulterated food adjudicated in a single proceeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">971,787</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">997,034
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(3)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for all violations adjudicated in a single proceeding for any person who violates 21 U.S.C. 331(jj) by failing to submit the certification required by 42 U.S.C. 282(j)(5)(B) or knowingly submitting a false certification; by failing to submit clinical trial information under 42 U.S.C. 282(j); or by submitting clinical trial information under 42 U.S.C. 282(j) that is false or misleading in any particular under 42 U.S.C. 282(j)(5)(D)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,724</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,107
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(3)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each day any above violation is not corrected after a 30-day period following notification until the violation is corrected</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,724</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,107
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(4)(A)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any responsible person that violates a requirement of 21 U.S.C. 355(o) (post-marketing studies, clinical trials, labeling), 21 U.S.C. 355(p) (risk evaluation and mitigation (REMS)), or 21 U.S.C. 355-1 (REMS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">368,137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">377,701
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for aggregate of all such above violations in a single proceeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,472,546</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,510,803
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(4)(A)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for REMS violation that continues after written notice to the responsible person for the first 30-day period (or any portion thereof) the responsible person continues to be in violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">368,137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">377,701
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for REMS violation that continues after written notice to responsible person doubles for every 30-day period thereafter the violation continues, but may not exceed penalty amount for any 30-day period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,472,546</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,510,803
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for aggregate of all such above violations adjudicated in a single proceeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,725,456</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,108,023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(9)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person who violates a requirement which relates to tobacco products for each such violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,348</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,903
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for aggregate of all such violations of tobacco product requirement adjudicated in a single proceeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,423,220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,460,195
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(9)(B)(i)(I)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per violation related to violations of tobacco requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">355,806</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365,050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for aggregate of all such violations of tobacco product requirements adjudicated in a single proceeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,423,220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,460,195
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(9)(B)(i)(II)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of a violation of tobacco product requirements that continues after written notice to such person, for the first 30-day period (or any portion thereof) the person continues to be in violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">355,806</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365,050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for violation of tobacco product requirements that continues after written notice to such person shall double for every 30-day period thereafter the violation continues, but may not exceed penalty amount for any 30-day period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,423,220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,460,195
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for aggregate of all such violations related to tobacco product requirements adjudicated in a single proceeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,232,205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,601,958
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(9)(B)(ii)(I)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person who either does not conduct post-market surveillance and studies to determine impact of a modified risk tobacco product for which the HHS Secretary has provided them an order to sell, or who does not submit a protocol to the HHS Secretary after being notified of a requirement to conduct post-market surveillance of such tobacco products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">355,806</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365,050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for aggregate of for all such above violations adjudicated in a single proceeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,423,220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,460,195
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(f)(9)(B)(ii)(II)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for violation of modified risk tobacco product post-market surveillance that continues after written notice to such person for the first 30-day period (or any portion thereof) that the person continues to be in violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">355,806</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365,050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for post-notice violation of modified risk tobacco product post-market surveillance shall double for every 30-day period thereafter that the tobacco product requirement violation continues for any 30-day period, but may not exceed penalty amount for any 30-day period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,423,220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,460,195
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for aggregate above tobacco product requirement violations adjudicated in a single proceeding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,232,205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,601,958
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333(g)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person who disseminates or causes another party to disseminate a direct-to-consumer advertisement that is false or misleading for the first such violation in any 3-year period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">368,137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">377,701
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each subsequent above violation in any 3-year period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">736,274</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">755,402
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">333 note</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty to be applied for violations of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of violations of restrictions on the sale or distribution of tobacco products promulgated under 21 U.S.C. 387f(d) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> violations of regulations in 21 CFR part 1140) with respect to a retailer with an approved training program in the case of a second regulation violation within a 12-month period.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">356</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of a third violation of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of the tobacco product regulations within a 24-month period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">709</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">727
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of a fourth violation of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of the tobacco product regulations within a 24-month period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,846</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,920
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of a fifth violation of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of the tobacco product regulations within a 36-month period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of a sixth or subsequent violation of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of the tobacco product regulations within a 48-month period as determined on a case-by-case basis</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,602
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty to be applied for violations of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of violations of restrictions on the sale or distribution of tobacco products promulgated under 21 U.S.C. 387f(d) (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> violations of regulations in 21 CFR part 1140) with respect to a retailer that does not have an approved training program in the case of the first regulation violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">356</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of a second violation of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of the tobacco product regulations within a 12-month period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">709</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">727
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of a third violation of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of the tobacco product regulations within a 24-month period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,424</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,461
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of a fourth violation of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of the tobacco product regulations within a 24-month period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,846</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,920
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of a fifth violation of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of the tobacco product regulations within a 36-month period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of a sixth or subsequent violation of 21 U.S.C. 387f(d)(5) or of the tobacco product regulations within a 48-month period as determined on a case-by-case basis</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,602
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">335b(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each violation for any individual who made a false statement or misrepresentation of a material fact, bribed, destroyed, altered, removed, or secreted, or procured the destruction, alteration, removal, or secretion of, any material document, failed to disclose a material fact, obstructed an investigation, employed a consultant who was debarred, debarred individual provided consultant services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">542,434</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">556,526
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty in the case of any other person (other than an individual) per above violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,169,731</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,226,101
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">360pp(b)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person who violates any such requirements for electronic products, with each unlawful act or omission constituting a separate violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,558</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,650
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty imposed for any related series of violations of requirements relating to electronic products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,212,751</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,244,258
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">42 U.S.C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">262(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day for violation of order of recall of biological product presenting imminent or substantial hazard</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">278,937</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">286,184
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">263b(h)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failure to obtain a mammography certificate as required</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,699</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,263
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">300aa-28(b)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per occurrence for any vaccine manufacturer that intentionally destroys, alters, falsifies, or conceals any record or report required</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">278,937</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">286,184
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">56b(d)(1)(B)(vi)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HRSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each instance of overcharging a 340B covered entity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,034</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,217
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">299c-3(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AHRQ</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for using or disclosing identifiable information obtained in the course of activities undertaken pursuant to Title IX of the Public Health Service Act, for a purpose other than that for which the information was supplied, without consent to do so</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,291</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,766
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">653(l)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 303.21(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ACF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for Misuse of Information in the National Directory of New Hires</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,877</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,926
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">262a(i)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.910</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each individual who violates safety and security procedures related to handling dangerous biological agents and toxins</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">424,250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">435,272
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1410</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any other person who violates safety and security procedures related to handling dangerous biological agents and toxins</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">848,505</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">870,549
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">300jj-51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per violation for committing information blocking</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,293,601</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,327,209
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320a-7a(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly presenting or causing to be presented to an officer, employee, or agent of the United States a false claim</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,947</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,595
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly presenting or causing to be presented a request for payment which violates the terms of an assignment, agreement, or PPS agreement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,947</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,595
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly giving or causing to be presented to a participating provider or supplier false or misleading information that could reasonably be expected to influence a discharge decision</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37,421</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38,393
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for an excluded party retaining ownership or control interest in a participating entity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,947</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,595
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for remuneration offered to induce program beneficiaries to use particular providers, practitioners, or suppliers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,947</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,595
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for employing or contracting with an excluded individual</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,947</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,595
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.310(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowing and willful solicitation, receipt, offer, or payment of remuneration for referring an individual for a service or for purchasing, leasing, or ordering an item to be paid for by a Federal health care program</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124,732</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127,973
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for ordering or prescribing medical or other item or service during a period in which the person was excluded</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,947</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,595
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly making or causing to be made a false statement, omission or misrepresentation of a material fact in any application, bid, or contract to participate or enroll as a provider or supplier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124,732</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127,973
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowing of an overpayment and failing to report and return</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,947</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,595
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for making or using a false record or statement that is material to a false or fraudulent claim</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70,336</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72,163
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failure to grant timely access to HHS OIG for audits, investigations, evaluations, and other statutory functions of HHS OIG</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37,421</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38,393
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320a-7a(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for payments by a hospital or critical access hospital to induce a physician to reduce or limit services to individuals under direct care of physician or who are entitled to certain medical assistance benefits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,236</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,398
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for physicians who knowingly receive payments from a hospital or critical access hospital to induce such physician to reduce or limit services to individuals under direct care of physician or who are entitled to certain medical assistance benefits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,236</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,398
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(10)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a physician who executes a document that falsely certifies home health needs for Medicare beneficiaries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,473</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,797
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320a-7a(o)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.710(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly presenting or causing to be presented a false or fraudulent specified claim under a grant, contract, or other agreement for which the Secretary provides funding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,482
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.710(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly making, using, or causing to be made or used any false statement, omission, or misrepresentation of a material fact in any application, proposal, bid, progress report, or other document required to directly or indirectly receive or retain funds provided pursuant to grant, contract, or other agreement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60,831</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,411
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.710(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for Knowingly making, using, or causing to be made or used, a false record or statement material to a false or fraudulent specified claim under grant, contract, or other agreement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60,831</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,411
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.710(a)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly making, using, or causing to be made or used, a false record or statement material to an obligation to pay or transmit funds or property with respect to grant, contract, or other agreement, or knowingly conceals or improperly avoids or decreases any such obligation, per each false record or statement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63,450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65,098
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly making, using, or causing to be made or used, a false record or statement material to an obligation to pay or transmit funds or property with respect to grant, contract, or other agreement, or knowingly conceals or improperly avoids or decreases any such obligation, per day</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,707</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,037
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.710(a)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failure to grant timely access, upon reasonable request, to the I.G. for purposes of audits, investigations, evaluations, or other statutory functions of I.G. in matters involving grants, contracts, or other agreements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,724
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320a-7e(b)(6)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.810</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failure to report any final adverse action taken against a health care provider, supplier, or practitioner</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320b-10(b)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.610(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for the misuse of words, symbols, or emblems in communications in a manner in which a person could falsely construe that such item is approved, endorsed, or authorized by HHS</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,799</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320b-10(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.610(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for the misuse of words, symbols, or emblems in a broadcast or telecast in a manner in which a person could falsely construe that such item is approved, endorsed, or authorized by HHS</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63,991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65,653
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395i-3(b)(3)(B)(ii)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for certification of a false statement in assessment of functional capacity of a Skilled Nursing Facility resident assessment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395i-3(b)(3)(B)(ii)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for causing another to certify or make a false statement in assessment of functional capacity of a Skilled Nursing Facility resident assessment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,343</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,690
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395i-3(g)(2)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1310</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any individual who notifies or causes to be notified a Skilled Nursing Facility of the time or date on which a survey is to be conducted</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,339</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,478
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395w-27(g)(2)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.410</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization that substantially fails to provide medically necessary, required items and services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,586</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49,848
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization that charges excessive premiums</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization that improperly expels or refuses to reenroll a beneficiary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization that engages in practice that would reasonably be expected to have the effect of denying or discouraging enrollment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190,389</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">195,335
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per individual who does not enroll as a result of a Medicare Advantage organization's practice that would reasonably be expected to have the effect of denying or discouraging enrollment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28,557</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29,299
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization misrepresenting or falsifying information to Secretary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190,389</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">195,335
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization misrepresenting or falsifying information to individual or other entity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for Medicare Advantage organization interfering with provider's advice to enrollee and non-MCO affiliated providers that balance bill enrollees</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization that employs or contracts with excluded individual or entity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization enrolling an individual in without prior written consent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization transferring an enrollee to another plan without consent or solely for the purpose of earning a commission</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization failing to comply with marketing restrictions or applicable implementing regulations or guidance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization employing or contracting with an individual or entity who violates 1395w-27(g)(1)(A)-(J)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395w-141(i)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a prescription drug card sponsor that falsifies or misrepresents marketing materials, overcharges program enrollees, or misuse transitional assistance funds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,062
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395cc(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for improper billing by Hospitals, Critical Access Hospitals, or Skilled Nursing Facilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,469</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,637
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395dd(d)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.510</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a hospital with 100 beds or more or responsible physician dumping patients needing emergency medical care</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133,420</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136,886
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a hospital with less than 100 beds dumping patients needing emergency medical care</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66,712</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68,445
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395mm(i)(6)(B)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.410</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a HMO or competitive medical plan if such plan substantially fails to provide medically necessary, required items or services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66,712</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68,445
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for HMOs/competitive medical plans that charge premiums in excess of permitted amounts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66,712</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68,445
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a HMO or competitive medical plan that expels or refuses to reenroll an individual per prescribed conditions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66,712</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68,445
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a HMO or competitive medical plan that implements practices to discourage enrollment of individuals needing services in future</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">266,841</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">273,774
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per individual not enrolled in a plan as a result of a HMO or competitive medical plan that implements practices to discourage enrollment of individuals needing services in the future</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38,395</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39,393
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a HMO or competitive medical plan that misrepresents or falsifies information to the Secretary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">266,841</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">273,774
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a HMO or competitive medical plan that misrepresents or falsifies information to an individual or any other entity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66,712</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68,445
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failure by HMO or competitive medical plan to assure prompt payment of Medicare risk sharing contracts or incentive plan provisions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66,712</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68,445
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for HMO that employs or contracts with excluded individual or entity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61,238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,829
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395nn(g)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.310</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for submitting or causing to be submitted claims in violation of the Stark Law's restrictions on physician self-referrals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,868</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31,670
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395nn(g)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.310</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for circumvention schemes in violation of the Stark Law's restrictions on physician self-referrals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">205,799</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">211,146
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(d)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a material misrepresentation regarding Medigap compliance policies</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,799</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(d)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for selling Medigap policy under false pretense</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,799</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(d)(3)(A)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for an issuer that sells health insurance policy that duplicates benefits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,617</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59,114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for someone other than issuer that sells health insurance that duplicates benefits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34,568</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,466
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(d)(4)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for using mail to sell a non-approved Medigap insurance policy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,799</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396b(m)(5)(B)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.410</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicaid MCO that substantially fails to provide medically necessary, required items or services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63,991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65,653
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicaid MCO that charges excessive premiums</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63,991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65,653
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicaid MCO that improperly expels or refuses to reenroll a beneficiary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">255,964</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">262,614
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per individual who does not enroll as a result of a Medicaid MCO's practice that would reasonably be expected to have the effect of denying or discouraging enrollment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38,395</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39,393
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicaid MCO misrepresenting or falsifying information to the Secretary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">255,964</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">262,614
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicaid MCO misrepresenting or falsifying information to an individual or another entity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63,991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65,653
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicaid MCO that fails to comply with contract requirements with respect to physician incentive plans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,617</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59,114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396r(b)(3)(B)(ii)(I)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for willfully and knowingly certifying a material and false statement in a Skilled Nursing Facility resident assessment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396r(b)(3)(B)(ii)(II)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.210(a)(11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for willfully and knowingly causing another individual to certify a material and false statement in a Skilled Nursing Facility resident assessment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,343</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,690
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396r(g)(2)(A)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1310</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for notifying or causing to be notified a Skilled Nursing Facility of the time or date on which a survey is to be conducted</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,339</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,478
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396r-8(b)(3)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for the knowing provision of false information or refusing to provide information about charges or prices of a covered outpatient drug</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">230,464</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">236,451
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396r-8(b)(3)(C)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day for failure to timely provide information by drug manufacturer with rebate agreement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,048</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,647
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396r-8(b)(3)(C)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowing provision of false information by drug manufacturer with rebate agreement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">230,464</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">236,451
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396t(i)(3)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.1310</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for notifying home and community-based providers or settings of survey</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,610</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,730
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">11131(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.810</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failing to report a medical malpractice claim to National Practitioner Data Bank</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,894</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28,619
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">11137(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 1003.810</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for breaching confidentiality of information reported to National Practitioner Data Bank</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,894</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28,619
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">299b-22(f)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 3.404</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OCR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for violation of confidentiality provision of the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,445</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,846
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320(d)-5(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 160.404(b)(1)(i), (ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OCR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each pre-February 18, 2009 violation of the HIPAA administrative simplification provisions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OIG</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,586</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49,848
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320(d)-5(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 160.404(b)(2)(i)(A), (B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OCR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each February 18, 2009 or later violation of a HIPAA administrative simplification provision in which it is established that the covered entity or business associate did not know and by exercising reasonable diligence, would not have known that the covered entity or business associate violated such a provision</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">145
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71,162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73,011
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,134,831</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,190,294
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 160.404(b)(2)(ii)(A), (B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OCR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each February 18, 2009 or later violation of a HIPAA administrative simplification provision in which it is established that the violation was due to reasonable cause and not to willful neglect</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,424</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,461
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71,162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73,011
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,134,831</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,190,294
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 160.404(b)(2)(iii)(A), (B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OCR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each February 18, 2009 or later violation of a HIPAA administrative simplification provision in which it is established that the violation was due to willful neglect and was corrected during the 30-day period beginning on the first date the covered entity or business associate knew, or, by exercising reasonable diligence, would have known that the violation occurred</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,602
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71,162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73,011
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,134,831</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,190,294
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 160.404(b)(2)(iv)(A), (B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OCR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each February 18, 2009 or later violation of a HIPAA administrative simplification provision in which it is established that the violation was due to willful neglect and was not corrected during the 30-day period beginning on the first date the covered entity or business associate knew, or, by exercising reasonable diligence, would have known that the violation occurred</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71,162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73,011
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,134,831</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,190,294
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,134,831</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,190,294
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">290dd-2(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 2.3(a) and (c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OCR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each violation of a 42 CFR part 2 provision in which it is established that the person did not know and by exercising reasonable diligence, would not have known that the person violated such a provision</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51,299
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,538,970
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 2.3(a) and (c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OCR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each violation of a 42 CFR part 2 provision in which it is established that the violation was due to reasonable cause and not to willful neglect</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,026
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51,299
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,538,970
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 2.3(a) and (c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OCR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each violation of a 42 CFR part 2 provision in which it is established that the violation was due to willful neglect and was corrected during the 30-day period beginning on the first date the person knew, or, by exercising reasonable diligence, would have known that the violation occurred</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,260
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51,299
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,538,970
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 2.3(a) and (c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OCR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each violation of a 42 CFR part 2 provision in which it is established that the violation was due to willful neglect and was not corrected during the 30-day period beginning on the first date the person knew, or, by exercising reasonable diligence, would have known that the violation occurred</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51,299
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,538,970
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,500,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,538,970
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">42 U.S.C. 300gg-18, 42 U.S.C. 1302</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 180.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a hospital's non-compliance with making public standard charges for hospital items and services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">342
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per Day (Maximum)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,277
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 180.90(c)(2)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicable solely to CY 2021 penalties, per day penalty for a hospital's noncompliance with making public standard charges for hospital items and services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">339</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">348
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 180.90(c)(2)(ii)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per day penalty for hospitals with equal to or less than 30 beds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">342
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 180.90(c)(2)(ii)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per day, per bed penalty for hospitals having at least 31 and up to and including 550 beds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 180.90(c)(2)(ii)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per day penalty for hospitals having greater than 550 beds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,277
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">CARES Act, Public Law 116-136, section 3202(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 182.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a provider's non-compliance with price transparency requirements regarding diagnostic tests for COVID-19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per Day (Maximum)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">263a(h)(2)(B) &amp; 1395w-2(b)(2)(A)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 493.1834(d)(2)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a clinical laboratory's failure to meet participation and certification requirements and poses immediate jeopardy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,807</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,597</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,262
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 493.1834(d)(2)(ii).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a clinical laboratory's failure to meet participation and certification requirements and the failure does not pose immediate jeopardy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,678</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,877
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 493.1834(d)(2)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a clinical laboratory's failure to meet SARS-CoV-2 test reporting requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First day of noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each additional day of noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">300gg-15(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 147.200(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to provide the Summary of Benefits and Coverage</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,406</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,443
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">300gg-18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 158.606</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for violations of regulations related to the medical loss ratio reporting and rebating</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 180.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty against hospital identified by CMS as noncompliant according to § 182.50 with respect to price transparency requirements regarding diagnostic tests for COVID-19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">42 U.S.C. 300gg-118 note, 300gg-134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalties for failure to comply with No Surprises Act requirements on providers, facilities, providers of air ambulance services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,816</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,123
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320a-7h(b)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.105(d)(5), 42 CFR 403.912(a) &amp; (c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for manufacturer or group purchasing organization failing to report information required under 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7h(a), relating to physician ownership or investment interests</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,406</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,443
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,067</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,432
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">211,008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">216,490
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320a-7h(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.105(h), 42 CFR 403.912(b) &amp; (c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for manufacturer or group purchasing organization knowingly failing to report information required under 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7h(a), relating to physician ownership or investment interests</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,067</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,432
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140,674</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144,329
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calendar Year Cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,406,728</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,443,275
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320a-7j(h)(3)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum penalty for an administrator of a facility that fails to comply with notice requirements for the closure of a facility</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140,674</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144,329
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320a-7j(h)(3)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.446(a)(1), (2), &amp; (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum penalty for the first offense of an administrator who fails to provide notice of facility closure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">703</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">721
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum penalty for the second offense of an administrator who fails to provide notice of facility closure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,166
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum penalty for the third and subsequent offenses of an administrator who fails to provide notice of facility closure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,219</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,329
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320a-8(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for an entity knowingly making a false statement or representation of material fact in the determination of the amount of benefits or payments related to old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits, special benefits for certain World War II veterans, or supplemental security income for the aged, blind, and disabled</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,289</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,556
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for violation of 42 U.S.C. 1320a-8(a)(1) if the violator is a person who receives a fee or other income for services performed in connection with determination of the benefit amount or the person is a physician or other health care provider who submits evidence in connection with such a determination</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,704</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,956
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320a-8(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a representative payee (under 42 U.S.C. 405(j), 1007, or 1383(a)(2)) converting any part of a received payment from the benefit programs described in the previous civil monetary penalty to a use other than for the benefit of the beneficiary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,058</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,267
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320b-25(c)(1)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failure of covered individuals to report to the Secretary and 1 or more law enforcement officials any reasonable suspicion of a crime against a resident, or individual receiving care, from a long-term care facility</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">281,346</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">288,655
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1320b-25(c)(2)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failure of covered individuals to report to the Secretary and 1 or more law enforcement officials any reasonable suspicion of a crime against a resident, or individual receiving care, from a long-term care facility if such failure exacerbates the harm to the victim of the crime or results in the harm to another individual</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">422,017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">432,981
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1320b-25(d)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a long-term care facility that retaliates against any employee because of lawful acts done by the employee, or files a complaint or report with the State professional disciplinary agency against an employee or nurse for lawful acts done by the employee or nurse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">281,346</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">288,655
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395b-7(b)(2)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.105(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person who knowingly and willfully fails to furnish a beneficiary with an itemized statement of items or services within 30 days of the beneficiary's request</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">195
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395i-3(h)(2)(B)(ii)(I)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.408(d)(1)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day for a Skilled Nursing Facility that has a Category 2 violation of certification requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,211
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.408(d)(1)(iv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per instance of Category 2 noncompliance by a Skilled Nursing Facility</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.408(e)(1)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day for a Skilled Nursing Facility that has a Category 3 violation of certification requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,351
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.408(e)(1)(iv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per instance of Category 3 noncompliance by a Skilled Nursing Facility</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.408(e)(2)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day and per instance for a Skilled Nursing Facility that has Category 3 noncompliance with Immediate Jeopardy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per Day (Minimum)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,351
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per Day (Maximum)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per Instance (Minimum)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per Instance (Maximum)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.438(a)(1)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day of a Skilled Nursing Facility that fails to meet certification requirements. These amounts represent the upper range per day</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,351
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.438(a)(1)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day of a Skilled Nursing Facility that fails to meet certification requirements. These amounts represent the lower range per day</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,211
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.438(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per instance of a Skilled Nursing Facility that fails to meet certification requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.447</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty imposed for failure to comply with infection control weekly reporting requirements at 42 CFR 483.80(g)(1) and (2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First occurrence</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,196</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,227
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Incremental increases for each subsequent occurrence</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">598</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">614
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395i-6(c)(5)(B)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.1245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for noncompliance by hospice program with requirements specified in section 1395x(dd) of 42 U.S.C.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,413
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.1245(b)(2)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Adjustment to penalties. Maximum penalty assessment for each day a hospice is not in substantial compliance with one or more conditions of participation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,413
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.1245(b)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty imposed for hospice condition-level deficiency that is immediate jeopardy. These amounts represent the upper range of penalty</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,455</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,701
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,413
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.1245(b)(3)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty imposed for hospice condition-level deficiency that is immediate jeopardy. These amounts represent the upper range of penalty</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,413
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.1245(b)(3)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty imposed for hospice condition-level deficiency that is immediate jeopardy. These amounts represent the upper range of penalty</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,271
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.1245(b)(3)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty imposed for hospice condition-level deficiency that is immediate jeopardy. These amounts represent the upper range of penalty</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,455</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,701
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.1245(b)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty imposed for hospice repeat or condition-level deficiency or both that does not constitute immediate jeopardy but is directly related to poor quality patient care outcomes. These amounts represent the middle range of penalty</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,668</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,711
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,455</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,701
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.1245(b)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty imposed for hospice repeat or condition-level deficiency or both that does not constitute immediate jeopardy and are related predominantly to structure or process-oriented conditions rather than directly related to patient outcomes. These amounts represent the lower range of penalty</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">556</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">570
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,450</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,566
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.1245(b)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty range imposed for per instance of hospice noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,141
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,413
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.1245(d)(1)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each per instance of hospice noncompliance, maximum per day per hospice program</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,413
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395l(h)(5)(D)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.105(d)(2)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly, willfully, and repeatedly billing for a clinical diagnostic laboratory test other than on an assignment-related basis. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395l(i)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly and willfully presenting or causing to be presented a bill or request for payment for an intraocular lens inserted during or after cataract surgery for which the Medicare payment rate includes the cost of acquiring the class of lens involved</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395l(q)(2)(B)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.105(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly and willfully failing to provide information about a referring physician when seeking payment on an unassigned basis</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,899</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,026
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395m(a)(11)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(4), 402.105(d)(2)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any durable medical equipment supplier that knowingly and willfully charges for a covered service that is furnished on a rental basis after the rental payments may no longer be made. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395m(a)(18)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(5), 402.105(d)(2)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any nonparticipating durable medical equipment supplier that knowingly and willfully fails to make a refund to Medicare beneficiaries for a covered service for which payment is precluded due to an unsolicited telephone contact from the supplier. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395m(b)(5)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(6), 402.105(d)(2)(iv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any nonparticipating physician or supplier that knowingly and willfully charges a Medicare beneficiary more than the limiting charge for radiologist services. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395m(h)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(8), 402.105(d)(2)(vi)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any supplier of prosthetic devices, orthotics, and prosthetics that knowing and willfully charges for a covered prosthetic device, orthotic, or prosthetic that is furnished on a rental basis after the rental payment may no longer be made. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395m(a)(11)(A), that is in the same manner as 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395m(j)(2)(A)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any supplier of durable medical equipment including a supplier of prosthetic devices, prosthetics, orthotics, or supplies that knowingly and willfully distributes a certificate of medical necessity in violation of Section 1834(j)(2)(A)(i) of the Act or fails to provide the information required under Section 1834(j)(2)(A)(ii) of the Act</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,058</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,111
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395m(j)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(10), 402.105(d)(2)(vii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any supplier of durable medical equipment, including a supplier of prosthetic devices, prosthetics, orthotics, or supplies that knowingly and willfully fails to make refunds in a timely manner to Medicare beneficiaries for series billed other than on as assignment-related basis under certain conditions. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395m(j)(4) and 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395m-1(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR. 414.504(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for an applicable entity that has failed to report or made a misrepresentation or omission in reporting applicable information with respect to a clinical diagnostic laboratory test</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,958</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,295
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(31), 402.105(d)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person or entity who knowingly and willfully bills or collects for any outpatient therapy services or comprehensive outpatient rehabilitation services on other than an assignment-related basis. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395m(k)(6) and 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395m(l)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(32), 402.105(d)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any supplier of ambulance services who knowingly and willfully fills or collects for any services on other than an assignment-related basis. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(b)(18)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395u(b)(18)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(11), 402.105(d)(2)(viii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any practitioner specified in Section 1842(b)(18)(C) of the Act or other person that knowingly and willfully bills or collects for any services by the practitioners on other than an assignment-related basis. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395u(j)(2)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any physician who charges more than 125% for a non-participating referral. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395u(k)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(12), 402.105(d)(2)(ix) 1834A(a)(9) and 42 CFR 414.504(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any physician who knowingly and willfully presents or causes to be presented a claim for bill for an assistant at a cataract surgery performed on or after March 1, 1987, for which payment may not be made because of section 1862(a)(15). (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395u(l)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(13), 402.105(d)(2)(x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any nonparticipating physician who does not accept payment on an assignment-related basis and who knowingly and willfully fails to refund on a timely basis any amounts collected for services that are not reasonable or medically necessary or are of poor quality under 1842(l)(1)(A). (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395u(m)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(14), 402.105(d)(2)(xi)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any nonparticipating physician charging more than $500 who does not accept payment for an elective surgical procedure on an assignment related basis and who knowingly and willfully fails to disclose the required information regarding charges and coinsurance amounts and fails to refund on a timely basis any amount collected for the procedure in excess of the charges recognized and approved by the Medicare program. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395u(n)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(15), 402.105(d)(2)(xii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any physician who knowingly, willfully, and repeatedly bills one or more beneficiaries for purchased diagnostic tests any amount other than the payment amount specified by the Act. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395u(o)(3)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 414.707(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any practitioner specified in Section 1842(b)(18)(C) of the Act or other person that knowingly and willfully bills or collects for any services pertaining to drugs or biologics by the practitioners on other than an assignment-related basis. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(b)(18)(B) and 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395u(p)(3)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any physician or practitioner who knowingly and willfully fails promptly to provide the appropriate diagnosis codes upon CMS or Medicare administrative contractor request for payment or bill not submitted on an assignment-related basis</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395w-3a(d)(4)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 414.806</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a pharmaceutical manufacturer's misrepresentation of average sales price of a drug, or biologic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16,630</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,062
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395w-4(g)(1)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(17), 402.105(d)(2)(xiii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any nonparticipating physician, supplier, or other person that furnishes physician services not on an assignment-related basis who either knowingly and willfully bills or collects in excess of the statutorily-defined limiting charge or fails to make a timely refund or adjustment. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395w-4(g)(3)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(18), 402.105(d)(2)(xiv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person that knowingly and willfully bills for statutorily defined State-plan approved physicians' services on any other basis than an assignment-related basis for a Medicare/Medicaid dual eligible beneficiary. (Penalties are assessed in the same manner as 42 U.S.C. 1395u(j)(2)(B), which is assessed according to 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395w-27(g)(3)(A); 1857(g)(3); 1860D-12(b)(3)(E)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 422.760(b); 42 CFR 423.760(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each termination determination the Secretary makes that is the result of actions by a Medicare Advantage organization or Part D sponsor that has adversely affected (or has the substantial likelihood of adversely affecting) an individual covered under the organization's contract</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395w-27(g)(3)(B); 1857(g)(3); 1860D-12(b)(3)(E)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each week beginning after the initiation of civil money penalty procedures by the Secretary because a Medicare Advantage organization or Part D sponsor has failed to carry out a contract, or has carried out a contract inconsistently with regulations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,040</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,535
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395w-27(g)(3)(D); 1857(g)(3): 1860D-12(b)(3)(E)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicare Advantage organization's or Part D sponsor's early termination of its contract</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">176,807</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">181,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395y(b)(3)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 411.103(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for an employer or other entity to offer any financial or other incentive for an individual entitled to benefits not to enroll under a group health plan or large group health plan which would be a primary plan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,524</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,823
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395y(b)(5)(C)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(20), 42 CFR 402.105(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any non-governmental employer that, before October 1, 1998, willfully or repeatedly failed to provide timely and accurate information requested relating to an employee's group health insurance coverage</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,877</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,926
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395y(b)(6)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(20), 402.105(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any entity that knowingly, willfully, and repeatedly fails to complete a claim form relating to the availability of other health benefits in accordance with statute or provides inaccurate information relating to such on the claim form</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,224
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395y(b)(7)(B)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(21), 402.105(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any entity serving as insurer, third party administrator, or fiduciary for a group health plan that fails to provide information that identifies situations where the group health plan is or was a primary plan to Medicare to the HHS Secretary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,474</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,512
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395y(b)(8)(E)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any non-group health plan that fails to identify claimants who are Medicare beneficiaries and provide information to the HHS Secretary to coordinate benefits and pursue any applicable recovery claim</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,474</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,512
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395nn(g)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 411.361</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person that fails to report information required by HHS under Section 1877(f) concerning ownership, investment, and compensation arrangements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,496</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395pp(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(23), 402.105(d)(2)(xv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any durable medical equipment supplier, including a supplier of prosthetic devices, prosthetics, orthotics, or supplies, that knowingly and willfully fails to make refunds in a timely manner to Medicare beneficiaries under certain conditions. (42 U.S.C. 1395(m)(18) sanctions apply here in the same manner, which is under 1395u(j)(2) and 1320a-7a(a))</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,435</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,940
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">402.102(f)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person that issues a Medicare supplemental policy that has not been approved by the State regulatory program or does not meet Federal standards after a statutorily defined effective date</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66,711</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68,444
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(d)(3)(A)(vi)(II)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(25), 402.105(e),402.105(f)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for someone other than issuer that sells or issues a Medicare supplemental policy to beneficiary without a disclosure statement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34,568</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,466
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for an issuer that sells or issues a Medicare supplemental policy without disclosure statement</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,617</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59,114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(d)(3)(B)(iv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for someone other than issuer that sells or issues a Medicare supplemental policy without acknowledgement form</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34,568</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,466
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for issuer that sells or issues a Medicare supplemental policy without an acknowledgement form</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,617</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59,114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(p)(8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(25), 402.105(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for someone other than issuer that sells or issues Medicare supplemental polices after a given date that fail to conform to the NAIC or Federal standards established by statute</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34,568</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,466
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(25), 405402.105(f)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for an issuer that sells or issues Medicare supplemental polices after a given date that fail to conform to the NAIC or Federal standards established by statute</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,617</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59,114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(p)(9)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(26), 402.105(e), 402.105(f)(3), (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for someone other than issuer that sells a Medicare supplemental policy and fails to make available for sale the core group of basic benefits when selling other Medicare supplemental policies with additional benefits or fails to provide the individual, before selling the policy, an outline of coverage describing benefits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34,568</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,466
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.105(f)(3), (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for an issuer that sells a Medicare supplemental policy and fails to make available for sale the core group of basic benefits when selling other Medicare supplemental policies with additional benefits or fails to provide the individual, before selling the policy, an outline of coverage describing benefits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,617</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59,114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(q)(5)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.105(f)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person that fails to suspend the policy of a policyholder made eligible for medical assistance or automatically reinstates the policy of a policyholder who has lost eligibility for medical assistance, under certain circumstances</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,617</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59,114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(r)(6)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.105(f)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any person that fails to provide refunds or credits as required by section 1882(r)(1)(B)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,617</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59,114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(s)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(29), 402.105(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any issuer of a Medicare supplemental policy that does not waive listed time periods if they were already satisfied under a proceeding Medicare supplemental policy, or denies a policy, or conditions the issuances or effectiveness of the policy, or discriminates in the pricing of the policy base on health status or other specified criteria</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">C2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,460</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,095
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(t)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 402.1(c)(30), 402.105(f)(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any issuer of a Medicare supplemental policy that fails to fulfill listed responsibilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,617</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59,114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395ss(v)(4)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty someone other than issuer who sells, issues, or renews a medigap Rx policy to an individual who is a Part D enrollee</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,946</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,594
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for an issuer who sells, issues, or renews a Medigap Rx policy who is a Part D enrollee</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41,577</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42,657
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395bbb(c)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.725(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any individual who notifies or causes to be notified a home health agency of the time or date on which a survey of such agency is to be conducted</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,339</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,478
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395bbb(f)(2)(A)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.845(b)(2)(iii) 42 CFR 488.845(b)(3)-(6); and 42 CFR 488.845(d)(1)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum daily penalty amount for each day a home health agency is not in compliance with statutory requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,597</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,262
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.845(b)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day for home health agency's noncompliance (Upper Range)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,757</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,322
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,597</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,262
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.845(b)(3)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a home health agency's deficiency or deficiencies that cause immediate jeopardy and result in actual harm</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,597</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,262
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.845(b)(3)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a home health agency's deficiency or deficiencies that cause immediate jeopardy and result in potential for harm</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,036</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,634
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.845(b)(3)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for an isolated incident of noncompliance in violation of established HHA policy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,757</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,322
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.845(b)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a repeat and/or condition-level deficiency that does not constitute immediate jeopardy, but is directly related to poor quality patient care outcomes (Lower Range)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,841</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,941
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,757</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,322
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.845(b)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a repeat and/or condition-level deficiency that does not constitute immediate jeopardy and that is related predominately to structure or process-oriented conditions (Lower Range)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,280</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,313
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,559</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,625
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.845(b)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty imposed for instance of noncompliance that may be assessed for one or more singular events of condition-level noncompliance that are identified and where the noncompliance was corrected during the onsite survey</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each day of noncompliance (Minimum)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,559</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,625
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each day of noncompliance (Maximum)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,597</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,262
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.845(d)(1)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each day of noncompliance (Maximum)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,597</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,262
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1395eee(e)(6)(B); 1396u-4(e)(6)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 460.46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for PACE organization that discriminates in enrollment or disenrollment, or engages in any practice that would reasonably be expected to have the effect of denying or discouraging enrollment, on the basis of health status or the need for services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each individual not enrolled as a result of the PACE organization's discrimination in enrollment or disenrollment or practice that would deny or discourage enrollment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,933</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,399
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">119,555</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122,661
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a PACE organization that charges excessive premiums</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a PACE organization misrepresenting or falsifying information to CMS or the State</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190,389</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">195,335
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for any other violation specified in 42 CFR 460.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396r(h)(3)(C)(ii)(I)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.408(d)(1)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day for a nursing facility's failure to meet a Category 2 Certification</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,211
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.408(d)(1)(iv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per instance for a nursing facility's failure to meet Category 2 certification</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.408(e)(1)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day for a nursing facility's failure to meet Category 3 certification</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,351
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.408(e)(1)(iv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per instance for a nursing facility's failure to meet Category 3 certification</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.408(e)(2)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per instance for a nursing facility's failure to meet Category 3 certification, which results in immediate jeopardy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.438(a)(1)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day for nursing facility's failure to meet certification (Upper Range)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,351
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.438(a)(1)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per day for nursing facility's failure to meet certification (Lower Range)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,211
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.438(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty per instance for nursing facility's failure to meet certification</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,670</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,739
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 488.447</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty imposed for failure to comply with infection control weekly reporting requirements at 42 CFR 483.80(g)(1) and (2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First occurrence (Minimum)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,196</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,227
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Incremental increases for each subsequent occurrence</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">598</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">614
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396r(f)(2)(B)(iii)(I)(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 483.151(b)(2)(iv) and (b)(3)(iii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grounds to prohibit approval of Nurse Aide Training Program—if assessed a penalty in 1819(h)(2)(B)(i) or 1919(h)(2)(A)(ii) of “not less than $5,000” [Not CMP authority, but a specific CMP amount (CMP at this level) that is the triggering condition for disapproval]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,343</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,690
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396r(h)(3)(C)(ii)(I)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 483.151(c)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Grounds to waive disapproval of nurse aide training program—reference to disapproval based on imposition of CMP “not less than $5,000” [Not CMP authority but CMP imposition at this level determines eligibility to seek waiver of disapproval of nurse aide training program]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,343</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,690
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396t(j)(2)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each day of noncompliance for a home or community care provider that no longer meets the minimum requirements for home and community care</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,048</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,647
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396u-2(e)(2)(A)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 438.704</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicaid managed care organization that fails substantially to provide medically necessary items and services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for Medicaid managed care organization that imposes premiums or charges on enrollees in excess of the premiums or charges permitted</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicaid managed care organization that misrepresents or falsifies information to another individual or entity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicaid managed care organization that fails to comply with the applicable statutory requirements for such organizations.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47,596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48,833
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396u-2(e)(2)(A)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 438.704</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a Medicaid managed care organization that misrepresents or falsifies information to the HHS Secretary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190,389</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">195,335
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for Medicaid managed care organization that acts to discriminate among enrollees on the basis of their health status</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190,389</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">195,335
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396u-2(e)(2)(A)(iv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR 438.704</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each individual that does not enroll as a result of a Medicaid managed care organization that acts to discriminate among enrollees on the basis of their health status</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28,557</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29,299
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396u(h)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 CFR Part 441, Subpart I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for a provider not meeting one of the requirements relating to the protection of the health, safety, and welfare of individuals receiving community supported living arrangements services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,685</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,378
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1396w-2(c)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 U.S.C. 300gg-22(b)(2)(C)(i) 45 CFR 150.315</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each day, for each individual affected by the failure of a health insurance issuer or non-Federal governmental group health plan to comply with federal market reform provisions in part A or D of title XXVII of the PHS Act|2022|174|177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,602
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">18041(c)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 156.805(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to comply with ACA requirements related to risk adjustment, reinsurance, risk corridors, Exchanges (including QHP standards) and other ACA Subtitle D standards; Penalty for violations of rules or standards of behavior associated with issuer compliance with risk adjustment, reinsurance, risk corridors, Exchanges (including QHP standards) and other ACA Subtitle D standards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">198
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">42 U.S.C. 300gg-22(b)(2)(C)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 150.315</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for each day, for each individual affected by the failure of a health insurance issuer or non-Federal governmental group health plan to comply with federal market reform provisions in part A or D of title XXVII of the PHS Act</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">183</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">188
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">18081(h)(1)(A)(i)(II)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 155.285</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for providing false information on Exchange application</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36,083
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">18081(h)(1)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 155.285</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly or willfully providing false information on Exchange application</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">351,681</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360,818
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">18081(h)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 155.260</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for knowingly or willfully disclosing protected information from Exchange</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35,169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36,083
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">368
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">18041(c)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 155.206(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CMS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalties for violation of applicable Exchange standards by consumer assistance entities in Federally-facilitated Exchanges</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43,128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44,248
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum (Per Day)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">31 U.S.C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 93.400(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HHS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">359</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">368
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for the first time an individual makes an expenditure prohibited by regulations regarding lobbying disclosure, absent aggravating circumstances</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,496</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for second and subsequent offenses by individuals who make an expenditure prohibited by regulations regarding lobbying disclosure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,496</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">244,958</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">251,322
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1352</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HHS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for the first time an individual fails to file or amend a lobbying disclosure form, absent aggravating circumstances</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,496</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for second and subsequent offenses by individuals who fail to file or amend a lobbying disclosure form, absent aggravating circumstances</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,496</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">244,958</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">251,322
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR Part 93, Appendix A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HHS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failure to provide certification regarding lobbying in the award documents for all sub-awards of all tiers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,496</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">244,958</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">251,322
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HHS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty for failure to provide statement regarding lobbying for loan guarantee and loan insurance transactions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24,496</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">244,958</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">251,322
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3801-3812</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 79.3(a)(1)(iv)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HHS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty against any individual who—with knowledge or reason to know—makes, presents or submits a false, fictitious or fraudulent claim to the Department</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,133
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 CFR 79.3(b)(1)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HHS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Penalty against any individual who—with knowledge or reason to know—makes, presents or submits a false, fictitious or fraudulent claim to the Department</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,133
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Some HHS components have not promulgated regulations regarding their civil monetary penalty-specific statutory authorities.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The description is not intended to be a comprehensive explanation of the underlying violation; the statute and corresponding regulation, if applicable, should be consulted.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Statutory or Inflation Act Adjustment.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> OMB Memorandum <E T="03">M-16-06,</E> Implementation of the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, published February 24, 2016, guided agencies on initial “catch-up” adjustment requirements, and <E T="03">M-17-11,</E> Implementation of the 2017 annual adjustment pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, published December 16, 2016; followed by <E T="03">M-18-03, M-19-04,</E> <E T="03">M-20-05, M-21-10,</E> <E T="03">M-22-07, M-23-05,</E> <E T="03">M-24-07, and M-25-02</E> guided agencies on annual adjustment requirements.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> <E T="03">OMB Circular A-136,</E> Financial Reporting Requirements, Section II.4.9, directs that agencies must make annual inflation adjustments to civil monetary penalties and report on the adjustments in the Agency Financial Report (AFR) or Performance and Accountability Report (PAR).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, § 701(b)(1)(A) (codified as amended at 28 U.S.C. 2461 note).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> Annual inflation adjustments are based on the percent change between each published October's CPI-U. In this case, October 2024 CPI-U (315.664) <E T="03">/</E> October 2023 CPI-U (307.671) = 1.02598.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 61565, Sept. 6, 2016, as amended at 87 FR 15101, Mar. 17, 2022; 88 FR 69532, Oct. 6, 2023; 88 FR 70373, Oct. 11, 2023; 88 FR 82787, Nov. 27, 2023; 89 FR 64816, Aug. 8, 2024; 91 FR 3666, Jan. 28, 2026]
</CITA>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Oct. 6, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="2" NODE="45:2" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 45—Public Welfare--Volume 2</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part 
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT>SUBTITLE A—<E T="04">Department of Health and Human Services</E> 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>144


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> SUBTITLE A—Department of Health and Human Services</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO HEALTH CARE ACCESS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="140-143" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 140-143 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="144" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 144—REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO HEALTH INSURANCE COVERAGE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 300gg through 300gg-63, 300gg-91, 300gg-92, and 300gg-111 through 300gg-139, as amended.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 16955, Apr. 8, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 144.101" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.101   Basis and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Part 146 of this subchapter implements requirements of Title XXVII of the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 300gg, <I>et seq.</I>) that apply to group health plans and group health insurance issuers.
</P>
<P>(b) Part 147 of this subchapter implements the provisions of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act that apply to both group health plans and health insurance issuers in the Group and Individual Markets.
</P>
<P>(c) Part 148 of this subchapter implements Individual Health Insurance Market requirements of the PHS Act. Its purpose is to improve access to individual health insurance coverage for certain individuals who previously had group coverage, guarantee the renewability of all health insurance coverage in the individual market, and provide certain protections for mothers and newborns with respect to coverage for hospital stays in connection with childbirth, and to provide certain protections for patients who elect breast reconstruction in connection with a mastectomy.
</P>
<P>(d) Part 149 of this subchapter implements the provisions of parts D and E of title XXVII of the PHS Act that apply to group health plans, health insurance issuers in the group and individual markets, health care providers and facilities, and providers of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(e) Part 150 of this subchapter implements the enforcement provisions of sections 2723 and 2761 of the PHS Act with respect to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) States that fail to substantially enforce one or more provisions of part 146 concerning group health insurance, one or more provisions of part 147 concerning group or individual health insurance, or the requirements of part 148 of this subchapter concerning individual health insurance.
</P>
<P>(2) Insurance issuers in States described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Group health plans that are non-Federal governmental plans.
</P>
<P>(f) Sections 2791 and 2792 of the PHS Act define terms used in the regulations in this subchapter and provide the basis for issuing these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 74 FR 51688, Oct. 7, 2009; 75 FR 27137, May 13, 2010; 78 FR 13435, Feb. 27, 2013; 86 FR 36970, July 13, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 144.102" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.102   Scope and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of 45 CFR parts 144 through 149, all health insurance coverage is generally divided into two markets—the group market and the individual market. The group market is further divided into the large group market and the small group market.
</P>
<P>(b) The protections afforded under 45 CFR parts 144 through 149 to individuals and employers (and other sponsors of health insurance offered in connection with a group health plan) are determined by whether the coverage involved is obtained in the small group market, the large group market, or the individual market.
</P>
<P>(c) Coverage that is provided to associations, but not related to employment, and sold to individuals is not considered group coverage under 45 CFR parts 144 through 149. If the coverage is offered to an association member other than in connection with a group health plan, the coverage is considered individual health insurance coverage for purposes of 45 CFR parts 144 through 149. The coverage is considered coverage in the individual market, regardless of whether it is considered group coverage under state law. If the health insurance coverage is offered in connection with a group health plan as defined at 45 CFR 144.103, it is considered group health insurance coverage for purposes of 45 CFR parts 144 through 149.
</P>
<P>(d) Provisions relating to CMS enforcement of parts 146, 147, 148, and 149 are contained in part 150 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 36970, July 13, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 144.103" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of parts 146 (group market), 147 (group and individual market), 148 (individual market), 149 (surprise billing and transparency), and 150 (enforcement) of this subchapter, the following definitions apply unless otherwise provided:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliation period</I> means a period of time that must expire before health insurance coverage provided by an HMO becomes effective, and during which the HMO is not required to provide benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Applicable State authority</I> means, with respect to a health insurance issuer in a State, the State insurance commissioner or official or officials designated by the State to enforce the requirements of 45 CFR parts 146 and 148 for the State involved with respect to the issuer.
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary</I> has the meaning given the term under section 3(8) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA), which states, “a person designated by a participant, or by the terms of an employee benefit plan, who is or may become entitled to a benefit” under the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Bona fide association</I> means, with respect to health insurance coverage offered in a State, an association that meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Has been actively in existence for at least 5 years.
</P>
<P>(2) Has been formed and maintained in good faith for purposes other than obtaining insurance.
</P>
<P>(3) Does not condition membership in the association on any health status-related factor relating to an individual (including an employee of an employer or a dependent of any employee).
</P>
<P>(4) Makes health insurance coverage offered through the association available to all members regardless of any health status-related factor relating to the members (or individuals eligible for coverage through a member).
</P>
<P>(5) Does not make health insurance coverage offered through the association available other than in connection with a member of the association.
</P>
<P>(6) Meets any additional requirements that may be imposed under State law.
</P>
<P><I>Church plan</I> means a Church plan within the meaning of section 3(33) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>COBRA</I> definitions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>COBRA</I> means Title <I>X</I> of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985, as amended.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>COBRA continuation coverage</I> means coverage, under a group health plan, that satisfies an applicable COBRA continuation provision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>COBRA continuation provision</I> means sections 601-608 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act, section 4980B of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (other than paragraph (f)(1) of such section 4980B insofar as it relates to pediatric vaccines), or Title XXII of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Continuation coverage</I> means coverage under a COBRA continuation provision or a similar State program. Coverage provided by a plan that is subject to a COBRA continuation provision or similar State program, but that does not satisfy all the requirements of that provision or program, will be deemed to be continuation coverage if it allows an individual to elect to continue coverage for a period of at least 18 months. Continuation coverage does not include coverage under a conversion policy required to be offered to an individual upon exhaustion of continuation coverage, nor does it include continuation coverage under the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exhaustion of COBRA continuation coverage</I> means that an individual's COBRA continuation coverage ceases for any reason other than either failure of the individual to pay premiums on a timely basis, or for cause (such as making a fraudulent claim or an intentional misrepresentation of a material fact in connection with the plan). An individual is considered to have exhausted COBRA continuation coverage if such coverage ceases—
</P>
<P>(i) Due to the failure of the employer or other responsible entity to remit premiums on a timely basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) When the individual no longer resides, lives, or works in the service area of an HMO or similar program (whether or not within the choice of the individual) and there is no other COBRA continuation coverage available to the individual; or
</P>
<P>(iii) When the individual incurs a claim that would meet or exceed a lifetime limit on all benefits and there is no other COBRA continuation coverage available to the individual.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exhaustion of continuation coverage</I> means that an individual's continuation coverage ceases for any reason other than either failure of the individual to pay premiums on a timely basis, or for cause (such as making a fraudulent claim or an intentional misrepresentation of a material fact in connection with the plan). An individual is considered to have exhausted continuation coverage if—
</P>
<P>(i) Coverage ceases due to the failure of the employer or other responsible entity to remit premiums on a timely basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) When the individual no longer resides, lives or works in a service area of an HMO or similar program (whether or not within the choice of the individual) and there is no other continuation coverage available to the individual; or
</P>
<P>(iii) When the individual incurs a claim that would meet or exceed a lifetime limit on all benefits and there is no other continuation coverage available to the individual.
</P>
<P><I>Condition</I> means a <I>medical condition.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Creditable coverage</I> has the meaning given the term in 45 CFR 146.113(a).
</P>
<P><I>Dependent</I> means any individual who is or may become eligible for coverage under the terms of a group health plan because of a relationship to a participant.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible individual,</I> for purposes of—
</P>
<P>(1) The group market provisions in 45 CFR part 146, subpart E, is defined in 45 CFR 146.150(b); and
</P>
<P>(2) The individual market provisions in 45 CFR part 148, is defined in 45 CFR 148.103.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> has the meaning given the term under section 3(6) of ERISA, which states, “any individual employed by an employer.”
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> has the meaning given the term under section 3(5) of ERISA, which states, “any person acting directly as an employer, or indirectly in the interest of an employer, in relation to an employee benefit plan; and includes a group or association of employers acting for an employer in such capacity.”
</P>
<P><I>Enroll</I> means to become covered for benefits under a group health plan (that is, when coverage becomes effective), without regard to when the individual may have completed or filed any forms that are required in order to become covered under the plan. For this purpose, an individual who has health coverage under a group health plan is enrolled in the plan regardless of whether the individual elects coverage, the individual is a dependent who becomes covered as a result of an election by a participant, or the individual becomes covered without an election.
</P>
<P><I>Enrollment date</I> means the first day of coverage or, if there is a waiting period, the first day of the waiting period. If an individual receiving benefits under a group health plan changes benefit packages, or if the plan changes group health insurance issuers, the individual's enrollment date does not change.
</P>
<P><I>ERISA</I> stands for the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Excepted benefits,</I> consistent for purposes of the—
</P>
<P>(1) Group market provisions in 45 CFR part 146, subpart D, is defined in 45 CFR 146.145(b); and
</P>
<P>(2) Individual market provisions in 45 CFR part 148, is defined in 45 CFR 148.220.
</P>
<P><I>Federal governmental plan</I> means a governmental plan established or maintained for its employees by the Government of the United States or by any agency or instrumentality of such Government.
</P>
<P><I>First day of coverage</I> means, in the case of an individual covered for benefits under a group health plan, the first day of coverage under the plan and, in the case of an individual covered by health insurance coverage in the individual market, the first day of coverage under the policy or contract.
</P>
<P><I>Genetic information</I> has the meaning specified in § 146.122(a) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Governmental plan</I> means a governmental plan within the meaning of section 3(32) of ERISA.
</P>
<P><I>Group health insurance coverage</I> means health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan. Individual health insurance coverage reimbursed by the arrangements described in 29 CFR 2510.3-1(l) is not offered in connection with a group health plan, and is not group health insurance coverage, provided all the conditions in 29 CFR 2510.3-1(l) are satisfied.
</P>
<P><I>Group health plan</I> or <I>plan</I> means a group health plan within the meaning of 45 CFR 146.145(a).
</P>
<P><I>Group market</I> means the market for health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance coverage</I> means benefits consisting of medical care (provided directly, through insurance or reimbursement, or otherwise) under any hospital or medical service policy or certificate, hospital or medical service plan contract, or HMO contract offered by a health insurance issuer. Health insurance coverage includes group health insurance coverage, individual health insurance coverage, and short-term, limited-duration insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance issuer</I> or <I>issuer</I> means an insurance company, insurance service, or insurance organization (including an HMO) that is required to be licensed to engage in the business of insurance in a State and that is subject to State law that regulates insurance (within the meaning of section 514(b)(2) of ERISA). This term does not include a group health plan.
</P>
<P><I>Health maintenance organization</I> or <I>HMO</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) A Federally qualified health maintenance organization (as defined in section 1301(a) of the PHS Act);
</P>
<P>(2) An organization recognized under State law as a health maintenance organization; or
</P>
<P>(3) A similar organization regulated under State law for solvency in the same manner and to the same extent as such a health maintenance organization.
</P>
<P><I>Health status-related factor</I> is any factor identified as a health factor in 45 CFR 146.121(a).
</P>
<P><I>Individual health insurance coverage</I> means health insurance coverage offered to individuals in the individual market, but does not include short-term, limited-duration insurance. Individual health insurance coverage can include dependent coverage.
</P>
<P><I>Individual market</I> means the market for health insurance coverage offered to individuals other than in connection with a group health plan, or other than coverage offered pursuant to a contract between the health insurance issuer with the Medicaid, Children's Health Insurance Program, or Basic Health programs.
</P>
<P><I>Internal Revenue Code</I> means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (Title 26, United States Code).
</P>
<P><I>Issuer</I> means a <I>health insurance issuer.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Large employer</I> means, in connection with a group health plan with respect to a calendar year and a plan year, an employer who employed an average of at least 51 employees on business days during the preceding calendar year and who employs at least 1 employee on the first day of the plan year. A State may elect to define large employer by substituting “101 employees” for “51 employees.” In the case of an employer that was not in existence throughout the preceding calendar year, the determination of whether the employer is a large employer is based on the average number of employees that it is reasonably expected the employer will employ on business days in the current calendar year.
</P>
<P><I>Large group market</I> means the health insurance market under which individuals obtain health insurance coverage (directly or through any arrangement) on behalf of themselves (and their dependents) through a group health plan maintained by a large employer.
</P>
<P><I>Late enrollee</I> means an individual whose enrollment in a plan is a late enrollment.
</P>
<P><I>Late enrollment</I> means enrollment of an individual under a group health plan other than on the earliest date on which coverage can become effective for the individual under the terms of the plan; or through special enrollment. (For rules relating to special enrollment and limited open enrollment, see §§ 146.117 and 147.104 of this subchapter.) If an individual ceases to be eligible for coverage under a plan, and then subsequently becomes eligible for coverage under the plan, only the individual's most recent period of eligibility is taken into account in determining whether the individual is a late enrollee under the plan with respect to the most recent period of coverage. Similar rules apply if an individual again becomes eligible for coverage following a suspension of coverage that applied generally under the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Medical care</I> means amounts paid for—
</P>
<P>(1) The diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or amounts paid for the purpose of affecting any structure or function of the body;
</P>
<P>(2) Transportation primarily for and essential to medical care referred to in paragraph (1) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(3) Insurance covering medical care referred to in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Medical condition</I> or <I>condition</I> means any condition, whether physical or mental, including, but not limited to, any condition resulting from illness, injury (whether or not the injury is accidental), pregnancy, or congenital malformation. However, genetic information is not a condition.
</P>
<P><I>Network plan</I> means health insurance coverage of a health insurance issuer under which the financing and delivery of medical care (including items and services paid for as medical care) are provided, in whole or in part, through a defined set of providers under contract with the issuer.
</P>
<P><I>Non-Federal governmental plan</I> means a governmental plan that is not a Federal governmental plan.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> has the meaning given the term under section 3(7) of ERISA, which States, “any employee or former employee of an employer, or any member or former member of an employee organization, who is or may become eligible to receive a benefit of any type from an employee benefit plan which covers employees of such employer or members of such organization, or whose beneficiaries may be eligible to receive any such benefit.”
</P>
<P><I>PHS Act</I> stands for the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 201 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Placement, or being placed, for adoption</I> means the assumption and retention of a legal obligation for total or partial support of a child by a person with whom the child has been placed in anticipation of the child's adoption. The child's placement for adoption with such person ends upon the termination of such legal obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Plan</I> means, with respect to a product, the pairing of the health insurance coverage benefits under the product with a particular cost-sharing structure, provider network, and service area. The product comprises all plans offered with those characteristics and the combination of the service areas for all plans offered within a product constitutes the total service area of the product. With respect to a plan that has been modified at the time of coverage renewal consistent with § 147.106 of this subchapter—
</P>
<P>(1) The plan will be considered to be the same plan if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Has the same cost-sharing structure as before the modification, or any variation in cost sharing is solely related to changes in cost or utilization of medical care, or is to maintain the same metal tier level described in sections 1302(d) and (e) of the Affordable Care Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Continues to cover a majority of the same service area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Continues to cover a majority of the same provider network. For this purpose, the plan's provider network on the first day of the plan year is compared with the plan's provider network on the first day of the preceding plan year (as applicable).
</P>
<P>(2) The plan will not fail to be treated as the same plan to the extent the modification(s) are made uniformly and solely pursuant to applicable Federal and State requirements if—
</P>
<P>(i) The modification is made within a reasonable time period after the imposition or modification of the Federal or State requirement;
</P>
<P>(ii) The modification is directly related to the imposition or modification of the Federal or State requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) A State may permit greater changes to the cost-sharing structure, or designate a lower threshold for maintenance of the same provider network or service area for a plan to still be considered the same plan.
</P>
<P><I>Plan sponsor</I> has the meaning given the term under section 3(16)(B) of ERISA, which states, “(i) the employer in the case of an employee benefit plan established or maintained by a single employer, (ii) the employee organization in the case of a plan established or maintained by an employee organization, or (iii) in the case of a plan established or maintained by two or more employers or jointly by one or more employers and one or more employee organizations, the association, committee, joint board of trustees, or other similar group of representatives of the parties who establish or maintain the plan.”
</P>
<P><I>Plan year</I> means the year that is designated as the plan year in the plan document of a group health plan, except that if the plan document does not designate a plan year or if there is no plan document, the plan year is—
</P>
<P>(1) The deductible or limit year used under the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) If the plan does not impose deductibles or limits on a yearly basis, then the plan year is the policy year;
</P>
<P>(3) If the plan does not impose deductibles or limits on a yearly basis, and either the plan is not insured or the insurance policy is not renewed on an annual basis, then the plan year is the employer's taxable year; or
</P>
<P>(4) In any other case, the plan year is the calendar year.
</P>
<P><I>Policy year</I> means, with respect to—
</P>
<P>(1) A grandfathered health plan offered in the individual health insurance market and student health insurance coverage, the 12-month period that is designated as the policy year in the policy documents of the health insurance coverage. If there is no designation of a policy year in the policy document (or no such policy document is available), then the policy year is the deductible or limit year used under the coverage. If deductibles or other limits are not imposed on a yearly basis, the policy year is the calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) A non-grandfathered health plan offered in the individual health insurance market, or in a market in which the State has merged the individual and small group risk pools, for coverage issued or renewed beginning January 1, 2014, a calendar year for which health insurance coverage provides coverage for health benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Preexisting condition exclusion</I> means a limitation or exclusion of benefits (including a denial of coverage) based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage (or if coverage is denied, the date of the denial) under a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage (or other coverage provided to Federally eligible individuals pursuant to 45 CFR part 148), whether or not any medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment was recommended or received before that day. A preexisting condition exclusion includes any limitation or exclusion of benefits (including a denial of coverage) applicable to an individual as a result of information relating to an individual's health status before the individual's effective date of coverage (or if coverage is denied, the date of the denial) under a group health plan, or group or individual health insurance coverage (or other coverage provided to Federally eligible individuals pursuant to 45 CFR part 148), such as a condition identified as a result of a pre-enrollment questionnaire or physical examination given to the individual, or review of medical records relating to the pre-enrollment period.
</P>
<P><I>Product</I> means a discrete package of health insurance coverage benefits that are offered using a particular product network type (such as health maintenance organization, preferred provider organization, exclusive provider organization, point of service, or indemnity) within a service area. In the case of a product that has been modified, transferred, or replaced, the resulting new product will be considered to be the same as the modified, transferred, or replaced product if the changes to the modified, transferred, or replaced product meet the standards of § 146.152(f), § 147.106(e), or § 148.122(g) of this subchapter (relating to uniform modification of coverage), as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Public health plan</I> has the meaning given the term in 45 CFR 146.113(a)(1)(ix).
</P>
<P><I>Short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> means health insurance coverage provided pursuant to a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance with an issuer that meets the conditions of paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> means health insurance coverage provided pursuant to a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance with an issuer that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has an expiration date specified in the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance that is no more than 3 months after the original effective date of the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, and taking into account any renewals or extensions, has a duration no longer than 4 months in total. For purposes of this paragraph (1)(i), a renewal or extension includes the term of a new short-term, limited-duration insurance policy, certificate, or contract of insurance issued by the same issuer, or if the issuer is a member of a controlled group, any other issuer that is a member of such controlled group, to the same policyholder within the 12-month period beginning on the original effective date of the initial policy, certificate, or contract of insurance; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Displays prominently on the first page (in either paper or electronic form, including on a website) of the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, and in any marketing, application, and enrollment materials (including reenrollment materials) provided to individuals at or before the time an individual has the opportunity to enroll (or reenroll) in the coverage, in at least 14-point font, the language in the following notice:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03ap24.064.gif"/>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (1)(i) of this definition, the term “controlled group” means any group treated as a single employer under section 52(a), 52(b), 414(m), or 414(o) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
</P>
<P>(3) If any provision of this definition is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any entity or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, along with other provisions not found invalid or unenforceable, including as applied to entities not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances, unless such holding is that the provision is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which event the provision shall be severable from the remainder of the definition and shall not affect the remainder thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Significant break in coverage</I> has the meaning given the term in 45 CFR 146.113(b)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>Small employer</I> means, in connection with a group health plan with respect to a calendar year and a plan year, an employer who employed an average of at least 1 but not more than 50 employees on business days during the preceding calendar year and who employs at least 1 employee on the first day of the plan year. A State may elect to define small employer by substituting “100 employees” for “50 employees.” In the case of an employer that was not in existence throughout the preceding calendar year, the determination of whether the employer is a small employer is based on the average number of employees that it is reasonably expected the employer will employ on business days in the current calendar year.
</P>
<P><I>Small group market</I> means the health insurance market under which individuals obtain health insurance coverage (directly or through any arrangement) on behalf of themselves (and their dependents) through a group health plan maintained by a small employer.
</P>
<P><I>Special enrollment</I> means enrollment in a group health plan or group health insurance coverage under the rights described in 45 CFR 146.117.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means each of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands; except that for purposes of part 147, the term does not include Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>State health benefits risk pool</I> has the meaning given the term in 45 CFR § 146.113(a)(1)(vii).
</P>
<P><I>Student health insurance coverage</I> has the meaning given the term in § 147.145.
</P>
<P><I>Travel insurance</I> means insurance coverage for personal risks incident to planned travel, which may include, but is not limited to, interruption or cancellation of trip or event, loss of baggage or personal effects, damages to accommodations or rental vehicles, and sickness, accident, disability, or death occurring during travel, provided that the health benefits are not offered on a stand-alone basis and are incidental to other coverage. For this purpose, the term travel insurance does not include major medical plans that provide comprehensive medical protection for travelers with trips lasting 6 months or longer, including, for example, those working overseas as an expatriate or military personnel being deployed.
</P>
<P><I>Waiting period</I> has the meaning given the term in 45 CFR 147.116(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78781, Dec. 30, 2004]


</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 144.103, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Qualified State Long-Term Care Insurance Partnerships: Reporting Requirements for Insurers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 76968, Dec. 18, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 144.200" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.200   Basis.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements—
</P>
<P>(a) Section 1917(b)(1)(C) (iii)(VI) of the Social Security Act, (Act) which requires the issuer of a long-term care insurance policy issued under a qualified State long-term care insurance partnership to provide specified regular reports to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 1917(b)(1)(C)(v) of the Act, which specifies that the regulations of the Secretary under section 1917(b)(1)(C)(iii)(VI) of the Act shall be promulgated after consultation with the National Association of Insurance Commissioners, issuers of long-term care insurance policies, States with experience with long-term care insurance partnership plans, other States, and representatives of consumers of long-term care insurance policies, and shall specify the type and format of the data to be reported and the frequency with which such reports are to be made. This section of the statute also provides that the Secretary provide copies of the reports to the States involved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 144.202" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Partnership qualified policy</I> refers to a qualified long-term care insurance policy issued under a qualified State long-term care insurance partnership.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified long-term care insurance policy</I> means an insurance policy that has been determined by a State insurance commissioner to meet the requirements of sections 1917(b)(1)(C)(iii)(I) through (IV) and 1917(b)(5) of the Act. It includes a certificate issued under a group insurance contract.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified State long-term care insurance partnership</I> means an approved Medicaid State plan amendment that provides for the disregard of any assets or resources in an amount equal to the insurance benefit payments that are made to or on behalf of an individual who is a beneficiary under a long-term care insurance policy that has been determined by a State insurance commissioner to meet the requirements of section 1917(b)(1)(C)(iii) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 144.204" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.204   Applicability of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations contained in this subpart for reporting data apply only to those insurers that have issued qualified long-term care insurance policies to individuals under a qualified State long-term care insurance partnership. They do not apply to the reporting of data by insurers for States with a Medicaid State plan amendment that established a long-term care partnership on or before May 14, 1993.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 144.206" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.206   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Any insurer that sells a qualified long-term care insurance policy under a qualified State long-term care insurance partnership must submit, in accordance with the requirements of this section, data on insured individuals, policyholders, and claimants who have active partnership qualified policies or certificates for a reporting period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements.</I> Insurers of qualified long-term care insurance policies must submit the following data to the Secretary by the deadlines specified in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Registry of active individual and group partnership qualified policies or certificates.</I> (i) Insurers must submit data on—
</P>
<P>(A) Any insured individual who held an active partnership qualified policy or certificate at any point during a reporting period, even if the policy or certificate was subsequently cancelled, lost partnership qualified status, or otherwise terminated during the reporting period; and
</P>
<P>(B) All active group long-term care partnership qualified insurance policies, even if the identity of the individual policy/certificate holder is unavailable.
</P>
<P>(ii) The data required under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section must cover a 6-month reporting period of January through June 30 or July 1 through December 31 of each year; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The data must include, but are not limited to—
</P>
<P>(A) Current identifying information on the insured individual;
</P>
<P>(B) The name of the insurance company and issuing State;
</P>
<P>(C) The effective date and terms of coverage under the policy.
</P>
<P>(D) The annual premium.
</P>
<P>(E) The coverage period.
</P>
<P>(F) Other information, as specified by the Secretary in “State Long-Term Care Partnership Insurer Reporting Requirements.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Claims paid under partnership qualified policies or certificates.</I> Insurers must submit data on all partnership qualified policies or certificates for which the insurer paid at least one claim during the reporting period. This includes data for employer-paid core plans and buy-up plans without individual insured data. The data must—
</P>
<P>(i) Cover a quarterly reporting period of 3 months;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include, but are not limited to—
</P>
<P>(A) Current identifying information on the insured individual;
</P>
<P>(B) The type and cash amount of the benefits paid during the reporting period and lifetime to date;
</P>
<P>(C) Remaining lifetime benefits;
</P>
<P>(D) Other information, as specified by the Secretary in “State Long-Term Care Partnership Insurer Reporting Requirements.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 144.208" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.208   Deadlines for submission of reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Transition provision for insurers who have issued or exchanged a qualified partnership policy prior to the effective date of these regulations.
</P>
<P>The first reports required for these insurers will be the reports that pertain to the reporting period that begins no more than 120 days after the effective date of the final regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) All reports on the registry of qualified long-term care insurance policies issued to individuals or individuals under group coverage specified in § 144.206(b)(1)(ii) must be submitted within 30 days of the end of the 6-month reporting period.
</P>
<P>(c) All reports on the claims paid under qualified long-term care insurance policies issued to individual and individuals under group coverage specified in § 144.206(b)(2)(i) must be submitted within 30 days of the end of the 3-month quarterly reporting period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 144.210" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.210   Form and manner of reports.</HEAD>
<P>All reports specified in § 144.206 must be submitted in the form and manner specified by the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 144.212" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.212   Confidentiality of information.</HEAD>
<P>Data collected and reported under the requirements of this subpart are subject to the confidentiality of information requirements specified in regulations under 42 CFR part 401, subpart B, and 45 CFR part 5, subpart F.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 144.214" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.2.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.214   Notifications of noncompliance with reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>If an insurer of a qualified long-term care insurance policy does not submit the required reports by the due dates specified in this subpart, the Secretary notifies the appropriate State insurance commissioner within 45 days after the deadline for submission of the information and data specified in § 144.208.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="145" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 145 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="146" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 146—REQUIREMENTS FOR THE GROUP HEALTH INSURANCE MARKET
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED> Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 300gg-1 through 300gg-5, 300gg-11 through 300gg-23, 300gg-91, and 300gg-92.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 16958, Apr. 8, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.101" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.101   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory basis.</I> This part implements the Group Market requirements of the PHS Act. Its purpose is to improve access to group health insurance coverage, to guarantee the renewability of all coverage in the group market, and to provide certain protections for mothers and newborns with respect to coverage for hospital stays in connection with childbirth. Sections 2791 and 2792 of the PHS Act define terms used in the regulations in this subchapter and provide the basis for issuing these regulations, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage may provide greater rights to participants and beneficiaries than those set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Subpart B.</I> Subpart B of this part sets forth minimum requirements for group health plans and group health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage concerning certain consumer protections of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), as amended, including special enrollment periods, prohibiting discrimination against participants and beneficiaries based on a health factor, and additional requirements prohibiting discrimination against participants and beneficiaries based on genetic information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subpart C.</I> Subpart C of this part sets forth the requirements that apply to plans and issuers with respect to coverage for hospital stays in connection with childbirth. It also sets forth the regulations governing parity between medical/surgical benefits and mental health benefits in group health plans and health insurance coverage offered by issuers in connection with a group health plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subpart D.</I> Subpart D of this part sets forth exceptions to the requirements of subpart B for certain plans and certain types of benefits.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Subpart E.</I> Subpart E of this part implements requirements relating to group health plans and issuers in the Group Health Insurance Market.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Subpart F.</I> Subpart F of this part addresses the treatment of non-Federal governmental plans, and sets forth enforcement procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 16958, Apr. 8, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 57559, Oct. 27, 1998; 71 FR 75046, Dec. 13, 2006; 74 FR 51688, Oct. 7, 2009, as amended at 75 FR 27138, May 13, 2010; 79 FR 10313, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements Relating to Access and Renewability of Coverage, and Limitations on Preexisting Condition Exclusion Periods</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.111" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.111   Preexisting condition exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preexisting condition exclusion defined</I>—(1) A <I>preexisting condition exclusion</I> means a <I>preexisting condition exclusion</I> within the meaning of § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(1) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1</HED><PSPACE>(i)—<I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits solely through an insurance policy offered by Issuer <I>S.</I> At the expiration of the policy, the plan switches coverage to a policy offered by Issuer <I>T.</I> Issuer <I>T</I>'s policy excludes benefits for any prosthesis if the body part was lost before the effective date of coverage under the policy.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the exclusion of benefits for any prosthesis if the body part was lost before the effective date of coverage is a preexisting condition exclusion because it operates to exclude benefits for a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage under the policy. The exclusion of benefits, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for cosmetic surgery in cases of accidental injury, but only if the injury occurred while the individual was covered under the plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan provision excluding cosmetic surgery benefits for individuals injured before enrolling in the plan is a preexisting condition exclusion because it operates to exclude benefits relating to a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for the treatment of diabetes, generally not subject to any requirement to obtain an approval for a treatment plan. However, if an individual was diagnosed with diabetes before the effective date of coverage under the plan, diabetes coverage is subject to a requirement to obtain approval of a treatment plan in advance.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the requirement to obtain advance approval of a treatment plan is a preexisting condition exclusion because it limits benefits for a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for three infertility treatments. The plan counts against the three-treatment limit benefits provided under prior health coverage.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> counting benefits for a specific condition provided under prior health coverage against a treatment limit for that condition is a preexisting condition exclusion because it operates to limit benefits for a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> When an individual's coverage begins under a group health plan, the individual generally becomes eligible for all benefits. However, benefits for pregnancy are not available until the individual has been covered under the plan for 12 months.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the requirement to be covered under the plan for 12 months to be eligible for pregnancy benefits is a subterfuge for a preexisting condition exclusion because it is designed to exclude benefits for a condition (pregnancy) that arose before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for medically necessary items and services, generally including treatment of heart conditions. However, the plan does not cover those same items and services when used for treatment of congenital heart conditions.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> the exclusion of coverage for treatment of congenital heart conditions is a preexisting condition exclusion because it operates to exclude benefits relating to a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7</HED><PSPACE>(i)—<I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides coverage for medically necessary items and services. However, the plan excludes coverage for the treatment of cleft palate.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> the exclusion of coverage for treatment of cleft palate is not a preexisting condition exclusion because the exclusion applies regardless of when the condition arose relative to the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is not prohibited. (But see 45 CFR 147.150, which may require coverage of cleft palate as an essential health benefit for health insurance coverage in the individual or small group market, depending on the essential health benefits benchmark plan as defined in § 156.20 of this subchapter).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for treatment of cleft palate, but only if the individual being treated has been continuously covered under the plan from the date of birth.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8,</I> the exclusion of coverage for treatment of cleft palate for individuals who have not been covered under the plan from the date of birth operates to exclude benefits in relation to a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage. The plan provision, therefore, is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>General rules. See</I> § 147.108 of this subchapter for rules prohibiting the imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78783, Dec. 30, 2004, as amended at 75 FR 37235, June 28, 2010; 79 FR 10313, Feb. 24, 2014; 80 FR 72274, Nov. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.113" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.113   Rules relating to creditable coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules</I>—(1) <I>Creditable coverage.</I> For purposes of this section, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the term <I>creditable coverage</I> means coverage of an individual under any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A group health plan as defined in § 146.145(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) Health insurance coverage as defined in § 144.103 of this chapter (whether or not the entity offering the coverage is subject to the requirements of this part and 45 CFR part 148 and without regard to whether the coverage is offered in the group market, the individual market, or otherwise).
</P>
<P>(iii) Part A or B of Title XVIII of the Social Security Act (Medicare).
</P>
<P>(iv) Title XIX of the Social Security Act (Medicaid), other than coverage consisting solely of benefits under section 1928 of the Social Security Act (the program for distribution of pediatric vaccines).
</P>
<P>(v) Title 10 U.S.C. Chapter 55 (medical and dental care for members and certain former members of the uniformed services, and for their dependents; for purposes of Title 10 U.S.C. Chapter 55, <I>uniformed services</I> means the armed forces and the Commissioned Corps of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration and of the Public Health Service).
</P>
<P>(vi) A medical care program of the Indian Health Service or of a tribal organization.
</P>
<P>(vii) A State health benefits risk pool. For purposes of this section, a <I>State health benefits risk pool</I> means—
</P>
<P>(A) An organization qualifying under section 501(c)(26) of the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(B) A qualified high risk pool described in section 2744(c)(2) of the PHS Act; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any other arrangement sponsored by a State, the membership composition of which is specified by the State and which is established and maintained primarily to provide health coverage for individuals who are residents of such State and who, by reason of the existence or history of a medical condition—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Are unable to acquire medical care coverage for such condition through insurance or from an HMO, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Are able to acquire such coverage only at a rate which is substantially in excess of the rate for such coverage through the membership organization.
</P>
<P>(viii) A health plan offered under Title 5 U.S.C. Chapter 89 (the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program).
</P>
<P>(ix) A public health plan. For purposes of this section, a <I>public health plan</I> means any plan established or maintained by a State, the U.S. government, a foreign country, or any political subdivision of a State, the U.S. government, or a foreign country that provides health coverage to individuals who are enrolled in the plan.
</P>
<P>(x) A health benefit plan under section 5(e) of the Peace Corps Act (22 U.S.C. 2504(e)).
</P>
<P>(xi) Title XXI of the Social Security Act (State Children's Health Insurance Program).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excluded coverage.</I> Creditable coverage does not include coverage of solely excepted benefits (described in § 146.145).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Counting creditable coverage rules superseded by prohibition on preexisting condition exclusion. See</I> § 147.108 of this subchapter for rules prohibiting the imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78788, Dec. 30, 2004, as amended at 79 FR 10314, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.115" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.115   Certification and disclosure of previous coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The rules for providing certificates of creditable coverage and demonstrating creditable coverage have been superseded by the prohibition on preexisting condition exclusions. <I>See</I> § 147.108 of this subchapter for rules prohibiting the imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this section apply beginning December 31, 2014.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10314, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.117" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.117   Special enrollment periods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Special enrollment for certain individuals who lose coverage</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, is required to permit current employees and dependents (as defined in § 144.103 of this chapter) who are described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section to enroll for coverage under the terms of the plan if the conditions in paragraph (a)(3) of this section are satisfied. The special enrollment rights under this paragraph (a) apply without regard to the dates on which an individual would otherwise be able to enroll under the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Individuals eligible for special enrollment</I>—(i) <I>When employee loses coverage.</I> A current employee and any dependents (including the employee's spouse) each are eligible for special enrollment in any benefit package under the plan (subject to plan eligibility rules conditioning dependent enrollment on enrollment of the employee) if—
</P>
<P>(A) The employee and the dependents are otherwise eligible to enroll in the benefit package;
</P>
<P>(B) When coverage under the plan was previously offered, the employee had coverage under any group health plan or health insurance coverage; and
</P>
<P>(C) The employee satisfies the conditions of paragraph (a)(3)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section and, if applicable, paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>When dependent loses coverage.</I> (A) A dependent of a current employee (including the employee's spouse) and the employee each are eligible for special enrollment in any benefit package under the plan (subject to plan eligibility rules conditioning dependent enrollment on enrollment of the employee) if—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The dependent and the employee are otherwise eligible to enroll in the benefit package;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When coverage under the plan was previously offered, the dependent had coverage under any group health plan or health insurance coverage; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The dependent satisfies the conditions of paragraph (a)(3)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section and, if applicable, paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) However, the plan or issuer is not required to enroll any other dependent unless that dependent satisfies the criteria of this paragraph (a)(2)(ii), or the employee satisfies the criteria of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> works for Employer <I>X. A, A</I>'s spouse, and <I>A</I>'s dependent children are eligible but not enrolled for coverage under <I>X</I>'s group health plan. <I>A</I>'s spouse works for Employer <I>Y</I> and at the time coverage was offered under <I>X</I>'s plan, <I>A</I> was enrolled in coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan. Then, <I>A</I> loses eligibility for coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> because <I>A</I> satisfies the conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, <I>A, A</I>'s spouse, and <I>A</I>'s dependent children are eligible for special enrollment under <I>X</I>'s plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse are eligible but not enrolled for coverage under Group Health Plan <I>P</I> maintained by <I>A</I>'s employer. When <I>A</I> was first presented with an opportunity to enroll <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse, they did not have other coverage. Later, <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse enroll in Group Health Plan <I>Q</I> maintained by the employer of <I>A</I>'s spouse. During a subsequent open enrollment period in <I>P, A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse did not enroll because of their coverage under <I>Q.</I> They then lose eligibility for coverage under <I>Q.</I>
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> because <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse were covered under <I>Q</I> when they did not enroll in <I>P</I> during open enrollment, they satisfy the conditions for special enrollment under paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section. Consequently, <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse are eligible for special enrollment under <I>P.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>B</I> works for Employer <I>X. B</I> and <I>B</I>'s spouse are eligible but not enrolled for coverage under <I>X</I>'s group health plan. <I>B</I>'s spouse works for Employer <I>Y</I> and at the time coverage was offered under <I>X</I>'s plan, <I>B</I>'s spouse was enrolled in self-only coverage under <I>Y</I>'s group health plan. Then, <I>B</I>'s spouse loses eligibility for coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> because <I>B</I>'s spouse satisfies the conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, both <I>B</I> and <I>B</I>'s spouse are eligible for special enrollment under <I>X</I>'s plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> works for Employer <I>X. X</I> maintains a group health plan with two benefit packages—an HMO option and an indemnity option. Self-only and family coverage are available under both options. <I>A</I> enrolls for self-only coverage in the HMO option. <I>A</I>'s spouse works for Employer <I>Y</I> and was enrolled for self-only coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan at the time coverage was offered under <I>X</I>'s plan. Then, <I>A</I>'s spouse loses coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan. <I>A</I> requests special enrollment for <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse under the plan's indemnity option.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> because <I>A</I>'s spouse satisfies the conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, both <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse can enroll in either benefit package under <I>X</I>'s plan. Therefore, if <I>A</I> requests enrollment in accordance with the requirements of this section, the plan must allow <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s spouse to enroll in the indemnity option.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions for special enrollment</I>—(i) <I>Loss of eligibility for coverage.</I> In the case of an employee or dependent who has coverage that is not COBRA continuation coverage, the conditions of this paragraph (a)(3)(i) are satisfied at the time the coverage is terminated as a result of loss of eligibility (regardless of whether the individual is eligible for or elects COBRA continuation coverage). Loss of eligibility under this paragraph (a)(3)(i) does not include a loss due to the failure of the employee or dependent to pay premiums on a timely basis or termination of coverage for cause (such as making a fraudulent claim or an intentional misrepresentation of a material fact in connection with the plan). Loss of eligibility for coverage under this paragraph (a)(3)(i) includes (but is not limited to)—
</P>
<P>(A) Loss of eligibility for coverage as a result of legal separation, divorce, cessation of dependent status (such as attaining the maximum age to be eligible as a dependent child under the plan), death of an employee, termination of employment, reduction in the number of hours of employment, and any loss of eligibility for coverage after a period that is measured by reference to any of the foregoing;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of coverage offered through an HMO, or other arrangement, in the individual market that does not provide benefits to individuals who no longer reside, live, or work in a service area, loss of coverage because an individual no longer resides, lives, or works in the service area (whether or not within the choice of the individual);
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of coverage offered through an HMO, or other arrangement, in the group market that does not provide benefits to individuals who no longer reside, live, or work in a service area, loss of coverage because an individual no longer resides, lives, or works in the service area (whether or not within the choice of the individual), and no other benefit package is available to the individual; and
</P>
<P>(D) A situation in which a plan no longer offers any benefits to the class of similarly situated individuals (as described in § 146.121(d)) that includes the individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Termination of employer contributions.</I> In the case of an employee or dependent who has coverage that is not COBRA continuation coverage, the conditions of this paragraph (a)(3)(ii) are satisfied at the time employer contributions towards the employee's or dependent's coverage terminate. Employer contributions include contributions by any current or former employer that was contributing to coverage for the employee or dependent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exhaustion of COBRA continuation coverage.</I> In the case of an employee or dependent who has coverage that is COBRA continuation coverage, the conditions of this paragraph (a)(3)(iii) are satisfied at the time the COBRA continuation coverage is exhausted. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3)(iii), an individual who satisfies the conditions for special enrollment of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, does not enroll, and instead elects and exhausts COBRA continuation coverage satisfies the conditions of this paragraph (a)(3)(iii). (<I>Exhaustion of COBRA continuation coverage</I> is defined in § 144.103 of this chapter.)
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Written statement.</I> A plan may require an employee declining coverage (for the employee or any dependent of the employee) to state in writing whether the coverage is being declined due to other health coverage only if, at or before the time the employee declines coverage, the employee is provided with notice of the requirement to provide the statement (and the consequences of the employee's failure to provide the statement). If a plan requires such a statement, and an employee does not provide it, the plan is not required to provide special enrollment to the employee or any dependent of the employee under this paragraph (a)(3). A plan must treat an employee as having satisfied the plan requirement permitted under this paragraph (a)(3)(iv) if the employee provides a written statement that coverage was being declined because the employee or dependent had other coverage; a plan cannot require anything more for the employee to satisfy the plan's requirement to provide a written statement. (For example, the plan cannot require that the statement be notarized.)
</P>
<P>(v) The rules of this paragraph (a)(3) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>D</I> enrolls in a group health plan maintained by Employer <I>Y.</I> At the time <I>D</I> enrolls, <I>Y</I> pays 70 percent of the cost of employee coverage and <I>D</I> pays the rest. <I>Y</I> announces that beginning January 1, <I>Y</I> will no longer make employer contributions towards the coverage. Employees may maintain coverage, however, if they pay the total cost of the coverage.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, employer contributions towards <I>D</I>'s coverage ceased on January 1 and the conditions of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section are satisfied on this date (regardless of whether <I>D</I> elects to pay the total cost and continue coverage under <I>Y</I>'s plan).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage through two options—Option 1 and Option 2. Employees can enroll in either option only within 30 days of hire or on January 1 of each year. Employee <I>A</I> is eligible for both options and enrolls in Option 1. Effective July 1 the plan terminates coverage under Option 1 and the plan does not create an immediate open enrollment opportunity into Option 2.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, A has experienced a loss of eligibility for coverage that satisfies paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, and has satisfied the other conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. Therefore, if <I>A</I> satisfies the other conditions of this paragraph (a), the plan must permit <I>A</I> to enroll in Option 2 as a special enrollee. (<I>A</I> may also be eligible to enroll in another group health plan, such as a plan maintained by the employer of <I>A</I>'s spouse, as a special enrollee.) The outcome would be the same if Option 1 was terminated by an issuer and the plan made no other coverage available to <I>A.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>C</I> is covered under a group health plan maintained by Employer <I>X.</I> While covered under <I>X</I>'s plan, <I>C</I> was eligible for but did not enroll in a plan maintained by Employer Z, the employer of <I>C</I>'s spouse. <I>C</I> terminates employment with <I>X</I> and loses eligibility for coverage under <I>X</I>'s plan. <I>C</I> has a special enrollment right to enroll in <I>Z</I>'s plan, but <I>C</I> instead elects COBRA continuation coverage under <I>X</I>'s plan. <I>C</I> exhausts COBRA continuation coverage under <I>X</I>'s plan and requests special enrollment in <I>Z</I>'s plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, <I>C</I> has satisfied the conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, and has satisfied the other conditions for special enrollment under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. The special enrollment right that <I>C</I> had into <I>Z</I>'s plan immediately after the loss of eligibility for coverage under <I>X</I>'s plan was an offer of coverage under <I>Z</I>'s plan. When <I>C</I> later exhausts COBRA coverage under <I>X</I>'s plan, <I>C</I> has a second special enrollment right in <I>Z</I>'s plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Applying for special enrollment and effective date of coverage</I>. (i) A plan or issuer must allow an employee a period of at least 30 days after an event described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section to request enrollment (for the employee or the employee's dependent).
</P>
<P>(ii) Coverage must begin no later than the first day of the first calendar month beginning after the date the plan or issuer receives the request for special enrollment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special enrollment with respect to certain dependent beneficiaries</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, that makes coverage available with respect to dependents is required to permit individuals described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section to be enrolled for coverage in a benefit package under the terms of the plan. Paragraph (b)(3) of this section describes the required special enrollment period and the date by which coverage must begin. The special enrollment rights under this paragraph (b) apply without regard to the dates on which an individual would otherwise be able to enroll under the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Individuals eligible for special enrollment.</I> An individual is described in this paragraph (b)(2) if the individual is otherwise eligible for coverage in a benefit package under the plan and if the individual is described in paragraph (b)(2)(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), or (vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Current employee only.</I> A current employee is described in this paragraph (b)(2)(i) if a person becomes a dependent of the individual through marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Spouse of a participant only.</I> An individual is described in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii) if either—
</P>
<P>(A) The individual becomes the spouse of a participant; or
</P>
<P>(B) The individual is a spouse of a participant and a child becomes a dependent of the participant through birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Current employee and spouse.</I> A current employee and an individual who is or becomes a spouse of such an employee, are described in this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) if either—
</P>
<P>(A) The employee and the spouse become married; or
</P>
<P>(B) The employee and spouse are married and a child becomes a dependent of the employee through birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Dependent of a participant only.</I> An individual is described in this paragraph (b)(2)(iv) if the individual is a dependent (as defined in § 144.103 of this chapter) of a participant and the individual has become a dependent of the participant through marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Current employee and a new dependent.</I> A current employee and an individual who is a dependent of the employee, are described in this paragraph (b)(2)(v) if the individual becomes a dependent of the employee through marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Current employee, spouse, and a new dependent.</I> A current employee, the employee's spouse, and the employee's dependent are described in this paragraph (b)(2)(vi) if the dependent becomes a dependent of the employee through marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applying for special enrollment and effective date of coverage</I>—(i) <I>Request.</I> A plan or issuer must allow an individual a period of at least 30 days after the date of the marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption (or, if dependent coverage is not generally made available at the time of the marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption, a period of at least 30 days after the date the plan makes dependent coverage generally available) to request enrollment (for the individual or the individual's dependent).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reasonable procedures for special enrollment.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Date coverage must begin</I>—(A) <I>Marriage.</I> In the case of marriage, coverage must begin no later than the first day of the first calendar month beginning after the date the plan or issuer receives the request for special enrollment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.</I> Coverage must begin in the case of a dependent's birth on the date of birth and in the case of a dependent's adoption or placement for adoption no later than the date of such adoption or placement for adoption (or, if dependent coverage is not made generally available at the time of the birth, adoption, or placement for adoption, the date the plan makes dependent coverage available).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer maintains a group health plan that offers all employees employee-only coverage, employee-plus-spouse coverage, or family coverage. Under the terms of the plan, any employee may elect to enroll when first hired (with coverage beginning on the date of hire) or during an annual open enrollment period held each December (with coverage beginning the following January 1). Employee <I>A</I> is hired on September 3. <I>A</I> is married to <I>B</I>, and they have no children. On March 15 in the following year a child <I>C</I> is born to <I>A</I> and <I>B.</I> Before that date, <I>A</I> and <I>B</I> have not been enrolled in the plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the conditions for special enrollment of an employee with a spouse and new dependent under paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section are satisfied. If <I>A</I> satisfies the conditions of paragraph (b)(3) of this section for requesting enrollment timely, the plan will satisfy this paragraph (b) if it allows <I>A</I> to enroll either with employee-only coverage, with employee-plus-spouse coverage (for <I>A</I> and <I>B</I>), or with family coverage (for <I>A</I>, <I>B</I>, and <I>C</I>). The plan must allow whatever coverage is chosen to begin on March 15, the date of <I>C</I>'s birth.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>D</I> works for Employer <I>X. X</I> maintains a group health plan with two benefit packages—an HMO option and an indemnity option. Self-only and family coverage are available under both options. <I>D</I> enrolls for self-only coverage in the HMO option. Then, a child, <I>E</I>, is placed for adoption with <I>D.</I> Within 30 days of the placement of <I>E</I> for adoption, <I>D</I> requests enrollment for <I>D</I> and <I>E</I> under the plan's indemnity option.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, <I>D</I> and <I>E</I> satisfy the conditions for special enrollment under paragraphs (b)(2)(v) and (b)(3) of this section. Therefore, the plan must allow <I>D</I> and <I>E</I> to enroll in the indemnity coverage, effective as of the date of the placement for adoption.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of special enrollment.</I> At or before the time an employee is initially offered the opportunity to enroll in a group health plan, the plan must furnish the employee with a notice of special enrollment that complies with the requirements of this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Description of special enrollment rights.</I> The notice of special enrollment must include a description of special enrollment rights. The following model language may be used to satisfy this requirement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>If you are declining enrollment for yourself or your dependents (including your spouse) because of other health insurance or group health plan coverage, you may be able to enroll yourself and your dependents in this plan if you or your dependents lose eligibility for that other coverage (or if the employer stops contributing towards your or your dependents' other coverage). However, you must request enrollment within [insert “30 days” or any longer period that applies under the plan] after your or your dependents' other coverage ends (or after the employer stops contributing toward the other coverage).
</P>
<P>In addition, if you have a new dependent as a result of marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption, you may be able to enroll yourself and your dependents. However, you must request enrollment within [insert “30 days” or any longer period that applies under the plan] after the marriage, birth, adoption, or placement for adoption.
</P>
<P>To request special enrollment or obtain more information, contact [insert the name, title, telephone number, and any additional contact information of the appropriate plan representative].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Additional information that may be required.</I> The notice of special enrollment must also include, if applicable, the notice described in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section (the notice required to be furnished to an individual declining coverage if the plan requires the reason for declining coverage to be in writing).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Treatment of special enrollees.</I> (1) If an individual requests enrollment while the individual is entitled to special enrollment under either paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the individual is a special enrollee, even if the request for enrollment coincides with a late enrollment opportunity under the plan. Therefore, the individual cannot be treated as a late enrollee.
</P>
<P>(2) Special enrollees must be offered all the benefit packages available to similarly situated individuals who enroll when first eligible. For this purpose, any difference in benefits or cost-sharing requirements for different individuals constitutes a different benefit package. In addition, a special enrollee cannot be required to pay more for coverage than a similarly situated individual who enrolls in the same coverage when first eligible.
</P>
<P>(3) The rules of this section are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Employer <I>Y</I> maintains a group health plan that has an enrollment period for late enrollees every November 1 through November 30 with coverage effective the following January 1. On October 18, Individual <I>B</I> loses coverage under another group health plan and satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2), (3), and (4) of this section. <I>B</I> submits a completed application for coverage on November 2.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example</I>, <I>B</I> is a special enrollee. Therefore, even though <I>B</I>'s request for enrollment coincides with an open enrollment period, <I>B</I>'s coverage is required to be made effective no later than December 1 (rather than the plan's January 1 effective date for late enrollees).</P></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78794, Dec. 30, 2004, as amended at 79 FR 10314, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.119" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.119   HMO affiliation period as an alternative to a preexisting condition exclusion.</HEAD>
<P>The rules for HMO affiliation periods have been superseded by the prohibition on preexisting condition exclusions. <I>See</I> § 147.108 of this subchapter for rules prohibiting the imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10314, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.120" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.120   Interaction with the Family and Medical Leave Act. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.121" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.121   Prohibiting discrimination against participants and beneficiaries based on a health factor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Health factors.</I> (1) The term <I>health factor</I> means, in relation to an individual, any of the following health status-related factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Health status;
</P>
<P>(ii) Medical condition (including both physical and mental illnesses), as defined in § 144.103 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Claims experience;
</P>
<P>(iv) Receipt of health care;
</P>
<P>(v) Medical history;
</P>
<P>(vi) Genetic information, as defined in § 146.122(a) of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(vii) Evidence of insurability; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Disability.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence of insurability includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Conditions arising out of acts of domestic violence; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Participation in activities such as motorcycling, snowmobiling, all-terrain vehicle riding, horseback riding, skiing, and other similar activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The decision whether health coverage is elected for an individual (including the time chosen to enroll, such as under special enrollment or late enrollment) is not, itself, within the scope of any health factor. (However, under § 146.117, a plan or issuer must treat special enrollees the same as similarly situated individuals who are enrolled when first eligible.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited discrimination in rules for eligibility</I>—(1) <I>In general</I>. As used in this part, unless the context indicates otherwise—


</P>
<P>(i) A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, may not establish any rule for eligibility (including continued eligibility) of any individual to enroll for benefits under the terms of the plan or group health insurance coverage that discriminates based on any health factor that relates to that individual or a dependent of that individual. This rule is subject to the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) of this section (explaining how this rule applies to benefits), paragraph (d) of this section (containing rules for establishing groups of similarly situated individuals), paragraph (e) of this section (relating to nonconfinement, actively-at-work, and other service requirements), paragraph (f) of this section (relating to wellness programs), and paragraph (g) of this section (permitting favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this section, rules for eligibility include, but are not limited to, rules relating to—
</P>
<P>(A) Enrollment;
</P>
<P>(B) The effective date of coverage;
</P>
<P>(C) Waiting (or affiliation) periods;
</P>
<P>(D) Late and special enrollment;
</P>
<P>(E) Eligibility for benefit packages (including rules for individuals to change their selection among benefit packages);
</P>
<P>(F) Benefits (including rules relating to covered benefits, benefit restrictions, and cost-sharing mechanisms such as coinsurance, copayments, and deductibles), as described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) Continued eligibility; and
</P>
<P>(H) Terminating coverage (including disenrollment) of any individual under the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The rules of this paragraph (b)(1) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that is available to all employees who enroll within the first 30 days of their employment. However, employees who do not enroll within the first 30 days cannot enroll later unless they pass a physical examination.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the requirement to pass a physical examination in order to enroll in the plan is a rule for eligibility that discriminates based on one or more health factors and thus violates this paragraph (b)(1).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under an employer's group health plan, employees who enroll during the first 30 days of employment (and during special enrollment periods) may choose between two benefit packages: an indemnity option and an HMO option. However, employees who enroll during late enrollment are permitted to enroll only in the HMO option and only if they provide evidence of good health.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the requirement to provide evidence of good health in order to be eligible for late enrollment in the HMO option is a rule for eligibility that discriminates based on one or more health factors and thus violates this paragraph (b)(1). However, if the plan did not require evidence of good health but limited late enrollees to the HMO option, the plan's rules for eligibility would not discriminate based on any health factor, and thus would not violate this paragraph (b)(1), because the time an individual chooses to enroll is not, itself, within the scope of any health factor.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under an employer's group health plan, all employees generally may enroll within the first 30 days of employment. However, individuals who participate in certain recreational activities, including motorcycling, are excluded from coverage.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> excluding from the plan individuals who participate in recreational activities, such as motorcycling, is a rule for eligibility that discriminates based on one or more health factors and thus violates this paragraph (b)(1).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan applies for a group health policy offered by an issuer. As part of the application, the issuer receives health information about individuals to be covered under the plan. Individual <I>A</I> is an employee of the employer maintaining the plan. <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s dependents have a history of high health claims. Based on the information about <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s dependents, the issuer excludes <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s dependents from the group policy it offers to the employer.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the issuer's exclusion of A and A's dependents from coverage is a rule for eligibility that discriminates based on one or more health factors, and thus violates this paragraph (b)(1). (If the employer is a small employer under 45 CFR 144.103 (generally, an employer with 50 or fewer employees), the issuer also may violate 45 CFR 146.150, which requires issuers to offer all the policies they sell in the small group market on a guaranteed available basis to all small employers and to accept every eligible individual in every small employer group.) If the plan provides coverage through this policy and does not provide equivalent coverage for <I>A</I> and <I>A</I>'s dependents through other means, the plan will also violate this paragraph (b)(1).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>Application to benefits</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> (A) Under this section, a group health plan or group health insurance issuer is not required to provide coverage for any particular benefit to any group of similarly situated individuals.
</P>
<P>(B) However, benefits provided under a plan must be uniformly available to all similarly situated individuals (as described in paragraph (d) of this section). Likewise, any restriction on a benefit or benefits must apply uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and must not be directed at individual participants or beneficiaries based on any health factor of the participants or beneficiaries (determined based on all the relevant facts and circumstances). Thus, for example, a plan may limit or exclude benefits in relation to a specific disease or condition, limit or exclude benefits for certain types of treatments or drugs, or limit or exclude benefits based on a determination of whether the benefits are experimental or not medically necessary, but only if the benefit limitation or exclusion applies uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries based on any health factor of the participants or beneficiaries. In addition, a plan or issuer may require the satisfaction of a deductible, copayment, coinsurance, or other cost-sharing requirement in order to obtain a benefit if the limit or cost-sharing requirement applies uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries based on any health factor of the participants or beneficiaries. In the case of a cost-sharing requirement, see also paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, which permits variances in the application of a cost-sharing mechanism made available under a wellness program. (Whether any plan provision or practice with respect to benefits complies with this paragraph (b)(2)(i) does not affect whether the provision or practice is permitted under ERISA, the Affordable Care Act (including the requirements related to essential health benefits), the Americans with Disabilities Act, or any other law, whether State or Federal.)
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(i), a plan amendment applicable to all individuals in one or more groups of similarly situated individuals under the plan and made effective no earlier than the first day of the first plan year after the amendment is adopted is not considered to be directed at any individual participants or beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(D) The rules of this paragraph (b)(2)(i) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan applies a $10,000 annual limit on a specific covered benefit that is not an essential health benefit to each participant or beneficiary covered under the plan. The limit is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the limit does not violate this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because coverage of the specific, non-essential health benefit up to $10,000 is available uniformly to each participant and beneficiary under the plan and because the limit is applied uniformly to all participants and beneficiaries and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan has a $500 deductible on all benefits for participants covered under the plan. Participant <I>B</I> files a claim for the treatment of AIDS. At the next corporate board meeting of the plan sponsor, the claim is discussed. Shortly thereafter, the plan is modified to impose a $2,000 deductible on benefits for the treatment of AIDS, effective before the beginning of the next plan year.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> The facts of this <I>Example 2</I> strongly suggest that the plan modification is directed at <I>B</I> based on <I>B</I>'s claim. Absent outweighing evidence to the contrary, the plan violates this paragraph (b)(2)(i).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) A group health plan applies for a group health policy offered by an issuer. Individual <I>C</I> is covered under the plan and has an adverse health condition. As part of the application, the issuer receives health information about the individuals to be covered, including information about <I>C</I>'s adverse health condition. The policy form offered by the issuer generally provides benefits for the adverse health condition that <I>C</I> has, but in this case the issuer offers the plan a policy modified by a rider that excludes benefits for <I>C</I> for that condition. The exclusionary rider is made effective the first day of the next plan year.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, the issuer violates this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because benefits for <I>C</I>'s condition are available to other individuals in the group of similarly situated individuals that includes <I>C</I> but are not available to <I>C.</I> Thus, the benefits are not uniformly available to all similarly situated individuals. Even though the exclusionary rider is made effective the first day of the next plan year, because the rider does not apply to all similarly situated individuals, the issuer violates this paragraph (b)(2)(i).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan has a $2,000 lifetime limit for the treatment of temporomandibular joint syndrome (TMJ). The limit is applied uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the limit does not violate this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because $2,000 of benefits for the treatment of TMJ are available uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and a plan may limit benefits covered in relation to a specific disease or condition if the limit applies uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries. (However, applying a lifetime limit on TMJ may violate § 147.126 of this subchapter, if TMJ coverage is an essential health benefit, depending on the essential health benefits benchmark plan as defined in § 156.20 of this subchapter. This example does not address whether the plan provision is permissible under any other applicable law, including PHS Act section 2711 or the Americans with Disabilities Act.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan applies a $2 million lifetime limit on all benefits. However, the $2 million lifetime limit is reduced to $10,000 for any participant or beneficiary covered under the plan who has a congenital heart defect.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the lower lifetime limit for participants and beneficiaries with a congenital heart defect violates this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because benefits under the plan are not uniformly available to all similarly situated individuals and the plan's lifetime limit on benefits does not apply uniformly to all similarly situated individuals. Additionally, this plan provision is prohibited under § 147.126 of this subchapter because it imposes a lifetime limit on essential health benefits.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan limits benefits for prescription drugs to those listed on a drug formulary. The limit is applied uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6</I>, the exclusion from coverage of drugs not listed on the drug formulary does not violate this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because benefits for prescription drugs listed on the formulary are uniformly available to all similarly situated individuals and because the exclusion of drugs not listed on the formulary applies uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, doctor visits are generally subject to a $250 annual deductible and 20 percent coinsurance requirement. However, prenatal doctor visits are not subject to any deductible or coinsurance requirement. These rules are applied uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and are not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> imposing different deductible and coinsurance requirements for prenatal doctor visits and other visits does not violate this paragraph (b)(2)(i) because a plan may establish different deductibles or coinsurance requirements for different services if the deductible or coinsurance requirement is applied uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception for wellness programs.</I> A group health plan or group health insurance issuer may vary benefits, including cost-sharing mechanisms (such as a deductible, copayment, or coinsurance), based on whether an individual has met the standards of a wellness program that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Specific rule relating to source-of-injury exclusions.</I> (A) If a group health plan or group health insurance coverage generally provides benefits for a type of injury, the plan or issuer may not deny benefits otherwise provided for treatment of the injury if the injury results from an act of domestic violence or a medical condition (including both physical and mental health conditions). This rule applies in the case of an injury resulting from a medical condition even if the condition is not diagnosed before the injury.
</P>
<P>(B) The rules of this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides medical/surgical benefits, including benefits for hospital stays, that are medically necessary. However, the plan excludes benefits for self-inflicted injuries or injuries sustained in connection with attempted suicide. Because of depression, Individual D attempts suicide. As a result, <I>D</I> sustains injuries and is hospitalized for treatment of the injuries. Under the exclusion, the plan denies <I>D</I> benefits for treatment of the injuries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this Example 1, the suicide attempt is the result of a medical condition (depression). Accordingly, the denial of benefits for the treatments of D's injuries violates the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) because the plan provision excludes benefits for treatment of an injury resulting from a medical condition.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits for head injuries generally. The plan also has a general exclusion for any injury sustained while participating in any of a number of recreational activities, including bungee jumping. However, this exclusion does not apply to any injury that results from a medical condition (nor from domestic violence). Participant E sustains a head injury while bungee jumping. The injury did not result from a medical condition (nor from domestic violence). Accordingly, the plan denies benefits for <I>E</I>'s head injury.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the plan provision that denies benefits based on the source of an injury does not restrict benefits based on an act of domestic violence or any medical condition. Therefore, the provision is permissible under this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) and does not violate this section. (However, if the plan did not allow E to enroll in the plan (or applied different rules for eligibility to <I>E</I>) because <I>E</I> frequently participates in bungee jumping, the plan would violate paragraph (b)(1) of this section.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited discrimination in premiums or contributions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, may not require an individual, as a condition of enrollment or continued enrollment under the plan or group health insurance coverage, to pay a premium or contribution that is greater than the premium or contribution for a similarly situated individual (described in paragraph (d) of this section) enrolled in the plan or group health insurance coverage based on any health factor that relates to the individual or a dependent of the individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) Discounts, rebates, payments in kind, and any other premium differential mechanisms are taken into account in determining an individual's premium or contribution rate. (For rules relating to cost-sharing mechanisms, see paragraph (b)(2) of this section (addressing benefits).)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules relating to premium rates</I>—(i) <I>Group rating based on health factors not restricted under this section.</I> Nothing in this section restricts the aggregate amount that an employer may be charged for coverage under a group health plan. But <I>see</I> § 146.122(b) of this part, which prohibits adjustments in group premium or contribution rates based on genetic information.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>List billing based on a health factor prohibited.</I> However, a group health insurance issuer, or a group health plan, may not quote or charge an employer (or an individual) a different premium for an individual in a group of similarly situated individuals based on a health factor. (But see paragraph (g) of this section permitting favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors.)
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1. </HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan and purchases coverage from a health insurance issuer. In order to determine the premium rate for the upcoming plan year, the issuer reviews the claims experience of individuals covered under the plan. The issuer finds that Individual <I>F</I> had significantly higher claims experience than similarly situated individuals in the plan. The issuer quotes the plan a higher per-participant rate because of <I>F'</I>s claims experience.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the issuer does not violate the provisions of this paragraph (c)(2) because the issuer blends the rate so that the employer is not quoted a higher rate for <I>F</I> than for a similarly situated individual based on <I>F'</I>s claims experience. (However, if the issuer used genetic information in computing the group rate, it would violate § 146.122(b) of this part.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I>, except that the issuer quotes the employer a higher premium rate for <I>F</I>, because of <I>F</I>'s claims experience, than for a similarly situated individual.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the issuer violates this paragraph (c)(2). Moreover, even if the plan purchased the policy based on the quote but did not require a higher participant contribution for <I>F</I> than for a similarly situated individual, the issuer would still violate this paragraph (c)(2) (but in such a case the plan would not violate this paragraph (c)(2)).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for wellness programs.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section, a plan or issuer may vary the amount of premium or contribution it requires similarly situated individuals to pay based on whether an individual has met the standards of a wellness program that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Similarly situated individuals.</I> The requirements of this section apply only within a group of individuals who are treated as similarly situated individuals. A plan or issuer may treat participants as a group of similarly situated individuals separate from beneficiaries. In addition, participants may be treated as two or more distinct groups of similarly situated individuals and beneficiaries may be treated as two or more distinct groups of similarly situated individuals in accordance with the rules of this paragraph (d). Moreover, if individuals have a choice of two or more benefit packages, individuals choosing one benefit package may be treated as one or more groups of similarly situated individuals distinct from individuals choosing another benefit package.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Participants.</I> Subject to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a plan or issuer may treat participants as two or more distinct groups of similarly situated individuals if the distinction between or among the groups of participants is based on a bona fide employment-based classification consistent with the employer's usual business practice. Whether an employment-based classification is bona fide is determined on the basis of all the relevant facts and circumstances. Relevant facts and circumstances include whether the employer uses the classification for purposes independent of qualification for health coverage (for example, determining eligibility for other employee benefits or determining other terms of employment). Subject to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, examples of classifications that, based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, may be bona fide include full-time versus part-time status, different geographic location, membership in a collective bargaining unit, date of hire, length of service, current employee versus former employee status, and different occupations. However, a classification based on any health factor is not a bona fide employment-based classification, unless the requirements of paragraph (g) of this section are satisfied (permitting favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beneficiaries.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a plan or issuer may treat beneficiaries as two or more distinct groups of similarly situated individuals if the distinction between or among the groups of beneficiaries is based on any of the following factors:
</P>
<P>(A) A bona fide employment-based classification of the participant through whom the beneficiary is receiving coverage;
</P>
<P>(B) Relationship to the participant (for example, as a spouse or as a dependent child);
</P>
<P>(C) Marital status;
</P>
<P>(D) With respect to children of a participant, age or student status; or
</P>
<P>(E) Any other factor if the factor is not a health factor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section does not prevent more favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Discrimination directed at individuals.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section, if the creation or modification of an employment or coverage classification is directed at individual participants or beneficiaries based on any health factor of the participants or beneficiaries, the classification is not permitted under this paragraph (d), unless it is permitted under paragraph (g) of this section (permitting favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors). Thus, if an employer modified an employment-based classification to single out, based on a health factor, individual participants and beneficiaries and deny them health coverage, the new classification would not be permitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (d) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan for full-time employees only. Under the plan (consistent with the employer's usual business practice), employees who normally work at least 30 hours per week are considered to be working full-time. Other employees are considered to be working part-time. There is no evidence to suggest that the classification is directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, treating the full-time and part-time employees as two separate groups of similarly situated individuals is permitted under this paragraph (d) because the classification is bona fide and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage is made available to employees, their spouses, and their children. However, coverage is made available to a child only if the child is under age 26 (or under age 29 if the child is continuously enrolled full-time in an institution of higher learning (full-time students)). There is no evidence to suggest that these classifications are directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this Example 2, treating spouses and children differently by imposing an age limitation on children, but not on spouses, is permitted under this paragraph (d). Specifically, the distinction between spouses and children is permitted under paragraph (d)(2) of this section and is not prohibited under paragraph (d)(3) of this section because it is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries. It is also permissible to treat children who are under age 26 (or full-time students under age 29) as a group of similarly situated individuals separate from those who are age 26 or older (or age 29 or older if they are not full-time students) because the classification is permitted under paragraph (d)(2) of this section and is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A university sponsors a group health plan that provides one health benefit package to faculty and another health benefit package to other staff. Faculty and staff are treated differently with respect to other employee benefits such as retirement benefits and leaves of absence. There is no evidence to suggest that the distinction is directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, the classification is permitted under this paragraph (d) because there is a distinction based on a bona fide employment-based classification consistent with the employer's usual business practice and the distinction is not directed at individual participants and beneficiaries.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that is available to all current employees. Former employees may also be eligible, but only if they complete a specified number of years of service, are enrolled under the plan at the time of termination of employment, and are continuously enrolled from that date. There is no evidence to suggest that these distinctions are directed at individual participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4</I>, imposing additional eligibility requirements on former employees is permitted because a classification that distinguishes between current and former employees is a bona fide employment-based classification that is permitted under this paragraph (d), provided that it is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries. In addition, it is permissible to distinguish between former employees who satisfy the service requirement and those who do not, provided that the distinction is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries. (However, former employees who do not satisfy the eligibility criteria may, nonetheless, be eligible for continued coverage pursuant to a COBRA continuation provision or similar State law.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides the same benefit package to all seven employees of the employer. Six of the seven employees have the same job title and responsibilities, but Employee <I>G</I> has a different job title and different responsibilities. After <I>G</I> files an expensive claim for benefits under the plan, coverage under the plan is modified so that employees with <I>G'</I>s job title receive a different benefit package that includes a higher deductible than in the benefit package made available to the other six employees. 
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> Under the facts of this <I>Example 5</I>, changing the coverage classification for <I>G</I> based on the existing employment classification for <I>G</I> is not permitted under this paragraph (d) because the creation of the new coverage classification for <I>G</I> is directed at <I>G</I> based on one or more health factors.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(e) <I>Nonconfinement and actively-at-work provisions</I>—(1) <I>Nonconfinement provisions</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Under the rules of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a plan or issuer may not establish a rule for eligibility (as described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section) or set any individual's premium or contribution rate based on whether an individual is confined to a hospital or other health care institution. In addition, under the rules of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a plan or issuer may not establish a rule for eligibility or set any individual's premium or contribution rate based on an individual's ability to engage in normal life activities, except to the extent permitted under paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) and (e)(3) of this section (permitting plans and issuers, under certain circumstances, to distinguish among employees based on the performance of services).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (e)(1) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage for employees and their dependents generally becomes effective on the first day of employment. However, coverage for a dependent who is confined to a hospital or other health care institution does not become effective until the confinement ends.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the plan violates this paragraph (e)(1) because the plan delays the effective date of coverage for dependents based on confinement to a hospital or other health care institution.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> In previous years, a group health plan has provided coverage through a group health insurance policy offered by Issuer <I>M.</I> However, for the current year, the plan provides coverage through a group health insurance policy offered by Issuer <I>N.</I> Under Issuer <I>N</I>'s policy, items and services provided in connection with the confinement of a dependent to a hospital or other health care institution are not covered if the confinement is covered under an extension of benefits clause from a previous health insurance issuer.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, Issuer <I>N</I> violates this paragraph (e)(1) because the group health insurance coverage restricts benefits (a rule for eligibility under paragraph (b)(1)) based on whether a dependent is confined to a hospital or other health care institution that is covered under an extension of benefits clause from a previous issuer. State law cannot change the obligation of Issuer <I>N</I> under this section. However, under State law Issuer <I>M</I> may also be responsible for providing benefits to such a dependent. In a case in which Issuer <I>N</I> has an obligation under this section to provide benefits and Issuer <I>M</I> has an obligation under State law to provide benefits, any State laws designed to prevent more than 100% reimbursement, such as State coordination-of-benefits laws, continue to apply.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>Actively-at-work and continuous service provisions</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> (A) Under the rules of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and subject to the exception for the first day of work described in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, a plan or issuer may not establish a rule for eligibility (as described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section) or set any individual's premium or contribution rate based on whether an individual is actively at work (including whether an individual is continuously employed), unless absence from work due to any health factor (such as being absent from work on sick leave) is treated, for purposes of the plan or health insurance coverage, as being actively at work.
</P>
<P>(B) The rules of this paragraph (e)(2)(i) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, an employee generally becomes eligible to enroll 30 days after the first day of employment. However, if the employee is not actively at work on the first day after the end of the 30-day period, then eligibility for enrollment is delayed until the first day the employee is actively at work.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the plan violates this paragraph (e)(2) (and thus also violates paragraph (b) of this section). However, the plan would not violate paragraph (e)(2) or (b) of this section if, under the plan, an absence due to any health factor is considered being actively at work.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage for an employee becomes effective after 90 days of continuous service; that is, if an employee is absent from work (for any reason) before completing 90 days of service, the beginning of the 90-day period is measured from the day the employee returns to work (without any credit for service before the absence).
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this Example 2, the plan violates this paragraph (e)(2) (and thus also paragraph (b) of this section) because the 90-day continuous service requirement is a rule for eligibility based on whether an individual is actively at work. However, the plan would not violate this paragraph (e)(2) or paragraph (b) of this section if, under the plan, an absence due to any health factor is not considered an absence for purposes of measuring 90 days of continuous service. (In addition, any eligibility provision that is time-based must comply with the requirements of PHS Act section 2708 and its implementing regulations.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception for the first day of work.</I> (A) Notwithstanding the general rule in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, a plan or issuer may establish a rule for eligibility that requires an individual to begin work for the employer sponsoring the plan (or, in the case of a multiemployer plan, to begin a job in covered employment) before coverage becomes effective, provided that such a rule for eligibility applies regardless of the reason for the absence.
</P>
<P>(B) The rules of this paragraph (e)(2)(ii) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under the eligibility provision of a group health plan, coverage for new employees becomes effective on the first day that the employee reports to work. Individual <I>H</I> is scheduled to begin work on August 3. However, <I>H</I> is unable to begin work on that day because of illness. <I>H</I> begins working on August 4, and <I>H</I>'s coverage is effective on August 4.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the plan provision does not violate this section. However, if coverage for individuals who do not report to work on the first day they were scheduled to work for a reason unrelated to a health factor (such as vacation or bereavement) becomes effective on the first day they were scheduled to work, then the plan would violate this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage for new employees becomes effective on the first day of the month following the employee's first day of work, regardless of whether the employee is actively at work on the first day of the month. Individual <I>J</I> is scheduled to begin work on March 24. However, <I>J</I> is unable to begin work on March 24 because of illness. <I>J</I> begins working on April 7 and <I>J</I>'s coverage is effective May 1.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the plan provision does not violate this section. However, as in <I>Example 1</I>, if coverage for individuals absent from work for reasons unrelated to a health factor became effective despite their absence, then the plan would violate this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Relationship to plan provisions defining similarly situated individuals.</I> (i) Notwithstanding the rules of paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this section, a plan or issuer may establish rules for eligibility or set any individual's premium or contribution rate in accordance with the rules relating to similarly situated individuals in paragraph (d) of this section. Accordingly, a plan or issuer may distinguish in rules for eligibility under the plan between full-time and part-time employees, between permanent and temporary or seasonal employees, between current and former employees, and between employees currently performing services and employees no longer performing services for the employer, subject to paragraph (d) of this section. However, other Federal or State laws (including the COBRA continuation provisions and the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993) may require an employee or the employee's dependents to be offered coverage and set limits on the premium or contribution rate even though the employee is not performing services.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (e)(3) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, employees are eligible for coverage if they perform services for the employer for 30 or more hours per week or if they are on paid leave (such as vacation, sick, or bereavement leave). Employees on unpaid leave are treated as a separate group of similarly situated individuals in accordance with the rules of paragraph (d) of this section.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the plan provisions do not violate this section. However, if the plan treated individuals performing services for the employer for 30 or more hours per week, individuals on vacation leave, and individuals on bereavement leave as a group of similarly situated individuals separate from individuals on sick leave, the plan would violate this paragraph (e) (and thus also would violate paragraph (b) of this section) because groups of similarly situated individuals cannot be established based on a health factor (including the taking of sick leave) under paragraph (d) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> To be eligible for coverage under a bona fide collectively bargained group health plan in the current calendar quarter, the plan requires an individual to have worked 250 hours in covered employment during the three-month period that ends one month before the beginning of the current calendar quarter. The distinction between employees working at least 250 hours and those working less than 250 hours in the earlier three-month period is not directed at individual participants or beneficiaries based on any health factor of the participants or beneficiaries.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the plan provision does not violate this section because, under the rules for similarly situated individuals allowing full-time employees to be treated differently than part-time employees, employees who work at least 250 hours in a three-month period can be treated differently than employees who fail to work 250 hours in that period. The result would be the same if the plan permitted individuals to apply excess hours from previous periods to satisfy the requirement for the current quarter.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage of an employee is terminated when the individual's employment is terminated, in accordance with the rules of paragraph (d) of this section. Employee <I>B</I> has been covered under the plan. <I>B</I> experiences a disabling illness that prevents <I>B</I> from working. <I>B</I> takes a leave of absence under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993. At the end of such leave, <I>B</I> terminates employment and consequently loses coverage under the plan. (This termination of coverage is without regard to whatever rights the employee (or members of the employee's family) may have for COBRA continuation coverage.)
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, the plan provision terminating <I>B</I>'s coverage upon <I>B</I>'s termination of employment does not violate this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, coverage of an employee is terminated when the employee ceases to perform services for the employer sponsoring the plan, in accordance with the rules of paragraph (d) of this section. Employee <I>C</I> is laid off for three months. When the layoff begins, <I>C</I>'s coverage under the plan is terminated. (This termination of coverage is without regard to whatever rights the employee (or members of the employee's family) may have for COBRA continuation coverage.)
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4</I>, the plan provision terminating <I>C</I>'s coverage upon the cessation of <I>C</I>'s performance of services does not violate this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(f) <I>Nondiscriminatory wellness programs—in general.</I> A wellness program is a program of health promotion or disease prevention. Paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (c)(3) of this section provide exceptions to the general prohibitions against discrimination based on a health factor for plan provisions that vary benefits (including cost-sharing mechanisms) or the premium or contribution for similarly situated individuals in connection with a wellness program that satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions in this paragraph (f)(1) govern in applying the provisions of this paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reward.</I> Except where expressly provided otherwise, references in this section to an individual obtaining a reward include both obtaining a reward (such as a discount or rebate of a premium or contribution, a waiver of all or part of a cost-sharing mechanism, an additional benefit, or any financial or other incentive) and avoiding a penalty (such as the absence of a premium surcharge or other financial or nonfinancial disincentive). References in this section to a plan providing a reward include both providing a reward (such as a discount or rebate of a premium or contribution, a waiver of all or part of a cost-sharing mechanism, an additional benefit, or any financial or other incentive) and imposing a penalty (such as a surcharge or other financial or nonfinancial disincentive).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Participatory wellness programs.</I> If none of the conditions for obtaining a reward under a wellness program is based on an individual satisfying a standard that is related to a health factor (or if a wellness program does not provide a reward), the wellness program is a participatory wellness program. Examples of participatory wellness programs are:
</P>
<P>(A) A program that reimburses employees for all or part of the cost for membership in a fitness center.
</P>
<P>(B) A diagnostic testing program that provides a reward for participation in that program and does not base any part of the reward on outcomes.
</P>
<P>(C) A program that encourages preventive care through the waiver of the copayment or deductible requirement under a group health plan for the costs of, for example, prenatal care or well-baby visits. (Note that, with respect to non-grandfathered plans, § 147.130 of this subchapter requires benefits for certain preventive health services without the imposition of cost sharing.)
</P>
<P>(D) A program that reimburses employees for the costs of participating, or that otherwise provides a reward for participating, in a smoking cessation program without regard to whether the employee quits smoking.
</P>
<P>(E) A program that provides a reward to employees for attending a monthly, no-cost health education seminar.
</P>
<P>(F) A program that provides a reward to employees who complete a health risk assessment regarding current health status, without any further action (educational or otherwise) required by the employee with regard to the health issues identified as part of the assessment. (<I>See also</I> § 146.122 for rules prohibiting collection of genetic information.)
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Health-contingent wellness programs.</I> A health-contingent wellness program is a program that requires an individual to satisfy a standard related to a health factor to obtain a reward (or requires an individual to undertake more than a similarly situated individual based on a health factor in order to obtain the same reward). A health-contingent wellness program may be an activity-only wellness program or an outcome-based wellness program.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Activity-only wellness programs.</I> An activity-only wellness program is a type of health-contingent wellness program that requires an individual to perform or complete an activity related to a health factor in order to obtain a reward but does not require the individual to attain or maintain a specific health outcome. Examples include walking, diet, or exercise programs, which some individuals may be unable to participate in or complete (or have difficulty participating in or completing) due to a health factor, such as severe asthma, pregnancy, or a recent surgery. <I>See</I> paragraph (f)(3) of this section for requirements applicable to activity-only wellness programs.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Outcome-based wellness programs.</I> An outcome-based wellness program is a type of health-contingent wellness program that requires an individual to attain or maintain a specific health outcome (such as not smoking or attaining certain results on biometric screenings) in order to obtain a reward. To comply with the rules of this paragraph (f), an outcome-based wellness program typically has two tiers. That is, for individuals who do not attain or maintain the specific health outcome, compliance with an educational program or an activity may be offered as an alternative to achieve the same reward. This alternative pathway, however, does not mean that the overall program, which has an outcome-based component, is not an outcome-based wellness program. That is, if a measurement, test, or screening is used as part of an initial standard and individuals who meet the standard are granted the reward, the program is considered an outcome-based wellness program. For example, if a wellness program tests individuals for specified medical conditions or risk factors (including biometric screening such as testing for high cholesterol, high blood pressure, abnormal body mass index, or high glucose level) and provides a reward to individuals identified as within a normal or healthy range for these medical conditions or risk factors, while requiring individuals who are identified as outside the normal or healthy range (or at risk) to take additional steps (such as meeting with a health coach, taking a health or fitness course, adhering to a health improvement action plan, complying with a walking or exercise program, or complying with a health care provider's plan of care) to obtain the same reward, the program is an outcome-based wellness program. <I>See</I> paragraph (f)(4) of this section for requirements applicable to outcome-based wellness programs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirement for participatory wellness programs.</I> A participatory wellness program, as described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, does not violate the provisions of this section only if participation in the program is made available to all similarly situated individuals, regardless of health status.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for activity-only wellness programs.</I> A health-contingent wellness program that is an activity-only wellness program, as described in paragraph (f)(1)(iv) of this section, does not violate the provisions of this section only if all of the following requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Frequency of opportunity to qualify.</I> The program must give individuals eligible for the program the opportunity to qualify for the reward under the program at least once per year.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Size of reward.</I> The reward for the activity-only wellness program, together with the reward for other health-contingent wellness programs with respect to the plan, must not exceed the applicable percentage (as defined in paragraph (f)(5) of this section) of the total cost of employee-only coverage under the plan. However, if, in addition to employees, any class of dependents (such as spouses, or spouses and dependent children) may participate in the wellness program, the reward must not exceed the applicable percentage of the total cost of the coverage in which an employee and any dependents are enrolled. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(3)(ii), the cost of coverage is determined based on the total amount of employer and employee contributions towards the cost of coverage for the benefit package under which the employee is (or the employee and any dependents are) receiving coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasonable design.</I> The program must be reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease. A program satisfies this standard if it has a reasonable chance of improving the health of, or preventing disease in, participating individuals, and it is not overly burdensome, is not a subterfuge for discriminating based on a health factor, and is not highly suspect in the method chosen to promote health or prevent disease. This determination is based on all the relevant facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Uniform availability and reasonable alternative standards.</I> The full reward under the activity-only wellness program must be available to all similarly situated individuals.
</P>
<P>(A) Under this paragraph (f)(3)(iv), a reward under an activity-only wellness program is not available to all similarly situated individuals for a period unless the program meets both of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The program allows a reasonable alternative standard (or waiver of the otherwise applicable standard) for obtaining the reward for any individual for whom, for that period, it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to satisfy the otherwise applicable standard; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The program allows a reasonable alternative standard (or waiver of the otherwise applicable standard) for obtaining the reward for any individual for whom, for that period, it is medically inadvisable to attempt to satisfy the otherwise applicable standard.
</P>
<P>(B) While plans and issuers are not required to determine a particular reasonable alternative standard in advance of an individual's request for one, if an individual is described in either paragraph (f)(3)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) of this section, a reasonable alternative standard must be furnished by the plan or issuer upon the individual's request or the condition for obtaining the reward must be waived.
</P>
<P>(C) All the facts and circumstances are taken into account in determining whether a plan or issuer has furnished a reasonable alternative standard, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the reasonable alternative standard is completion of an educational program, the plan or issuer must make the educational program available or assist the employee in finding such a program (instead of requiring an individual to find such a program unassisted), and may not require an individual to pay for the cost of the program.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The time commitment required must be reasonable (for example, requiring attendance nightly at a one-hour class would be unreasonable).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the reasonable alternative standard is a diet program, the plan or issuer is not required to pay for the cost of food but must pay any membership or participation fee.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If an individual's personal physician states that a plan standard (including, if applicable, the recommendations of the plan's medical professional) is not medically appropriate for that individual, the plan or issuer must provide a reasonable alternative standard that accommodates the recommendations of the individual's personal physician with regard to medical appropriateness. Plans and issuers may impose standard cost sharing under the plan or coverage for medical items and services furnished pursuant to the physician's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(D) To the extent that a reasonable alternative standard under an activity-only wellness program is, itself, an activity-only wellness program, it must comply with the requirements of this paragraph (f)(3) in the same manner as if it were an initial program standard. (Thus, for example, if a plan or issuer provides a walking program as a reasonable alternative standard to a running program, individuals for whom it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to complete the walking program (or for whom it is medically inadvisable to attempt to complete the walking program) must be provided a reasonable alternative standard to the walking program.) To the extent that a reasonable alternative standard under an activity-only wellness program is, itself, an outcome-based wellness program, it must comply with the requirements of paragraph (f)(4) of this section, including paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(D).
</P>
<P>(E) If reasonable under the circumstances, a plan or issuer may seek verification, such as a statement from an individual's personal physician, that a health factor makes it unreasonably difficult for the individual to satisfy, or medically inadvisable for the individual to attempt to satisfy, the otherwise applicable standard of an activity-only wellness program. Plans and issuers may seek verification with respect to requests for a reasonable alternative standard for which it is reasonable to determine that medical judgment is required to evaluate the validity of the request.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Notice of availability of reasonable alternative standard.</I> The plan or issuer must disclose in all plan materials describing the terms of an activity-only wellness program the availability of a reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward (and, if applicable, the possibility of waiver of the otherwise applicable standard), including contact information for obtaining a reasonable alternative standard and a statement that recommendations of an individual's personal physician will be accommodated. If plan materials merely mention that such a program is available, without describing its terms, this disclosure is not required. Sample language is provided in paragraph (f)(6) of this section, as well as in certain examples of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Example.</I> The provisions of this paragraph (f)(3) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides a reward to individuals who participate in a reasonable specified walking program. If it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition for an individual to participate (or if it is medically inadvisable for an individual to attempt to participate), the plan will waive the walking program requirement and provide the reward. All materials describing the terms of the walking program disclose the availability of the waiver.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3)(iii) of this section because the walking program is reasonably designed to promote health and prevent disease. The program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3)(iv) of this section because the reward under the program is available to all similarly situated individuals. It accommodates individuals for whom it is unreasonably difficult to participate in the walking program due to a medical condition (or for whom it would be medically inadvisable to attempt to participate) by providing them with the reward even if they do not participate in the walking program (that is, by waiving the condition). The plan also complies with the disclosure requirement of paragraph (f)(3)(v) of this section. Thus, the plan satisfies paragraphs (f)(3)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Requirements for outcome-based wellness programs.</I> A health-contingent wellness program that is an outcome-based wellness program, as described in paragraph (f)(1)(v) of this section, does not violate the provisions of this section only if all of the following requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Frequency of opportunity to qualify.</I> The program must give individuals eligible for the program the opportunity to qualify for the reward under the program at least once per year.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Size of reward.</I> The reward for the outcome-based wellness program, together with the reward for other health-contingent wellness programs with respect to the plan, must not exceed the applicable percentage (as defined in paragraph (f)(5) of this section) of the total cost of employee-only coverage under the plan. However, if, in addition to employees, any class of dependents (such as spouses, or spouses and dependent children) may participate in the wellness program, the reward must not exceed the applicable percentage of the total cost of the coverage in which an employee and any dependents are enrolled. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(4)(ii), the cost of coverage is determined based on the total amount of employer and employee contributions towards the cost of coverage for the benefit package under which the employee is (or the employee and any dependents are) receiving coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasonable design.</I> The program must be reasonably designed to promote health or prevent disease. A program satisfies this standard if it has a reasonable chance of improving the health of, or preventing disease in, participating individuals, and it is not overly burdensome, is not a subterfuge for discriminating based on a health factor, and is not highly suspect in the method chosen to promote health or prevent disease. This determination is based on all the relevant facts and circumstances. To ensure that an outcome-based wellness program is reasonably designed to improve health and does not act as a subterfuge for underwriting or reducing benefits based on a health factor, a reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward must be provided to any individual who does not meet the initial standard based on a measurement, test, or screening that is related to a health factor, as explained in paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Uniform availability and reasonable alternative standards.</I> The full reward under the outcome-based wellness program must be available to all similarly situated individuals.
</P>
<P>(A) Under this paragraph (f)(4)(iv), a reward under an outcome-based wellness program is not available to all similarly situated individuals for a period unless the program allows a reasonable alternative standard (or waiver of the otherwise applicable standard) for obtaining the reward for any individual who does not meet the initial standard based on the measurement, test, or screening, as described in this paragraph (f)(4)(iv).
</P>
<P>(B) While plans and issuers are not required to determine a particular reasonable alternative standard in advance of an individual's request for one, if an individual is described in paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(A) of this section, a reasonable alternative standard must be furnished by the plan or issuer upon the individual's request or the condition for obtaining the reward must be waived.
</P>
<P>(C) All the facts and circumstances are taken into account in determining whether a plan or issuer has furnished a reasonable alternative standard, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the reasonable alternative standard is completion of an educational program, the plan or issuer must make the educational program available or assist the employee in finding such a program (instead of requiring an individual to find such a program unassisted), and may not require an individual to pay for the cost of the program.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The time commitment required must be reasonable (for example, requiring attendance nightly at a one-hour class would be unreasonable).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the reasonable alternative standard is a diet program, the plan or issuer is not required to pay for the cost of food but must pay any membership or participation fee.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If an individual's personal physician states that a plan standard (including, if applicable, the recommendations of the plan's medical professional) is not medically appropriate for that individual, the plan or issuer must provide a reasonable alternative standard that accommodates the recommendations of the individual's personal physician with regard to medical appropriateness. Plans and issuers may impose standard cost sharing under the plan or coverage for medical items and services furnished pursuant to the physician's recommendations.
</P>
<P>(D) To the extent that a reasonable alternative standard under an outcome-based wellness program is, itself, an activity-only wellness program, it must comply with the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section in the same manner as if it were an initial program standard. To the extent that a reasonable alternative standard under an outcome-based wellness program is, itself, another outcome-based wellness program, it must comply with the requirements of this paragraph (f)(4), subject to the following special rules:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The reasonable alternative standard cannot be a requirement to meet a different level of the same standard without additional time to comply that takes into account the individual's circumstances. For example, if the initial standard is to achieve a BMI less than 30, the reasonable alternative standard cannot be to achieve a BMI less than 31 on that same date. However, if the initial standard is to achieve a BMI less than 30, a reasonable alternative standard for the individual could be to reduce the individual's BMI by a small amount or small percentage, over a realistic period of time, such as within a year.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An individual must be given the opportunity to comply with the recommendations of the individual's personal physician as a second reasonable alternative standard to meeting the reasonable alternative standard defined by the plan or issuer, but only if the physician joins in the request. The individual can make a request to involve a personal physician's recommendations at any time and the personal physician can adjust the physician's recommendations at any time, consistent with medical appropriateness.
</P>
<P>(E) It is not reasonable to seek verification, such as a statement from an individual's personal physician, under an outcome-based wellness program that a health factor makes it unreasonably difficult for the individual to satisfy, or medically inadvisable for the individual to attempt to satisfy, the otherwise applicable standard as a condition of providing a reasonable alternative to the initial standard. However, if a plan or issuer provides an alternative standard to the otherwise applicable measurement, test, or screening that involves an activity that is related to a health factor, then the rules of paragraph (f)(3) of this section for activity-only wellness programs apply to that component of the wellness program and the plan or issuer may, if reasonable under the circumstances, seek verification that it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition for an individual to perform or complete the activity (or it is medically inadvisable to attempt to perform or complete the activity). (For example, if an outcome-based wellness program requires participants to maintain a certain healthy weight and provides a diet and exercise program for individuals who do not meet the targeted weight, a plan or issuer may seek verification, as described in paragraph (f)(3)(iv)(D) of this section, if reasonable under the circumstances, that a second reasonable alternative standard is needed for certain individuals because, for those individuals, it would be unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to comply, or medically inadvisable to attempt to comply, with the diet and exercise program, due to a medical condition.)
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Notice of availability of reasonable alternative standard.</I> The plan or issuer must disclose in all plan materials describing the terms of an outcome-based wellness program, and in any disclosure that an individual did not satisfy an initial outcome-based standard, the availability of a reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward (and, if applicable, the possibility of waiver of the otherwise applicable standard), including contact information for obtaining a reasonable alternative standard and a statement that recommendations of an individual's personal physician will be accommodated. If plan materials merely mention that such a program is available, without describing its terms, this disclosure is not required. Sample language is provided in paragraph (f)(6) of this section, as well as in certain examples of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Examples.</I> The provisions of this paragraph (f)(4) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1—Cholesterol screening with reasonable alternative standard to work with personal physician.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers a reward to participants who achieve a count under 200 on a total cholesterol test. If a participant does not achieve the targeted cholesterol count, the plan allows the participant to develop an alternative cholesterol action plan in conjunction with the participant's personal physician that may include recommendations for medication and additional screening. The plan allows the physician to modify the standards, as medically necessary, over the year. (For example, if a participant develops asthma or depression, requires surgery and convalescence, or some other medical condition or consideration makes completion of the original action plan inadvisable or unreasonably difficult, the physician may modify the original action plan.) All plan materials describing the terms of the program include the following statement: “Your health plan wants to help you take charge of your health. Rewards are available to all employees who participate in our Cholesterol Awareness Wellness Program. If your total cholesterol count is under 200, you will receive the reward. If not, you will still have an opportunity to qualify for the reward. We will work with you and your doctor to find a Health Smart program that is right for you.” In addition, when any individual participant receives notification that his or her cholesterol count is 200 or higher, the notification includes the following statement: “Your plan offers a Health Smart program under which we will work with you and your doctor to try to lower your cholesterol. If you complete this program, you will qualify for a reward. Please contact us at [contact information] to get started.”
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the program is an outcome-based wellness program because the initial standard requires an individual to attain or maintain a specific health outcome (a certain cholesterol level) to obtain a reward. The program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section because the cholesterol program is reasonably designed to promote health and prevent disease. The program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section because it makes available to all participants who do not meet the cholesterol standard a reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward. Lastly, the plan also discloses in all materials describing the terms of the program and in any disclosure that an individual did not satisfy the initial outcome-based standard the availability of a reasonable alternative standard (including contact information and the individual's ability to involve his or her personal physician), as required by paragraph (f)(4)(v) of this section. Thus, the program satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (f)(4)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2—Cholesterol screening with plan alternative and no opportunity for personal physician involvement.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except that the wellness program's physician or nurse practitioner (rather than the individual's personal physician) determines the alternative cholesterol action plan. The plan does not provide an opportunity for a participant's personal physician to modify the action plan if it is not medically appropriate for that individual.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the wellness program does not satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section because the program does not accommodate the recommendations of the participant's personal physician with regard to medical appropriateness, as required under paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(C)(<I>3</I>) of this section. Thus, the program is not reasonably designed under paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section and is not available to all similarly situated individuals under paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section. The notice also does not provide all the content required under paragraph (f)(4)(v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3—Cholesterol screening with plan alternative that can be modified by personal physician.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 2,</I> except that if a participant's personal physician disagrees with any part of the action plan, the personal physician may modify the action plan at any time, and the plan discloses this to participants.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the wellness program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section because the participant's personal physician may modify the action plan determined by the wellness program's physician or nurse practitioner at any time if the physician states that the recommendations are not medically appropriate, as required under paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(C)(<I>3</I>) of this section. Thus, the program is reasonably designed under paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section and is available to all similarly situated individuals under paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section. The notice, which includes a statement that recommendations of an individual's personal physician will be accommodated, also complies with paragraph (f)(4)(v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4—BMI screening with walking program alternative.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan will provide a reward to participants who have a body mass index (BMI) that is 26 or lower, determined shortly before the beginning of the year. Any participant who does not meet the target BMI is given the same discount if the participant complies with an exercise program that consists of walking 150 minutes a week. Any participant for whom it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to comply with this walking program (and any participant for whom it is medically inadvisable to attempt to comply with the walking program) during the year is given the same discount if the participant satisfies an alternative standard that is reasonable taking into consideration the participant's medical situation, is not unreasonably burdensome or impractical to comply with, and is otherwise reasonably designed based on all the relevant facts and circumstances. All plan materials describing the terms of the wellness program include the following statement: “Fitness is Easy! Start Walking! Your health plan cares about your health. If you are considered overweight because you have a BMI of over 26, our Start Walking program will help you lose weight and feel better. We will help you enroll. (**If your doctor says that walking isn't right for you, that's okay too. We will work with you (and, if you wish, your own doctor) to develop a wellness program that is.)” Participant <I>E</I> is unable to achieve a BMI that is 26 or lower within the plan's timeframe and receives notification that complies with paragraph (f)(4)(v) of this section. Nevertheless, it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition for <I>E</I> to comply with the walking program. <I>E</I> proposes a program based on the recommendations of <I>E'</I>s physician. The plan agrees to make the same discount available to <I>E</I> that is available to other participants in the BMI program or the alternative walking program, but only if <I>E</I> actually follows the physician's recommendations.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the program is an outcome-based wellness program because the initial standard requires an individual to attain or maintain a specific health outcome (a certain BMI level) to obtain a reward. The program satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section because it is reasonably designed to promote health and prevent disease. The program also satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section because it makes available to all individuals who do not satisfy the BMI standard a reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward (in this case, a walking program that is not unreasonably burdensome or impractical for individuals to comply with and that is otherwise reasonably designed based on all the relevant facts and circumstances). In addition, the walking program is, itself, an activity-only standard and the plan complies with the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section (including the requirement of paragraph (f)(3)(iv) that, if there are individuals for whom it is unreasonably difficult due to a medical condition to comply, or for whom it is medically inadvisable to attempt to comply, with the walking program, the plan provide a reasonable alternative to those individuals). Moreover, the plan satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(4)(v) of this section because it discloses, in all materials describing the terms of the program and in any disclosure that an individual did not satisfy the initial outcome-based standard, the availability of a reasonable alternative standard (including contact information and the individual's option to involve his or her personal physician) to qualify for the reward or the possibility of waiver of the otherwise applicable standard. Thus, the program satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (f)(4)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5—BMI screening with alternatives available to either lower BMI or meet personal physician's recommendations.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4</I> except that, with respect to any participant who does not meet the target BMI, instead of a walking program, the participant is expected to reduce BMI by one point. At any point during the year upon request, any individual can obtain a second reasonable alternative standard, which is compliance with the recommendations of the participant's personal physician regarding weight, diet, and exercise as set forth in a treatment plan that the physician recommends or to which the physician agrees. The participant's personal physician is permitted to change or adjust the treatment plan at any time and the option of following the participant's personal physician's recommendations is clearly disclosed.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward (the alternative BMI standard requiring a one-point reduction) does not make the program unreasonable under paragraph (f)(4)(iii) or (iv) of this section because the program complies with paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(C)(<I>4</I>) of this section by allowing a second reasonable alternative standard to qualify for the reward (compliance with the recommendations of the participant's personal physician, which can be changed or adjusted at any time). Accordingly, the program continues to satisfy the applicable requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6—Tobacco use surcharge with smoking cessation program alternative.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> In conjunction with an annual open enrollment period, a group health plan provides a premium differential based on tobacco use, determined using a health risk assessment. The following statement is included in all plan materials describing the tobacco premium differential: “Stop smoking today! We can help! If you are a smoker, we offer a smoking cessation program. If you complete the program, you can avoid this surcharge.” The plan accommodates participants who smoke by facilitating their enrollment in a smoking cessation program that requires participation at a time and place that are not unreasonably burdensome or impractical for participants, and that is otherwise reasonably designed based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, and discloses contact information and the individual's option to involve his or her personal physician. The plan pays for the cost of participation in the smoking cessation program. Any participant can avoid the surcharge for the plan year by participating in the program, regardless of whether the participant stops smoking, but the plan can require a participant who wants to avoid the surcharge in a subsequent year to complete the smoking cessation program again.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> the premium differential satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (f)(4)(iii), (iv), and (v). The program is an outcome-based wellness program because the initial standard for obtaining a reward is dependent on the results of a health risk assessment (a measurement, test, or screening). The program is reasonably designed under paragraph (f)(4)(iii) because the plan provides a reasonable alternative standard (as required under paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section) to qualify for the reward to all tobacco users (a smoking cessation program). The plan discloses, in all materials describing the terms of the program, the availability of the reasonable alternative standard (including contact information and the individual's option to involve his or her personal physician). Thus, the program satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (f)(4)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7—Tobacco use surcharge with alternative program requiring actual cessation.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 6,</I> except the plan does not provide participant <I>F</I> with the reward in subsequent years unless <I>F</I> actually stops smoking after participating in the tobacco cessation program.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> the program is not reasonably designed under paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section and does not provide a reasonable alternative standard as required under paragraph (f)(4)(iv) of this section. The plan cannot cease to provide a reasonable alternative standard merely because the participant did not stop smoking after participating in a smoking cessation program. The plan must continue to offer a reasonable alternative standard whether it is the same or different (such as a new recommendation from <I>F'</I>s personal physician or a new nicotine replacement therapy).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8—Tobacco use surcharge with smoking cessation program alternative that is not reasonable.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 6,</I> except the plan does not facilitate participant <I>F'</I>s enrollment in a smoking cessation program. Instead the plan advises <I>F</I> to find a program, pay for it, and provide a certificate of completion to the plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8,</I> the requirement for <I>F</I> to find and pay for <I>F'</I>s own smoking cessation program means that the alternative program is not reasonable. Accordingly, the plan has not offered a reasonable alternative standard that complies with paragraphs (f)(4)(iii) and (iv) of this section and the program fails to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(5) <I>Applicable percentage.</I> (i) For purposes of this paragraph (f), the applicable percentage is 30 percent, except that the applicable percentage is increased by an additional 20 percentage points (to 50 percent) to the extent that the additional percentage is in connection with a program designed to prevent or reduce tobacco use.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (f)(5) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan. The annual premium for employee-only coverage is $6,000 (of which the employer pays $4,500 per year and the employee pays $1,500 per year). The plan offers employees a health-contingent wellness program with several components, focused on exercise, blood sugar, weight, cholesterol, and blood pressure. The reward for compliance is an annual premium rebate of $600.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the reward for the wellness program, $600, does not exceed the applicable percentage of 30 percent of the total annual cost of employee-only coverage, $1,800. ($6,000 × 30% = $1,800.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except the wellness program is exclusively a tobacco prevention program. Employees who have used tobacco in the last 12 months and who are not enrolled in the plan's tobacco cessation program are charged a $1,000 premium surcharge (in addition to their employee contribution towards the coverage). (Those who participate in the plan's tobacco cessation program are not assessed the $1,000 surcharge.)
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the reward for the wellness program (absence of a $1,000 surcharge), does not exceed the applicable percentage of 50 percent of the total annual cost of employee-only coverage, $3,000. ($6,000 × 50% = $3,000.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except that, in addition to the $600 reward for compliance with the health-contingent wellness program, the plan also imposes an additional $2,000 tobacco premium surcharge on employees who have used tobacco in the last 12 months and who are not enrolled in the plan's tobacco cessation program. (Those who participate in the plan's tobacco cessation program are not assessed the $2,000 surcharge.)
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the total of all rewards (including absence of a surcharge for participating in the tobacco program) is $2,600 ($600 + $2,000 = $2,600), which does not exceed the applicable percentage of 50 percent of the total annual cost of employee-only coverage ($3,000); and, tested separately, the $600 reward for the wellness program unrelated to tobacco use does not exceed the applicable percentage of 30 percent of the total annual cost of employee-only coverage ($1,800).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan. The total annual premium for employee-only coverage (including both employer and employee contributions towards the coverage) is $5,000. The plan provides a $250 reward to employees who complete a health risk assessment, without regard to the health issues identified as part of the assessment. The plan also offers a Healthy Heart program, which is a health-contingent wellness program, with an opportunity to earn a $1,500 reward.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> even though the total reward for all wellness programs under the plan is $1,750 ($250 + $1,500 = $1,750, which exceeds the applicable percentage of 30 percent of the cost of the annual premium for employee-only coverage ($5,000 × 30% = $1,500)), only the reward offered for compliance with the health-contingent wellness program ($1,500) is taken into account in determining whether the rules of this paragraph (f)(5) are met. (The $250 reward is offered in connection with a participatory wellness program and therefore is not taken into account.) Accordingly, the health-contingent wellness program offers a reward that does not exceed the applicable percentage of 30 percent of the total annual cost of employee-only coverage.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(6) <I>Sample language.</I> The following language, or substantially similar language, can be used to satisfy the notice requirement of paragraphs (f)(3)(v) or (f)(4)(v) of this section: “Your health plan is committed to helping you achieve your best health. Rewards for participating in a wellness program are available to all employees. If you think you might be unable to meet a standard for a reward under this wellness program, you might qualify for an opportunity to earn the same reward by different means. Contact us at [insert contact information] and we will work with you (and, if you wish, with your doctor) to find a wellness program with the same reward that is right for you in light of your health status.”
</P>
<P>(g) <I>More favorable treatment of individuals with adverse health factors permitted</I>—(1) <I>In rules for eligibility.</I> (i) Nothing in this section prevents a group health plan or group health insurance issuer from establishing more favorable rules for eligibility (described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section) for individuals with an adverse health factor, such as disability, than for individuals without the adverse health factor. Moreover, nothing in this section prevents a plan or issuer from charging a higher premium or contribution with respect to individuals with an adverse health factor if they would not be eligible for the coverage were it not for the adverse health factor. (However, other laws, including State insurance laws, may set or limit premium rates; these laws are not affected by this section.)
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (g)(1) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that generally is available to employees, spouses of employees, and dependent children until age 26. However, dependent children who are disabled are eligible for coverage beyond age 26.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this Example 1, the plan provision allowing coverage for disabled dependent children beyond age 26 satisfies this paragraph (g)(1) (and thus does not violate this section).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan, which is generally available to employees (and members of the employee's family) until the last day of the month in which the employee ceases to perform services for the employer. The plan generally charges employees $50 per month for employee-only coverage and $125 per month for family coverage. However, an employee who ceases to perform services for the employer by reason of disability may remain covered under the plan until the last day of the month that is 12 months after the month in which the employee ceased to perform services for the employer. During this extended period of coverage, the plan charges the employee $100 per month for employee-only coverage and $250 per month for family coverage. (This extended period of coverage is without regard to whatever rights the employee (or members of the employee's family) may have for COBRA continuation coverage.)
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the plan provision allowing extended coverage for disabled employees and their families satisfies this paragraph (g)(1) (and thus does not violate this section). In addition, the plan is permitted, under this paragraph (g)(1), to charge the disabled employees a higher premium during the extended period of coverage.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> To comply with the requirements of a COBRA continuation provision, a group health plan generally makes COBRA continuation coverage available for a maximum period of 18 months in connection with a termination of employment but makes the coverage available for a maximum period of 29 months to certain disabled individuals and certain members of the disabled individual's family. Although the plan generally requires payment of 102 percent of the applicable premium for the first 18 months of COBRA continuation coverage, the plan requires payment of 150 percent of the applicable premium for the disabled individual's COBRA continuation coverage during the disability extension if the disabled individual would not be entitled to COBRA continuation coverage but for the disability.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, the plan provision allowing extended COBRA continuation coverage for disabled individuals satisfies this paragraph (g)(1) (and thus does not violate this section). In addition, the plan is permitted, under this paragraph (g)(1), to charge the disabled individuals a higher premium for the extended coverage if the individuals would not be eligible for COBRA continuation coverage were it not for the disability. (Similarly, if the plan provided an extended period of coverage for disabled individuals pursuant to State law or plan provision rather than pursuant to a COBRA continuation coverage provision, the plan could likewise charge the disabled individuals a higher premium for the extended coverage.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>In premiums or contributions.</I> (i) Nothing in this section prevents a group health plan or group health insurance issuer from charging individuals a premium or contribution that is less than the premium (or contribution) for similarly situated individuals if the lower charge is based on an adverse health factor, such as disability.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (g)(2) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under a group health plan, employees are generally required to pay $50 per month for employee-only coverage and $125 per month for family coverage under the plan. However, employees who are disabled receive coverage (whether employee-only or family coverage) under the plan free of charge.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example</I>, the plan provision waiving premium payment for disabled employees is permitted under this paragraph (g)(2) (and thus does not violate this section).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(h) <I>No effect on other laws.</I> Compliance with this section is not determinative of compliance with any other provision of the PHS Act (including the COBRA continuation provisions) or any other State or Federal law, such as the Americans with Disabilities Act. Therefore, although the rules of this section would not prohibit a plan or issuer from treating one group of similarly situated individuals differently from another (such as providing different benefit packages to current and former employees), other Federal or State laws may require that two separate groups of similarly situated individuals be treated the same for certain purposes (such as making the same benefit package available to COBRA qualified beneficiaries as is made available to active employees). In addition, although this section generally does not impose new disclosure obligations on plans and issuers, this section does not affect any other laws, including those that require accurate disclosures and prohibit intentional misrepresentation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> This section applies for plan years beginning on or after July 1, 2007.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule for self-funded nonfederal governmental plans exempted under 45 CFR 146.180.</I> (i) If coverage has been denied to any individual because the sponsor of a self-funded nonfederal governmental plan has elected under § 146.180 to exempt the plan from the requirements of this section, and the plan sponsor subsequently chooses to bring the plan into compliance with the requirements of this section, the plan—
</P>
<P>(A) Must notify the individual that the plan will be coming into compliance with the requirements of this section, specify the effective date of compliance, and inform the individual regarding any enrollment restrictions that may apply under the terms of the plan once the plan is in compliance with this section (as a matter of administrative convenience, the notice may be disseminated to all employees);
</P>
<P>(B) Must give the individual an opportunity to enroll that continues for at least 30 days;
</P>
<P>(C) Must permit coverage to be effective as of the first day of plan coverage for which an exemption election under § 146.180 of this part (with regard to this section) is no longer in effect; and
</P>
<P>(D) May not treat the individual as a late enrollee or a special enrollee.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (i)(2), an individual is considered to have been denied coverage if the individual failed to apply for coverage because, given an exemption election under § 146.180 of this part, it was reasonable to believe that an application for coverage would have been denied based on a health factor.
</P>
<P>(iii) The rules of this paragraph (i)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>D</I> was hired by a nonfederal governmental employer in June 1999. The employer maintains a self-funded group health plan with a plan year beginning on October 1. The plan sponsor elected under § 146.180 of this part to exempt the plan from the requirements of this section for the plan year beginning October 1, 2005, and renewed the exemption election for the plan year beginning October 1, 2006. Under the terms of the plan while the exemption was in effect, employees and their dependents were allowed to enroll when the employee was first hired without regard to any health factor. If an individual declines to enroll when first eligible, the individual could enroll effective October 1 of any plan year if the individual could pass a physical examination. The evidence-of-good-health requirement for late enrollees, absent an exemption election under § 146.180 of this part, would have been in violation of this section. <I>D</I> chose not to enroll for coverage when first hired. In February of 2006, <I>D</I> was treated for skin cancer but did not apply for coverage under the plan for the plan year beginning October 1, 2006, because <I>D</I> assumed <I>D</I> could not meet the evidence-of-good-health requirement. With the plan year beginning October 1, 2007 the plan sponsor chose not to renew its exemption election and brought the plan into compliance with this section. The plan notifies individual <I>D</I> (and all other employees) that it will be coming into compliance with the requirements of this section. The notice specifies that the effective date of compliance will be October 1, 2007, explains the applicable enrollment restrictions that will apply under the plan, states that individuals will have at least 30 days to enroll, and explains that coverage for those who choose to enroll will be effective as of October 1, 2007. Individual <I>D</I> timely requests enrollment in the plan, and coverage commences under the plan on October 1, 2007.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the plan complies with this paragraph (i)(2).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>E</I> was hired by a nonfederal governmental employer in February 1999. The employer maintains a self-funded group health plan with a plan year beginning on September 1. The plan sponsor elected under § 146.180 of this part to exempt the plan from the requirements of this section and “§ 146.111 (limitations on preexisting condition exclusion periods) for the plan year beginning September 1, 2002, and renews the exemption election for the plan years beginning September 1, 2003, September 1, 2004, September 1, 2005, and September 1, 2006. Under the terms of the plan while the exemption was in effect, employees and their dependents were allowed to enroll when the employee was first hired without regard to any health factor. If an individual declined to enroll when first eligible, the individual could enroll effective September 1 of any plan year if the individual could pass a physical examination. Also under the terms of the plan, all enrollees were subject to a 12-month preexisting condition exclusion period, regardless of whether they had creditable coverage. <I>E</I> chose not to enroll for coverage when first hired. In June of 2006, <I>E</I> is diagnosed as having multiple sclerosis (MS). With the plan year beginning September 1, 2007, the plan sponsor chooses to bring the plan into compliance with this section, but renews its exemption election with regard to limitations on preexisting condition exclusion periods. The plan notifies <I>E</I> of her opportunity to enroll, without a physical examination, effective September 1, 2007. The plan gives <I>E</I> 30 days to enroll. <I>E</I> is subject to a 12-month preexisting condition exclusion period with respect to any treatment <I>E</I> receives that is related to <I>E</I>'s MS, without regard to any prior creditable coverage <I>E</I> may have. Beginning September 1, 2008, the plan will cover treatment of <I>E</I>'s MS.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the plan complies with the requirements of this section. (The plan is not required to comply with the requirements of § 146.111 because the plan continues to be exempted from those requirements in accordance with the plan sponsor's election under § 146.180.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 75046, Dec. 13, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 51688, Oct. 7, 2009; 78 FR 33187, June 3, 2013; 79 FR 10314, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.122" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.122   Additional requirements prohibiting discrimination based on genetic information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> Unless otherwise provided, the definitions in this paragraph (a) govern in applying the provisions of this section.
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<P>(1) <I>Collect</I> means, with respect to information, to request, require, or purchase such information.
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<P>(2) <I>Family member</I> means, with respect to an individual—
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<P>(i) A dependent (as defined in § 144.103 of this part) of the individual; or
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<P>(ii) Any other person who is a first-degree, second-degree, third-degree, or fourth-degree relative of the individual or of a dependent of the individual. Relatives by affinity (such as by marriage or adoption) are treated the same as relatives by consanguinity (that is, relatives who share a common biological ancestor). In determining the degree of the relationship, relatives by less than full consanguinity (such as half-siblings, who share only one parent) are treated the same as relatives by full consanguinity (such as siblings who share both parents).
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<P>(A) First-degree relatives include parents, spouses, siblings, and children.
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<P>(B) Second-degree relatives include grandparents, grandchildren, aunts, uncles, nephews, and nieces.
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<P>(C) Third-degree relatives include great-grandparents, great-grandchildren, great aunts, great uncles, and first cousins.
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<P>(D) Fourth-degree relatives include great-great grandparents, great-great grandchildren, and children of first cousins.
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<P>(3) <I>Genetic information</I> means—
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<P>(i) Subject to paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section, with respect to an individual, information about—
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<P>(A) The individual's genetic tests (as defined in paragraph (a)(5) of this section);
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<P>(B) The genetic tests of family members of the individual;
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<P>(C) The manifestation (as defined in paragraph (a)(6) of this section) of a disease or disorder in family members of the individual; or
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<P>(D) Any request for, or receipt of, genetic services (as defined in paragraph (a)(4) of this section), or participation in clinical research which includes genetic services, by the individual or any family member of the individual.
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<P>(ii) The term <I>genetic information</I> does not include information about the sex or age of any individual.
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<P>(iii) The term <I>genetic information</I> includes—
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<P>(A) With respect to a pregnant woman (or a family member of the pregnant woman), genetic information of any fetus carried by the pregnant woman; and
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<P>(B) With respect to an individual (or a family member of the individual) who is utilizing an assisted reproductive technology, genetic information of any embryo legally held by the individual or family member.
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<P>(4) <I>Genetic services</I> means —
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<P>(i) A genetic test, as defined in paragraph (a)(5) of this section;
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<P>(ii) Genetic counseling (including obtaining, interpreting, or assessing genetic information); or
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<P>(iii) Genetic education.
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<P>(5)(i) <I>Genetic test</I> means an analysis of human DNA, RNA, chromosomes, proteins, or metabolites, if the analysis detects genotypes, mutations, or chromosomal changes. However, a genetic test does not include an analysis of proteins or metabolites that is directly related to a manifested disease, disorder, or pathological condition. Accordingly, a test to determine whether an individual has a BRCA1 or BRCA2 variant is a genetic test. Similarly, a test to determine whether an individual has a genetic variant associated with hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer is a genetic test. However, an HIV test, complete blood count, cholesterol test, liver function test, or test for the presence of alcohol or drugs is not a genetic test.
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<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (a)(5) are illustrated by the following example:
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<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> is a newborn covered under a group health plan. <I>A</I> undergoes a phenylketonuria (PKU) screening, which measures the concentration of a metabolite, phenylalanine, in <I>A'</I>s blood. In PKU, a mutation occurs in the phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene which contains instructions for making the enzyme needed to break down the amino acid phenylalanine. Individuals with the mutation, who have a deficiency in the enzyme to break down phenylalanine, have high concentrations of phenylalanine.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example</I>, the PKU screening is a genetic test with respect to <I>A</I> because the screening is an analysis of metabolites that detects a genetic mutation.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(6)(i) <I>Manifestation</I> or <I>manifested</I> means, with respect to a disease, disorder, or pathological condition, that an individual has been or could reasonably be diagnosed with the disease, disorder, or pathological condition by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved. For purposes of this section, a disease, disorder, or pathological condition is not manifested if a diagnosis is based principally on genetic information.
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<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (a)(6) are illustrated by the following examples:
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<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> has a family medical history of diabetes. <I>A</I> begins to experience excessive sweating, thirst, and fatigue. <I>A'</I>s physician examines <I>A</I> and orders blood glucose testing (which is not a genetic test). Based on the physician's examination, <I>A'</I>s symptoms, and test results that show elevated levels of blood glucose, <I>A'</I>s physician diagnoses <I>A</I> as having adult onset diabetes mellitus (Type 2 diabetes).
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1, A</I> has been diagnosed by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved. The diagnosis is not based principally on genetic information. Thus, Type 2 diabetes is manifested with respect to <I>A.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>B</I> has several family members with colon cancer. One of them underwent genetic testing which detected a mutation in the MSH2 gene associated with hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC). <I>B'</I>s physician, a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved, recommends that <I>B</I> undergo a targeted genetic test to look for the specific mutation found in <I>B</I> 's relative to determine if <I>B</I> has an elevated risk for cancer. The genetic test with respect to <I>B</I> showed that <I>B</I> also carries the mutation and is at increased risk to develop colorectal and other cancers associated with HNPCC. <I>B</I> has a colonoscopy which indicates no signs of disease, and <I>B</I> has no symptoms.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> because <I>B</I> has no signs or symptoms of colorectal cancer, <I>B</I> has not been and could not reasonably be diagnosed with HNPCC. Thus, HNPCC is not manifested with respect to <I>B.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 2</I>, except that <I>B'</I>s colonoscopy and subsequent tests indicate the presence of HNPCC. Based on the colonoscopy and subsequent test results, <I>B'</I>s physician makes a diagnosis of HNPCC.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, HNPCC is manifested with respect to <I>B</I> because a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise in the field of medicine involved has made a diagnosis that is not based principally on genetic information.</P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>C</I> has a family member that has been diagnosed with Huntington's Disease. A genetic test indicates that <I>C</I> has the Huntington's Disease gene variant. At age 42, <I>C</I> begins suffering from occasional moodiness and disorientation, symptoms which are associated with Huntington's Disease. <I>C</I> is examined by a neurologist (a physician with appropriate training and expertise for diagnosing Huntington's Disease). The examination includes a clinical neurological exam. The results of the examination do not support a diagnosis of Huntington's Disease.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4, C</I> is not and could not reasonably be diagnosed with Huntington's Disease by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise. Therefore, Huntington's Disease is not manifested with respect to <I>C.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4</I>, except that <I>C</I> exhibits additional neurological and behavioral symptoms, and the results of the examination support a diagnosis of Huntington's Disease with respect to <I>C.</I>
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5, C</I> could reasonably be diagnosed with Huntington's Disease by a health care professional with appropriate training and expertise. Therefore, Huntington's Disease is manifested with respect to <I>C.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(7) <I>Underwriting purposes</I> has the meaning given in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
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<P>(b) <I>No group-based discrimination based on genetic information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this section, a group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, must not adjust premium or contribution amounts for the plan, or any group of similarly situated individuals under the plan, on the basis of genetic information. For this purpose, “similarly situated individuals” are those described in § 146.121(d) of this part.
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<P>(2) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (b)(1) of this section (or in paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section) limits the ability of a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan to increase the premium for a group health plan or a group of similarly situated individuals under the plan based on the manifestation of a disease or disorder of an individual who is enrolled in the plan. In such a case, however, the manifestation of a disease or disorder in one individual cannot also be used as genetic information about other group members to further increase the premium for a group health plan or a group of similarly situated individuals under the plan.
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<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b) are illustrated by the following examples:
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<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage through a health insurance issuer. In order to determine the premium rate for the upcoming plan year, the issuer reviews the claims experience of individuals covered under the plan and other health status information of the individuals, including genetic information. The issuer finds that three individuals covered under the plan had unusually high claims experience. In addition, the issuer finds that the genetic information of two other individuals indicates the individuals have a higher probability of developing certain illnesses although the illnesses are not manifested at this time. The issuer quotes the plan a higher per-participant rate because of both the genetic information and the higher claims experience.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the issuer violates the provisions of this paragraph (b) because the issuer adjusts the premium based on genetic information. However, if the adjustment related solely to claims experience, the adjustment would not violate the requirements of this section (nor would it violate the requirements of paragraph (c) of § 146.121 of this part, which prohibits discrimination in individual premiums or contributions based on a health factor but permits increases in the group rate based on a health factor).</P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage through a health insurance issuer. In order to determine the premium rate for the upcoming plan year, the issuer reviews the claims experience of individuals covered under the plan and other health status information of the individuals, including genetic information. The issuer finds that Employee <I>A</I> has made claims for treatment of polycystic kidney disease. <I>A</I> also has two dependent children covered under the plan. The issuer quotes the plan a higher per-participant rate because of both <I>A'</I>s claims experience and the family medical history of <I>A'</I>s children (that is, the fact that <I>A</I> has the disease).
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the issuer violates the provisions of this paragraph (b) because, by taking the likelihood that <I>A'</I>s children may develop polycystic kidney disease into account in computing the rate for the plan, the issuer adjusts the premium based on genetic information relating to a condition that has not been manifested in <I>A'</I>s children. However, it is permissible for the issuer to increase the premium based on <I>A'</I>s claims experience.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation on requesting or requiring genetic testing</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), a group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, must not request or require an individual or a family member of the individual to undergo a genetic test.
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<P>(2) <I>Health care professional may recommend a genetic test.</I> Nothing in paragraph (c)(1) of this section limits the authority of a health care professional who is providing health care services to an individual to request that the individual undergo a genetic test.
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<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
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<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> goes to a physician for a routine physical examination. The physician reviews <I>A'</I>s family medical history and <I>A</I> informs the physician that <I>A'</I>s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington's Disease. The physician advises <I>A</I> that Huntington's Disease is hereditary and recommends that <I>A</I> undergo a genetic test.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the physician is a health care professional who is providing health care services to <I>A.</I> Therefore, the physician's recommendation that <I>A</I> undergo the genetic test does not violate this paragraph (c).</P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>B</I> is covered by a health maintenance organization (HMO). <I>B</I> is a child being treated for leukemia. <I>B'</I>s physician, who is employed by the HMO, is considering a treatment plan that includes six-mercaptopurine, a drug for treating leukemia in most children. However, the drug could be fatal if taken by a small percentage of children with a particular gene variant. <I>B'</I>s physician recommends that <I>B</I> undergo a genetic test to detect this variant before proceeding with this course of treatment.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> even though the physician is employed by the HMO, the physician is nonetheless a health care professional who is providing health care services to <I>B.</I> Therefore, the physician's recommendation that <I>B</I> undergo the genetic test does not violate this paragraph (c).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Determination regarding payment</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> As provided in this paragraph (c)(4), nothing in paragraph (c)(1) of this section precludes a plan or issuer from obtaining and using the results of a genetic test in making a determination regarding payment. For this purpose, “payment” has the meaning given such term in § 164.501 of the privacy regulations issued under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Thus, if a plan or issuer conditions payment for an item or service based on its medical appropriateness and the medical appropriateness of the item or service depends on the genetic makeup of a patient, then the plan or issuer is permitted to condition payment for the item or service on the outcome of a genetic test. The plan or issuer may also refuse payment if the patient does not undergo the genetic test.
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<P>(ii) <I>Limitation.</I> A plan or issuer is permitted to request only the minimum amount of information necessary to make a determination regarding payment. The minimum amount of information necessary is determined in accordance with the minimum necessary standard in § 164.502(b) of the privacy regulations issued under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
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<P>(iii) <I>Examples. See</I> paragraph (e) of this section for examples illustrating the rules of this paragraph (c)(4), as well as other provisions of this section.
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<P>(5) <I>Research exception.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a plan or issuer may request, but not require, that a participant or beneficiary undergo a genetic test if all of the conditions of this paragraph (c)(5) are met:
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<P>(i) <I>Research in accordance with Federal regulations and applicable State or local law or regulations.</I> The plan or issuer makes the request pursuant to research, as defined in § 46.102(d) of this subtitle, that complies with part 46 of this subtitle or equivalent Federal regulations, and any applicable State or local law or regulations for the protection of human subjects in research.
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<P>(ii) <I>Written request for participation in research.</I> The plan or issuer makes the request in writing, and the request clearly indicates to each participant or beneficiary (or, in the case of a minor child, to the legal guardian of the beneficiary) that—
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<P>(A) Compliance with the request is voluntary; and
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<P>(B) Noncompliance will have no effect on eligibility for benefits (as described in § 146.121(b)(1) of this part) or premium or contribution amounts.
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<P>(iii) <I>Prohibition on underwriting.</I> No genetic information collected or acquired under this paragraph (c)(5) can be used for underwriting purposes (as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section).
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<P>(iv) <I>Notice to Federal agencies.</I> The plan or issuer completes a copy of the “Notice of Research Exception under the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act” authorized by the Secretary and provides the notice to the address specified in the instructions thereto.
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<P>(d) <I>Prohibitions on collection of genetic information</I>—(1) <I>For underwriting purposes</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, must not collect (as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) genetic information for underwriting purposes. <I>See</I> paragraph (e) of this section for examples illustrating the rules of this paragraph (d)(1), as well as other provisions of this section.
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<P>(ii) <I>Underwriting purposes defined.</I> Subject to paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section, <I>underwriting purposes</I> means, with respect to any group health plan, or health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan—
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<P>(A) Rules for, or determination of, eligibility (including enrollment and continued eligibility) for benefits under the plan or coverage as described in § 146.121(b)(1)(ii) of this part (including changes in deductibles or other cost-sharing mechanisms in return for activities such as completing a health risk assessment or participating in a wellness program);
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<P>(B) The computation of premium or contribution amounts under the plan or coverage (including discounts, rebates, payments in kind, or other premium differential mechanisms in return for activities such as completing a health risk assessment or participating in a wellness program);
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<P>(C) The application of any preexisting condition exclusion under the plan or coverage; and
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<P>(D) Other activities related to the creation, renewal, or replacement of a contract of health insurance or health benefits.
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<P>(iii) <I>Medical appropriateness.</I> If an individual seeks a benefit under a group health plan or health insurance coverage, the plan or coverage may limit or exclude the benefit based on whether the benefit is medically appropriate, and the determination of whether the benefit is medically appropriate is not within the meaning of underwriting purposes. Accordingly, if an individual seeks a benefit under the plan and the plan or issuer conditions the benefit based on its medical appropriateness and the medical appropriateness of the benefit depends on genetic information of the individual, then the plan or issuer is permitted to condition the benefit on the genetic information. A plan or issuer is permitted to request only the minimum amount of genetic information necessary to determine medical appropriateness. The plan or issuer may deny the benefit if the patient does not provide the genetic information required to determine medical appropriateness. If an individual is not seeking a benefit, the medical appropriateness exception of this paragraph (d)(1)(iii) to the definition of underwriting purposes does not apply. <I>See</I> paragraph (e) of this section for examples illustrating the medical appropriateness provisions of this paragraph (d)(1)(iii), as well as other provisions of this section.
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<P>(2) <I>Prior to or in connection with enrollment</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, must not collect genetic information with respect to any individual prior to that individual's effective date of coverage under that plan or coverage, nor in connection with the rules for eligibility (as defined in § 146.121(b)(1)(ii) of this part) that apply to that individual. Whether or not an individual's information is collected prior to that individual's effective date of coverage is determined at the time of collection.
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<P>(ii) <I>Incidental collection exception</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan, obtains genetic information incidental to the collection of other information concerning any individual, the collection is not a violation of this paragraph (d)(2), as long as the collection is not for underwriting purposes in violation of paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
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<P>(B) <I>Limitation.</I> The incidental collection exception of this paragraph (d)(2)(ii) does not apply in connection with any collection where it is reasonable to anticipate that health information will be received, unless the collection explicitly states that genetic information should not be provided.
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<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (d) are illustrated by the following examples:
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<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides a premium reduction to enrollees who complete a health risk assessment. The health risk assessment is requested to be completed after enrollment. Whether or not it is completed or what responses are given on it has no effect on an individual's enrollment status, or on the enrollment status of members of the individual's family. The health risk assessment includes questions about the individual's family medical history.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the health risk assessment includes a request for genetic information (that is, the individual's family medical history). Because completing the health risk assessment results in a premium reduction, the request for genetic information is for underwriting purposes. Consequently, the request violates the prohibition on the collection of genetic information in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> The same facts as <I>Example 1</I>, except there is no premium reduction or any other reward for completing the health risk assessment.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the request is not for underwriting purposes, nor is it prior to or in connection with enrollment. Therefore, it does not violate the prohibition on the collection of genetic information in this paragraph (d).</P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requests that enrollees complete a health risk assessment prior to enrollment, and includes questions about the individual's family medical history. There is no reward or penalty for completing the health risk assessment.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, because the health risk assessment includes a request for genetic information (that is, the individual's family medical history), and requests the information prior to enrollment, the request violates the prohibition on the collection of genetic information in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Moreover, because it is a request for genetic information, it is not an incidental collection under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in <I>Example 1</I>, except there is no premium reduction or any other reward given for completion of the health risk assessment. However, certain people completing the health risk assessment may become eligible for additional benefits under the plan by being enrolled in a disease management program based on their answers to questions about family medical history. Other people may become eligible for the disease management program based solely on their answers to questions about their individual medical history.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the request for information about an individual's family medical history could result in the individual being eligible for benefits for which the individual would not otherwise be eligible. Therefore, the questions about family medical history on the health risk assessment are a request for genetic information for underwriting purposes and are prohibited under this paragraph (d). Although the plan conditions eligibility for the disease management program based on determinations of medical appropriateness, the exception for determinations of medical appropriateness does not apply because the individual is not seeking benefits.</P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requests enrollees to complete two distinct health risk assessments (HRAs) after and unrelated to enrollment. The first HRA instructs the individual to answer only for the individual and not for the individual's family. The first HRA does not ask about any genetic tests the individual has undergone or any genetic services the individual has received. The plan offers a reward for completing the first HRA. The second HRA asks about family medical history and the results of genetic tests the individual has undergone. The plan offers no reward for completing the second HRA and the instructions make clear that completion of the second HRA is wholly voluntary and will not affect the reward given for completion of the first HRA.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5</I>, no genetic information is collected in connection with the first HRA, which offers a reward, and no benefits or other rewards are conditioned on the request for genetic information in the second HRA. Consequently, the request for genetic information in the second HRA is not for underwriting purposes, and the two HRAs do not violate the prohibition on the collection of genetic information in this paragraph (d).</P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan waives its annual deductible for enrollees who complete an HRA. The HRA is requested to be completed after enrollment. Whether or not the HRA is completed or what responses are given on it has no effect on an individual's enrollment status, or on the enrollment status of members of the individual's family. The HRA does not include any direct questions about the individual's genetic information (including family medical history). However, the last question reads, “Is there anything else relevant to your health that you would like us to know or discuss with you?”
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6</I>, the plan's request for medical information does not explicitly state that genetic information should not be provided. Therefore, any genetic information collected in response to the question is not within the incidental collection exception and is prohibited under this paragraph (d).</P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 6</I>, except that the last question goes on to state, “In answering this question, you should not include any genetic information. That is, please do not include any family medical history or any information related to genetic testing, genetic services, genetic counseling, or genetic diseases for which you believe you may be at risk.”
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7</I>, the plan's request for medical information explicitly states that genetic information should not be provided. Therefore, any genetic information collected in response to the question is within the incidental collection exception. However, the plan may not use any genetic information it obtains incidentally for underwriting purposes.</P></EXAMPLE>
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<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Issuer <I>M</I> acquires Issuer <I>N. M</I> requests <I>N'</I>s records, stating that <I>N</I> should not provide genetic information and should review the records to excise any genetic information. <I>N</I> assembles the data requested by <I>M</I> and, although <I>N</I> reviews it to delete genetic information, the data from a specific region included some individuals' family medical history. Consequently, <I>M</I> receives genetic information about some of <I>N'</I>s covered individuals.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8, M'</I>s request for health information explicitly stated that genetic information should not be provided. Therefore, the collection of genetic information was within the incidental collection exception. However, <I>M</I> may not use the genetic information it obtained incidentally for underwriting purposes.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(e) <I>Examples regarding determinations of medical appropriateness.</I> The application of the rules of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section to plan or issuer determinations of medical appropriateness is illustrated by the following examples:
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<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> group health plan covers genetic testing for celiac disease for individuals who have family members with this condition. After <I>A'</I>s son is diagnosed with celiac disease, <I>A</I> undergoes a genetic test and promptly submits a claim for the test to <I>A'</I>s issuer for reimbursement. The issuer asks <I>A</I> to provide the results of the genetic test before the claim is paid.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, under the rules of paragraph (c)(4) of this section the issuer is permitted to request only the minimum amount of information necessary to make a decision regarding payment. Because the results of the test are not necessary for the issuer to make a decision regarding the payment of <I>A'</I>s claim, the issuer's request for the results of the genetic test violates paragraph (c) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>B'</I>s group health plan covers a yearly mammogram for participants and beneficiaries starting at age 40, or at age 30 for those with increased risk for breast cancer, including individuals with BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations. <I>B</I> is 33 years old and has the BRCA2 mutation. <I>B</I> undergoes a mammogram and promptly submits a claim to <I>B'</I>s plan for reimbursement. Following an established policy, the plan asks <I>B</I> for evidence of increased risk of breast cancer, such as the results of a genetic test or a family history of breast cancer, before the claim for the mammogram is paid. This policy is applied uniformly to all similarly situated individuals and is not directed at individuals based on any genetic information.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the plan does not violate paragraphs (c) or (d) of this section. Under paragraph (c), the plan is permitted to request and use the results of a genetic test to make a determination regarding payment, provided the plan requests only the minimum amount of information necessary. Because the medical appropriateness of the mammogram depends on the genetic makeup of the patient, the minimum amount of information necessary includes the results of the genetic test. Similarly, the plan does not violate paragraph (d) of this section because the plan is permitted to request genetic information in making a determination regarding the medical appropriateness of a claim if the genetic information is necessary to make the determination (and if the genetic information is not used for underwriting purposes).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>C</I> was previously diagnosed with and treated for breast cancer, which is currently in remission. In accordance with the recommendation of <I>C'</I>s physician, <I>C</I> has been taking a regular dose of tamoxifen to help prevent a recurrence. <I>C'</I>s group health plan adopts a new policy requiring patients taking tamoxifen to undergo a genetic test to ensure that tamoxifen is medically appropriate for their genetic makeup. In accordance with, at the time, the latest scientific research, tamoxifen is not helpful in up to 7 percent of breast cancer patients, those with certain variations of the gene for making the CYP<E T="52">2</E>D6 enzyme. If a patient has a gene variant making tamoxifen not medically appropriate, the plan does not pay for the tamoxifen prescription.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, the plan does not violate paragraph (c) of this section if it conditions future payments for the tamoxifen prescription on <I>C'</I>s undergoing a genetic test to determine what genetic markers <I>C</I> has for making the CYP<E T="52">2</E>D6 enzyme. Nor does the plan violate paragraph (c) of this section if the plan refuses future payment if the results of the genetic test indicate that tamoxifen is not medically appropriate for <I>C.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers a diabetes disease management program to all similarly situated individuals for whom it is medically appropriate based on whether the individuals have or are at risk for diabetes. The program provides enhanced benefits related only to diabetes for individuals who qualify for the program. The plan sends out a notice to all participants that describes the diabetes disease management program and explains the terms for eligibility. Individuals interested in enrolling in the program are advised to contact the plan to demonstrate that they have diabetes or that they are at risk for diabetes. For individuals who do not currently have diabetes, genetic information may be used to demonstrate that an individual is at risk.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4</I>, the plan may condition benefits under the disease management program upon a showing by an individual that the individual is at risk for diabetes, even if such showing may involve genetic information, provided that the plan requests genetic information only when necessary to make a determination regarding whether the disease management program is medically appropriate for the individual and only requests the minimum amount of information necessary to make that determination.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4</I>, except that the plan includes a questionnaire that asks about the occurrence of diabetes in members of the individual's family as part of the notice describing the disease management program.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5</I>, the plan violates the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section because the requests for genetic information are not limited to those situations in which it is necessary to make a determination regarding whether the disease management program is medically appropriate for the individuals.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4</I>, except the disease management program provides an enhanced benefit in the form of a lower annual deductible to individuals under the program; the lower deductible applies with respect to all medical expenses incurred by the individual. Thus, whether or not a claim relates to diabetes, the individual is provided with a lower deductible based on the individual providing the plan with genetic information.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6</I>, because the enhanced benefits include benefits not related to the determination of medical appropriateness, making available the enhanced benefits is within the meaning of underwriting purposes. Accordingly, the plan may not request or require genetic information (including family history information) in determining eligibility for enhanced benefits under the program because such a request would be for underwriting purposes and would violate paragraph (d)(1) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies for plan years beginning on or after December 7, 2009.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 51688, Oct. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.123" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.123   Special rule allowing integration of Health Reimbursement Arrangements (HRAs) and other account-based group health plans with individual health insurance coverage and Medicare and prohibiting discrimination in HRAs and other account-based group health plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to health reimbursement arrangements (HRAs) and other account-based group health plans, as defined in § 147.126(d)(6)(i) of this subchapter. For ease of reference, the term “HRA” is used in this section to include other account-based group health plans. For related regulations, see 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(3)(i) and (c)(5), 29 CFR 2510.3-1(l), and 45 CFR 155.420.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This section provides the conditions that an HRA must satisfy in order to be integrated with individual health insurance coverage for purposes of Public Health Service Act (PHS Act) sections 2711 and 2713 and § 147.126(d)(4) of this subchapter (referred to as an individual coverage HRA). This section also allows an individual coverage HRA to be integrated with Medicare for purposes of PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713 and § 147.126(d)(4) of this subchapter, subject to the conditions provided in this section (see paragraph (e) of this section). Some of the conditions set forth in this section specifically relate to compliance with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713 and some relate to the effect of having or being offered an individual coverage HRA on eligibility for the premium tax credit under section 36B of the Internal Revenue Code (Code). In addition, this section provides conditions that an individual coverage HRA must satisfy in order to comply with the nondiscrimination provisions in PHS Act section 2705 and that are consistent with the provisions of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, Public Law 111-148 (124 Stat. 119 (2010)), and the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010, Public Law 111-152 (124 Stat. 1029 (2010)), each as amended, that are designed to create a competitive individual market. These conditions are intended to prevent an HRA plan sponsor from intentionally or unintentionally, directly or indirectly, steering any participants or dependents with adverse health factors away from its traditional group health plan, if any, and toward individual health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General rule.</I> An HRA will be considered to be integrated with individual health insurance coverage for purposes of PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713 and § 147.126(d)(4) of this subchapter and will not be considered to discriminate in violation of PHS Act section 2705 solely because it is integrated with individual health insurance coverage, provided that the conditions of this paragraph (c) are satisfied. See paragraph (e) of this section for how these conditions apply to an individual coverage HRA integrated with Medicare. For purposes of this section, medical care expenses means medical care expenses as defined in § 147.126(d)(6)(ii) of this subchapter and Exchange means Exchange as defined in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enrollment in individual health insurance coverage</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The HRA must require that the participant and any dependent(s) are enrolled in individual health insurance coverage that is subject to and complies with the requirements in PHS Act sections 2711 (and § 147.126(a)(2) of this subchapter) and PHS Act section 2713 (and § 147.130(a)(1) of this subchapter), for each month that the individual(s) are covered by the HRA. For purposes of this paragraph (c), all individual health insurance coverage, except for individual health insurance coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits, is treated as being subject to and complying with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713. References to individual health insurance coverage in this paragraph (c) do not include individual health insurance coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Forfeiture.</I> The HRA must provide that if any individual covered by the HRA ceases to be covered by individual health insurance coverage, the HRA will not reimburse medical care expenses that are incurred by that individual after the individual health insurance coverage ceases. In addition, if the participant and all dependents covered by the participant's HRA cease to be covered by individual health insurance coverage, the participant must forfeit the HRA. In either case, the HRA must reimburse medical care expenses incurred by the individual prior to the cessation of individual health insurance coverage to the extent the medical care expenses are otherwise covered by the HRA, but the HRA may limit the period to submit medical care expenses for reimbursement to a reasonable specified time period. If a participant or dependent loses coverage under the HRA for a reason other than cessation of individual health insurance coverage, COBRA and other continuation coverage requirements may apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Grace periods and retroactive termination of individual health insurance coverage.</I> In the event an individual is initially enrolled in individual health insurance coverage and subsequently timely fails to pay premiums for the coverage, with the result that the individual is in a grace period, the individual is considered to be enrolled in individual health insurance coverage for purposes of this paragraph (c)(1) and the individual coverage HRA must reimburse medical care expenses incurred by the individual during that time period to the extent the medical care expenses are otherwise covered by the HRA. If the individual fails to pay the applicable premium(s) by the end of the grace period and the coverage is cancelled or terminated, including retroactively, or if the individual health insurance coverage is cancelled or terminated retroactively for some other reason (for example, a rescission), an individual coverage HRA must require that a participant notify the HRA that coverage has been cancelled or terminated and the date on which the cancellation or termination is effective. After the individual coverage HRA has received the notice of cancellation or termination, the HRA may not reimburse medical care expenses incurred on and after the date the individual health insurance coverage was cancelled or terminated, which is considered to be the date of termination of coverage under the HRA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No traditional group health plan may be offered to same participants.</I> To the extent a plan sponsor offers any class of employees (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section) an individual coverage HRA, the plan sponsor may not also offer a traditional group health plan to the same class of employees, except as provided in paragraph (d)(5) of this section. For purposes of this section, a traditional group health plan is any group health plan other than either an account-based group health plan or a group health plan that consists solely of excepted benefits. Therefore, a plan sponsor may not offer a choice between an individual coverage HRA or a traditional group health plan to any participant or dependent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Same terms requirement</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a plan sponsor offers an individual coverage HRA to a class of employees described in paragraph (d) of this section, the HRA must be offered on the same terms to all participants within the class, except as provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(ii) through (vi) and (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Carryover amounts, salary reduction arrangements, and transfer amounts.</I> Amounts that are not used to reimburse medical care expenses for any plan year that are made available to participants in later plan years are disregarded for purposes of determining whether an HRA is offered on the same terms, provided that the method for determining whether participants have access to unused amounts in future years, and the methodology and formula for determining the amounts of unused funds which they may access in future years, is the same for all participants in a class of employees. In addition, the ability to pay the portion of the premium for individual health insurance coverage that is not covered by the HRA, if any, by using a salary reduction arrangement under section 125 of the Code is considered to be a term of the HRA for purposes of this paragraph (c)(3). Therefore, an HRA is not provided on the same terms unless the salary reduction arrangement, if made available to any participant in a class of employees, is made available on the same terms to all participants (other than former employees, as defined in paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section) in the class of employees. Further, to the extent that a participant in an individual coverage HRA was previously covered by another HRA and the current individual coverage HRA makes available amounts that were not used to reimburse medical care expenses under the prior HRA (transferred amounts), the transferred amounts are disregarded for purposes of determining whether the HRA is offered on the same terms, provided that if the HRA makes available transferred amounts, it does so on the same terms for all participants in the class of employees.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Permitted variation.</I> An HRA does not fail to be provided on the same terms solely because the maximum dollar amount made available to participants in a class of employees to reimburse medical care expenses for any plan year increases in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(A) or (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Variation due to number of dependents.</I> An HRA does not fail to be provided on the same terms to participants in a class of employees solely because the maximum dollar amount made available to those participants to reimburse medical care expenses for any plan year increases as the number of the participant's dependents who are covered under the HRA increases, so long as the same maximum dollar amount attributable to the increase in family size is made available to all participants in that class of employees with the same number of dependents covered by the HRA.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Variation due to age.</I> An HRA does not fail to be provided on the same terms to participants in a class of employees solely because the maximum dollar amount made available under the terms of the HRA to those participants to reimburse medical care expenses for any plan year increases as the age of the participant increases, so long as the requirements in paragraphs (c)(3)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section are satisfied. For the purpose of this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B), the plan sponsor may determine the age of the participant using any reasonable method for a plan year, so long as the plan sponsor determines each participant's age for the purpose of this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B) using the same method for all participants in the class of employees for the plan year and the method is determined prior to the plan year.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The same maximum dollar amount attributable to the increase in age is made available to all participants who are the same age.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The maximum dollar amount made available to the oldest participant(s) is not more than three times the maximum dollar amount made available to the youngest participant(s).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Former employees.</I> An HRA does not fail to be treated as provided on the same terms if the plan sponsor offers the HRA to some, but not all, former employees within a class of employees. However, if a plan sponsor offers the HRA to one or more former employees within a class of employees, the HRA must be offered to the former employee(s) on the same terms as to all other employees within the class, except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section. For purposes of this section, a former employee is an employee who is no longer performing services for the employer.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>New employees or new dependents.</I> For a participant whose coverage under the HRA becomes effective later than the first day of the plan year, the HRA does not fail to be treated as being provided on the same terms to the participant if the maximum dollar amount made available to the participant either is the same as the maximum dollar amount made available to participants in the participant's class of employees whose coverage became effective as of the first day of the plan year, or is pro-rated consistent with the portion of the plan year in which the participant is covered by the HRA. Similarly, if the HRA provides for variation in the maximum amount made available to participants in a class of employees based on the number of a participant's dependents covered by the HRA, and the number of a participant's dependents covered by the HRA changes during a plan year (either increasing or decreasing), the HRA does not fail to be treated as being provided on the same terms to the participant if the maximum dollar amount made available to the participant either is the same as the maximum dollar amount made available to participants in the participant's class of employees who had the same number of dependents covered by the HRA on the first day of the plan year or is pro-rated for the remainder of the plan year after the change in the number of the participant's dependents covered by the HRA consistent with the portion of the plan year in which that number of dependents are covered by the HRA. The method the HRA uses to determine amounts made available for participants whose coverage under the HRA is effective later than the first day of the plan year or who have changes in the number of dependents covered by the HRA during a plan year must be the same for all participants in the class of employees and the method must be determined prior to the beginning of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>HSA-compatible HRAs.</I> An HRA does not fail to be treated as provided on the same terms if the plan sponsor offers participants in a class of employees a choice between an HSA-compatible individual coverage HRA and an individual coverage HRA that is not HSA compatible, provided both types of HRAs are offered to all participants in the class of employees on the same terms. For the purpose of this paragraph (c)(3)(vi), an HSA-compatible individual coverage HRA is an individual coverage HRA that is limited in accordance with applicable guidance under section 223 of the Code such that an individual covered by such an HRA is not disqualified from being an eligible individual under section 223 of the Code.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of this paragraph (c)(3), without taking into account the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section. In each example, the HRA is an individual coverage HRA that has a calendar year plan year and may reimburse any medical care expenses, including premiums for individual health insurance coverage (except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(E) of this section (<I>Example 5</I>)). Further, in each example, assume the HRA is offered on the same terms, except as otherwise specified in the example and that no participants or dependents are Medicare beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Example 1: Carryover amounts permitted</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020 and again for 2021, Plan Sponsor A offers all employees $7,000 each in an HRA, and the HRA provides that amounts that are unused at the end of a plan year may be carried over to the next plan year, with no restrictions on the use of the carryover amounts compared to the use of newly available amounts. At the end of 2020, some employees have used all of the funds in their HRAs, while other employees have balances remaining that range from $500 to $1,750 that are carried over to 2021 for those employees.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of this paragraph (c)(3) is satisfied in this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(A) (<I>Example 1</I>) for 2020 because Plan Sponsor A offers all employees the same amount, $7,000, in an HRA for that year. The same terms requirement is also satisfied for 2021 because Plan Sponsor A again offers all employees the same amount for that year, and the carryover amounts that some employees have are disregarded in applying the same terms requirement because the amount of the carryover for each employee (that employee's balance) and each employee's access to the carryover amounts is based on the same terms.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Example 2: Employees hired after the first day of the plan year</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor B offers all employees employed on January 1, 2020, $7,000 each in an HRA for the plan year. Employees hired after January 1, 2020, are eligible to enroll in the HRA with an effective date of the first day of the month following their date of hire, as long as they have enrolled in individual health insurance coverage effective on or before that date, and the amount offered to these employees is pro-rated based on the number of months remaining in the plan year, including the month which includes their coverage effective date.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of this paragraph (c)(3) is satisfied in this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(B) (<I>Example 2</I>) for 2020 because Plan Sponsor B offers all employees employed on the first day of the plan year the same amount, $7,000, in an HRA for that plan year and all employees hired after January 1, 2020, a pro-rata amount based on the portion of the plan year during which they are enrolled in the HRA.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Example 3: HRA amounts offered vary based on number of dependents</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor C offers its employees the following amounts in an HRA: $1,500, if the employee is the only individual covered by the HRA; $3,500, if the employee and one dependent are covered by the HRA; and $5,000, if the employee and more than one dependent are covered by the HRA.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of this paragraph (c)(3) is satisfied in this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(C) (<I>Example 3</I>) because paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(A) of this section allows the maximum dollar amount made available in an HRA to increase as the number of the participant's dependents covered by the HRA increases and Plan Sponsor C makes the same amount available to each employee with the same number of dependents covered by the HRA.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Example 4: HRA amounts offered vary based on increases in employees' ages</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor D offers its employees the following amounts in an HRA: $1,000 each for employees age 25 to 35; $2,000 each for employees age 36 to 45; $2,500 each for employees age 46 to 55; and $4,000 each for employees over age 55.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of this paragraph (c)(3) is not satisfied in this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(D) (<I>Example 4</I>) because the terms of the HRA provide the oldest participants (those over age 55) with more than three times the amount made available to the youngest participants (those ages 25 to 35), in violation of paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Example 5: Application of same terms requirement to premium only HRA</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor E offers its employees an HRA that reimburses only premiums for individual health insurance coverage, up to $10,000 for the year. Employee A enrolls in individual health insurance coverage with a $5,000 premium for the year and is reimbursed $5,000 from the HRA. Employee B enrolls in individual health insurance coverage with an $8,000 premium for the year and is reimbursed $8,000 from the HRA.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of this paragraph (c)(3) is satisfied in this paragraph (c)(3)(vii)(E) (<I>Example 5</I>) because Plan Sponsor E offers the HRA on the same terms to all employees, notwithstanding that some employees receive a greater amount of reimbursement than others based on the cost of the individual health insurance coverage selected by the employee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Opt out.</I> Under the terms of the HRA, a participant who is otherwise eligible for coverage must be permitted to opt out of and waive future reimbursements on behalf of the participant and all dependents eligible for the HRA from the HRA once, and only once, with respect to each plan year. The HRA may establish timeframes for enrollment in (and opting out of) the HRA but, in general, the opportunity to opt out must be provided in advance of the first day of the plan year. For participants who become eligible to participate in the HRA on a date other than the first day of the plan year (or who become eligible fewer than 90 days prior to the plan year or for whom the notice under paragraph (c)(6) of this section is required to be provided as set forth in paragraph (c)(6)(i)(C) of this section), or for a dependent who newly becomes eligible during the plan year, this opportunity must be provided during the applicable HRA enrollment period(s) established by the HRA for these individuals. Further, under the terms of the HRA, upon termination of employment, for a participant who is covered by the HRA, either the remaining amounts in the HRA must be forfeited or the participant must be permitted to permanently opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA on behalf of the participant and all dependents covered by the HRA.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reasonable procedures for coverage substantiation</I>—(i) <I>Substantiation of individual health insurance coverage for the plan year.</I> The HRA must implement, and comply with, reasonable procedures to substantiate that participants and each dependent covered by the HRA are, or will be, enrolled in individual health insurance coverage for the plan year (or for the portion of the plan year the individual is covered by the HRA, if applicable). The HRA may establish the date by which this substantiation must be provided, but, in general, the date may be no later than the first day of the plan year. However, for a participant who is not eligible to participate in the HRA on the first day of the plan year (or who becomes eligible fewer than 90 days prior to the plan year or for whom the notice under paragraph (c)(6) of this section is required to be provided as set forth in paragraph (c)(6)(i)(C) of this section), the HRA may establish the date by which this substantiation must be provided, but that date may be no later than the date the HRA coverage begins. Similarly, for a participant who adds a new dependent during the plan year, the HRA may establish the date by which this substantiation must be provided, but the date may be no later than the date the HRA coverage for the new dependent begins; however, to the extent the dependent's coverage under the HRA is effective retroactively, the HRA may establish a reasonable time by which this substantiation is required, but must require it be provided before the HRA will reimburse any medical care expense for the newly added dependent. The reasonable procedures an HRA may use to implement the substantiation requirement set forth in this paragraph (c)(5)(i) may include a requirement that a participant substantiate enrollment by providing either:
</P>
<P>(A) A document from a third party (for example, the issuer or an Exchange) showing that the participant and any dependents covered by the HRA are, or will be, enrolled in individual health insurance coverage (for example, an insurance card or an explanation of benefits document pertaining to the relevant time period or documentation from the Exchange showing that the individual has completed the application and plan selection); or
</P>
<P>(B) An attestation by the participant stating that the participant and dependent(s) covered by the HRA are, or will be, enrolled in individual health insurance coverage, the date coverage began or will begin, and the name of the provider of the coverage.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Coverage substantiation with each request for reimbursement of medical care expenses.</I> Following the initial substantiation of coverage, with each new request for reimbursement of an incurred medical care expense for the same plan year, the HRA may not reimburse a participant for any medical care expenses unless, prior to each reimbursement, the participant substantiates that the individual on whose behalf medical care expenses are requested to be reimbursed continues to be enrolled in individual health insurance coverage for the month during which the medical care expenses were incurred. The HRA must implement, and comply with, reasonable procedures to satisfy this requirement. This substantiation may be in the form of a written attestation by the participant, which may be part of the form used to request reimbursement, or a document from a third party (for example, a health insurance issuer) showing that the participant or the dependent, if applicable, are or were enrolled in individual health insurance coverage for the applicable month.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reliance on substantiation.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(5), an HRA may rely on the participant's documentation or attestation unless the HRA, its plan sponsor, or any other entity acting in an official capacity on behalf of the HRA has actual knowledge that any individual covered by the HRA is not, or will not be, enrolled in individual health insurance coverage for the plan year (or applicable portion of the plan year) or the month, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Notice requirement</I>—(i) <I>Timing.</I> The HRA must provide a written notice to each participant:
</P>
<P>(A) At least 90 calendar days before the beginning of each plan year for any participant who is not described in either paragraph (c)(6)(i)(B) or (C) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) No later than the date on which the HRA may first take effect for the participant, for any participant who is not eligible to participate at the beginning of the plan year (or is not eligible to participate at the time the notice is provided at least 90 calendar days before the beginning of the plan year pursuant to paragraph (c)(6)(i)(A) of this section); or
</P>
<P>(C) No later than the date on which the HRA may first take effect for the participant, for any participant who is employed by an employer that is first established less than 120 days before the beginning of the first plan year of the HRA; this paragraph (c)(6)(i)(C) applies only with respect to the first plan year of the HRA.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content.</I> The notice must include all the information described in this paragraph (c)(6)(ii) (and may include any additional information that does not conflict with that information). To the extent that the Departments of the Treasury, Labor and Health and Human Services provide model notice language for certain elements of this required notice, HRAs are permitted, but not required, to use the model language.
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the terms of the HRA, including the maximum dollar amount available for each participant (including the self-only HRA amount available for the plan year (or the maximum dollar amount available for the plan year if the HRA provides for reimbursements up to a single dollar amount regardless of whether a participant has self-only or other than self-only coverage)), any rules regarding the proration of the maximum dollar amount applicable to any participant (or dependent, if applicable) who is not eligible to participate in the HRA for the entire plan year, whether (and which of) the participant's dependents are eligible for the HRA, a statement that there are different kinds of HRAs (including a qualified small employer health reimbursement arrangement) and the HRA being offered is an individual coverage HRA, a statement that the HRA requires the participant and any covered dependents to be enrolled in individual health insurance coverage (or Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C, if applicable), a statement that the coverage in which the participant and any covered dependents must be enrolled cannot be short-term, limited-duration insurance or consist solely of excepted benefits, if the HRA is subject to the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), a statement that individual health insurance coverage in which the participant and any covered dependents are enrolled is not subject to ERISA, if the conditions under 29 CFR 2510.3-1(l) are satisfied, the date as of which coverage under the HRA may first become effective (both for participants whose coverage will become effective on the first day of the plan year and for participants whose HRA coverage may become effective at a later date), the dates on which the HRA plan year begins and ends, and the dates on which the amounts newly made available under the HRA will be made available.
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<P>(B) A statement of the right of the participant to opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA, as set forth under paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
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<P>(C) A description of the potential availability of the premium tax credit if the participant opts out of and waives future reimbursements from the HRA and the HRA is not affordable for one or more months under 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(5), a statement that even if the participant opts out of and waives future reimbursements from an HRA, the offer will prohibit the participant (and, potentially, the participant's dependents) from receiving a premium tax credit for the participant's coverage (or the dependent's coverage, if applicable) on an Exchange for any month that the HRA is affordable under 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(5), a statement describing how the participant may find assistance with determining affordability, a statement that, if the participant is a former employee, the offer of the HRA does not render the participant (or the participant's dependents, if applicable) ineligible for the premium tax credit regardless of whether it is affordable under 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(5), and a statement that if the participant or dependent is enrolled in Medicare, he or she is ineligible for the premium tax credit without regard to the offer or acceptance of the HRA;
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<P>(D) A statement that if the participant accepts the HRA, the participant may not claim a premium tax credit for the participant's Exchange coverage for any month the HRA may be used to reimburse medical care expenses of the participant, and a premium tax credit may not be claimed for the Exchange coverage of the participant's dependents for any month the HRA may be used to reimburse medical care expenses of the dependents.
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<P>(E) A statement that the participant must inform any Exchange to which the participant applies for advance payments of the premium tax credit of the availability of the HRA; the self-only HRA amount available for the HRA plan year (or the maximum dollar amount available for the plan year if the HRA provides for reimbursements up to a single dollar amount regardless of whether a participant has self-only or other than self-only coverage) as set forth in the written notice in accordance with paragraph (c)(6)(ii)(A) of this section; whether the HRA is also available to the participant's dependents and if so, which ones; the date as of which coverage under the HRA may first become effective; the date on which the plan year begins and the date on which it ends; and whether the participant is a current employee or former employee.
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<P>(F) A statement that the participant should retain the written notice because it may be needed to determine whether the participant is allowed a premium tax credit on the participant's individual income tax return.
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<P>(G) A statement that the HRA may not reimburse any medical care expense unless the substantiation requirement set forth in paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section is satisfied and a statement that the participant must also provide the substantiation required by paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section.
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<P>(H) A statement that if the individual health insurance coverage (or coverage under Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C) of a participant or dependent ceases, the HRA will not reimburse any medical care expenses that are incurred by the participant or dependent, as applicable, after the coverage ceases, and a statement that the participant must inform the HRA if the participant's or dependent's individual health insurance coverage (or coverage under Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C) is cancelled or terminated retroactively and the date on which the cancellation or termination is effective.
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<P>(I) The contact information (including a phone number) for an individual or a group of individuals who participants may contact in order to receive additional information regarding the HRA. The plan sponsor may determine which individual or group of individuals is best suited to be the specified contact.
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<P>(J) A statement of availability of a special enrollment period to enroll in or change individual health insurance coverage, through or outside of an Exchange, for the participant and any dependents who newly gain access to the HRA and are not already covered by the HRA.
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<P>(d) <I>Classes of employees</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This paragraph (d) sets forth the rules for determining classes of employees. Paragraph (d)(2) of this section sets forth the specific classes of employees; paragraph (d)(3) of this section sets forth a minimum class size requirement that applies in certain circumstances; paragraph (d)(4) of this section sets forth rules regarding the definition of “full-time employees,” “part-time employees,” and “seasonal employees”; paragraph (d)(5) of this section sets forth a special rule for new hires; and paragraph (d)(6) of this section addresses student premium reduction arrangements. For purposes of this section, including determining classes under this paragraph (d), the employer is the common law employer and is determined without regard to the rules under sections 414(b), (c), (m), and (o) of the Code that would treat the common law employer as a single employer with certain other entities.
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<P>(2) <I>List of classes.</I> Participants may be treated as belonging to a class of employees based on whether they are, or are not, included in the classes described in this paragraph (d)(2). If the individual coverage HRA is offered to former employees, former employees are considered to be in the same class in which they were included immediately before separation from service. Before each plan year, a plan sponsor must determine for the plan year which classes of employees it intends to treat separately and the definition of the relevant class(es) it will apply, to the extent these regulations permit a choice. After the classes and the definitions of the classes are established for a plan year, a plan sponsor may not make changes to the classes of employees or the definitions of those relevant classes with respect to that plan year.
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<P>(i) Full-time employees, defined at the election of the plan sponsor to mean either full-time employees under section 4980H of the Code (and 26 CFR 54.4980H-1(a)(21)) or employees who are not part-time employees (as described in 26 CFR 1.105-11(c)(2)(iii)(C));
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<P>(ii) Part-time employees, defined at the election of the plan sponsor to mean either employees who are not full-time employees under section 4980H of the Code (and under 26 CFR 54.4980H-1(a)(21) (which defines full-time employee)) or employees who are part-time employees as described in 26 CFR 1.105-11(c)(2)(iii)(C);
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<P>(iii) Employees who are paid on a salary basis;
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<P>(iv) Non-salaried employees (such as, for example, hourly employees);
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<P>(v) Employees whose primary site of employment is in the same rating area as defined in § 147.102(b) of this subchapter;
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<P>(vi) Seasonal employees, defined at the election of the plan sponsor to mean seasonal employees as described in either 26 CFR 54.4980H-1(a)(38) or 26 CFR 1.105-11(c)(2)(iii)(C);
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<P>(vii) Employees included in a unit of employees covered by a particular collective bargaining agreement (or an appropriate related participation agreement) in which the plan sponsor participates (as described in 26 CFR 1.105-11(c)(2)(iii)(D));
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<P>(viii) Employees who have not satisfied a waiting period for coverage (if the waiting period complies with § 147.116 of this subchapter);
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<P>(ix) Non-resident aliens with no U.S.-based income (as described in 26 CFR 1.105-11(c)(2)(iii)(E));
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<P>(x) Employees who, under all the facts and circumstances, are employees of an entity that hired the employees for temporary placement at an entity that is not the common law employer of the employees and that is not treated as a single employer with the entity that hired the employees for temporary placement under section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o) of the Code; or
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<P>(xi) A group of participants described as a combination of two or more of the classes of employees set forth in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (x) of this section.
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<P>(3) <I>Minimum class size requirement</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a class of employees is subject to the minimum class size requirement as set forth in this paragraph (d)(3), the class must consist of at least a minimum number of employees (as described in paragraphs (d)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section), otherwise, the plan sponsor may not treat that class as a separate class of employees. Paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section sets forth the circumstances in which the minimum class size requirement applies to a class of employees, paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section sets forth the rules for determining the applicable class size minimum, and paragraph (d)(3)(iv) of this section sets forth the rules for a plan sponsor to determine if it satisfies the minimum class size requirement with respect to a class of employees.
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<P>(ii) <I>Circumstances in which minimum class size requirement applies.</I> (A) The minimum class size requirement applies only if a plan sponsor offers a traditional group health plan to one or more classes of employees and offers an individual coverage HRA to one or more other classes of employees.
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<P>(B) The minimum class size requirement does not apply to a class of employees offered a traditional group health plan or a class of employees offered no coverage.
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<P>(C) The minimum class size requirement applies to a class of employees offered an individual coverage HRA if the class is full-time employees, part-time employees, salaried employees, non-salaried employees, or employees whose primary site of employment is in the same rating area (described in paragraph (d)(2)(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section, respectively, and referred to collectively as the applicable classes or individually as an applicable class), except that:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) In the case of the class of employees whose primary site of employment is in the same rating area (as described in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section), the minimum class size requirement does not apply if the geographic area defining the class is a State or a combination of two or more entire States; and
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<P>(<I>2</I>) In the case of the classes of employees that are full-time employees and part-time employees (as described in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, respectively), the minimum class size requirement applies only to those classes (and the classes are only applicable classes) if the employees in one such class are offered a traditional group health plan while the employees in the other such class are offered an individual coverage HRA. In such a case, the minimum class size requirement applies only to the class offered an individual coverage HRA.
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<P>(D) A class of employees offered an individual coverage HRA is also subject to the minimum class size requirement if the class is a class of employees created by combining at least one of the applicable classes (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(C) of this section) with any other class, except that the minimum class size requirement shall not apply to a class that is the result of a combination of one of the applicable classes and a class of employees who have not satisfied a waiting period (as described in paragraph (d)(2)(viii) of this section).
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<P>(iii) <I>Determination of the applicable class size minimum</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> The minimum number of employees that must be in a class of employees that is subject to the minimum class size requirement (the applicable class size minimum) is determined prior to the beginning of the plan year for each plan year of the individual coverage HRA and is:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) 10, for an employer with fewer than 100 employees;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) A number, rounded down to a whole number, equal to 10 percent of the total number of employees, for an employer with 100 to 200 employees; and
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<P>(<I>3</I>) 20, for an employer with more than 200 employees.
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<P>(B) <I>Determining employer size.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d)(3), the number of employees of an employer is determined in advance of the plan year of the HRA based on the number of employees that the employer reasonably expects to employ on the first day of the plan year.
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<P>(iv) <I>Determining if a class satisfies the applicable class size minimum.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d)(3), whether a class of employees satisfies the applicable class size minimum for a plan year of the individual coverage HRA is based on the number of employees in the class offered the individual coverage HRA as of the first day of the plan year. Therefore, this determination is not based on the number of employees that actually enroll in the individual coverage HRA, and this determination is not affected by changes in the number of employees in the class during the plan year.
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<P>(4) <I>Consistency requirement.</I> For any plan year, a plan sponsor may define “full-time employee,” “part-time employee,” and “seasonal employee” in accordance with the relevant provisions of sections 105(h) or 4980H of the Code, as set forth in paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (ii), and (vi) of this section, if:
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<P>(i) To the extent applicable under the HRA for the plan year, each of the three classes of employees are defined in accordance with section 105(h) of the Code or each of the three classes of employees are defined in accordance with section 4980H of the Code for the plan year; and
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<P>(ii) The HRA plan document sets forth the applicable definitions prior to the beginning of the plan year to which the definitions will apply.
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<P>(5) <I>Special rule for new hires</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, a plan sponsor that offers a traditional group health plan to a class of employees may prospectively offer the employees in that class of employees who are hired on or after a certain future date (the new hire date) an individual coverage HRA (with this group of employees referred to as the new hire subclass), while continuing to offer employees in that class of employees who are hired before the new hire date a traditional group health plan (with the rule set forth in this sentence referred to as the special rule for new hires). For the new hire subclass, the individual coverage HRA must be offered on the same terms to all participants within the subclass, in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section. In accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a plan sponsor may not offer a choice between an individual coverage HRA or a traditional group health plan to any employee in the new hire subclass or to any employee in the class who is not a member of the new hire subclass.
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<P>(ii) <I>New hire date.</I> A plan sponsor may set the new hire date for a class of employees prospectively as any date on or after January 1, 2020. A plan sponsor may set different new hire dates prospectively for separate classes of employees.
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<P>(iii) <I>Discontinuation of use of special rule for new hires and multiple applications of the special rule for new hires.</I> A plan sponsor may discontinue use of the special rule for new hires at any time for any class of employees. In that case, the new hire subclass is no longer treated as a separate subclass of employees. In the event a plan sponsor applies the special rule for new hires to a class of employees and later discontinues use of the rule to the class of employees, the plan sponsor may later apply the rule if the application of the rule would be permitted under the rules for initial application of the special rule for new hires. If a plan sponsor, in accordance with the requirements for the special rule for new hires, applies the rule to a class of employees subsequent to any prior application and discontinuance of the rule to that class, the new hire date must be prospective.
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<P>(iv) <I>Application of the minimum class size requirement under the special rule for new hires.</I> The minimum class size requirement set forth in paragraph (d)(3) of this section does not apply to the new hire subclass. However, if a plan sponsor subdivides the new hire subclass subsequent to creating the new hire subclass, the minimum class size requirement set forth in paragraph (d)(3) of this section applies to any class of employees created by subdividing the new hire subclass, if the minimum class size requirement otherwise applies.
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<P>(6) <I>Student employees offered student premium reduction arrangements.</I> For purposes of this section, if an institution of higher education (as defined in the Higher Education Act of 1965) offers a student employee a student premium reduction arrangement, the employee is not considered to be part of the class of employees to which the employee would otherwise belong. For the purpose of this paragraph (d)(6) and paragraph (f)(1) of this section, a student premium reduction arrangement is defined as any program offered by an institution of higher education under which the cost of insured or self-insured student health coverage is reduced for certain students through a credit, offset, reimbursement, stipend or similar arrangement. A student employee offered a student premium reduction arrangement is also not counted for purposes of determining the applicable class size minimum under paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section. If a student employee is not offered a student premium reduction arrangement (including if the student employee is offered an individual coverage HRA instead), the student employee is considered to be part of the class of employees to which the employee otherwise belongs and is counted for purposes of determining the applicable class size minimum under paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section.
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<P>(e) <I>Integration of Individual Coverage HRAs with Medicare</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> An individual coverage HRA will be considered to be integrated with Medicare (and deemed to comply with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713 and § 147.126(d)(4) of this subchapter), provided that the conditions of paragraph (c) of this section are satisfied, subject to paragraph (e)(2) of this section. Nothing in this section requires that a participant and his or her dependents all have the same type of coverage; therefore, an individual coverage HRA may be integrated with Medicare for some individuals and with individual health insurance coverage for others, including, for example, a participant enrolled in Medicare Part A and B or Part C and his or her dependents enrolled in individual health insurance coverage.
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<P>(2) <I>Application of conditions in paragraph (c) of this section</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, in applying the conditions of paragraph (c) of this section with respect to integration with Medicare, a reference to “individual health insurance coverage” is deemed to refer to coverage under Medicare Part A and B or Part C. References in this section to integration of an HRA with Medicare refer to integration of an individual coverage HRA with Medicare Part A and B or Part C.
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<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> For purposes of the statement regarding ERISA under the notice content element under paragraph (c)(6)(ii)(A) of this section and the statement regarding the availability of a special enrollment period under the notice content element under paragraph (c)(6)(ii)(J) of this section, the term individual health insurance coverage means only individual health insurance coverage and does not also mean coverage under Medicare Part A and B or Part C.
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<P>(f) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Examples regarding classes and the minimum class size requirement.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, taking into account the provisions of paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) and (d)(6) of this section. In each example, the HRA is an individual coverage HRA that may reimburse any medical care expenses, including premiums for individual health insurance coverage and it is assumed that no participants or dependents are Medicare beneficiaries.
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<P>(i) <I>Example 1: Collectively bargained employees offered traditional group health plan; non-collectively bargained employees offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor A offers its employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement a traditional group health plan (as required by the collective bargaining agreement) and all other employees (non-collectively bargained employees) each an HRA on the same terms.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(i) (<I>Example 1</I>) because collectively bargained and non-collectively bargained employees may be treated as different classes of employees, one of which may be offered a traditional group health plan and the other of which may be offered an individual coverage HRA, and Plan Sponsor A offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants who are non-collectively bargained employees. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(i) (<I>Example 1</I>) even though Plan Sponsor A offers one class a traditional group health plan and one class the HRA because collectively bargained and non-collectively bargained employees are not applicable classes that are subject to the minimum class size requirement.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2: Collectively bargained employees in one unit offered traditional group health plan and in another unit offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor B offers its employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement with Local 100 a traditional group health plan (as required by the collective bargaining agreement), and its employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement with Local 200 each an HRA on the same terms (as required by the collective bargaining agreement).
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(ii) (<I>Example 2</I>) because the employees covered by the collective bargaining agreements with the two separate bargaining units (Local 100 and Local 200) may be treated as two different classes of employees and Plan Sponsor B offers an HRA on the same terms to the participants covered by the agreement with Local 200. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(ii) (<I>Example 2</I>) even though Plan Sponsor B offers the Local 100 employees a traditional group health plan and the Local 200 employees an HRA because collectively bargained employees are not applicable classes that are subject to the minimum class size requirement.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3: Employees in a waiting period offered no coverage; other employees offered an HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor C offers its employees who have completed a waiting period that complies with the requirements for waiting periods in § 147.116 of this subchapter each an HRA on the same terms and does not offer coverage to its employees who have not completed the waiting period.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(iii) (<I>Example 3</I>) because employees who have completed a waiting period and employees who have not completed a waiting period may be treated as different classes and Plan Sponsor C offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants who have completed the waiting period. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(iii) (<I>Example 3</I>) because Plan Sponsor C does not offer at least one class of employees a traditional group health plan and because the class of employees who have not completed a waiting period and the class of employees who have completed a waiting period are not applicable classes that are subject to the minimum class size requirement.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4: Employees in a waiting period offered an HRA; other employees offered a traditional group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor D offers its employees who have completed a waiting period that complies with the requirements for waiting periods in § 147.116 of this subchapter a traditional group health plan and offers its employees who have not completed the waiting period each an HRA on the same terms.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(iv) (<I>Example 4</I>) because employees who have completed a waiting period and employees who have not completed a waiting period may be treated as different classes and Plan Sponsor D offers an HRA on the same terms to all participants who have not completed the waiting period. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(iv) (<I>Example 4</I>) even though Plan Sponsor D offers employees who have completed a waiting period a traditional group health plan and employees who have not completed a waiting period an HRA because the class of employees who have not completed a waiting period is not an applicable class that is subject to the minimum class size requirement (nor is the class made up of employees who have completed the waiting period).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Example 5: Staffing firm employees temporarily placed with customers offered an HRA; other employees offered a traditional group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor E is a staffing firm that places certain of its employees on temporary assignments with customers that are not the common law employers of Plan Sponsor E's employees or treated as a single employer with Plan Sponsor E under section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o) of the Code (unrelated entities); other employees work in Plan Sponsor E's office managing the staffing business (non-temporary employees). For 2020, Plan Sponsor E offers its employees who are on temporary assignments with customers each an HRA on the same terms. All other employees are offered a traditional group health plan.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(v) (<I>Example 5</I>) because the employees who are hired for temporary placement at an unrelated entity and non-temporary employees of Plan Sponsor E may be treated as different classes of employees and Plan Sponsor E offers an HRA on the same terms to all participants temporarily placed with customers. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(v) (<I>Example 5</I>) even though Plan Sponsor E offers one class a traditional group health plan and one class the HRA because the class of employees hired for temporary placement is not an applicable class that is subject to the minimum class size requirement (nor is the class made up of non-temporary employees).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Example 6: Staffing firm employees temporarily placed with customers in rating area 1 offered an HRA; other employees offered a traditional group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in paragraph (f)(1)(v) of this section (<I>Example 5</I>), except that Plan Sponsor E has work sites in rating area 1 and rating area 2, and it offers its 10 employees on temporary assignments with a work site in rating area 1 an HRA on the same terms. Plan Sponsor E has 200 other employees in rating areas 1 and 2, including its non-temporary employees in rating areas 1 and 2 and its employees on temporary assignments with a work site in rating area 2, all of whom are offered a traditional group health plan.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(vi) (<I>Example 6</I>) because, even though the employees who are temporarily placed with customers generally may be treated as employees of a different class, because Plan Sponsor E is also using a rating area to identify the class offered the HRA (which is an applicable class for the minimum class size requirement) and is offering one class the HRA and another class the traditional group health plan, the minimum class size requirement applies to the class offered the HRA, and the class offered the HRA fails to satisfy the minimum class size requirement. Because Plan Sponsor E employs 210 employees, the applicable class size minimum is 20, and the HRA is offered to only 10 employees.
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<P>(vii) <I>Example 7: Employees in State 1 offered traditional group health plan; employees in State 2 offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor F employs 45 employees whose work site is in State 1 and 7 employees whose primary site of employment is in State 2. For 2020, Plan Sponsor F offers its 45 employees in State 1 a traditional group health plan, and each of its 7 employees in State 2 an HRA on the same terms.
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<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(vii) (<I>Example 7</I>) because Plan Sponsor F offers the HRA on the same terms to all employees with a work site in State 2 and that class is a permissible class under paragraph (d) of this section. This is because employees whose work sites are in different rating areas may be considered different classes and a plan sponsor may create a class of employees by combining classes of employees, including by combining employees whose work site is in one rating area with employees whose work site is in a different rating area, or by combining all employees whose work site is in a state. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to this paragraph (f)(1)(vii) (<I>Example 7</I>) because the minimum class size requirement does not apply if the geographic area defining a class of employees is a state or a combination of two or more entire states.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Example 8: Full-time seasonal employees offered HRA; all other full-time employees offered traditional group health plan; part-time employees offered no coverage</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor G employs 6 full-time seasonal employees, 75 full-time employees who are not seasonal employees, and 5 part-time employees. For 2020, Plan Sponsor G offers each of its 6 full-time seasonal employees an HRA on the same terms, its 75 full-time employees who are not seasonal employees a traditional group health plan, and offers no coverage to its 5 part-time employees.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(viii) (<I>Example 8</I>) because full-time seasonal employees and full-time employees who are not seasonal employees may be considered different classes and Plan Sponsor G offers the HRA on the same terms to all full-time seasonal employees. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to the class offered the HRA in this paragraph (f)(1)(viii) (<I>Example 8</I>) because part-time employees are not offered coverage and full-time employees are not an applicable class subject to the minimum class size requirement if part-time employees are not offered coverage.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Example 9: Full-time employees in rating area 1 offered traditional group health plan; full-time employees in rating area 2 offered HRA; part-time employees offered no coverage</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor H employs 17 full-time employees and 10 part-time employees whose work site is in rating area 1 and 552 full-time employees whose work site is in rating area 2. For 2020, Plan Sponsor H offers its 17 full-time employees in rating area 1 a traditional group health plan and each of its 552 full-time employees in rating area 2 an HRA on the same terms. Plan Sponsor H offers no coverage to its 10 part-time employees in rating area 1. Plan Sponsor H reasonably expects to employ 569 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(ix) (<I>Example 9</I>) because employees whose work sites are in different rating areas may be considered different classes and Plan Sponsor H offers the HRA on the same terms to all full-time employees in rating area 2. The minimum class size requirement applies to the class offered the HRA in this paragraph (f)(1)(ix) (<I>Example 9</I>) because the minimum class size requirement applies to a class based on a geographic area unless the geographic area is a state or a combination of two or more entire states. However, the minimum class size requirement applies only to the class offered the HRA, and Plan Sponsor H offers the HRA to the 552 full-time employees in rating area 2 on the first day of the plan year, satisfying the minimum class size requirement (because the applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor H is 20).
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Example 10: Employees in rating area 1 offered HRA; employees in rating area 2 offered traditional group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in paragraph (f)(1)(ix) of this section (<I>Example 9</I>) except that Plan Sponsor H offers its 17 full-time employees in rating area 1 the HRA and offers its 552 full-time employees in rating area 2 the traditional group health plan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(x) (<I>Example 10</I>) because, even though employees whose work sites are in different rating areas generally may be considered different classes and Plan Sponsor H offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants in rating area 1, the HRA fails to satisfy the minimum class size requirement. Specifically, the minimum class size requirement applies to this paragraph (f)(1)(x) (<I>Example 10</I>) because the minimum class size requirement applies to a class based on a geographic area unless the geographic area is a state or a combination of two or more entire states. Further, the applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor H is 20 employees, and the HRA is only offered to the 17 full-time employees in rating area 1 on the first day of the HRA plan year.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Example 11: Employees in State 1 and rating area 1 of State 2 offered HRA; employees in all other rating areas of State 2 offered traditional group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2020, Plan Sponsor I offers an HRA on the same terms to a total of 200 employees it employs with work sites in State 1 and in rating area 1 of State 2. Plan Sponsor I offers a traditional group health plan to its 150 employees with work sites in other rating areas in State 2. Plan Sponsor I reasonably expects to employ 350 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xi) (<I>Example 11</I>). Plan Sponsor I may treat all of the employees with a work site in State 1 and rating area 1 of State 2 as a class of employees because employees whose work sites are in different rating areas may be considered different classes and a plan sponsor may create a class of employees by combining classes of employees, including by combining employees whose work site is in one rating area with a class of employees whose work site is in a different rating area. The minimum class size requirement applies to the class of employees offered the HRA (made up of employees in State 1 and in rating area 1 of State 2) because the minimum class size requirement applies to a class based on a geographic area unless the geographic area is a state or a combination of two or more entire states. In this case, the class is made up of a state plus a rating area which is not the entire state. However, this class satisfies the minimum class size requirement because the applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor I is 20, and Plan Sponsor I offered the HRA to 200 employees on the first day of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Example 12: Salaried employees offered a traditional group health plan; hourly employees offered an HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor J has 163 salaried employees and 14 hourly employees. For 2020, Plan Sponsor J offers its 163 salaried employees a traditional group health plan and each of its 14 hourly employees an HRA on the same terms. Plan Sponsor J reasonably expects to employ 177 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xii) (<I>Example 12</I>) because, even though salaried and hourly employees generally may be considered different classes and Plan Sponsor J offers the HRA on the same terms to all hourly employees, the HRA fails to satisfy the minimum class size requirement. Specifically, the minimum class size requirement applies in this paragraph (f)(1)(xii) (<I>Example 12</I>) because employees who are paid on a salaried basis and employees who are not paid on a salaried basis are applicable classes subject to the minimum class size requirement. Because Plan Sponsor J reasonably expects to employ between 100 and 200 employees on the first day of the plan year, the applicable class size minimum is 10 percent, rounded down to a whole number. Ten percent of 177 total employees, rounded down to a whole number is 17, and the HRA is offered to only 14 hourly employees.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Example 13: Part-time employees and full-time employees offered different HRAs; no traditional group health plan offered</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor K has 50 full-time employees and 7 part-time employees. For 2020, Plan Sponsor K offers its 50 full-time employees $2,000 each in an HRA otherwise provided on the same terms and each of its 7 part-time employees $500 in an HRA otherwise provided on the same terms. Plan Sponsor K reasonably expects to employ 57 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xiii) (<I>Example 13</I>) because full-time employees and part-time employees may be treated as different classes and Plan Sponsor K offers an HRA on the same terms to all the participants in each class. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to either the full-time class or the part-time class because (although in certain circumstances the minimum class size requirement applies to a class of full-time employees and a class of part-time employees) Plan Sponsor K does not offer any class of employees a traditional group health plan, and the minimum class size requirement applies only when, among other things, at least one class of employees is offered a traditional group health plan while another class is offered an HRA.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Example 14: No employees offered an HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same facts as in paragraph (f)(1)(xiii) of this section (<I>Example 13</I>), except that Plan Sponsor K offers its full-time employees a traditional group health plan and does not offer any group health plan (either a traditional group health plan or an HRA) to its part-time employees.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The regulations set forth under this section do not apply to Plan Sponsor K because Plan Sponsor K does not offer an individual coverage HRA to any employee.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Example 15: Full-time employees offered traditional group health plan; part-time employees offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in paragraph (f)(1)(xiii) of this section (<I>Example 13</I>), except that Plan Sponsor K offers its full-time employees a traditional group health plan and offers each of its part-time employees $500 in an HRA and otherwise on the same terms.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xv) (<I>Example 15</I>) because, even though the full-time employees and the part-time employees generally may be treated as different classes, in this paragraph (f)(1)(xv) (<I>Example 15</I>), the minimum class size requirement applies to the part-time employees, and it is not satisfied. Specifically, the minimum class size requirement applies to the part-time employees because that requirement applies to an applicable class offered an HRA when one class is offered a traditional group health plan while another class is offered an HRA, and to the part-time and full-time employee classes when one of those classes is offered a traditional group health plan while the other is offered an HRA. Because Plan Sponsor K reasonably expects to employ fewer than 100 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year, the applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor K is 10 employees, but Plan Sponsor K offered the HRA only to its 7 part-time employees.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Example 16: Satisfying minimum class size requirement based on employees offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor L employs 78 full-time employees and 12 part-time employees. For 2020, Plan Sponsor L offers its 78 full-time employees a traditional group health plan and each of its 12 part-times employees an HRA on the same terms. Only 6 part-time employees enroll in the HRA. Plan Sponsor L reasonably expects to employ fewer than 100 employees on the first day of the HRA plan year.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xvi) (<I>Example 16</I>) because full-time employees and part-time employees may be treated as different classes, Plan Sponsor L offers an HRA on the same terms to all the participants in the part-time class, and the minimum class size requirement is satisfied. Specifically, whether a class of employees satisfies the applicable class size minimum is determined as of the first day of the plan year based on the number of employees in a class that is offered an HRA, not on the number of employees who enroll in the HRA. The applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor L is 10 employees, and Plan Sponsor L offered the HRA to its 12 part-time employees.
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Example 17: Student employees offered student premium reduction arrangements and same terms requirement</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor M is an institution of higher education that offers each of its part-time employees an HRA on the same terms, except that it offers its part-time employees who are student employees a student premium reduction arrangement, and the student premium reduction arrangement provides different amounts to different part-time student employees.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xvii) (<I>Example 17</I>) because Plan Sponsor M offers the HRA on the same terms to its part-time employees who are not students and because the part-time student employees offered a student premium reduction arrangement (and their varying HRAs) are not taken into account as part-time employees for purposes of determining whether a class of employees is offered an HRA on the same terms.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Example 18: Student employees offered student premium reduction arrangements and minimum class size requirement</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor N is an institution of higher education with 25 hourly employees. Plan Sponsor N offers 15 of its hourly employees, who are student employees, a student premium reduction arrangement and it wants to offer its other 10 hourly employees an HRA for 2022. Plan Sponsor N offers its salaried employees a traditional group health plan. Plan Sponsor N reasonably expects to have 250 employees on the first day of the 2022 HRA plan year, 15 of which will have offers of student premium reduction arrangements.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(1)(xviii) (<I>Example 18</I>). The minimum class size requirement will apply to the class of hourly employees to which Plan Sponsor N wants to offer the HRA because Plan Sponsor N offers a class of employees a traditional group health plan and another class the HRA, and the minimum class size requirement generally applies to a class of hourly employees offered an HRA. Plan Sponsor N's applicable class size minimum is 20 because Plan Sponsor N reasonably expects to employ 235 employees on the first day of the plan year (250 employees minus 15 employees receiving a student premium reduction arrangement). Plan Sponsor N may not offer the HRA to its hourly employees because the 10 employees offered the HRA as of the first day of the plan year does not satisfy the applicable class size minimum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples regarding special rule for new hires.</I> The following examples illustrate the provisions of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, taking into account the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section, in particular the special rule for new hires under paragraph (d)(5) of this section. In each example, the HRA is an individual coverage HRA that has a calendar year plan year and may reimburse any medical care expenses, including premiums for individual health insurance coverage. The examples also assume that no participants or dependents are Medicare beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1: Application of special rule for new hires to all employees</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2021, Plan Sponsor A offers all employees a traditional group health plan. For 2022, Plan Sponsor A offers all employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, an HRA on the same terms and continues to offer the traditional group health plan to employees hired before that date. On the first day of the 2022 plan year, Plan Sponsor A has 2 new hires who are offered the HRA.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(2)(i) (<I>Example 1</I>) because, under the special rule for new hires in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, the employees newly hired on and after January 1, 2022, may be treated as a new hire subclass, Plan Sponsor A offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants in the new hire subclass, and the minimum class size requirement does not apply to the new hire subclass.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2: Application of special rule for new hires to full-time employees</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2021, Plan Sponsor B offers a traditional group health plan to its full-time employees and does not offer any coverage to its part-time employees. For 2022, Plan Sponsor B offers full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, an HRA on the same terms, continues to offer its full-time employees hired before that date a traditional group health plan, and continues to offer no coverage to its part-time employees. On the first day of the 2022 plan year, Plan Sponsor B has 2 new hire, full-time employees who are offered the HRA.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(2)(ii) (<I>Example 2</I>) because, under the special rule for new hires in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, the full-time employees newly hired on and after January 1, 2022, may be treated as a new hire subclass and Plan Sponsor B offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants in the new hire subclass. The minimum class size requirement does not apply to the new hire subclass.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3: Special rule for new hires impermissibly applied retroactively</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2025, Plan Sponsor C offers a traditional group health plan to its full-time employees. For 2026, Plan Sponsor C wants to offer an HRA to its full-time employees hired on and after January 1, 2023, while continuing to offer a traditional group health plan to its full-time employees hired before January 1, 2023.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The special rule for new hires under paragraph (d)(5) of this section does not apply in this paragraph (f)(2)(iii) (<I>Example 3</I>) because the rule must be applied prospectively. That is, Plan Sponsor C may not, in 2026, choose to apply the special rule for new hires retroactive to 2023. If Plan Sponsor C were to offer an HRA in this way, it would fail to satisfy the conditions under paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section because the new hire subclass would not be treated as a subclass for purposes of applying those rules and, therefore, all full-time employees would be treated as one class to which either a traditional group health plan or an HRA could be offered, but not both.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4: Permissible second application of the special rule for new hires to the same class of employees</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> For 2021, Plan Sponsor D offers all of its full-time employees a traditional group health plan. For 2022, Plan Sponsor D applies the special rule for new hires and offers an HRA on the same terms to all employees hired on and after January 1, 2022, and continues to offer a traditional group health plan to full-time employees hired before that date. For 2025, Plan Sponsor D discontinues use of the special rule for new hires, and again offers all full-time employees a traditional group health plan. In 2030, Plan Sponsor D decides to apply the special rule for new hires to the full-time employee class again, offering an HRA to all full-time employees hired on and after January 1, 2030, on the same terms, while continuing to offer employees hired before that date a traditional group health plan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> Plan Sponsor D has permissibly applied the special rule for new hires and is in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Example 5: Impermissible second application of the special rule for new hires to the same class of employees</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of this section (<I>Example 4</I>), except that for 2025, Plan Sponsor D discontinues use of the special rule for new hires by offering all full-time employees an HRA on the same terms. Further, for 2030, Plan Sponsor D wants to continue to offer an HRA on the same terms to all full-time employees hired before January 1, 2030, and to offer all full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2030, an HRA in a different amount.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> Plan Sponsor D may not apply the special rule for new hires for 2030 to the class of full-time employees being offered an HRA because the special rule for new hires may only be applied to a class that is being offered a traditional group health plan.
</P>
<P>(vi)<I> Example 6: New full-time employees offered different HRAs in different rating areas</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor E has work sites in rating area 1, rating area 2, and rating area 3. For 2021, Plan Sponsor E offers its full-time employees a traditional group health plan. For 2022, Plan Sponsor E offers its full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, in rating area 1 an HRA of $3,000, its full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, in rating area 2 an HRA of $5,000, and its full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, in rating area 3 an HRA of $7,000. Within each class offered an HRA, Plan Sponsor E offers the HRA on the same terms. Plan Sponsor E offers its full-time employees hired prior to January 1, 2022, in each of those classes a traditional group health plan. On the first day of the 2022 plan year, there is one new hire, full-time employee in rating area 1, three new hire, full-time employees in rating area 2, and 10 new hire-full-time employees in rating area 3.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(2)(vi) (<I>Example 6</I>) because, under the special rule for new hires in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, the full-time employees in each of the three rating areas newly hired on and after January 1, 2022, may be treated as three new hire subclasses and Plan Sponsor E offers the HRA on the same terms to all participants in the new hire subclasses. Further, the minimum class size requirement does not apply to the new hire subclasses.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Example 7: New full-time employee class subdivided based on rating area</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> Plan Sponsor F offers its full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, an HRA on the same terms and it continues to offer its full-time employees hired before that date a traditional group health plan. Plan Sponsor F offers no coverage to its part-time employees. For the 2025 plan year, Plan Sponsor F wants to subdivide the full-time new hire subclass so that those whose work site is in rating area 1 will be offered the traditional group health plan and those whose work site is in rating area 2 will continue to receive the HRA. Plan Sponsor F reasonably expects to employ 219 employees on January 1, 2025. As of January 1, 2025, Plan Sponsor F has 15 full-time employees whose work site in in rating area 2 and who were hired between January 1, 2022, and January 1, 2025.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is not satisfied in this paragraph (f)(2)(vii) (<I>Example 7</I>) because the new hire subclass has been subdivided in a manner that is subject to the minimum class size requirement, and the class offered the HRA fails to satisfy the minimum class size requirement. Specifically, once the new hire subclass is subdivided the general rules for applying the minimum class size requirement apply to the employees offered the HRA in the new hire subclass. In this case, because the subdivision of the new hire full-time subclass is based on rating areas; a class based on rating areas is an applicable class subject to the minimum class size requirement; and the employees in one rating area are to be offered the HRA, while the employees in the other rating area are offered the traditional group health plan, the minimum class size requirement would apply on and after the date of the subdivision. Further, the minimum class size requirement would not be satisfied, because the applicable class size minimum for Plan Sponsor F would be 20, and only 15 employees in rating area 2 would be offered the HRA.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Example 8: New full-time employee class subdivided based on state</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> The facts are the same as in paragraph (f)(2)(vii) of this section (<I>Example 7</I>), except that for the 2025 plan year, Plan Sponsor F intends to subdivide the new hire, full-time class so that those in State 1 will be offered the traditional group health plan and those in State 2 will each be offered an HRA on the same terms.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The same terms requirement of paragraph (c)(3) of this section is satisfied in this paragraph (f)(2)(viii) (<I>Example 8</I>) because even though the new hire subclass has been subdivided, it has been subdivided in a manner that is not subject to the minimum class size requirement as the subdivision is based on the entire state.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Example 9: New full-time employees and part-time employees offered HRA</I>—(A) <I>Facts.</I> In 2021, Plan Sponsor G offers its full-time employees a traditional group health plan and does not offer coverage to its part-time employees. For the 2022 plan year, Plan Sponsor G offers its full-time employees hired on or after January 1, 2022, and all of its part-time employees, including those hired before January 1, 2022, and those hired on and after January 1, 2022, an HRA on the same terms, and it continues to offer its full-time employees hired before January 1, 2022, a traditional group health plan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> The minimum class size requirement applies to the part-time employees offered the HRA in 2022 because the class is being offered an HRA; the special rule for new hires does not apply (because this class was not previously offered a traditional group health plan) and so it is not a new hire subclass exempt from the minimum class size requirement; another class of employees (that is, full-time hired before January 1, 2022) are being offered a traditional group health plan; and the part-time employee class is generally an applicable classes that is subject to the minimum class size requirement. However, because the full-time, new hire subclass is based on the special rule for new hires, the minimum class size requirement does not apply to full-time new hires offered an HRA in 2022.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies to plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2020.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 29014, June 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.125" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.125   Applicability dates.</HEAD>
<P>Section 144.103 of this subchapter and §§ 146.111 through 146.119, 146.143, and 146.145 are applicable for plan years beginning on or after July 1, 2005. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, for short-term, limited-duration insurance sold or issued on or after September 1, 2024, the definition of <I>short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> in § 144.103 of this subchapter applies for coverage periods beginning on or after September 1, 2024. For short-term, limited-duration insurance sold or issued before September 1, 2024 (including any subsequent renewal or extension consistent with applicable law), the definition of <I>short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> in 45 CFR 144.103, revised as of October 1, 2023, continues to apply, except that paragraph (1)(ii) of the definition of <I>short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> in § 144.103 applies for coverage periods beginning on or after September 1, 2024.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 23418, Apr. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Requirements Related to Benefits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.130" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.130   Standards relating to benefits for mothers and newborns.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hospital length of stay</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, that provides benefits for a hospital length of stay in connection with childbirth for a mother or her newborn may not restrict benefits for the stay to less than—
</P>
<P>(i) 48 hours following a vaginal delivery; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 96 hours following a delivery by cesarean section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When stay begins</I>—(i) <I>Delivery in a hospital.</I> If delivery occurs in a hospital, the hospital length of stay for the mother or newborn child begins at the time of delivery (or in the case of multiple births, at the time of the last delivery).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Delivery outside a hospital.</I> If delivery occurs outside a hospital, the hospital length of stay begins at the time the mother or newborn is admitted as a hospital inpatient in connection with childbirth. The determination of whether an admission is in connection with childbirth is a medical decision to be made by the attending provider.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth and is subject to the requirements of this section, as follows:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A pregnant woman covered under a group health plan goes into labor and is admitted to the hospital at 10 p.m. on June 11. She gives birth by vaginal delivery at 6 a.m. on June 12.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the 48-hour period described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section ends at 6 a.m. on June 14.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A woman covered under a group health plan gives birth at home by vaginal delivery. After the delivery, the woman begins bleeding excessively in connection with the childbirth and is admitted to the hospital for treatment of the excessive bleeding at 7 p.m. on October 1.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the 48-hour period described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section ends at 7 p.m. on October 3.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A woman covered under a group health plan gives birth by vaginal delivery at home. The child later develops pneumonia and is admitted to the hospital. The attending provider determines that the admission is not in connection with childbirth.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the hospital length-of-stay requirements of this section do not apply to the child's admission to the hospital because the admission is not in connection with childbirth.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Authorization not required</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A plan or issuer is prohibited from requiring that a physician or other health care provider obtain authorization from the plan or issuer for prescribing the hospital length of stay specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. (See also paragraphs (b)(2) and (c)(3) of this section for rules and examples regarding other authorization and certain notice requirements.)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example.</I> The rule of this paragraph (a)(4) is illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> In the case of a delivery by cesarean section, a group health plan subject to the requirements of this section automatically provides benefits for any hospital length of stay of up to 72 hours. For any longer stay, the plan requires an attending provider to complete a certificate of medical necessity. The plan then makes a determination, based on the certificate of medical necessity, whether a longer stay is medically necessary.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the requirement that an attending provider complete a certificate of medical necessity to obtain authorization for the period between 72 hours and 96 hours following a delivery by cesarean section is prohibited by this paragraph (a)(4).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Discharge of mother.</I> If a decision to discharge a mother earlier than the period specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is made by an attending provider, in consultation with the mother, the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply for any period after the discharge.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Discharge of newborn.</I> If a decision to discharge a newborn child earlier than the period specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is made by an attending provider, in consultation with the mother (or the newborn's authorized representative), the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply for any period after the discharge.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Attending provider defined.</I> For purposes of this section, attending provider means an individual who is licensed under applicable state law to provide maternity or pediatric care and who is directly responsible for providing maternity or pediatric care to a mother or newborn child. Therefore, a plan, hospital, managed care organization, or other issuer is not an attending provider.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(5) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A pregnant woman covered under a group health plan subject to the requirements of this section goes into labor and is admitted to a hospital. She gives birth by cesarean section. On the third day after the delivery, the attending provider for the mother consults with the mother, and the attending provider for the newborn consults with the mother regarding the newborn. The attending providers authorize the early discharge of both the mother and the newborn. Both are discharged approximately 72 hours after the delivery. The plan pays for the 72-hour hospital stays.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the requirements of this paragraph (a) have been satisfied with respect to the mother and the newborn. If either is readmitted, the hospital stay for the readmission is not subject to this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions</I>—(1) <I>With respect to mothers</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, may not—
</P>
<P>(A) Deny a mother or her newborn child eligibility or continued eligibility to enroll or renew coverage under the terms of the plan solely to avoid the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Provide payments (including payments-in-kind) or rebates to a mother to encourage her to accept less than the minimum protections available under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b)(1) are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan is subject to the requirements of this section, as follows:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery. If a mother and newborn covered under the plan are discharged within 24 hours after the delivery, the plan will waive the copayment and deductible.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, because waiver of the copayment and deductible is in the nature of a rebate that the mother would not receive if she and her newborn remained in the hospital, it is prohibited by this paragraph (b)(1). (In addition, the plan violates paragraph (b)(2) of this section because, in effect, no copayment or deductible is required for the first portion of the stay and a double copayment and a deductible are required for the second portion of the stay.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery. In the event that a mother and her newborn are discharged earlier than 48 hours and the discharges occur after consultation with the mother in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the plan provides for a follow-up visit by a nurse within 48 hours after the discharges to provide certain services that the mother and her newborn would otherwise receive in the hospital.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, because the follow-up visit does not provide any services beyond what the mother and her newborn would receive in the hospital, coverage for the follow-up visit is not prohibited by this paragraph (b)(1).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>With respect to benefit restrictions</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(3) of this section, a group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, may not restrict the benefits for any portion of a hospital length of stay specified in paragraph (a) of this section in a manner that is less favorable than the benefits provided for any preceding portion of the stay.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b)(2) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan subject to the requirements of this section provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth. In the case of a delivery by cesarean section, the plan automatically pays for the first 48 hours. With respect to each succeeding 24-hour period, the participant or beneficiary must call the plan to obtain precertification from a utilization reviewer, who determines if an additional 24-hour period is medically necessary. If this approval is not obtained, the plan will not provide benefits for any succeeding 24-hour period.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example</I>, the requirement to obtain precertification for the two 24-hour periods immediately following the initial 48-hour stay is prohibited by this paragraph (b)(2) because benefits for the latter part of the stay are restricted in a manner that is less favorable than benefits for a preceding portion of the stay. (However, this section does not prohibit a plan from requiring precertification for any period after the first 96 hours.) In addition, the requirement to obtain precertification from the plan based on medical necessity for a hospital length of stay within the 96-hour period would also violate paragraph (a) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>With respect to attending providers.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, may not directly or indirectly—
</P>
<P>(i) Penalize (for example, take disciplinary action against or retaliate against), or otherwise reduce or limit the compensation of, an attending provider because the provider furnished care to a participant or beneficiary in accordance with this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide monetary or other incentives to an attending provider to induce the provider to furnish care to a participant or beneficiary in a manner inconsistent with this section, including providing any incentive that could induce an attending provider to discharge a mother or newborn earlier than 48 hours (or 96 hours) after delivery.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction.</I> With respect to this section, the following rules of construction apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Hospital stays not mandatory.</I> This section does not require a mother to—
</P>
<P>(i) Give birth in a hospital; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Stay in the hospital for a fixed period of time following the birth of her child.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hospital stay benefits not mandated.</I> This section does not apply to any group health plan, or any group health insurance coverage, that does not provide benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth for a mother or her newborn child.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cost-sharing rules</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> This section does not prevent a group health plan or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage from imposing deductibles, coinsurance, or other cost-sharing in relation to benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth for a mother or a newborn under the plan or coverage, except that the coinsurance or other cost-sharing for any portion of the hospital length of stay specified in paragraph (a) of this section may not be greater than that for any preceding portion of the stay.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c)(3) are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan is subject to the requirements of this section, as follows:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay in connection with vaginal deliveries. The plan covers 80 percent of the cost of the stay for the first 24-hour period and 50 percent of the cost of the stay for the second 24-hour period. Thus, the coinsurance paid by the patient increases from 20 percent to 50 percent after 24 hours.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the plan violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(3) because coinsurance for the second 24-hour period of the 48-hour stay is greater than that for the preceding portion of the stay. (In addition, the plan also violates the similar rule in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally covers 70 percent of the cost of a hospital length of stay in connection with childbirth. However, the plan will cover 80 percent of the cost of the stay if the participant or beneficiary notifies the plan of the pregnancy in advance of admission and uses whatever hospital the plan may designate.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(3) because the level of benefits provided (70 percent or 80 percent) is consistent throughout the 48-hour (or 96-hour) hospital length of stay required under paragraph (a) of this section. (In addition, the plan does not violate the rules in paragraph (a)(4) or (b)(2) of this section.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Compensation of attending provider.</I> This section does not prevent a group health plan or a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage from negotiating with an attending provider the level and type of compensation for care furnished in accordance with this section (including paragraph (b) of this section).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice requirement.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, a group health plan that provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Required statement.</I> The plan document that provides a description of plan benefits to participants and beneficiaries, or that notifies participants and beneficiaries of plan benefit changes, must disclose information that notifies participants and beneficiaries of their rights under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure notice.</I> To meet the disclosure requirement set forth in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the following disclosure notice must be used:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Statement of Rights Under the Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act
</HD1>
<P>Under federal law, group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage generally may not restrict benefits for any hospital length of stay in connection with childbirth for the mother or newborn child to less than 48 hours following a vaginal delivery, or less than 96 hours following a delivery by cesarean section. However, the plan or issuer may pay for a shorter stay if the attending provider (<I>e.g.</I>, your physician, nurse midwife, or physician assistant), after consultation with the mother, discharges the mother or newborn earlier.
</P>
<P>Also, under federal law, plans and issuers may not set the level of benefits or out-of-pocket costs so that any later portion of the 48-hour (or 96-hour) stay is treated in a manner less favorable to the mother or newborn than any earlier portion of the stay.
</P>
<P>In addition, a plan or issuer may not, under federal law, require that a physician or other health care provider obtain authorization for prescribing a length of stay of up to 48 hours (or 96 hours). However, to use certain providers or facilities, or to reduce your out-of-pocket costs, you may be required to obtain precertification. For information on precertification, contact your plan administrator.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Timing of disclosure.</I> The disclosure notice in paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall be furnished to each participant covered under a group health plan, and each beneficiary receiving benefits under a group health plan, not later than 60 days after the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2009. Each time a plan distributes one or both of the documents described in paragraph (d)(1) to participants and beneficiaries after providing this initial notice, the disclosure notice in paragraph (d)(2) must appear in at least one of those documents.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirements of this paragraph (d) do not apply in the following situations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Self-insured plans that have already provided notice.</I> If benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth are not provided through health insurance coverage, and the group health plan has already provided an initial notice that complies with paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section, the group health plan is not automatically required to provide another such notice to participants and beneficiaries who have been provided with the initial notice. However, following the effective date of these regulations, whenever such a plan provides one or both of the documents described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to participants and beneficiaries, the disclosure notice in paragraph (d)(2) of this section must appear in at least one of those documents.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Self-insured plans that have elected exemption from this section.</I> If benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth are not provided through health insurance coverage, and the group health plan has made the election described in Sec. 146.180 to be exempted from the requirements of this section, the group health plan is not subject to this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Insured plans.</I> If benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth are provided through health insurance coverage, and the coverage is regulated under a State law described in paragraph (e) of this section, the group health plan is not subject to this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability in certain states</I>—(1) <I>Health insurance coverage.</I> The requirements of section 2725 of the PHS Act and this section do not apply with respect to health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan if there is a state law regulating the coverage that meets any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The state law requires the coverage to provide for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery and at least a 96-hour hospital length of stay following a delivery by cesarean section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The state law requires the coverage to provide for maternity and pediatric care in accordance with guidelines that relate to care following childbirth established by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, the American Academy of Pediatrics, or any other established professional medical association.
</P>
<P>(iii) The state law requires, in connection with the coverage for maternity care, that the hospital length of stay for such care is left to the decision of (or is required to be made by) the attending provider in consultation with the mother. State laws that require the decision to be made by the attending provider with the consent of the mother satisfy the criterion of this paragraph (e)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Group health plans</I>—(i) <I>Fully-insured plans.</I> For a group health plan that provides benefits solely through health insurance coverage, if the state law regulating the health insurance coverage meets any of the criteria in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, then the requirements of section 2725 of the PHS Act and this section do not apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Self-insured plans.</I> For a group health plan that provides all benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth other than through health insurance coverage, the requirements of section 2725 of the PHS Act and this section apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Partially-insured plans.</I> For a group health plan that provides some benefits through health insurance coverage, if the state law regulating the health insurance coverage meets any of the criteria in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, then the requirements of section 2725 of the PHS Act and this section apply only to the extent the plan provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth other than through health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relation to section 2724 (a) of the PHS Act.</I> The preemption provisions contained in section 2724 (a)(1) of the PHS Act and Sec. 146.143(a) do not supersede a state law described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (e) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan buys group health insurance coverage in a state that requires that the coverage provide for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery and at least a 96-hour hospital length of stay following a delivery by cesarean section.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this Example 1, the coverage is subject to state law, and the requirements of section 2725 of the PHS Act and this section do not apply.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A self-insured group health plan covers hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth in a state that requires health insurance coverage to provide for maternity and pediatric care in accordance with guidelines that relate to care following childbirth established by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists and the American Academy of Pediatrics.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this Example 2, even though the state law satisfies the criterion of paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, because the plan provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth other than through health insurance coverage, the plan is subject to the requirements of section 2725 of the PHS Act and this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> Section 2725 of the PHS Act applies to group health plans, and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 1998. This section applies to group health plans, and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2009.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 62424, Oct. 20, 2008, as amended at 75 FR 27138, May 13, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.136" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.136   Parity in mental health and substance use disorder benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and meaning of terms</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> This section and § 146.137 set forth rules to ensure parity in aggregate lifetime and annual dollar limits, financial requirements, and quantitative and nonquantitative treatment limitations between mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits, as required under PHS Act section 2726. A fundamental purpose of PHS Act section 2726, this section, and § 146.137 is to ensure that participants and beneficiaries in a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with a group health plan) that offers mental health or substance use disorder benefits are not subject to more restrictive aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits, financial requirements, or treatment limitations with respect to those benefits than the predominant dollar limits, financial requirements, or treatment limitations that are applied to substantially all medical/surgical benefits covered by the plan or coverage in the same classification, as further provided in this section and § 146.137. Accordingly, in complying with the provisions of PHS Act section 2726, this section, and § 146.137, plans and issuers must not design or apply financial requirements and treatment limitations that impose a greater burden on access (that is, are more restrictive) to mental health or substance use disorder benefits under the plan or coverage than they impose on access to medical/surgical benefits in the same classification of benefits. The provisions of PHS Act section 2726, this section, and § 146.137 should be interpreted in a manner that is consistent with the purpose described in this paragraph (a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Meaning of terms.</I> For purposes of this section and § 146.137, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise, the following terms have the meanings indicated:


</P>
<P><I>Aggregate lifetime dollar limit</I> means a dollar limitation on the total amount of specified benefits that may be paid under a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such a plan) for any coverage unit.
</P>
<P><I>Annual dollar limit</I> means a dollar limitation on the total amount of specified benefits that may be paid in a 12-month period under a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such a plan) for any coverage unit.
</P>
<P><I>Coverage unit</I> means coverage unit as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Cumulative financial requirements</I> are financial requirements that determine whether or to what extent benefits are provided based on accumulated amounts and include deductibles and out-of-pocket maximums. (However, cumulative financial requirements do not include aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits because these two terms are excluded from the meaning of financial requirements.)
</P>
<P><I>Cumulative quantitative treatment limitations</I> are treatment limitations that determine whether or to what extent benefits are provided based on accumulated amounts, such as annual or lifetime day or visit limits.


</P>
<P><I>DSM</I> means the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. For the purpose of this definition, the most current version of the DSM as of November 22, 2024, is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision published in March 2022. A subsequent version of the DSM published after November 22, 2024, will be considered the most current version beginning on the first day of the plan year that is one year after the date the subsequent version is published.
</P>
<P><I>Evidentiary standards</I> are any evidence, sources, or standards that a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with such a plan) considered or relied upon in designing or applying a factor with respect to a nonquantitative treatment limitation, including specific benchmarks or thresholds. Evidentiary standards may be empirical, statistical, or clinical in nature, and include: sources acquired or originating from an objective third party, such as recognized medical literature, professional standards and protocols (which may include comparative effectiveness studies and clinical trials), published research studies, payment rates for items and services (such as publicly available databases of the “usual, customary and reasonable” rates paid for items and services), and clinical treatment guidelines; internal plan or issuer data, such as claims or utilization data or criteria for assuring a sufficient mix and number of network providers; and benchmarks or thresholds, such as measures of excessive utilization, cost levels, time or distance standards, or network participation percentage thresholds.
</P>
<P><I>Factors</I> are all information, including processes and strategies (but not evidentiary standards), that a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with such a plan) considered or relied upon to design a nonquantitative treatment limitation, or to determine whether or how the nonquantitative treatment limitation applies to benefits under the plan or coverage. Examples of factors include, but are not limited to: provider discretion in determining a diagnosis or type or length of treatment; clinical efficacy of any proposed treatment or service; licensing and accreditation of providers; claim types with a high percentage of fraud; quality measures; treatment outcomes; severity or chronicity of condition; variability in the cost of an episode of treatment; high cost growth; variability in cost and quality; elasticity of demand; and geographic location.




</P>
<P><I>Financial requirements</I> include deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, or out-of-pocket maximums. Financial requirements do not include aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits.


</P>
<P><I>ICD</I> means the World Health Organization's International Classification of Diseases adopted by the Department of Health and Human Services through § 162.1002 of this subtitle. For the purpose of this definition, the most current version of the ICD as of November 22, 2024, is the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification adopted for the period beginning on October 1, 2015. Any subsequent version of the ICD adopted through § 162.1002 of this subtitle after November 22, 2024, will be considered the most current version beginning on the first day of the plan year that is one year after the date the subsequent version is adopted.


</P>
<P><I>Medical/surgical benefits</I> means benefits with respect to items or services for medical conditions or surgical procedures, as defined under the terms of the group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with such a plan) and in accordance with applicable Federal and State law, but does not include mental health benefits or substance use disorder benefits. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, any condition or procedure defined by the plan or coverage as being or as not being a medical condition or surgical procedure must be defined consistent with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice (for example, the most current version of the ICD). To the extent generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice do not address whether a condition or procedure is a medical condition or surgical procedure, plans and issuers may define the condition or procedure in accordance with applicable Federal and State law.




</P>
<P><I>Mental health benefits</I> means benefits with respect to items or services for mental health conditions, as defined under the terms of the group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with such a plan) and in accordance with applicable Federal and State law, but does not include medical/surgical benefits or substance use disorder benefits. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, any condition defined by the plan or coverage as being or as not being a mental health condition must be defined consistent with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice. For the purpose of this definition, to be consistent with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice, the definition must include all conditions covered under the plan or coverage, except for substance use disorders, that fall under any of the diagnostic categories listed in the mental, behavioral, and neurodevelopmental disorders chapter (or equivalent chapter) of the most current version of the ICD or that are listed in the most current version of the DSM. To the extent generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice do not address whether a condition is a mental health condition, plans and issuers may define the condition in accordance with applicable Federal and State law.




</P>
<P><I>Processes</I> are actions, steps, or procedures that a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with such a plan) uses to apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation, including actions, steps, or procedures established by the plan or issuer as requirements in order for a participant or beneficiary to access benefits, including through actions by a participant's or beneficiary's authorized representative or a provider or facility. Examples of processes include, but are not limited to: procedures to submit information to authorize coverage for an item or service prior to receiving the benefit or while treatment is ongoing (including requirements for peer or expert clinical review of that information); provider referral requirements that are used to determine when and how a participant or beneficiary may access certain services; and the development and approval of a treatment plan used in a concurrent review process to determine whether a specific request should be granted or denied. Processes also include the specific procedures used by staff or other representatives of a plan or issuer (or the service provider of a plan or issuer) to administer the application of nonquantitative treatment limitations, such as how a panel of staff members applies the nonquantitative treatment limitation (including the qualifications of staff involved, number of staff members allocated, and time allocated), consultations with panels of experts in applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation, and the degree of reviewer discretion in adhering to criteria hierarchy when applying a nonquantitative treatment limitation.


</P>
<P><I>Strategies</I> are practices, methods, or internal metrics that a plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with such a plan) considers, reviews, or uses to design a nonquantitative treatment limitation. Examples of strategies include, but are not limited to: the development of the clinical rationale used in approving or denying benefits; the method of determining whether and how to deviate from generally accepted standards of care in concurrent reviews; the selection of information deemed reasonably necessary to make medical necessity determinations; reliance on treatment guidelines or guidelines provided by third-party organizations in the design of a nonquantitative treatment limitation; and rationales used in selecting and adopting certain threshold amounts to apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation, professional standards and protocols to determine utilization management standards, and fee schedules used to determine provider reimbursement rates, used as part of a nonquantitative treatment limitation. Strategies also include the method of creating and determining the composition of the staff or other representatives of a plan or issuer (or the service provider of a plan or issuer) that deliberates, or otherwise makes decisions, on the design of nonquantitative treatment limitations, including the plan's or issuer's methods for making decisions related to the qualifications of staff involved, number of staff members allocated, and time allocated; breadth of sources and evidence considered; consultations with panels of experts in designing the nonquantitative treatment limitation; and the composition of the panels used to design a nonquantitative treatment limitation.


</P>
<P><I>Substance use disorder benefits</I> means benefits with respect to items or services for substance use disorders, as defined under the terms of the group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with such a plan) and in accordance with applicable Federal and State law, but does not include medical/surgical benefits or mental health benefits. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, any disorder defined by the plan or coverage as being or as not being a substance use disorder must be defined consistent with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice. For the purpose of this definition, to be consistent with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice, the definition must include all disorders covered under the plan or coverage that fall under any of the diagnostic categories listed as a mental or behavioral disorder due to psychoactive substance use (or equivalent category) in the mental, behavioral, and neurodevelopmental disorders chapter (or equivalent chapter) of the most current version of the ICD or that are listed as a Substance-Related and Addictive Disorder (or equivalent category) in the most current version of the DSM. To the extent generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice do not address whether a disorder is a substance use disorder, plans and issuers may define the disorder in accordance with applicable Federal and State law.




</P>
<P><I>Treatment limitations</I> include limits on benefits based on the frequency of treatment, number of visits, days of coverage, days in a waiting period, or other similar limits on the scope or duration of treatment. Treatment limitations include both quantitative treatment limitations, which are expressed numerically (such as 50 outpatient visits per year), and nonquantitative treatment limitations (such as standards related to network composition), which otherwise limit the scope or duration of benefits for treatment under a plan or coverage. (See paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section for an illustrative, non-exhaustive list of nonquantitative treatment limitations.) A complete exclusion of all benefits for a particular condition or disorder, however, is not a treatment limitation for purposes of this definition.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Parity requirements with respect to aggregate lifetime and annual dollar limits.</I> This paragraph (b) details the application of the parity requirements with respect to aggregate lifetime and annual dollar limits. This paragraph (b) does not address the provisions of PHS Act section 2711, which prohibit imposing lifetime and annual limits on the dollar value of essential health benefits. For more information, see § 147.126 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General</I>—(i) <I>General parity requirement.</I> A group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with a group health plan) that provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits must comply with paragraph (b)(2), (b)(3), or (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> The rule in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section does not apply if a plan (or health insurance coverage) satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f) or (g) of this section (relating to exemptions for small employers and for increased cost).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plan with no limit or limits on less than one-third of all medical/surgical benefits.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) does not include an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit on any medical/surgical benefits or includes an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit that applies to less than one-third of all medical/surgical benefits, it may not impose an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit, respectively, on mental health or substance use disorder benefits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Plan with a limit on at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) includes an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit on at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits, it must either—
</P>
<P>(i) Apply the aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit both to the medical/surgical benefits to which the limit would otherwise apply and to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in a manner that does not distinguish between the medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not include an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit on mental health or substance use disorder benefits that is less than the aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit, respectively, on medical/surgical benefits. (For cumulative limits other than aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits, see paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section prohibiting separately accumulating cumulative financial requirements or cumulative quantitative treatment limitations.)
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Determining one-third and two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b), the determination of whether the portion of medical/surgical benefits subject to an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit represents one-third or two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits is based on the dollar amount of all plan payments for medical/surgical benefits expected to be paid under the plan for the plan year (or for the portion of the plan year after a change in plan benefits that affects the applicability of the aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits). Any reasonable method may be used to determine whether the dollar amount expected to be paid under the plan will constitute one-third or two-thirds of the dollar amount of all plan payments for medical/surgical benefits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Plan not described in paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan (or health insurance coverage) that is not described in paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section with respect to aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits on medical/surgical benefits, must either—
</P>
<P>(A) Impose no aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit, as appropriate, on mental health or substance use disorder benefits; or
</P>
<P>(B) Impose an aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limit on mental health or substance use disorder benefits that is no less than an average limit calculated for medical/surgical benefits in the following manner. The average limit is calculated by taking into account the weighted average of the aggregate lifetime or annual dollar limits, as appropriate, that are applicable to the categories of medical/surgical benefits. Limits based on delivery systems, such as inpatient/outpatient treatment or normal treatment of common, low-cost conditions (such as treatment of normal births), do not constitute categories for purposes of this paragraph (b)(5)(i)(B). In addition, for purposes of determining weighted averages, any benefits that are not within a category that is subject to a separately-designated dollar limit under the plan are taken into account as a single separate category by using an estimate of the upper limit on the dollar amount that a plan may reasonably be expected to incur with respect to such benefits, taking into account any other applicable restrictions under the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Weighting.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)(5), the weighting applicable to any category of medical/surgical benefits is determined in the manner set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section for determining one-third or two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Parity requirements with respect to financial requirements and treatment limitations</I>—(1) <I>Clarification of terms</I>—(i) <I>Classification of benefits.</I> When reference is made in this paragraph (c) to a classification of benefits, the term “classification” means a classification as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Type of financial requirement or treatment limitation.</I> When reference is made in this paragraph (c) to a type of financial requirement or treatment limitation, the reference to type means its nature. Different types of financial requirements include deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maximums. Different types of quantitative treatment limitations include annual, episode, and lifetime day and visit limits. See paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section for an illustrative, non-exhaustive list of nonquantitative treatment limitations.




</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Level of a type of financial requirement or treatment limitation.</I> When reference is made in this paragraph (c) to a level of a type of financial requirement or treatment limitation, level refers to the magnitude of the type of financial requirement or treatment limitation. For example, different levels of coinsurance include 20 percent and 30 percent; different levels of a copayment include $15 and $20; different levels of a deductible include $250 and $500; and different levels of an episode limit include 21 inpatient days per episode and 30 inpatient days per episode.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Coverage unit.</I> When reference is made in this paragraph (c) to a coverage unit, coverage unit refers to the way in which a plan (or health insurance coverage) groups individuals for purposes of determining benefits, or premiums or contributions. For example, different coverage units include self-only, family, and employee-plus-spouse.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>General parity requirement</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> A group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with a group health plan) that provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits may not apply any financial requirement or treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any classification that is more restrictive than the predominant financial requirement or treatment limitation of that type applied to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification. Whether a financial requirement or treatment limitation is a predominant financial requirement or treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in a classification is determined separately for each type of financial requirement or treatment limitation. A plan or issuer may not impose any financial requirement or treatment limitation that is applicable only with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and not to any medical/surgical benefits in the same benefit classification. The application of the rules of this paragraph (c)(2) to financial requirements and quantitative treatment limitations is addressed in paragraph (c)(3) of this section; the application of the rules of this paragraph (c)(2) to nonquantitative treatment limitations is addressed in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Classifications of benefits used for applying rules</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) provides any benefits for a mental health condition or substance use disorder in any classification of benefits described in this paragraph (c)(2)(ii), it must provide meaningful benefits for that mental health condition or substance use disorder in every classification in which medical/surgical benefits are provided. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A), whether the benefits provided are meaningful benefits is determined in comparison to the benefits provided for medical conditions and surgical procedures in the classification and requires, at a minimum, coverage of benefits for that condition or disorder in each classification in which the plan (or coverage) provides benefits for one or more medical conditions or surgical procedures. A plan (or coverage) does not provide meaningful benefits under this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) unless it provides benefits for a core treatment for that condition or disorder in each classification in which the plan (or coverage) provides benefits for a core treatment for one or more medical conditions or surgical procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A), a core treatment for a condition or disorder is a standard treatment or course of treatment, therapy, service, or intervention indicated by generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice. If there is no core treatment for a covered mental health condition or substance use disorder with respect to a classification, the plan (or coverage) is not required to provide benefits for a core treatment for such condition or disorder in that classification (but must provide benefits for such condition or disorder in every classification in which medical/surgical benefits are provided). In determining the classification in which a particular benefit belongs, a plan (or health insurance issuer) must apply the same standards to medical/surgical benefits and to mental health or substance use disorder benefits. To the extent that a plan (or health insurance coverage) provides benefits in a classification and imposes any separate financial requirement or treatment limitation (or separate level of a financial requirement or treatment limitation) for benefits in the classification, the rules of this paragraph (c) apply separately with respect to that classification for all financial requirements or treatment limitations (illustrated in examples in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C) of this section). The following classifications of benefits are the only classifications used in applying the rules of this paragraph (c), in addition to the permissible sub-classifications described in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section:




</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Inpatient, in-network.</I> Benefits furnished on an inpatient basis and within a network of providers established or recognized under a plan or health insurance coverage. See special rules for plans with multiple network tiers in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Inpatient, out-of-network.</I> Benefits furnished on an inpatient basis and outside any network of providers established or recognized under a plan or health insurance coverage. This classification includes inpatient benefits under a plan (or health insurance coverage) that has no network of providers.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Outpatient, in-network.</I> Benefits furnished on an outpatient basis and within a network of providers established or recognized under a plan or health insurance coverage. See special rules for office visits and plans with multiple network tiers in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Outpatient, out-of-network.</I> Benefits furnished on an outpatient basis and outside any network of providers established or recognized under a plan or health insurance coverage. This classification includes outpatient benefits under a plan (or health insurance coverage) that has no network of providers. See special rules for office visits in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Emergency care.</I> Benefits for emergency care.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Prescription drugs.</I> Benefits for prescription drugs. See special rules for multi-tiered prescription drug benefits in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Application to out-of-network providers.</I> See paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, under which a plan (or health insurance coverage) that provides mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any classification of benefits must provide mental health or substance use disorder benefits in every classification in which medical/surgical benefits are provided, including out-of-network classifications.


</P>
<P>(C) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii) are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan is subject to the requirements of this section and provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits. With regard to the examples in this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C), references to any particular core treatment are included for illustrative purposes only. Plans and issuers must consult generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice to determine the applicable core treatment, therapy, service, or intervention for any covered condition or disorder.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Example 1</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers inpatient and outpatient benefits and does not contract with a network of providers. The plan imposes a $500 deductible on all benefits. For inpatient medical/surgical benefits, the plan imposes a coinsurance requirement. For outpatient medical/surgical benefits, the plan imposes copayments. The plan imposes no other financial requirements or treatment limitations.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) (<I>Example 1</I>), because the plan has no network of providers, all benefits provided are out-of-network. Because inpatient, out-of-network medical/surgical benefits are subject to separate financial requirements from outpatient, out-of-network medical/surgical benefits, the rules of this paragraph (c) apply separately with respect to any financial requirements and treatment limitations, including the deductible, in each classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Example 2</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan imposes a $500 deductible on all benefits. The plan has no network of providers. The plan generally imposes a 20 percent coinsurance requirement with respect to all benefits, without distinguishing among inpatient, outpatient, emergency care, or prescription drug benefits. The plan imposes no other financial requirements or treatment limitations.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>) (<I>Example 2</I>), because the plan does not impose separate financial requirements (or treatment limitations) based on classification, the rules of this paragraph (c) apply with respect to the deductible and the coinsurance across all benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Example 3</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section (<I>Example 2</I>), except the plan exempts emergency care benefits from the 20 percent coinsurance requirement. The plan imposes no other financial requirements or treatment limitations.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>3</I>) (<I>Example 3</I>), because the plan imposes separate financial requirements based on classifications, the rules of this paragraph (c) apply with respect to the deductible and the coinsurance separately for benefits in the emergency care classification and all other benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Example 4</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section (<I>Example 2</I>), except the plan also imposes a preauthorization requirement for all inpatient treatment in order for benefits to be paid. No such requirement applies to outpatient treatment.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>4</I>) (<I>Example 4</I>), because the plan has no network of providers, all benefits provided are out-of-network. Because the plan imposes a separate treatment limitation based on classifications, the rules of this paragraph (c) apply with respect to the deductible and coinsurance separately for inpatient, out-of-network benefits and all other benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Example 5</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan covers treatment for autism spectrum disorder (ASD), a mental health condition, and covers outpatient, out-of-network developmental screenings for ASD but excludes all other benefits for outpatient treatment for ASD, including applied behavior analysis (ABA) therapy, when provided on an out-of-network basis. The plan generally covers the full range of outpatient treatments (including core treatments) and treatment settings for medical conditions and surgical procedures when provided on an out-of-network basis. Under the generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice consulted by the plan, developmental screenings alone do not constitute a core treatment for ASD.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>5</I>) (<I>Example 5</I>), the plan violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii). Although the plan covers benefits for ASD in the outpatient, out-of-network classification, it only covers developmental screenings, so it does not cover a core treatment for ASD in the classification. Because the plan generally covers the full range of medical/surgical benefits, including a core treatment for one or more medical conditions or surgical procedures in the classification, it fails to provide meaningful benefits for treatment of ASD in the classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Example 6</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>5</I>) of this section (<I>Example 5</I>), except that the plan is an HMO that does not cover the full range of medical/surgical benefits including a core treatment for any medical conditions or surgical procedures in the outpatient, out-of-network classification (except as required under PHS Act sections 2799A-1 and 2799A-2), but covers benefits for medical conditions and surgical procedures in the inpatient, in-network; outpatient, in-network; emergency care; and prescription drug classifications.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>6</I>) (<I>Example 6</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii). Because the plan does not provide meaningful benefits including for a core treatment for any medical condition or surgical procedure in the outpatient, out-of-network classification (except as required under PHS Act sections 2799A-1 and 2799A-2), the plan is not required to provide meaningful benefits for any mental health conditions or substance use disorders in that classification. Nevertheless, the plan must provide meaningful benefits for each mental health condition and substance use disorder for which the plan provides benefits in every classification in which meaningful medical/surgical benefits are provided as required under paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section. This example does not address whether the plan has complied with other applicable requirements of this section in excluding coverage of ABA therapy in the outpatient, out-of-network classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Example 7</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan provides extensive benefits, including for core treatments for many medical conditions and surgical procedures in the outpatient, in-network classification, including nutrition counseling for diabetes and obesity. The plan also generally covers diagnosis and treatment for eating disorders, which are mental health conditions, including coverage for nutrition counseling to treat eating disorders in the outpatient, in-network classification. Nutrition counseling is a core treatment for eating disorders, in accordance with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice consulted by the plan.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>7</I>) (<I>Example 7</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii). The coverage of diagnosis and treatment for eating disorders, including nutrition counseling, in the outpatient, in-network classification results in the plan providing meaningful benefits for the treatment of eating disorders in the classification, as determined in comparison to the benefits provided for medical conditions or surgical procedures in the classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Example 8</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan provides extensive benefits for the core treatments for many medical conditions and surgical procedures in the outpatient, in-network and prescription drug classifications. The plan provides coverage for diagnosis and treatment for opioid use disorder, a substance use disorder, in the outpatient, in-network classification, by covering counseling and behavioral therapies and, in the prescription drug classification, by covering medications to treat opioid use disorder (MOUD). Counseling and behavioral therapies and MOUD, in combination, are one of the core treatments for opioid use disorder, in accordance with generally recognized independent standards of current medical practice consulted by the plan.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C)(<I>8</I>) (<I>Example 8</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii). The coverage of counseling and behavioral therapies and MOUD, in combination, in the outpatient, in-network classification and prescription drug classification, respectively, results in the plan providing meaningful benefits for the treatment of opioid use disorder in the outpatient, in-network and prescription drug classifications.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Financial requirements and quantitative treatment limitations</I>—(i) <I>Determining “substantially all” and “predominant”</I>—(A) <I>Substantially all.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), a type of financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation is considered to apply to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in a classification of benefits if it applies to at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits in that classification. (For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A), benefits expressed as subject to a zero level of a type of financial requirement are treated as benefits not subject to that type of financial requirement, and benefits expressed as subject to a quantitative treatment limitation that is unlimited are treated as benefits not subject to that type of quantitative treatment limitation.) If a type of financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation does not apply to at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits in a classification, then that type cannot be applied to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in that classification.




</P>
<P>(B) <I>Predominant.</I> (<I>1</I>) If a type of financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation applies to at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits in a classification as determined under paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section, the level of the financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation that is considered the predominant level of that type in a classification of benefits is the level that applies to more than one-half of medical/surgical benefits in that classification subject to the financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If, with respect to a type of financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation that applies to at least two-thirds of all medical/surgical benefits in a classification, there is no single level that applies to more than one-half of medical/surgical benefits in the classification subject to the financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation, the plan (or health insurance issuer) may combine levels until the combination of levels applies to more than one-half of medical/surgical benefits subject to the financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation in the classification. The least restrictive level within the combination is considered the predominant level of that type in the classification. (For this purpose, a plan may combine the most restrictive levels first, with each less restrictive level added to the combination until the combination applies to more than one-half of the benefits subject to the financial requirement or treatment limitation.)


</P>
<P>(C) <I>Portion based on plan payments.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), the determination of the portion of medical/surgical benefits in a classification of benefits subject to a financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation (or subject to any level of a financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation) is based on the dollar amount of all plan payments for medical/surgical benefits in the classification expected to be paid under the plan for the plan year (or for the portion of the plan year after a change in plan benefits that affects the applicability of the financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Clarifications for certain threshold requirements.</I> For any deductible, the dollar amount of plan payments includes all plan payments with respect to claims that would be subject to the deductible if it had not been satisfied. For any out-of-pocket maximum, the dollar amount of plan payments includes all plan payments associated with out-of-pocket payments that are taken into account towards the out-of-pocket maximum as well as all plan payments associated with out-of-pocket payments that would have been made towards the out-of-pocket maximum if it had not been satisfied. The rules of this paragraph (c)(3)(i)(D) apply for any other thresholds at which the rate of plan payment changes. (See also PHS Act section 2707 and Affordable Care Act section 1302(c), which establish annual limitations on out-of-pocket maximums for all non-grandfathered health plans.)




</P>
<P>(E) <I>Determining the dollar amount of plan payments.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(3)(i)(D) of this section, any reasonable method may be used to determine the dollar amount expected to be paid under a plan for medical/surgical benefits subject to a financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation (or subject to any level of a financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application to different coverage units.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) applies different levels of a financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation to different coverage units in a classification of medical/surgical benefits, the predominant level that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the classification is determined separately for each coverage unit.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special rules.</I> Unless specifically permitted under this paragraph (c)(3)(iii), sub-classifications are not permitted when applying the rules of paragraph (c)(3) of this section.


</P>
<P>(A) <I>Multi-tiered prescription drug benefits.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) applies different levels of financial requirements to different tiers of prescription drug benefits based on reasonable factors determined in accordance with the rules in paragraph (c)(4) of this section (relating to requirements for nonquantitative treatment limitations) and without regard to whether a drug is generally prescribed with respect to medical/surgical benefits or with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits, the plan (or health insurance coverage) satisfies the parity requirements of this paragraph (c) with respect to prescription drug benefits. Reasonable factors include cost, efficacy, generic versus brand name, and mail order versus pharmacy pick-up.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Multiple network tiers.</I> If a plan (or health insurance coverage) provides benefits through multiple tiers of in-network providers (such as an in-network tier of preferred providers with more generous cost-sharing to participants than a separate in-network tier of participating providers), the plan may divide its benefits furnished on an in-network basis into sub-classifications that reflect network tiers, if the tiering is based on reasonable factors determined in accordance with the rules in paragraph (c)(4) of this section (such as quality, performance, and market standards) and without regard to whether a provider provides services with respect to medical/surgical benefits or mental health or substance use disorder benefits. After the sub-classifications are established, the plan or issuer may not impose any financial requirement or treatment limitation on mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any sub-classification that is more restrictive than the predominant financial requirement or treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the sub-classification using the methodology set forth in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.




</P>
<P>(C) <I>Sub-classifications permitted for office visits, separate from other outpatient services.</I> For purposes of applying the financial requirement and treatment limitation rules of this paragraph (c), a plan or issuer may divide its benefits furnished on an outpatient basis into the two sub-classifications described in this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(C). After the sub-classifications are established, the plan or issuer may not impose any financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation on mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any sub-classification that is more restrictive than the predominant financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the sub-classification using the methodology set forth in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section. Sub-classifications other than these special rules, such as separate sub-classifications for generalists and specialists, are not permitted. The two sub-classifications permitted under this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(C) are:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Office visits (such as physician visits), and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All other outpatient items and services (such as outpatient surgery, facility charges for day treatment centers, laboratory charges, or other medical items).


</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan is subject to the requirements of this section and provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Example 1</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> (<I>i</I>) For inpatient, out-of-network medical/surgical benefits, a group health plan imposes five levels of coinsurance. Using a reasonable method, the plan projects its payments for the upcoming year as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(<E T="01">A</E>)(<E T="03">1</E>)(<E T="03">i</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coinsurance rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Projected payments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$200x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$450x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$150x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000x.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percent of total plan costs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15%
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percent subject to coinsurance level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.5% (100x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">56.25% (450x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.5% (100x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18.75% (150x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The plan projects plan costs of $800x to be subject to coinsurance ($100x + $450x + $100x + $150x = $800x). Thus, 80 percent ($800x/$1,000x) of the benefits are projected to be subject to coinsurance, and 56.25 percent of the benefits subject to coinsurance are projected to be subject to the 15 percent coinsurance level.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(A) (<I>Example 1</I>), the two-thirds threshold of the substantially all standard is met for coinsurance because 80 percent of all inpatient, out-of-network medical/surgical benefits are subject to coinsurance. Moreover, the 15 percent coinsurance is the predominant level because it is applicable to more than one-half of inpatient, out-of-network medical/surgical benefits subject to the coinsurance requirement. The plan may not impose any level of coinsurance with respect to inpatient, out-of-network mental health or substance use disorder benefits that is more restrictive than the 15 percent level of coinsurance.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Example 2</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> (<I>i</I>) For outpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits, a plan imposes five different copayment levels. Using a reasonable method, the plan projects payments for the upcoming year as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(<E T="01">B</E>)(<E T="03">1</E>)(<E T="03">i</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copayment amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Projected payments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$200x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$200x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$200x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$300x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100x</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000x.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percent of total plan costs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10%
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percent subject to copayments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25% (200x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25% (200x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">37.5% (300x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.5% (100x/800x)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The plan projects plan costs of $800x to be subject to copayments ($200x + $200x + $300x + $100x = $800x). Thus, 80 percent ($800x/$1,000x) of the benefits are projected to be subject to a copayment.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(B) (<I>Example 2</I>), the two-thirds threshold of the substantially all standard is met for copayments because 80 percent of all outpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits are subject to a copayment. Moreover, there is no single level that applies to more than one-half of medical/surgical benefits in the classification subject to a copayment (for the $10 copayment, 25%; for the $15 copayment, 25%; for the $20 copayment, 37.5%; and for the $50 copayment, 12.5%). The plan can combine any levels of copayment, including the highest levels, to determine the predominant level that can be applied to mental health or substance use disorder benefits. If the plan combines the highest levels of copayment, the combined projected payments for the two highest copayment levels, the $50 copayment and the $20 copayment, are not more than one-half of the outpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits subject to a copayment because they are exactly one-half ($300x + $100x = $400x; $400x/$800x = 50%). The combined projected payments for the three highest copayment levels—the $50 copayment, the $20 copayment, and the $15 copayment—are more than one-half of the outpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits subject to the copayments ($100x + $300x + $200x = $600x; $600x/$800x = 75%). Thus, the plan may not impose any copayment on outpatient, in-network mental health or substance use disorder benefits that is more restrictive than the least restrictive copayment in the combination, the $15 copayment.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Example 3</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan imposes a $250 deductible on all medical/surgical benefits for self-only coverage and a $500 deductible on all medical/surgical benefits for family coverage. The plan has no network of providers. For all medical/surgical benefits, the plan imposes a coinsurance requirement. The plan imposes no other financial requirements or treatment limitations.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(C) (<I>Example 3</I>), because the plan has no network of providers, all benefits are provided out-of-network. Because self-only and family coverage are subject to different deductibles, whether the deductible applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits is determined separately for self-only medical/surgical benefits and family medical/surgical benefits. Because the coinsurance is applied without regard to coverage units, the predominant coinsurance that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits is determined without regard to coverage units.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Example 4</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan applies the following financial requirements for prescription drug benefits. The requirements are applied without regard to whether a drug is generally prescribed with respect to medical/surgical benefits or with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits. Moreover, the process for certifying a particular drug as “generic”, “preferred brand name”, “non-preferred brand name”, or “specialty” complies with the rules of paragraph (c)(4) of this section (relating to requirements for nonquantitative treatment limitations).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(<E T="01">D</E>)(<E T="03">1</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier 3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tier 4
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tier description</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Generic drugs</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Preferred brand name drugs</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-preferred brand name drugs (which may have Tier 1 or Tier 2 alternatives)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Specialty drugs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Percent paid by plan</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90%</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">80%</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">60%</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50%.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(D) (<I>Example 4</I>), the financial requirements that apply to prescription drug benefits are applied without regard to whether a drug is generally prescribed with respect to medical/surgical benefits or with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits; the process for certifying drugs in different tiers complies with paragraph (c)(4) of this section; and the bases for establishing different levels or types of financial requirements are reasonable. The financial requirements applied to prescription drug benefits do not violate the parity requirements of this paragraph (c)(3).
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Example 5</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan has two tiers of network of providers: a preferred provider tier and a participating provider tier. Providers are placed in either the preferred tier or participating tier based on reasonable factors determined in accordance with the rules in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, such as accreditation, quality and performance measures (including customer feedback), and relative reimbursement rates. Furthermore, provider tier placement is determined without regard to whether a provider specializes in the treatment of mental health conditions or substance use disorders, or medical/surgical conditions. The plan divides the in-network classifications into two sub-classifications (in-network/preferred and in-network/participating). The plan does not impose any financial requirement or treatment limitation on mental health or substance use disorder benefits in either of these sub-classifications that is more restrictive than the predominant financial requirement or treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in each sub-classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(E) (<I>Example 5</I>), the division of in-network benefits into sub-classifications that reflect the preferred and participating provider tiers does not violate the parity requirements of this paragraph (c)(3).
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Example 6</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> With respect to outpatient, in-network benefits, a plan imposes a $25 copayment for office visits and a 20 percent coinsurance requirement for outpatient surgery. The plan divides the outpatient, in-network classification into two sub-classifications (in-network office visits and all other outpatient, in-network items and services).The plan or issuer does not impose any financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation on mental health or substance use disorder benefits in either of these sub-classifications that is more restrictive than the predominant financial requirement or quantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in each sub-classification.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(F) (<I>Example 6</I>), the division of outpatient, in-network benefits into sub-classifications for office visits and all other outpatient, in-network items and services does not violate the parity requirements of this paragraph (c)(3).
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Example 7</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as in paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section (<I>Example 6</I>), but for purposes of determining parity, the plan divides the outpatient, in-network classification into outpatient, in-network generalists and outpatient, in-network specialists.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(G) (<I>Example 7</I>), the division of outpatient, in-network benefits into any sub-classifications other than office visits and all other outpatient items and services violates the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(C) of this section.






</P>
<P>(v) <I>No separate cumulative financial requirements or cumulative quantitative treatment limitations.</I> (A) A group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan) may not apply any cumulative financial requirement or cumulative quantitative treatment limitation for mental health or substance use disorder benefits in a classification that accumulates separately from any established for medical/surgical benefits in the same classification.
</P>
<P>(B) The rules of this paragraph (c)(3)(v) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan imposes a combined annual $500 deductible on all medical/surgical, mental health, and substance use disorder benefits.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the combined annual deductible complies with the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3)(v).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A plan imposes an annual $250 deductible on all medical/surgical benefits and a separate annual $250 deductible on all mental health and substance use disorder benefits.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the separate annual deductible on mental health and substance use disorder benefits violates the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3)(v).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A plan imposes an annual $300 deductible on all medical/surgical benefits and a separate annual $100 deductible on all mental health or substance use disorder benefits.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the separate annual deductible on mental health and substance use disorder benefits violates the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3)(v).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A plan generally imposes a combined annual $500 deductible on all benefits (both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits) except prescription drugs. Certain benefits, such as preventive care, are provided without regard to the deductible. The imposition of other types of financial requirements or treatment limitations varies with each classification. Using reasonable methods, the plan projects its payments for medical/surgical benefits in each classification for the upcoming year as follows:
</PSPACE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Classification
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Benefits
<br/>subject to
<br/>deductible
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total benefits
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
<br/>subject to
<br/>deductible
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inpatient, in-network</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,800x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,000x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inpatient, out-of-network</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outpatient, in-network</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outpatient, out-of-network</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,880x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Emergency care</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500x</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV><PSPACE>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the two-thirds threshold of the substantially all standard is met with respect to each classification except emergency care because in each of those other classifications at least two-thirds of medical/surgical benefits are subject to the $500 deductible. Moreover, the $500 deductible is the predominant level in each of those other classifications because it is the only level. However, emergency care mental health and substance use disorder benefits cannot be subject to the $500 deductible because it does not apply to substantially all emergency care medical/surgical benefits.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Nonquantitative treatment limitations.</I> Consistent with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with a group health plan) may not impose any nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any classification that is more restrictive, as written or in operation, than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4), a nonquantitative treatment limitation is more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification if the plan or issuer fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(i) or (iii) of this section. In such a case, the plan (or health insurance coverage) will be considered to violate PHS Act section 2726 (a)(3)(A)(ii), and the nonquantitative treatment limitation may not be imposed by the plan (or health insurance coverage) with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the classification.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requirements related to design and application of a nonquantitative treatment limitation</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> A plan (or health insurance coverage) may not impose a nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any classification unless, under the terms of the plan (or health insurance coverage), as written and in operation, any processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the classification are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits in the classification.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Prohibition on discriminatory factors and evidentiary standards.</I> For purposes of determining comparability and stringency under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) of this section, a plan (or health insurance coverage) may not rely upon discriminatory factors or evidentiary standards to design a nonquantitative treatment limitation to be imposed on mental health or substance use disorder benefits. A factor or evidentiary standard is discriminatory if the information, evidence, sources, or standards on which the factor or evidentiary standard are based are biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Information, evidence, sources, or standards are considered to be biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits if, based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, the information, evidence, sources, or standards systematically disfavor access or are specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>), relevant facts and circumstances may include, but are not limited to, the reliability of the source of the information, evidence, sources, or standards, including any underlying data; the independence of the information, evidence, sources, and standards relied upon; the analyses and methodologies employed to select the information and the consistency of their application; and any known safeguards deployed to prevent reliance on skewed data or metrics. Information, evidence, sources, or standards are not considered biased or not objective for this purpose if the plan or issuer has taken the steps necessary to correct, cure, or supplement any information, evidence, sources, or standards that would have been biased or not objective in the absence of such steps.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B), historical plan data or other historical information from a time when the plan or coverage was not subject to PHS Act section 2726 or was not in compliance with PHS Act section 2726 are considered to be biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, if the historical plan data or other historical information systematically disfavor access or are specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, and the plan or issuer has not taken the steps necessary to correct, cure, or supplement the data or information.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B), generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards and carefully circumscribed measures reasonably and appropriately designed to detect or prevent and prove fraud and abuse that minimize the negative impact on access to appropriate mental health and substance use disorder benefits are not information, evidence, sources, or standards that are biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. However, plans and issuers must comply with the other requirements in this paragraph (c)(4), as applicable, with respect to such standards or measures that are used as the basis for a factor or evidentiary standard used to design or apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Illustrative, non-exhaustive list of nonquantitative treatment limitations.</I> Nonquantitative treatment limitations include—
</P>
<P>(A) Medical management standards (such as prior authorization) limiting or excluding benefits based on medical necessity or medical appropriateness, or based on whether the treatment is experimental or investigative;
</P>
<P>(B) Formulary design for prescription drugs;
</P>
<P>(C) For plans with multiple network tiers (such as preferred providers and participating providers), network tier design;
</P>
<P>(D) Standards related to network composition, including but not limited to, standards for provider and facility admission to participate in a network or for continued network participation, including methods for determining reimbursement rates, credentialing standards, and procedures for ensuring the network includes an adequate number of each category of provider and facility to provide services under the plan or coverage;
</P>
<P>(E) Plan or issuer methods for determining out-of-network rates, such as allowed amounts; usual, customary, and reasonable charges; or application of other external benchmarks for out-of-network rates;
</P>
<P>(F) Refusal to pay for higher-cost therapies until it can be shown that a lower-cost therapy is not effective (also known as fail-first policies or step therapy protocols);
</P>
<P>(G) Exclusions based on failure to complete a course of treatment; and
</P>
<P>(H) Restrictions based on geographic location, facility type, provider specialty, and other criteria that limit the scope or duration of benefits for services provided under the plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Required use of outcomes data</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> To ensure that a nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in a classification, in operation, is no more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation applied to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the classification, a plan or issuer must collect and evaluate relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits and carefully consider the impact as part of the plan's or issuer's evaluation. As part of its evaluation, the plan or issuer may not disregard relevant outcomes data that it knows or reasonably should know suggest that a nonquantitative treatment limitation is associated with material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, may specify in guidance the type, form, and manner of collection and evaluation for the data required under this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Relevant data generally.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A), relevant data could include, as appropriate, but are not limited to, the number and percentage of claims denials and any other data relevant to the nonquantitative treatment limitation required by State law or private accreditation standards.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Relevant data for nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition.</I> In addition to the relevant data set forth in paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, relevant data for nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition could include, as appropriate, but are not limited to, in-network and out-of-network utilization rates (including data related to provider claim submissions), network adequacy metrics (including time and distance data, and data on providers accepting new patients), and provider reimbursement rates (for comparable services and as benchmarked to a reference standard).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Unavailability of data.</I> (<I>i</I>) If a plan or issuer newly imposes a nonquantitative treatment limitation for which relevant data is initially temporarily unavailable and the plan or issuer therefore cannot comply with this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A), the plan or issuer must include in its comparative analysis, as required under § 146.137(c)(5)(i)(C), a detailed explanation of the lack of relevant data, the basis for the plan's or issuer's conclusion that there is a lack of relevant data, and when and how the data will become available and be collected and analyzed. Such a plan or issuer also must comply with this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) as soon as practicable once relevant data becomes available.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If a plan or issuer imposes a nonquantitative treatment limitation for which no data exist that can reasonably assess any relevant impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits, the plan or issuer must include in its comparative analysis, as required under § 146.137(c)(5)(i)(D), a reasoned justification as to the basis for the conclusion that there are no data that can reasonably assess the nonquantitative treatment limitation's impact, why the nature of the nonquantitative treatment limitation prevents the plan or issuer from reasonably measuring its impact, an explanation of what data was considered and rejected, and documentation of any additional safeguards or protocols used to ensure the nonquantitative treatment limitation complies with this section. If a plan or issuer becomes aware of data that can reasonably assess any relevant impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation, the plan or issuer must comply with this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Consistent with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>) and (<I>ii</I>) of this section shall only apply in very limited circumstances and, where applicable, shall be construed narrowly.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Material differences.</I> To the extent the relevant data evaluated under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits in a classification, such differences will be considered a strong indicator that the plan or issuer violates this paragraph (c)(4).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Where the relevant data suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits in a classification, the plan or issuer must take reasonable action, as necessary, to address the material differences to ensure compliance, in operation, with this paragraph (c)(4) and must document the actions that have been or are being taken by the plan or issuer to address material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits, as compared to medical/surgical benefits, as required by § 146.137(c)(5)(iv).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B), relevant data are considered to suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits if, based on all relevant facts and circumstances, and taking into account the considerations outlined in this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>), the difference in the data suggests that the nonquantitative treatment limitation is likely to have a negative impact on access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Relevant facts and circumstances, for purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>), may include, but are not limited to, the terms of the nonquantitative treatment limitation at issue, the quality or limitations of the data, causal explanations and analyses, evidence as to the recurring or non-recurring nature of the results, and the magnitude of any disparities.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits attributable to generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards or carefully circumscribed measures reasonably and appropriately designed to detect or prevent and prove fraud and abuse that minimize the negative impact on access to appropriate mental health and substance use disorder benefits, which are used as the basis for a factor or evidentiary standard used to design or apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation, are not considered to be material for purposes of this paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B). To the extent a plan or issuer attributes any differences in access to the application of such standards or measures, the plan or issuer must explain the bases for that conclusion in the documentation prepared under § 146.137(c)(5)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition.</I> For purposes of applying paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section with respect to nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition, a plan or issuer must collect and evaluate relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the aggregate impact of all such nonquantitative treatment limitations on access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits. Examples of possible actions that a plan or issuer could take to comply with the requirement under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section to take reasonable action, as necessary, to address any material differences in access with respect to nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition, to ensure compliance with this paragraph (c)(4), include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Strengthening efforts to recruit and encourage a broad range of available mental health and substance use disorder providers and facilities to join the plan's or issuer's network of providers, including taking actions to increase compensation or other inducements, streamline credentialing processes, or contact providers reimbursed for items and services provided on an out-of-network basis to offer participation in the network;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Expanding the availability of telehealth arrangements to mitigate any overall mental health and substance use disorder provider shortages in a geographic area;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Providing additional outreach and assistance to participants and beneficiaries enrolled in the plan or coverage to assist them in finding available in-network mental health and substance use disorder providers and facilities; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Ensuring that provider directories are accurate and reliable.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Prohibition on separate nonquantitative treatment limitations applicable only to mental health or substance use disorder benefits.</I> Consistent with paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered by an issuer in connection with such a plan) may not apply any nonquantitative treatment limitation that is applicable only with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and does not apply with respect to any medical/surgical benefits in the same benefit classification.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Effect of final determination of noncompliance under § 146.137.</I> (A) If a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) receives a final determination from the Secretary or applicable State authority that the plan or issuer is not in compliance with the requirements of PHS Act section 2726(a)(8) or § 146.137 with respect to a nonquantitative treatment limitation, the nonquantitative treatment limitation violates this paragraph (c)(4) and the Secretary or applicable State authority may direct the plan or issuer not to impose the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the relevant classification, unless and until the plan or issuer demonstrates to the Secretary or applicable State authority compliance with the requirements of this section or takes appropriate action to remedy the violation.
</P>
<P>(B) A determination by the Secretary of whether to require cessation of a nonquantitative treatment limitation under this paragraph (c)(4)(v) will be based on an evaluation of the relevant facts and circumstances involved in the specific final determination and the nature of the underlying nonquantitative treatment limitation and will take into account the interest of plan participants and beneficiaries and feedback from the plan or issuer.
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<P>(vi) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c)(4) are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the group health plan is subject to the requirements of this section and provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits.
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<P>(A) <I>Example 1 (not comparable and more stringent factors for reimbursement rate methodology, in operation)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan's reimbursement rate methodology for outpatient, in-network providers is based on a variety of factors. As written, for mental health, substance use disorder, and medical/surgical benefits, all reimbursement rates for physicians and non-physician practitioners for the same Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code are based on a combination of factors, such as the nature of the service, duration of the service, intensity and specialization of training, provider licensure and type, number of providers qualified to provide the service in a given geographic area, and market need (demand). In operation, the plan utilizes an additional strategy to further reduce reimbursement rates for mental health and substance use disorder non-physician providers from those paid to mental health and substance use disorder physicians by the same percentage for every CPT code, but does not apply the same reductions for non-physician medical/surgical providers.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(A) (<I>Example 1</I>), the plan violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(4). Because the plan reimburses non-physician providers of mental health and substance use disorder services by reducing their reimbursement rate from the rate for physician providers of mental health and substance use disorder services by the same percentage for every CPT code but does not apply the same reductions to non-physician providers of medical/surgical services from the rate for physician providers of medical/surgical services, in operation, the factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the outpatient, in-network classification are not comparable to, and are applied more stringently than, the factors used in designing and applying the limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits in the same classification. As a result, the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the outpatient, in-network classification is more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification.
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<P>(B) <I>Example 2 (strategy for exclusion for experimental or investigative treatment more stringently applied to ABA therapy in operation)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan, as written, generally excludes coverage for all treatments that are experimental or investigative for both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the outpatient, in-network classification. As a result, the plan generally excludes, as experimental, a treatment or procedure when no professionally recognized treatment guidelines include the treatment or procedure as a clinically appropriate standard of care for the condition or disorder and fewer than two randomized controlled trials are available to support the treatment's use with respect to the given condition or disorder. The plan provides benefits for the treatment of ASD, which is a mental health condition, but, in operation, the plan excludes coverage for ABA therapy to treat children with ASD, deeming it experimental. More than one professionally recognized treatment guideline defines clinically appropriate standards of care for ASD and more than two randomized controlled trials are available to support the use of ABA therapy as one intervention to treat certain children with ASD.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(B) (<I>Example 2</I>), the plan violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(4). As written, the plan excludes coverage of experimental treatment of medical conditions and surgical procedures, mental health conditions, and substance use disorders when no professionally recognized treatment guidelines define clinically appropriate standards of care for the condition or disorder as including the treatment or procedure at issue, and fewer than two randomized controlled trials are available to support the treatment's use with respect to the given condition or procedure. However, in operation, the plan deviates from this strategy with respect to ABA therapy because more than one professionally recognized treatment guideline defines clinically appropriate standards of care for ASD as including ABA therapy to treat certain children with ASD and more than two randomized controlled trials are available to support the use of ABA therapy to treat certain children with ASD. Therefore, in operation, the strategy used to design the nonquantitative treatment limitation for benefits for the treatment of ASD, which is a mental health condition, in the outpatient, in-network classification is not comparable to, and is applied more stringently than, the strategy used to design the nonquantitative treatment limitation for medical/surgical benefits in the same classification. As a result, the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the outpatient, in-network classification is more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification.
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<P>(C) <I>Example 3 (step therapy protocol with exception for severe or irreversible consequences, discriminatory factor)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan's written terms include a step therapy protocol that requires participants and beneficiaries who are prescribed certain drugs to try and fail a generic or preferred brand name drug before the plan will cover the drug originally prescribed by a participant's or beneficiary's attending provider. The plan provides an exception to this protocol that was developed solely based on a methodology developed by an external third-party organization. The third-party organization's methodology, which is not based on a generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standard, identifies instances in which a delay in treatment with a drug prescribed for a medical condition or surgical procedure could result in either severe or irreversible consequences. However, with respect to a drug prescribed for a mental health condition or a substance use disorder, the third-party organization's methodology only identifies instances in which a delay in treatment could result in both severe <I>and</I> irreversible consequences, and the plan does not take any steps to correct, cure, or supplement the methodology.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(C) (<I>Example 3</I>), the plan violates the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B) of this section. The source upon which the factor used to apply the step therapy protocol is based is biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits because it addresses instances in which a delay in treatment with a drug prescribed for a medical condition or surgical procedure could result in either severe or irreversible consequences, but only addresses instances in which a delay in treatment with a drug prescribed for a mental health condition or substance use disorder could result in both severe and irreversible consequences, and the plan fails to take the steps necessary to correct, cure, or supplement the methodology so that it is not biased and is objective. Based on the relevant facts and circumstances, this source systematically disfavors access or is specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. Therefore, the factor used to apply the step therapy protocol is discriminatory for purposes of determining comparability and stringency under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) of this section, and may not be relied upon by the plan.
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<P>(D) <I>Example 4 (use of historical plan data and plan steps to correct, cure, or supplement)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan's methodology for calculating provider reimbursement rates relies only on historical plan data on total plan spending for each specialty, divided between mental health and substance use disorder providers and medical/surgical providers, from a time when the plan was not subject to PHS Act section 2726. The plan has used these historical plan data for many years to establish base reimbursement rates in all provider specialties for which it provides medical/surgical, mental health, and substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification. In evaluating the use of these historical plan data in the design of the methodology for calculating provider reimbursement rates, the plan determined, based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, that the historical plan data systematically disfavor access or are specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. To ensure this information about historical reimbursement rates is not biased and is objective, the plan supplements its methodology to develop the base reimbursement rates for mental health and substance use disorder providers in accordance with additional information, evidence, sources, and standards that reflect the increased demand for mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification and to attract sufficient mental health and substance use disorder providers to the network, so that the relevant facts and circumstances indicate the supplemented information, evidence, sources, or standards do not systematically disfavor access and are not specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(D) (<I>Example 4</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B) of this section with respect to the plan's methodology for calculating provider reimbursement rates in the inpatient, in-network classification. The relevant facts and circumstances indicate that the plan's use of only historical plan data to design its methodology for calculating provider reimbursement rates in the inpatient, in-network classification would otherwise be considered to be biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, since the historical data systematically disfavor access or are specifically designed to disfavor access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. However, the plan took the steps necessary to supplement the information, evidence, sources, and standards to reasonably reflect the increased demand for mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification, and adjust the methodology to increase reimbursement rates for those benefits, thereby ensuring that the information, evidence, sources, and standards relied upon by the plan for this purpose are not biased and are objective. Therefore, the factors and evidentiary standards used to design the plan's methodology for calculating provider reimbursement rates in the inpatient, in-network classification are not discriminatory.
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<P>(E) <I>Example 5 (generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards and more stringent prior authorization requirement in operation)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> The provisions of a plan state that it relies on, and does not deviate from, generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards to inform the factor used to design prior authorization requirements for both medical/surgical and mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the prescription drug classification. The generally recognized independent professional medical standard for treatment of opioid use disorder that the plan utilizes—in this case, the American Society of Addiction Medicine national practice guidelines—does not support prior authorization every 30 days for buprenorphine/naloxone. However, in operation, the plan requires prior authorization for buprenorphine/naloxone combination for treatment of opioid use disorder, every 30 days, which is inconsistent with the generally recognized independent professional medical standard on which the factor used to design the limitation is based. The plan's factor used to design prior authorization requirements for medical/surgical benefits in the prescription drug classification relies on, and does not deviate from, generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(E) (<I>Example 5</I>), the plan violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(4). The American Society of Addiction Medicine national practice guidelines on which the factor used to design prior authorization requirements for substance use disorder benefits is based are generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards that are not considered to be biased or not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health and substance use disorder benefits under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(B)(<I>3</I>) of this section. However, the plan must comply with other requirements in this paragraph (c)(4), as applicable, with respect to such standards or measures that are used as the basis for a factor or evidentiary standard used to design or apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation. In operation, the plan's factor used to design and apply prior authorization requirements with respect to substance use disorder benefits is not comparable to, and is applied more stringently than, the same factor used to design and apply prior authorization requirements for medical/surgical benefits, because the factor relies on, and does not deviate from, generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards for medical/surgical benefits, but deviates from the relevant guidelines for substance use disorder benefits. As a result, the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to substance use disorder benefits in the prescription drug classification is more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification.
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<P>(F) <I>Example 6 (plan claims no data exist to reasonably assess impact of nonquantitative treatment limitation on access; medical necessity criteria)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan approves or denies claims for mental health and substance use disorder benefits and for medical/surgical benefits in the inpatient, in-network and outpatient, in-network classifications based on medical necessity criteria. The plan states in its comparative analysis that no data exist that can reasonably assess any relevant impact of the medical necessity criteria nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to the plan's medical necessity criteria nonquantitative treatment limitation's impact on relevant outcomes related to access to medical/surgical benefits in the relevant classifications, without further explanation.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(F) (<I>Example 6</I>), the plan violates this paragraph (c)(4). The plan does not comply with paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section because the plan did not include in its comparative analysis, as required under § 146.137(c)(5)(i)(D), a reasoned justification as to the basis for its conclusion that there are no data that can reasonably assess the nonquantitative treatment limitation's impact, an explanation of why the nature of the nonquantitative treatment limitation prevents the plan from reasonably measuring its impact, an explanation of what data was considered and rejected, and documentation of any additional safeguards or protocols used to ensure the nonquantitative treatment limitation complies with this paragraph (c)(4). Data that could reasonably assess the medical necessity criteria nonquantitative treatment limitation's impact might include, for example, the number and percentage of claims denials, or the number and percentage of claims that were approved for a lower level of care than the level requested on the initial claim. Therefore, because the plan has not collected and evaluated relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits in the relevant classifications, the plan violates the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section, and violates the requirements under § 146.137(c)(5)(i)(D) because it did not include sufficient information in its comparative analysis with respect to the lack of relevant data.
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<P>(G) <I>Example 7 (concurrent review data collection; no material difference in access)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan follows a written process to apply a concurrent review nonquantitative treatment limitation to all medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits within the inpatient, in-network classification. Under this process, a first-level review is conducted in every instance in which concurrent review applies and an authorization request is approved by the first-level reviewer only if the clinical information submitted by the facility meets the plan's criteria for a continued stay. If the first-level reviewer is unable to approve the authorization request because the clinical information submitted by the facility does not meet the plan's criteria for a continued stay, it is sent to a second-level reviewer who will either approve or deny the request. The plan collects relevant data, including the number of referrals to second-level review, and the number of denials of claims for medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits subject to concurrent review as compared to the total number of claims subject to concurrent review, in the inpatient, in-network classification. The plan also collects and evaluates the number of denied claims for medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits that are overturned on appeal in the inpatient, in-network classification. The plan evaluates the relevant data and determines that, based on the relevant facts and circumstances, the data do not suggest that the concurrent review nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits in the classification. Upon requesting the plan's comparative analysis for the concurrent review nonquantitative treatment limitation and reviewing the relevant data, the Secretary does not request additional data and agrees that the data do not suggest material differences in access.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(G) (<I>Example 7</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section. The plan collected and evaluated relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits and considered the impact as part of its evaluation. Because the relevant data evaluated do not suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification, under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B) of this section, there is no strong indicator that the plan violates this paragraph (c)(4).
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<P>(H) <I>Example 8 (material difference in access for prior authorization requirement with reasonable action)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan requires prior authorization that a treatment is medically necessary for all inpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits and for all inpatient, in-network mental health and substance use disorder benefits. The plan collects and evaluates relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the impact of the prior authorization requirement on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification. The plan's written process for prior authorization states that the plan approves inpatient, in-network benefits for medical conditions and surgical procedures and mental health and substance use disorder benefits for periods of 1, 3, and 7 days, after which a treatment plan must be submitted by the patient's attending provider and approved by the plan. Approvals for mental health and substance use disorder benefits are most commonly given only for 1 day, after which a treatment plan must be submitted by the patient's attending provider and approved by the plan. The relevant data show that approvals for 7 days are most common for medical conditions and surgical procedures under this plan. Based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, the difference in the relevant data suggests that the nonquantitative treatment limitation is likely to have a negative impact on access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. Therefore, the data suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access. To address these material differences in access, the plan consults more recent medical guidelines to update the factors that inform its medical necessity nonquantitative treatment limitations. Based on this review, the plan modifies the limitation so that inpatient, in-network prior authorization requests for mental health or substance use disorder benefits are approved for similar periods to what is approved for medical/surgical benefits. The plan includes documentation of this action as part of its comparative analysis.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(H) (<I>Example 8</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section. While relevant data for the plan's prior authorization requirements suggested that the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to inpatient, in-network medical/surgical benefits under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B) of this section, the plan has taken reasonable action, as necessary, to ensure compliance, in operation, with this paragraph (c)(4) by updating the factors that inform its prior authorization nonquantitative treatment limitation for inpatient, in-network mental health and substance use disorder benefits so that these benefits are approved for similar periods to what is approved for medical/surgical benefits. The plan also documents its action taken to address material differences in access to inpatient, in-network benefits as required by paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section.
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<P>(I) <I>Example 9 (differences attributable to generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan develops a medical management requirement for all inpatient, out-of-network benefits for both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits to ensure treatment is medically necessary. The factors and evidentiary standards used to design and apply the medical management requirement rely on independent professional medical or clinical standards that are generally recognized by health care providers and facilities in relevant clinical specialties. The processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the medical management requirement to mental health and substance use disorder benefits are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the requirement with respect to medical/surgical benefits. The plan collects and evaluates relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the impact of the medical management nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits, and considers the impact as part of the plan's evaluation, as required by paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section. Within the inpatient, out-of-network classification, the application of the medical management requirement results in a higher percentage of denials for mental health and substance use disorder claims than medical/surgical claims, because the benefits were found to be medically necessary for a lower percentage of mental health and substance use disorder claims. The plan correctly determines that these differences in access are attributable to the generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards used as the basis for the factors and evidentiary standards used to design or apply the limitation and adequately explains the bases for that conclusion as part of its comparative analysis.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(I) (<I>Example 9</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(4). Generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards of care are not considered to be information, evidence, sources, or standards that are biased and not objective in a manner that discriminates against mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, and the plan otherwise complies with the requirements in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. Additionally, the plan does not violate paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section because it has collected and evaluated relevant data, the differences in access are attributable to the generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards that are used as the basis for the factors and evidentiary standards used to design or apply the medical management nonquantitative treatment limitation, and the plan explains the bases for this conclusion in its comparative analysis. As a result, the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, out-of-network classification is no more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitation that applies to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classification.
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<P>(J) <I>Example 10 (material differences in access for standards for provider admission to a network with reasonable action)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan applies nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition in the inpatient, in-network and outpatient, in-network classifications. The plan's networks are constructed by separate service providers for medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits. The processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition for mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the outpatient, in-network and inpatient, in-network classifications are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitations with respect to medical/surgical benefits in the classifications, as required under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. In order to ensure, in operation, that the nonquantitative treatment limitations are no more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitations applied to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the classification, the plan collects and evaluates relevant data in a manner reasonably designed to assess the aggregate impact of all the nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared with access to medical/surgical benefits and considers the impact as part of the plan's evaluation. The plan considers relevant data that is known, or reasonably should be known, including metrics relating to the time and distance from plan participants and beneficiaries to network providers in rural and urban regions; the number of network providers accepting new patients; the proportions of mental health and substance use disorder and medical/surgical providers and facilities that provide services in rural and urban regions who are in the plan's network; provider reimbursement rates (for comparable services and benchmarked to a reference standard, as appropriate); and in-network and out-of-network utilization rates (including data related to the dollar value and number of provider claims submissions). The plan determines that the relevant data suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitations in the aggregate contribute to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits compared to medical/surgical benefits in the classifications because, based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, the differences in the data suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition are likely to have a negative impact on access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits. The plan takes reasonable actions, as necessary, to address the material differences in access, to ensure compliance, in operation, with this paragraph (c)(4), by strengthening its efforts to recruit and encourage a broad range of available providers and facilities to join the plan's network of providers, including by taking actions to increase compensation and other inducements, streamline credentialing processes, contact providers reimbursed for items and services provided on an out-of-network basis to offer participation in the network, and develop a process to monitor the effects of such efforts; expanding the availability of telehealth arrangements to mitigate overall provider shortages in certain geographic areas; providing additional outreach and assistance to participants and beneficiaries enrolled in the plan to assist them in finding available in-network providers and facilities; and ensuring that the plan's provider directories are accurate and reliable. The plan documents the efforts that it has taken to address the material differences in access that the data revealed, and the plan includes the documentation as part of its comparative analysis submission.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(J) (<I>Example 10</I>), the plan does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(4). The plan's nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition comply with the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. Additionally, the plan collects and evaluates relevant data, as required under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, in a manner reasonably designed to assess the aggregate impact of all such nonquantitative treatment limitations on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits, as required under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(C) of this section. While the data suggest that the nonquantitative treatment limitations contribute to material differences in access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, the plan has taken reasonable action, as necessary, to ensure compliance with this paragraph (c)(4). The plan also documents the actions that have been and are being taken by the plan to address material differences as required by § 146.137(c)(5)(iv). As a result, the network composition nonquantitative treatment limitations with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network and outpatient, in-network classifications are no more restrictive than the predominant nonquantitative treatment limitations that apply to substantially all medical/surgical benefits in the same classifications.
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<P>(K) <I>Example 11 (separate EAP exhaustion treatment limitation applicable only to mental health or substance use disorder benefits)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> An employer maintains both a major medical plan and an employee assistance program (EAP). The EAP provides, among other benefits, a limited number of mental health or substance use disorder counseling sessions, which, together with other benefits provided by the EAP, are not significant benefits in the nature of medical care. Participants are eligible for mental health or substance use disorder benefits under the major medical plan only after exhausting the counseling sessions provided by the EAP. No similar exhaustion requirement applies with respect to medical/surgical benefits provided under the major medical plan.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(K) (<I>Example 11</I>), the requirement that limits eligibility for mental health and substance use disorder benefits under the major medical plan until EAP benefits are exhausted is a nonquantitative treatment limitation subject to the parity requirements of this paragraph (c)(4). Because the limitation does not apply to medical/surgical benefits, it is a separate nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable only to mental health and substance use disorder benefits that violates paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section. Additionally, this EAP would not qualify as excepted benefits under § 146.145(b)(3)(vi)(B)(<I>1</I>) because participants in the major medical plan are required to use and exhaust benefits under the EAP (making the EAP a gatekeeper) before an individual is eligible for benefits under the plan.
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<P>(L) <I>Example 12 (separate exclusion for treatment in a residential facility applicable only to mental health and substance use disorder benefits)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A plan generally covers inpatient, in-network and inpatient, out-of-network treatment without any limitations on setting, including skilled nursing facilities and rehabilitation hospitals, provided other medical necessity standards are satisfied. The plan has an exclusion for treatment at residential facilities, which the plan defines as an inpatient benefit for mental health and substance use disorder benefits. This exclusion was not generated through any broader nonquantitative treatment limitation (such as medical necessity or other clinical guideline).
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(L) (<I>Example 12</I>), the plan violates the rules of paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section. The exclusion of treatment at residential facilities is a separate nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable only to mental health and substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network and inpatient, out-of-network classifications because the plan does not apply a comparable exclusion with respect to any medical/surgical benefits in the same benefit classification.
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<P>(M) <I>Example 13 (impermissible nonquantitative treatment limitation imposed following a final determination of noncompliance and direction by the Secretary)</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Following an initial request by the Secretary for a plan's comparative analysis of the plan's exclusion of mental health and substance use disorder benefits for failure to complete a course of treatment in the inpatient, in-network classification under § 146.137(d), the plan submits a comparative analysis for the nonquantitative treatment limitation. After review of the comparative analysis, as well as additional information submitted by the plan after the Secretary determines that the plan has not submitted sufficient information to be responsive to the request, the Secretary makes an initial determination that the comparative analysis fails to demonstrate that the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the inpatient, in-network classification are comparable to, and applied no more stringently than, those used in designing and applying the limitation to medical/surgical benefits in the classification. Under § 146.137(d)(3), the plan submits a corrective action plan and additional comparative analyses within 45 calendar days after the initial determination. However, the corrective action plan does not alter or eliminate the exclusion or alter the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the exclusion. Moreover, the additional comparative analysis still does not include sufficient information. The Secretary then determines that the additional comparative analyses do not demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (c)(4). Accordingly, the plan receives a final determination of noncompliance with PHS Act section 2726 (a)(8) and § 146.137 from the Secretary, which concludes that the plan did not demonstrate compliance through the comparative analysis process. After considering the relevant facts and circumstances, and considering the interests of plan participants and beneficiaries, as well as feedback from the plan, the Secretary directs the plan not to impose the nonquantitative treatment limitation by a certain date, unless and until the plan demonstrates compliance to the Secretary or takes appropriate action to remedy the violation. The plan makes no changes to its plan terms by that date and continues to impose the exclusion of benefits for failure to complete a course of treatment in the inpatient, in-network classification.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(M) (<I>Example 13</I>), by continuing to impose the exclusion of mental health and substance use disorder benefits for failure to complete a course of treatment in the inpatient, in-network classification after the Secretary directs the plan not to impose this nonquantitative treatment limitation, the plan violates the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(v) of this section.






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<P>(5) <I>Exemptions.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c) do not apply if a group health plan (or health insurance coverage) satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f) or (g) of this section (relating to exemptions for small employers and for increased cost).




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<P>(d) <I>Availability of plan information</I>—(1) <I>Criteria for medical necessity determinations.</I> The criteria for medical necessity determinations made under a group health plan with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with the plan with respect to such benefits) must be made available by the plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to any current or potential participant, beneficiary, or contracting provider upon request.
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<P>(2) <I>Reason for any denial.</I> The reason for any denial under a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such plan) of reimbursement or payment for services with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in the case of any participant or beneficiary must be made available by the plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to the participant or beneficiary. For this purpose, a non-Federal governmental plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such plan) that provides the reason for the claim denial in a form and manner consistent with the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1 for group health plans complies with the requirements of this paragraph (d)(2).


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Provisions of other law.</I> Compliance with the disclosure requirements in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section is not determinative of compliance with any other provision of applicable Federal or State law. In particular, in addition to those disclosure requirements, provisions of other applicable law require disclosure of information relevant to medical/surgical, mental health, and substance use disorder benefits. For example, § 147.136 of this subchapter sets forth rules regarding claims and appeals, including the right of claimants (or their authorized representative) who have received an adverse benefit determination (or a final internal adverse benefit determination) to be provided, upon request and free of charge, reasonable access to and copies of all documents, records, and other information relevant to the claimant's claim for benefits. This includes documents with information on medical necessity criteria for both medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits, as well as the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used to apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits under the plan and the comparative analyses and other applicable information required by § 146.137.






</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability</I>—(1) <I>Group health plans.</I> The requirements of this section apply to a group health plan offering medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits. If, under an arrangement or arrangements to provide medical care benefits by an employer or employee organization (including for this purpose a joint board of trustees of a multiemployer trust affiliated with one or more multiemployer plans), any participant (or beneficiary) can simultaneously receive coverage for medical/surgical benefits and coverage for mental health or substance use disorder benefits, then the requirements of this section (including the exemption provisions in paragraph (g) of this section) apply separately with respect to each combination of medical/surgical benefits and of mental health or substance use disorder benefits that any participant (or beneficiary) can simultaneously receive from that employer's or employee organization's arrangement or arrangements to provide medical care benefits, and all such combinations are considered for purposes of this section to be a single group health plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Health insurance issuers.</I> The requirements of this section apply to a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage for mental health or substance use disorder benefits in connection with a group health plan subject to paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Scope.</I> This section does not—
</P>
<P>(i) Require a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) to provide any mental health benefits or substance use disorder benefits, and the provision of benefits by a plan (or health insurance coverage) for one or more mental health conditions or substance use disorders does not require the plan or health insurance coverage under this section to provide benefits for any other mental health condition or substance use disorder;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) that provides coverage for mental health or substance use disorder benefits only to the extent required under PHS Act section 2713 to provide additional mental health or substance use disorder benefits in any classification in accordance with this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Affect the terms and conditions relating to the amount, duration, or scope of mental health or substance use disorder benefits under the plan (or health insurance coverage) except as specifically provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Coordination with EHB requirements.</I> Nothing in paragraph (f) or (g) of this section or § 146.137(g) changes the requirements of §§ 147.150 and 156.115 of this subchapter, providing that a health insurance issuer offering non-grandfathered health insurance coverage in the individual or small group market that is required to provide mental health and substance use disorder services, including behavioral health treatment services, as part of essential health benefits required under §§ 156.110(a)(5) and 156.115(a) of this subchapter, must comply with the requirements under section 2726 of the PHS Act and its implementing regulations in this section and § 146.137 to satisfy the requirement to provide coverage for mental health and substance use disorder services, including behavioral health treatment, as part of essential health benefits.




</P>
<P>(f) <I>Small employer exemption</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) for a plan year of a small employer (as defined in section 2791 of the PHS Act).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules in determining employer size.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f)(1) of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) All persons treated as a single employer under subsections (b), (c), (m), and (o) of section 414 of the Internal Revenue Code are treated as one employer;
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employer was not in existence throughout the preceding calendar year, whether it is a small employer is determined based on the average number of employees the employer reasonably expects to employ on business days during the current calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any reference to an employer for purposes of the small employer exemption includes a reference to a predecessor of the employer.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Increased cost exemption</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the application of this section to a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such plans) results in an increase for the plan year involved of the actual total cost of coverage with respect to medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits as determined and certified under paragraph (g)(3) of this section by an amount that exceeds the applicable percentage described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section of the actual total plan costs, the provisions of this section shall not apply to such plan (or coverage) during the following plan year, and such exemption shall apply to the plan (or coverage) for one plan year. An employer or issuer may elect to continue to provide mental health and substance use disorder benefits in compliance with this section with respect to the plan or coverage involved regardless of any increase in total costs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicable percentage.</I> With respect to a plan or coverage, the applicable percentage described in this paragraph (g) is—
</P>
<P>(i) 2 percent in the case of the first plan year in which this section is applied to the plan or coverage; and
</P>
<P>(ii) 1 percent in the case of each subsequent plan year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determinations by actuaries</I>—(i) Determinations as to increases in actual costs under a plan or coverage that are attributable to implementation of the requirements of this section shall be made and certified by a qualified and licensed actuary who is a member in good standing of the American Academy of Actuaries. All such determinations must be based on the formula specified in paragraph (g)(4) of this section and shall be in a written report prepared by the actuary.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written report described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section shall be maintained by the group health plan or health insurance issuer, along with all supporting documentation relied upon by the actuary, for a period of six years following the notification made under paragraph (g)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Formula.</I> The formula to be used to make the determination under paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section is expressed mathematically as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>[(E<E T="52">1</E> − E<E T="52">0</E>) / T<E T="52">0</E>] <I>−D &gt; k</I>
</FP-2>
<P>(i) E<E T="52">1</E> is the actual total cost of coverage with respect to mental health and substance use disorder benefits for the base period, including claims paid by the plan or issuer with respect to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and administrative costs (amortized over time) attributable to providing these benefits consistent with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) E<E T="52">0</E> is the actual total cost of coverage with respect to mental health and substance use disorder benefits for the length of time immediately before the base period (and that is equal in length to the base period), including claims paid by the plan or issuer with respect to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and administrative costs (amortized over time) attributable to providing these benefits.
</P>
<P>(iii) T<E T="52">0</E> is the actual total cost of coverage with respect to all benefits during the base period.
</P>
<P>(iv) k is the applicable percentage of increased cost specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section that will be expressed as a fraction for purposes of this formula.
</P>
<P>(v) D is the average change in spending that is calculated by applying the formula <I>(E</I><E T="54">1</E>−<I>E</I><E T="54">0</E><I>)</I>/<I>T</I><E T="54">0</E> to mental health and substance use disorder spending in each of the five prior years and then calculating the average change in spending.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Six month determination.</I> If a group health plan or health insurance issuer seeks an exemption under this paragraph (g), determinations under paragraph (g)(3) of this section shall be made after such plan or coverage has complied with this section for at least the first 6 months of the plan year involved.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Notification.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer that, based on the certification described under paragraph (g)(3) of this section, qualifies for an exemption under this paragraph (g), and elects to implement the exemption, must notify participants and beneficiaries covered under the plan, the Secretary, and the appropriate State agencies of such election.


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Participants and beneficiaries</I>—(A) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice to participants and beneficiaries must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A statement that the plan or issuer is exempt from the requirements of this section and a description of the basis for the exemption.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The name and telephone number of the individual to contact for further information.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The plan or issuer name and plan number (PN).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The plan administrator's name, address, and telephone number.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) For single-employer plans, the plan sponsor's name, address, and telephone number (if different from paragraph (g)(6)(i)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section) and the plan sponsor's employer identification number (EIN).
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The effective date of such exemption.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) A statement regarding the ability of participants and beneficiaries to contact the plan administrator or health insurance issuer to see how benefits may be affected as a result of the plan's or issuer's election of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) A statement regarding the availability, upon request and free of charge, of a summary of the information on which the exemption is based (as required under paragraph (g)(6)(i)(D) of this section).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Use of summary of material reductions in covered services or benefits.</I> A plan or issuer may satisfy the requirements of paragraph (g)(6)(i)(A) of this section by providing participants and beneficiaries (in accordance with paragraph (g)(6)(i)(C) of this section) with a summary of material reductions in covered services or benefits consistent with 29 CFR 2520.104b-3(d) that also includes the information specified in paragraph (g)(6)(i)(A) of this section. However, in all cases, the exemption is not effective until 30 days after notice has been sent.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Delivery.</I> The notice described in this paragraph (g)(6)(i) is required to be provided to all participants and beneficiaries. The notice may be furnished by any method of delivery that satisfies the requirements of section 104(b)(1) of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1024(b)(1)) and its implementing regulations (for example, first-class mail). If the notice is provided to the participant and any beneficiaries at the participant's last known address, then the requirements of this paragraph (g)(6)(i) are satisfied with respect to the participant and all beneficiaries residing at that address. If a beneficiary's last known address is different from the participant's last known address, a separate notice is required to be provided to the beneficiary at the beneficiary's last known address.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Availability of documentation.</I> The plan or issuer must make available to participants and beneficiaries (or their representatives), on request and at no charge, a summary of the information on which the exemption was based. (For purposes of this paragraph (g), an individual who is not a participant or beneficiary and who presents a notice described in paragraph (g)(6)(i) of this section is considered to be a representative. A representative may request the summary of information by providing the plan a copy of the notice provided to the participant under paragraph (g)(6)(i) of this section with any personally identifiable information redacted.) The summary of information must include the incurred expenditures, the base period, the dollar amount of claims incurred during the base period that would have been denied under the terms of the plan or coverage absent amendments required to comply with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the administrative costs related to those claims, and other administrative costs attributable to complying with the requirements of this section. In no event should the summary of information include any personally identifiable information.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Federal agencies</I>—(A) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice to the Secretary must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A description of the number of covered lives under the plan (or coverage) involved at the time of the notification, and as applicable, at the time of any prior election of the cost exemption under this paragraph (g) by such plan (or coverage);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For both the plan year upon which a cost exemption is sought and the year prior, a description of the actual total costs of coverage with respect to medical/surgical benefits and mental health and substance use disorder benefits; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For both the plan year upon which a cost exemption is sought and the year prior, the actual total costs of coverage with respect to mental health and substance use disorder benefits under the plan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Reporting by health insurance coverage offered in connection with a church plan.</I> See 26 CFR 54.9812(g)(6)(ii)(B) for delivery with respect to church plans.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Reporting by health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plans subject to Part 7 of Subtitle B of Title I of ERISA.</I> See 29 CFR 2590.712(g)(6)(ii) for delivery with respect to group health plans subject to ERISA.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Reporting with respect to non-Federal governmental plans and health insurance issuers in the individual market.</I> A group health plan that is a non-Federal governmental plan, or a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market, claiming the exemption of this paragraph (g) for any benefit package must provide notice to the Department of Health and Human Services. This requirement is satisfied if the plan or issuer sends a copy, to the address designated by the Secretary in generally applicable guidance, of the notice described in paragraph (g)(6)(ii)(A) of this section identifying the benefit package to which the exemption applies.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Confidentiality.</I> A notification to the Secretary under this paragraph (g)(6) shall be confidential. The Secretary shall make available, upon request and not more than on an annual basis, an anonymous itemization of each notification that includes—
</P>
<P>(A) A breakdown of States by the size and type of employers submitting such notification; and
</P>
<P>(B) A summary of the data received under paragraph (g)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Audits.</I> The Secretary may audit the books and records of a group health plan or a health insurance issuer relating to an exemption, including any actuarial reports, during the 6 year period following notification of such exemption under paragraph (g)(6) of this section. A State agency receiving a notification under paragraph (g)(6) of this section may also conduct such an audit with respect to an exemption covered by such notification.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Sale of nonparity health insurance coverage.</I> A health insurance issuer may not sell a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance that fails to comply with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, except to a plan for a year for which the plan is exempt from the requirements of this section because the plan meets the requirements of paragraph (f) or (g) of this section.


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) This section applies to group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage on the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2025, except that the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(ii)(A), (c)(4)(i)(B), and (c)(4)(iii) of this section apply on the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2026.
</P>
<P>(ii) Until the applicability date in paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section, plans and issuers are required to continue to comply with 45 CFR 146.136, revised as of October 1, 2023.






</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special effective date for certain collectively-bargained plans.</I> For a group health plan maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements ratified before October 3, 2008, the requirements of this section do not apply to the plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with the plan) for plan years beginning before the date on which the last of the collective bargaining agreements terminates (determined without regard to any extension agreed to after October 3, 2008).


</P>
<P>(j) <I>Severability.</I> If any provision of this section is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 68286, Nov. 13, 2013, as amended at 89 FR 77735, Sept. 23, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.137" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.137   Nonquantitative treatment limitation comparative analysis requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Meaning of terms.</I> Unless otherwise stated in this section, the terms of this section have the meanings indicated in § 146.136(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> In the case of a group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) that provides both medical/surgical benefits and mental health or substance use disorder benefits and that imposes any nonquantitative treatment limitation on mental health or substance use disorder benefits, the plan or issuer must perform and document a comparative analysis of the design and application of each nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable to mental health or substance use disorder benefits. Each comparative analysis must comply with the content requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and be made available to the Secretary, upon request, in the manner required by paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comparative analysis content requirements.</I> With respect to each nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable to mental health or substance use disorder benefits under a group health plan (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan), the comparative analysis performed by the plan or issuer must include, at minimum, the elements specified in this paragraph (c). In addition to the comparative analysis for each nonquantitative treatment limitation, each plan or issuer must prepare and make available to the Secretary, upon request, a written list of all nonquantitative treatment limitations imposed under the plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Description of the nonquantitative treatment limitation.</I> The comparative analysis must include, with respect to the nonquantitative treatment limitation that is the subject of the comparative analysis:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the nonquantitative treatment limitation, including the specific terms of the plan or coverage or other relevant terms regarding the nonquantitative treatment limitation, the policies or guidelines (internal or external) in which the nonquantitative treatment limitation appears or is described, and the applicable sections of any other relevant documents, such as provider contracts, that describe the nonquantitative treatment limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of all mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits to which the nonquantitative treatment limitation applies, including a list of which benefits are considered mental health or substance use disorder benefits and which benefits are considered medical/surgical benefits; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of which benefits are included in each classification set forth in § 146.136(c)(2)(ii)(A).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification and definition of the factors and evidentiary standards used to design or apply the nonquantitative treatment limitation.</I> The comparative analysis must include, with respect to every factor considered or relied upon to design the nonquantitative treatment limitation or apply the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits:
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of every factor considered or relied upon, as well as the evidentiary standards considered or relied upon to design or apply each factor and the sources from which each evidentiary standard was derived, in determining which mental health or substance use disorder benefits and which medical/surgical benefits are subject to the nonquantitative treatment limitation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A definition of each factor, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of the factor;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of each evidentiary standard used to design or apply each factor (and the source of each evidentiary standard) identified under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of any steps the plan or issuer has taken to correct, cure, or supplement any information, evidence, sources, or standards that would otherwise have been considered biased or not objective under § 146.136(c)(4)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) in the absence of such steps.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Description of how factors are used in the design and application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation.</I> The comparative analysis must include a description of how each factor identified and defined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section is used in the design or application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits in a classification, including:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed explanation of how each factor identified and defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is used to determine which mental health or substance use disorder benefits and which medical/surgical benefits are subject to the nonquantitative treatment limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation of the evidentiary standards or other information or sources (if any) considered or relied upon in designing or applying the factors or relied upon in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation, including in the determination of whether and how mental health or substance use disorder benefits or medical/surgical benefits are subject to the nonquantitative treatment limitation;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the application of the factor depends on specific decisions made in the administration of benefits, the nature of the decisions, the timing of the decisions, and the professional designations and qualifications of each decision maker;
</P>
<P>(iv) If more than one factor is identified and defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, an explanation of:
</P>
<P>(A) How all of the factors relate to each other;
</P>
<P>(B) The order in which all the factors are applied, including when they are applied;
</P>
<P>(C) Whether and how any factors are given more weight than others; and
</P>
<P>(D) The reasons for the ordering or weighting of the factors; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any deviations or variations from a factor, its applicability, or its definition (including the evidentiary standards used to define the factor and the information or sources from which each evidentiary standard was derived), such as how the factor is used differently to apply the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, and a description of how the plan or issuer establishes such deviations or variations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Demonstration of comparability and stringency as written.</I> The comparative analysis must evaluate whether, in any classification, under the terms of the plan (or health insurance coverage) as written, any processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits. The comparative analysis must include, with respect to the nonquantitative treatment limitation and the factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation:
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation of each factor identified and defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section that was applied to determine whether the nonquantitative treatment limitation applies to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits in a classification, including, as relevant:
</P>
<P>(A) Quantitative data, calculations, or other analyses showing whether, in each classification in which the nonquantitative treatment limitation applies, mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits met or did not meet any applicable threshold identified in the relevant evidentiary standard to determine that the nonquantitative treatment limitation would or would not apply; and
</P>
<P>(B) Records maintained by the plan or issuer documenting the consideration and application of all factors and evidentiary standards, as well as the results of their application;
</P>
<P>(ii) In each classification in which the nonquantitative treatment limitation applies to mental health or substance use disorder benefits, a comparison of how the nonquantitative treatment limitation, as written, is designed and applied to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and to medical/surgical benefits, including the specific provisions of any forms, checklists, procedure manuals, or other documentation used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation or that address the application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation demonstrating how the factors are comparably applied, as written, to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits in each classification, to determine which benefits are subject to the nonquantitative treatment limitation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of the reasons for any deviations or variations in the application of a factor used to apply the nonquantitative treatment limitation, or the application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation, to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, and how the plan or issuer establishes such deviations or variations, including:
</P>
<P>(A) In the definition of the factors, the evidentiary standards used to define the factors, and the sources from which the evidentiary standards were derived;
</P>
<P>(B) In the design of the factors or evidentiary standards; or
</P>
<P>(C) In the application or design of the nonquantitative treatment limitation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Demonstration of comparability and stringency in operation.</I> The comparative analysis must evaluate whether, in any classification, in operation, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits. The comparative analysis must include, with respect to the nonquantitative treatment limitation and the factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation:
</P>
<P>(i) A comprehensive explanation of how the plan or issuer evaluates whether, in operation, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits in a classification are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation with respect to medical/surgical benefits, including:
</P>
<P>(A) An explanation of any methodology and underlying data used to demonstrate the application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation, in operation;
</P>
<P>(B) The sample period, inputs used in any calculations, definitions of terms used, and any criteria used to select the mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits to which the nonquantitative treatment limitation is applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to a nonquantitative treatment limitation for which relevant data is temporarily unavailable as described in § 146.136(c)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>), a detailed explanation of the lack of relevant data, the basis for the plan's or issuer's conclusion that there is a lack of relevant data, and when and how the data will become available and be collected and analyzed; and
</P>
<P>(D) With respect to a nonquantitative treatment limitation for which no data exist that can reasonably assess any relevant impact of the nonquantitative treatment limitation on relevant outcomes related to access to mental health and substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits as described in § 146.136(c)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>ii</I>), a reasoned justification as to the basis for the conclusion that there are no data that can reasonably assess the nonquantitative treatment limitation's impact, an explanation of why the nature of the nonquantitative treatment limitation prevents the plan or issuer from reasonably measuring its impact, an explanation of what data was considered and rejected, and documentation of any additional safeguards or protocols used to ensure that the nonquantitative treatment limitation complies with § 146.136(c)(4);
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the relevant data collected and evaluated, as required under § 146.136(c)(4)(iii)(A);
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation of the outcomes that resulted from the application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The evaluation of relevant data as required under § 146.136(c)(4)(iii)(A); and
</P>
<P>(B) A reasoned justification and analysis that explains why the plan or issuer concluded that any differences in the relevant data do or do not suggest the nonquantitative treatment limitation contributes to material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, in accordance with § 146.136(c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>);
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed explanation of any material differences in access demonstrated by the outcomes evaluated under paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A reasoned explanation of any material differences in access that are not attributable to differences in the comparability or relative stringency of the nonquantitative treatment limitation as applied to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits (including any considerations beyond a plan's or issuer's control that contribute to the existence of material differences) and a detailed explanation of the bases for concluding that material differences are not attributable to differences in the comparability or relative stringency of the nonquantitative treatment limitation; and
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits are attributable to generally recognized independent professional medical or clinical standards or carefully circumscribed measures reasonably and appropriately designed to detect or prevent and prove fraud and abuse that minimize the negative impact on access to appropriate mental health and substance use disorder benefits, and such standards or measures are used as the basis for a factor or evidentiary standard used to design or apply a nonquantitative treatment limitation, documentation explaining how any such differences are attributable to those standards or measures, as required in § 146.136(c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>); and
</P>
<P>(v) A discussion of the actions that have been or are being taken by the plan or issuer to address any material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits, including the actions the plan or issuer has taken or is taking under § 146.136(c)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) to address material differences to comply, in operation, with § 146.136(c)(4), including, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) A reasoned explanation of any material differences in access to mental health or substance use disorder benefits as compared to medical/surgical benefits that persist despite reasonable actions that have been or are being taken; and
</P>
<P>(B) For a plan or issuer designing and applying one or more nonquantitative treatment limitations related to network composition, a discussion of the actions that have been or are being taken to address material differences in access to in-network mental health and substance use disorder benefits as compared to in-network medical/surgical benefits, including those listed in § 146.136(c)(4)(iii)(C).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Findings and conclusions.</I> The comparative analysis must address the findings and conclusions as to the comparability of the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, and other factors used in designing and applying the nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits within each classification, and the relative stringency of their application, both as written and in operation, and include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any findings or conclusions indicating that the plan or coverage is or is not (or might or might not be) in compliance with the requirements of § 146.136(c)(4), including any additional actions the plan or issuer has taken or intends to take to address any potential areas of concern or noncompliance;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasoned and detailed discussion of the findings and conclusions described in paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Citations to any additional specific information not otherwise included in the comparative analysis that supports the findings and conclusions described in paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section not otherwise discussed in the comparative analysis;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date the analysis is completed and the title and credentials of all relevant persons who participated in the performance and documentation of the comparative analysis; and
</P>
<P>(v) If the comparative analysis relies upon an evaluation by a reviewer or consultant considered by the plan or issuer to be an expert, an assessment of each expert's qualifications and the extent to which the plan or issuer ultimately relied upon each expert's evaluation in performing and documenting the comparative analysis of the design and application of the nonquantitative treatment limitation applicable to both mental health or substance use disorder benefits and medical/surgical benefits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements related to submission of comparative analyses to the Secretary upon request</I>—(1) <I>Initial request by the Secretary for comparative analysis.</I> A group health plan (or health insurance issuer offering coverage in connection with a group health plan) must make the comparative analysis required by paragraph (b) of this section available and submit it to the Secretary within 10 business days of receipt of a request from the Secretary (or an additional period of time specified by the Secretary).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional information required after a comparative analysis is deemed to be insufficient.</I> In instances in which the Secretary determines that the plan or issuer has not submitted sufficient information under paragraph (d)(1) of this section for the Secretary to determine whether the comparative analysis required in paragraph (b) of this section complies with paragraph (c) of this section or whether the plan or issuer complies with § 146.136(c)(4), the Secretary will specify to the plan or issuer the additional information the plan or issuer must submit to the Secretary to be responsive to the request under paragraph (d)(1). Any such information must be provided to the Secretary by the plan or issuer within 10 business days after the Secretary specifies the additional information to be submitted (or an additional period of time specified by the Secretary).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial determination of noncompliance, required action, and corrective action plan.</I> In instances in which the Secretary reviewed the comparative analysis submitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section and any additional information submitted under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, and made an initial determination that the plan or issuer is not in compliance with the requirements of § 146.136(c)(4) or this section, the plan or issuer must respond to the initial determination by the Secretary and specify the actions the plan or issuer will take to bring the plan or coverage into compliance, and provide to the Secretary additional comparative analyses meeting the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section that demonstrate compliance with § 146.136(c)(4), not later than 45 calendar days after the Secretary's initial determination that the plan or issuer is not in compliance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requirement to notify participants and beneficiaries of final determination of noncompliance</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If the Secretary makes a final determination of noncompliance, the plan or issuer must notify all participants and beneficiaries enrolled in the plan or coverage that the plan or issuer has been determined to not be in compliance with the requirements of § 146.136(c)(4) or this section with respect to such plan or coverage. Such notice must be provided within 7 business days of receipt of the final determination of noncompliance, and the plan or issuer must provide a copy of the notice to the Secretary, any service provider involved in the claims process, and any fiduciary responsible for deciding benefit claims within the same timeframe.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice to participants and beneficiaries required in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section shall be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant and must include, in plain language, the following information in a standalone notice:
</P>
<P>(A) The following statement prominently displayed on the first page, in no less than 14-point font: “Attention! The Department of Health and Human Services has determined that [insert the name of group health plan or health insurance issuer] is not in compliance with the Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act.”;
</P>
<P>(B) A summary of changes the plan or issuer has made as part of its corrective action plan specified to the Secretary following the initial determination of noncompliance, including an explanation of any opportunity for a participant or beneficiary to have a claim for benefits submitted or reprocessed;
</P>
<P>(C) A summary of the Secretary's final determination that the plan or issuer is not in compliance with § 146.136(c)(4) or this section, including any provisions or practices identified as being in violation of § 146.136(c)(4) or this section, additional corrective actions identified by the Secretary in the final determination notice, and information on how participants and beneficiaries can obtain from the plan or issuer a copy of the final determination of noncompliance;
</P>
<P>(D) Any additional actions the plan or issuer is taking to come into compliance with § 146.136(c)(4) or this section, when the plan or issuer will take such actions, and a clear and accurate statement explaining whether the Secretary has concurred with those actions; and
</P>
<P>(E) Contact information for questions and complaints, and a statement explaining how participants and beneficiaries can obtain more information about the notice, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan's or issuer's phone number and an email or web portal address; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services' phone number and email or web portal address.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Manner of notice.</I> The plan or issuer must make the notice required under paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section available in paper form, or electronically (such as by email or an internet posting) if:
</P>
<P>(A) The format is readily accessible;
</P>
<P>(B) The notice is provided in paper form free of charge upon request; and
</P>
<P>(C) In a case in which the electronic form is an internet posting, the plan or issuer timely notifies the participant or beneficiary in paper form (such as a postcard) or email, that the documents are available on the internet, provides the internet address, includes the statement required in paragraph (d)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, and notifies the participant or beneficiary that the documents are available in paper form upon request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests for a copy of a comparative analysis.</I> In addition to making a comparative analysis available upon request to the Secretary, a plan or issuer must make available a copy of the comparative analysis required by paragraph (b) of this section when requested by:
</P>
<P>(1) Any applicable State authority; and
</P>
<P>(2) A participant or beneficiary (including a provider or other person acting as a participant's or beneficiary's authorized representative) who has received an adverse benefit determination related to mental health or substance use disorder benefits.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in this section or § 146.136 shall be construed to prevent the Secretary from acting within the scope of existing authorities to address violations of § 146.136 or this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this section apply to group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage described in § 146.136(e), to the extent the plan or issuer is not exempt under § 146.136(f) or (g), on the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2025, except the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(ii)(C), (c)(5)(i)(C) and (D), and (c)(5)(ii) through (v) of this section apply on the first day of the first plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2026.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Severability.</I> If any provision of this section is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 77747, Sept. 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Preemption and Special Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.143" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.143   Preemption; State flexibility; construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Continued applicability of State law with respect to health insurance issuers.</I> Subject to paragraph (b) of this section and except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, part A of title XXVII of the PHS Act is not to be construed to supersede any provision of State law which establishes, implements, or continues in effect any standard or requirement solely relating to health insurance issuers in connection with group health insurance coverage except to the extent that such standard or requirement prevents the application of a requirement of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continued preemption with respect to group health plans.</I> Nothing in part A of title XXVII of the PHS Act affects or modifies the provisions of section 514 of ERISA with respect to group health plans.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rules</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the provisions of part A of title XXVII of the PHS Act relating to health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer supersede any provision of State law which establishes, implements, or continues in effect a standard or requirement applicable to imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion specifically governed by section 2701 of the PHS Act which differs from the standards or requirements specified in section 2701 of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Only in relation to health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, the provisions of this part do not supersede any provision of State law to the extent that such provision requires special enrollment periods in addition to those required under section 2702 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>State law.</I> For purposes of this section the term <I>State law</I> includes all laws, decisions, rules, regulations, or other State action having the effect of law, of any State. A law of the United States applicable only to the District of Columbia is treated as a State law rather than a law of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State.</I> For purposes of this section the term <I>State</I> includes a State (as defined in § 144.103), any political subdivisions of a State, or any agency or instrumentality of either.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78797, Dec. 30, 2004; 70 FR 21147, Apr. 25, 2005; 79 FR 10315, Feb. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.145" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.145   Special rules relating to group health plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Group health plan</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> A group health plan means an employee welfare benefit plan to the extent that the plan provides medical care (including items and services paid for as medical care) to employees (including both current and former employees) or their dependents (as defined under the terms of the plan) directly or through insurance, reimbursement, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of number of plans.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Excepted benefits</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The requirements of subparts B and C of this part do not apply to any group health plan (or any group health insurance coverage) in relation to its provision of the benefits described in paragraph (b) (2), (3), (4), or (5) of this section (or any combination of these benefits).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefits excepted in all circumstances.</I> The following benefits are excepted in all circumstances—
</P>
<P>(i) Coverage only for accident (including accidental death and dismemberment);
</P>
<P>(ii) Disability income coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) Liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance;
</P>
<P>(v) Workers' compensation or similar coverage;
</P>
<P>(vi) Automobile medical payment insurance;
</P>
<P>(vii) Credit-only insurance (for example, mortgage insurance); and
</P>
<P>(viii) Coverage for on-site medical clinics.
</P>
<P>(ix) Travel insurance, within the meaning of § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited excepted benefits</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Limited-scope dental benefits, limited-scope vision benefits, or long-term care benefits are excepted if they are provided under a separate policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, or are otherwise not an integral part of a group health plan as described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section. In addition, benefits provided under a health flexible spending arrangement (health FSA) are excepted benefits if they satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section; benefits provided under an employee assistance program are excepted benefits if they satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section; benefits provided under limited wraparound coverage are excepted benefits if they satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(vii) of this section; and benefits provided under a health reimbursement arrangement or other account-based group health plan, other than a health FSA, are excepted benefits if they satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Not an integral part of a group health plan.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3), benefits are not an integral part of a group health plan (whether the benefits are provided through the same plan, a separate plan, or as the only plan offered to participants) if either paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(A) or (B) are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(A) Participants may decline coverage. For example, a participant may decline coverage if the participant can opt out of the coverage upon request, whether or not there is a participant contribution required for the coverage.
</P>
<P>(B) Claims for the benefits are administered under a contract separate from claims administration for any other benefits under the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limited scope</I>—(A) <I>Dental benefits.</I> Limited scope dental benefits are benefits substantially all of which are for treatment of the mouth (including any organ or structure within the mouth).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Vision benefits.</I> Limited scope vision benefits are benefits substantially all of which are for treatment of the eye.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Long-term care.</I> Long-term care benefits are benefits that are either—
</P>
<P>(A) Subject to State long-term care insurance laws;
</P>
<P>(B) For qualified long-term care services, as defined in section 7702B(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, or provided under a qualified long-term care insurance contract, as defined in section 7702B(b) of the Internal Revenue Code; or
</P>
<P>(C) Based on cognitive impairment or a loss of functional capacity that is expected to be chronic.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Health flexible spending arrangements.</I> Benefits provided under a health flexible spending arrangement (as defined in section 106(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code) are excepted for a class of participants only if they satisfy the following two requirements—
</P>
<P>(A) Other group health plan coverage, not limited to excepted benefits, is made available for the year to the class of participants by reason of their employment; and
</P>
<P>(B) The arrangement is structured so that the maximum benefit payable to any participant in the class for a year cannot exceed two times the participant's salary reduction election under the arrangement for the year (or, if greater, cannot exceed $500 plus the amount of the participant's salary reduction election). For this purpose, any amount that an employee can elect to receive as taxable income but elects to apply to the health flexible spending arrangement is considered a salary reduction election (regardless of whether the amount is characterized as salary or as a credit under the arrangement).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Employee assistance programs.</I> Benefits provided under employee assistance programs are excepted if they satisfy all of the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3)(vi).
</P>
<P>(A) The program does not provide significant benefits in the nature of medical care. For this purpose, the amount, scope and duration of covered services are taken into account.
</P>
<P>(B) The benefits under the employee assistance program are not coordinated with benefits under another group health plan, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Participants in the other group health plan must not be required to use and exhaust benefits under the employee assistance program (making the employee assistance program a gatekeeper) before an individual is eligible for benefits under the other group health plan; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Participant eligibility for benefits under the employee assistance program must not be dependent on participation in another group health plan.
</P>
<P>(C) No employee premiums or contributions are required as a condition of participation in the employee assistance program.
</P>
<P>(D) There is no cost sharing under the employee assistance program.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Limited wraparound coverage.</I> Limited benefits provided through a group health plan that wrap around eligible individual health insurance (or Basic Health Plan coverage described in section 1331 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act); or that wrap around coverage under a Multi-State Plan described in section 1334 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, collectively referred to as “limited wraparound coverage,” are excepted benefits if all of the following conditions are satisfied. For this purpose, eligible individual health insurance is individual health insurance coverage that is not a grandfathered health plan (as described in section 1251 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act and § 147.140 of this subchapter), not a transitional individual health insurance plan (as described in the March 5, 2014 Insurance Standards Bulletin Series—Extension of Transitional Policy through October 1, 2016), and does not consist solely of excepted benefits (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Covers additional benefits.</I> The limited wraparound coverage provides meaningful benefits beyond coverage of cost sharing under either the eligible individual health insurance, Basic Health Program coverage, or Multi-State Plan coverage. The limited wraparound coverage must not provide benefits only under a coordination-of-benefits provision and must not consist of an account-based reimbursement arrangement.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limited in amount.</I> The annual cost of coverage per employee (and any covered dependents, as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter) under the limited wraparound coverage does not exceed the greater of the amount determined under either paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(B)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) of this section. Making a determination regarding the annual cost of coverage per employee must occur on an aggregate basis relying on sound actuarial principles.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The maximum permitted annual salary reduction contribution toward health flexible spending arrangements, indexed in the manner prescribed under section 125(i)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code. For this purpose, the cost of coverage under the limited wraparound includes both employer and employee contributions towards coverage and is determined in the same manner as the applicable premium is calculated under a COBRA continuation provision.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Fifteen percent of the cost of coverage under the primary plan. For this purpose, the cost of coverage under the primary plan and under the limited wraparound coverage includes both employer and employee contributions towards the coverage and each is determined in the same manner as the applicable premium is calculated under a COBRA continuation provision.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Nondiscrimination.</I> All of the conditions of this paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(C) are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>No preexisting condition exclusion.</I> The limited wraparound coverage does not impose any preexisting condition exclusion, consistent with the requirements of section 2704 of the PHS Act and § 147.108 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>No discrimination based on health status.</I> The limited wraparound coverage does not discriminate against individuals in eligibility, benefits, or premiums based on any health factor of an individual (or any dependent of the individual, as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter), consistent with the requirements of section 2705 of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>No discrimination in favor of highly compensated individuals.</I> Neither the limited wraparound coverage, nor any other group health plan coverage offered by the plan sponsor, fails to comply with section 2716 of the PHS Act or fails to be excludible from income for any individual due to the application of section 105(h) of the Internal Revenue Code (as applicable).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Plan eligibility requirements.</I> Individuals eligible for the wraparound coverage are not enrolled in excepted benefit coverage under paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section (relating to health FSAs). In addition, the conditions set forth in either paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Limited wraparound coverage that wraps around eligible individual insurance for persons who are not full-time employees.</I> Coverage that wraps around eligible individual health insurance (or that wraps around Basic Health Plan coverage) must satisfy all of the conditions of this paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For each year for which limited wraparound coverage is offered, the employer that is the sponsor of the plan offering limited wraparound coverage, or the employer participating in a plan offering limited wraparound coverage, offers to its full-time employees coverage that is substantially similar to coverage that the employer would need to offer to its full-time employees in order not to be subject to a potential assessable payment under the employer shared responsibility provisions of section 4980H(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, if such provisions were applicable; provides minimum value (as defined in section 36B(c)(2)(C)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code); and is reasonably expected to be affordable (applying the safe harbor rules for determining affordability set forth in 26 CFR 54.4980H-5(e)(2)). If a plan or issuer providing limited wraparound coverage takes reasonable steps to ensure that employers disclose to the plan or issuer necessary information regarding their coverage offered and affordability information, the plan or issuer is permitted to rely on reasonable representations by employers regarding this information, unless the plan or issuer has specific knowledge to the contrary. In the event that the employer that is the sponsor of the plan offering wraparound coverage, or the employer participating in a plan offering wraparound coverage, has no full-time employees for any plan year limited wraparound coverage is offered, the requirement of this paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) is considered satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Eligibility for the limited wraparound coverage is limited to employees who are reasonably determined at the time of enrollment to not be full-time employees (and their dependents, as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter), or who are retirees (and their dependents, as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter). For this purpose, full-time employees are employees who are reasonably expected to work at least an average of 30 hours per week.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Other group health plan coverage, not limited to excepted benefits, is offered to the individuals eligible for the limited wraparound coverage. Only individuals eligible for the other group health plan coverage are eligible for the limited wraparound coverage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Limited coverage that wraps around Multi-State Plan coverage.</I> Coverage that wraps around Multi-State Plan coverage must satisfy all of the conditions of this paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>2</I>). For this purpose, the term “full-time employee” means a “full-time employee” as defined in 26 CFR 54.4980H-1(a)(21) who is not in a limited non-assessment period for certain employees (as defined in 26 CFR 54.4980H-1(a)(26)). Moreover, if a plan or issuer providing limited wraparound coverage takes reasonable steps to ensure that employers disclose to the plan or issuer necessary information regarding their coverage offered and contribution levels for 2013 or 2014 (as applicable), and for any year in which limited wraparound coverage is offered, the plan or issuer is permitted to rely on reasonable representations by employers regarding this information, unless the plan or issuer has specific knowledge to the contrary. Consistent with the reporting and evaluation criteria of paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(E) of this section, the Office of Personnel Management may verify that plans and issuers have reasonable mechanisms in place to ensure that contributing employers meet these standards.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The limited wraparound coverage is reviewed and approved by the Office of Personnel Management, consistent with the reporting and evaluation criteria of paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(E) of this section, to provide benefits in conjunction with coverage under a Multi-State Plan authorized under section 1334 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act. The Office of Personnel Management may revoke approval if it determines that continued approval is inconsistent with the reporting and evaluation criteria of paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The employer offered coverage in the plan year that began in either 2013 or 2014 that is substantially similar to coverage that the employer would need to have offered to its full-time employees in order to not be subject to an assessable payment under the employer shared responsibility provisions of section 4980H(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, if such provisions had been applicable. In the event that a plan that offered coverage in 2013 or 2014 has no full-time employees for any plan year limited wraparound coverage is offered, the requirement of this paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>) is considered satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) In the plan year that began in either 2013 or 2014, the employer offered coverage to a substantial portion of full-time employees that provided minimum value (as defined in section 36B(c)(2)(C)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code) and was affordable (applying the safe harbor rules for determining affordability set forth in 26 CFR 54.4980H-5(e)(2)). In the event that the plan that offered coverage in 2013 or 2014 has no full-time employees for any plan year limited wraparound coverage is offered, the requirement of this paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>2</I>)(<I>iii</I>) is considered satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) For the duration of the pilot program, as described in paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(F) of this section, the employer's annual aggregate contributions for both primary and limited wraparound coverage are substantially the same as the employer's total contributions for coverage offered to full-time employees in 2013 or 2014.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Reporting</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Reporting by group health plans and group health insurance issuers.</I> A self-insured group health plan, or a health insurance issuer, offering or proposing to offer limited wraparound coverage in connection with Multi-State Plan coverage pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(D)(<I>2</I>) of this section reports to the Office of Personnel Management (OPM), in a form and manner specified in guidance, information OPM reasonably requires to determine whether the plan or issuer qualifies to offer such coverage or complies with the applicable requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Reporting by group health plan sponsors.</I> The plan sponsor of a group health plan offering limited wraparound coverage under paragraph (b)(3)(vii) of this section, must report to the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), in a form and manner specified in guidance, information HHS reasonably requires.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Pilot program with sunset</I>. The provisions of paragraph (b)(3)(vii) of this section apply to limited wraparound coverage that is first offered no earlier than January 1, 2016 and no later than December 31, 2018 and that ends no later than on the later of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The date that is three years after the date limited wraparound coverage is first offered; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The date on which the last collective bargaining agreement relating to the plan terminates after the date limited wraparound coverage is first offered (determined without regard to any extension agreed to after the date limited wraparound coverage is first offered).
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Health reimbursement arrangements (HRAs) and other account-based group health plans.</I> Benefits provided under an HRA or other account-based group health plan, other than a health FSA, are excepted if they satisfy all of the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3)(viii). See paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section for the circumstances in which benefits provided under a health FSA are excepted benefits. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3)(viii), the term “HRA or other account-based group health plan” has the same meaning as “account-based group health plan” set forth in § 147.126(d)(6)(i) of this subchapter, except that the term does not include health FSAs. For ease of reference, an HRA or other account-based group health plan that satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3)(viii) is referred to as an excepted benefit HRA.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Otherwise not an integral part of the plan.</I> Other group health plan coverage that is not limited to excepted benefits and that is not an HRA or other account-based group health plan must be made available by the same plan sponsor for the plan year to the participant.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Benefits are limited in amount</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Limit on annual amounts made available.</I> The amounts newly made available for each plan year under the HRA or other account-based group health plan do not exceed $1,800. In the case of any plan year beginning after December 31, 2020, the dollar amount in the preceding sentence shall be increased by an amount equal to such dollar amount multiplied by the cost-of-living adjustment. The cost of living adjustment is the percentage (if any) by which the C-CPI-U for the preceding calendar year exceeds the C-CPI-U for calendar year 2019. The term “C-CPI-U” means the Chained Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers as published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor. The C-CPI-U for any calendar year is the average of the C-CPI-U as of the close of the 12-month period ending on March 31 of such calendar year. The values of the C-CPI-U used for any calendar year shall be the latest values so published as of the date on which the Bureau publishes the initial value of the C-CPI-U for the month of March for the preceding calendar year. Any such increase that is not a multiple of $50 shall be rounded down to the next lowest multiple of $50. The Department of the Treasury and the Internal Revenue Service will publish the adjusted amount for plan years beginning in any calendar year no later than June 1 of the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Carryover amounts.</I> If the terms of the HRA or other account-based group health plan allow unused amounts to be made available to participants and dependents in later plan years, such carryover amounts are disregarded for purposes of determining whether benefits are limited in amount.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Multiple HRAs or other account-based group health plans.</I> If the plan sponsor provides more than one HRA or other account-based group health plan to the participant for the same time period, the amounts made available under all such plans are aggregated to determine whether the benefits are limited in amount, except that HRAs or other account-based group health plans that reimburse only excepted benefits are not included in determining whether the benefits are limited in amount.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Prohibition on reimbursement of certain health insurance premiums.</I> The HRA or other account-based group health plan must not reimburse premiums for individual health insurance coverage, group health plan coverage (other than COBRA continuation coverage or other continuation coverage), or Medicare Part A, B, C, or D, except that the HRA or other account-based group health plan may reimburse premiums for such coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits. See also, paragraph (b)(3)(viii)(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Uniform availability.</I> The HRA or other account-based group health plan is made available under the same terms to all similarly situated individuals, as defined in § 146.121(d), regardless of any health factor (as described in § 146.121(a)).
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Notice requirement.</I> For plan years beginning on or after January 11, 2021, the HRA or other account-based group health plan must provide a notice that describes conditions pertaining to eligibility to receive benefits, annual or lifetime caps, or other limits on benefits under the plan, and a description or summary of the benefits. This notice must be provided no later than 90 days after an employee becomes a participant and annually thereafter, in a manner reasonably calculated to ensure actual receipt by participants eligible for the HRA or other account-based group health plan.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Special rule.</I> The HRA or other account-based group health plan must not reimburse premiums for short-term, limited-duration insurance (as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter) if the conditions of this paragraph (b)(3)(viii)(F) are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The HRA or other account-based group health plan is offered by a small employer (as defined in PHS Act section 2791(e)(4)).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The other group health plan coverage offered by the employer pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(viii)(A) of this section is either fully-insured or partially-insured.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Secretary makes a finding, in consultation with the Secretaries of Labor and the Treasury, that the reimbursement of premiums for short-term, limited-duration insurance by excepted benefit HRAs has caused significant harm to the small group market in the state that is the principal place of business of the small employer.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The finding by the Secretary is made after submission of a written recommendation by the applicable state authority of such state, in a form and manner specified by HHS. The written recommendation must include evidence that the reimbursement of premiums for short-term, limited-duration insurance by excepted benefit HRAs established by insured or partially-insured small employers in the state has caused significant harm to the state's small group market, including with respect to premiums.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The restriction shall be imposed or discontinued by publication by the Secretary of a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall apply only prospectively and with a reasonable time for plan sponsors to comply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Noncoordinated benefits</I>—(i) <I>Excepted benefits that are not coordinated.</I> Coverage for only a specified disease or illness (for example, cancer-only policies) or hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance is excepted only if it meets each of the conditions specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section. To be hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance, the insurance must pay a fixed dollar amount per day (or per other period) of hospitalization or illness (for example, $100/day) regardless of the amount of expenses incurred.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conditions.</I> Benefits are described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section only if—
</P>
<P>(A) The benefits are provided under a separate policy, certificate, or contract of insurance;
</P>
<P>(B) There is no coordination between the provision of the benefits and an exclusion of benefits under any group health plan maintained by the same plan sponsor; and
</P>
<P>(C) The benefits are paid with respect to an event without regard to whether benefits are provided with respect to the event under any group health plan maintained by the same plan sponsor.
</P>
<P>(D) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, with respect to hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan or issuer displays prominently on the first page (in either paper or electronic form, including on a website) of any marketing, application, and enrollment materials that are provided to participants at or before the time participants are given the opportunity to enroll in the coverage, in at least 14-point font, the language in the following notice:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03ap24.065.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If participants are required to reenroll (in either paper or electronic form) for purposes of renewal or reissuance of the insurance, the notice described in paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(D)(<I>1</I>) of this section is prominently displayed in any marketing and reenrollment materials provided at or before the time participants are given the opportunity to reenroll in coverage.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If a plan or issuer provides a notice satisfying the requirements in paragraphs (b)(4)(ii)(D)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section to a participant, the obligation to provide the notice is considered to be satisfied for both the plan and issuer.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b)(4) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage through an insurance policy. The policy provides benefits only for hospital stays at a fixed percentage of hospital expenses up to a maximum of $100 a day.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> even though the benefits under the policy satisfy the conditions in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, because the policy pays a percentage of expenses incurred rather than a fixed dollar amount, the benefits under the policy are not excepted benefits under this paragraph (b)(4). This is the result even if, in practice, the policy pays the maximum of $100 for every day of hospitalization.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(iv) <I>Severability.</I> If any provision of this paragraph (b)(4) is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any entity or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, along with other provisions not found invalid or unenforceable, including as applied to entities not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances, unless such holding is that the provision is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which event the provision shall be severable from the remainder of this paragraph (b)(4) and shall not affect the remainder thereof.




</P>
<P>(5) <I>Supplemental benefits.</I> (i) The following benefits are excepted only if they are provided under a separate policy, certificate, or contract of insurance—
</P>
<P>(A) Medicare supplemental health insurance (as defined under section 1882(g)(1) of the Social Security Act; also known as Medigap or MedSupp insurance);
</P>
<P>(B) Coverage supplemental to the coverage provided under Chapter 55, Title 10 of the United States Code (also known as TRICARE supplemental programs); and
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Similar supplemental coverage provided to coverage under a group health plan.</I> To be similar supplemental coverage, the coverage must be specifically designed to fill gaps in the primary coverage. The preceding sentence is satisfied if the coverage is designed to fill gaps in cost sharing in the primary coverage, such as coinsurance or deductibles, or the coverage is designed to provide benefits for items and services not covered by the primary coverage and that are not essential health benefits (as defined under section 1302(b) of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act) in the State where the coverage is issued, or the coverage is designed to both fill such gaps in cost sharing under, and cover such benefits not covered by, the primary coverage. Similar supplemental coverage does not include coverage that becomes secondary or supplemental only under a coordination-of-benefits provision.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rules of this paragraph (b)(5) are illustrated by the following example: 
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage for both active employees and retirees. The coverage for retirees supplements benefits provided by Medicare, but does not meet the requirements for a supplemental policy under section 1882(g)(1) of the Social Security Act.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the coverage provided to retirees does not meet the definition of supplemental excepted benefits under this paragraph (b)(5) because the coverage is not Medicare supplemental insurance as defined under section 1882(g)(1) of the Social Security Act, is not a TRICARE supplemental program, and is not supplemental to coverage provided under a group health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of partnerships.</I> For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Treatment as a group health plan.</I> Any plan, fund, or program that would not be (but for this paragraph (c)) an employee welfare benefit plan and that is established or maintained by a partnership, to the extent that the plan, fund, or program provides medical care (including items and services paid for as medical care) to present or former partners in the partnership or to their dependents (as defined under the terms of the plan, fund, or program), directly or through insurance, reimbursement, or otherwise, is treated (subject to paragraph (c)(2) of this section) as an employee welfare benefit plan that is a group health plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employment relationship.</I> In the case of a group health plan, the term <I>employer</I> also includes the partnership in relation to any bona fide partner. In addition, the term <I>employee</I> also includes any bona fide partner. Whether or not an individual is a bona fide partner is determined based on all the relevant facts and circumstances, including whether the individual performs services on behalf of the partnership.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Participants of group health plans.</I> In the case of a group health plan, the term <I>participant</I> also includes any individual described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section if the individual is, or may become, eligible to receive a benefit under the plan or the individual's beneficiaries may be eligible to receive any such benefit.
</P>
<P>(i) In connection with a group health plan maintained by a partnership, the individual is a partner in relation to the partnership.
</P>
<P>(ii) In connection with a group health plan maintained by a self-employed individual (under which one or more employees are participants), the individual is the self-employed individual.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determining the average number of employees.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 78798, Dec. 30, 2004, as amended at 74 FR 51692, Oct. 7, 2009; 78 FR 65092, Oct. 30, 2013; 79 FR 59136, Oct. 1, 2014; 80 FR 14007, Mar. 18, 2015; 81 FR 75326, Oct. 31, 2016; 84 FR 29024, June 20, 2019; 85 FR 29259, May 14, 2020; 89 FR 23418, Apr. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Provisions Applicable to Only Health Insurance Issuers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.150" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.150   Guaranteed availability of coverage for employers in the small group market.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of coverage in the small group market.</I> Subject to paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section, each health insurance issuer that offers health insurance coverage in the small group market in a State must—
</P>
<P>(1) Offer, to any small employer in the State, all products that are approved for sale in the small group market and that the issuer is actively marketing, and must accept any employer that applies for any of those products; and
</P>
<P>(2) Accept for enrollment under the coverage every eligible individual (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) who applies for enrollment during the period in which the individual first becomes eligible to enroll under the terms of the group health plan, or during a special enrollment period, and may not impose any restriction on an eligible individual's being a participant or beneficiary, which is inconsistent with the nondiscrimination provisions of § 146.121.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible individual defined.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “eligible individual” means an individual who is eligible—
</P>
<P>(1) To enroll in group health insurance coverage offered to a group health plan maintained by a small employer, in accordance with the terms of the group health plan;
</P>
<P>(2) For coverage under the rules of the health insurance issuer which are uniformly applicable in the State to small employers in the small group market; and
</P>
<P>(3) For coverage in accordance with all applicable State laws governing the issuer and the small group market.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rules for network plans.</I> (1) In the case of a health insurance issuer that offers health insurance coverage in the small group market through a network plan, the issuer may—
</P>
<P>(i) Limit the employers that may apply for the coverage to those with eligible individuals who live, work, or reside in the service area for the network plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within the service area of the plan, deny coverage to employers if the issuer has demonstrated to the applicable State authority (if required by the State authority) that—
</P>
<P>(A) It will not have the capacity to deliver services adequately to enrollees of any additional groups because of its obligations to existing group contract holders and enrollees; and
</P>
<P>(B) It is applying this paragraph (c)(1) uniformly to all employers without regard to the claims experience of those employers and their employees (and their dependents) or any health status-related factor relating to those employees and dependents.
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer that denies health insurance coverage to an employer in any service area, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, may not offer coverage in the small group market within the service area to any employer for a period of 180 days after the date the coverage is denied. This paragraph (c)(2) does not limit the issuer's ability to renew coverage already in force or relieve the issuer of the responsibility to renew that coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) Coverage offered within a service area after the 180-day period specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application of financial capacity limits.</I> (1) A health insurance issuer may deny health insurance coverage in the small group market if the issuer has demonstrated to the applicable State authority (if required by the State authority) that it—
</P>
<P>(i) Does not have the financial reserves necessary to underwrite additional coverage; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is applying this paragraph (d)(1) uniformly to all employers in the small group market in the State consistent with applicable State law and without regard to the claims experience of those employers and their employees (and their dependents) or any health status-related factor relating to those employees and dependents.
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer that denies group health insurance coverage to any small employer in a State under paragraph (d)(1) of this section may not offer coverage in connection with group health plans in the small group market in the State before the later of the following dates: 
</P>
<P>(i) The 181st day after the date the issuer denies coverage. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the issuer demonstrates to the applicable State authority, if required under applicable State law, that the issuer has sufficient financial reserves to underwrite additional coverage. 
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (d)(2) of this section does not limit the issuer's ability to renew coverage already in force or relieve the issuer of the responsibility to renew that coverage.
</P>
<P>(4) Coverage offered after the 180-day period specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section is subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) An applicable State authority may provide for the application of this paragraph (d) on a service-area-specific basis.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exception to requirement for failure to meet certain minimum participation or contribution rules.</I> (1) Paragraph (a) of this section does not preclude a health insurance issuer from establishing employer contribution rules or group participation rules for the offering of health insurance coverage in connection with a group health plan in the small group market, as allowed under applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (e)(1) of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) The term “employer contribution rule” means a requirement relating to the minimum level or amount of employer contribution toward the premium for enrollment of participants and beneficiaries; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “group participation rule” means a requirement relating to the minimum number of participants or beneficiaries that must be enrolled in relation to a specified percentage or number of eligible individuals or employees of an employer.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exception for coverage offered only to bona fide association members.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer if that coverage is made available in the small group market only through one or more bona fide associations (as defined in 45 CFR 144.103).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0938-0702)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 16958, Apr. 8, 1997; 62 FR 31694, June 10, 1997, as amended at 62 FR 35906, July 2, 1997; 67 FR 48811, July 26, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.152" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.152   Guaranteed renewability of coverage for employers in the group market.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section, a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in the small or large group market is required to renew or continue in force the coverage at the option of the plan sponsor or the individual, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> An issuer may nonrenew or discontinue group health insurance coverage offered in the small or large group market based only on one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Nonpayment of premiums.</I> The plan sponsor has failed to pay premiums or contributions in accordance with the terms of the health insurance coverage, including any timeliness requirements. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fraud.</I> The plan sponsor has performed an act or practice that constitutes fraud or made an intentional misrepresentation of material fact in connection with the coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Violation of participation or contribution rules.</I> The plan sponsor has failed to comply with a material plan provision relating to any employer contribution or group participation rules permitted under § 146.150(e) in the case of the small group market or under applicable State law in the case of the large group market.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of product.</I> The issuer is ceasing to offer coverage in the market in accordance with paragraph (c) or (d) of this section and applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Enrollees' movement outside service area.</I> For network plans, there is no longer any enrollee under the group health plan who lives, resides, or works in the service area of the issuer (or in the area for which the issuer is authorized to do business); and in the case of the small group market, the issuer applies the same criteria it would apply in denying enrollment in the plan under § 146.150(c); provided the issuer provides notice in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Association membership ceases.</I> For coverage made available in the small or large group market only through one or more bona fide associations, if the employer's membership in the association ceases, but only if the coverage is terminated uniformly without regard to any health status-related factor relating to any covered individual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discontinuing a particular product.</I> In any case in which an issuer decides to discontinue offering a particular product offered in the small or large group market, that product may be discontinued by the issuer in accordance with applicable State law in the particular market only if—
</P>
<P>(1) The issuer provides notice in writing, in a form and manner specified by the Secretary, to each plan sponsor provided that particular product in that market (and to all participants and beneficiaries covered under such coverage) of the discontinuation at least 90 days before the date the coverage will be discontinued;
</P>
<P>(2) The issuer offers to each plan sponsor provided that particular product the option, on a guaranteed issue basis, to purchase all (or, in the case of the large group market, any) other health insurance coverage currently being offered by the issuer to a group health plan in that market; and
</P>
<P>(3) In exercising the option to discontinue that product and in offering the option of coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the issuer acts uniformly without regard to the claims experience of those sponsors or any health status-related factor relating to any participants or beneficiaries covered or new participants or beneficiaries who may become eligible for such coverage.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discontinuing all coverage.</I> An issuer may elect to discontinue offering all health insurance coverage in the small or large group market or both markets in a State in accordance with applicable State law only if—
</P>
<P>(1) The issuer provides notice in writing to the applicable State authority and to each plan sponsor (and all participants and beneficiaries covered under the coverage) of the discontinuation at least 180 days prior to the date the coverage will be discontinued; and
</P>
<P>(2) All health insurance policies issued or delivered for issuance in the State in the market (or markets) are discontinued and not renewed.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this paragraph (d), subject to applicable State law, an issuer will not be considered to have discontinued offering all health insurance coverage in a market in a State if—
</P>
<P>(i) The issuer (in this paragraph referred to as the initial issuer) or, if the issuer is a member of a controlled group, any other issuer that is a member of such controlled group, offers and makes available in the applicable market in the State at least one product that is considered in accordance with § 144.103 of this subchapter to be the same product as a product the initial issuer had been offering in such market in such State; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) Offers and makes available at least one product (in paragraphs (d)(3)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section referred to as the new product) in the applicable market in the State, even if such product is not considered in accordance with § 144.103 of this subchapter to be the same product as a product the issuer had been offering in the applicable market in the State (in paragraphs (d)(3)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section referred to as the discontinued product);
</P>
<P>(B) Subjects such new product or products to the applicable process and requirements established under part 154 of this title as if such process and requirements applied with respect to that product or products, to the extent such process and requirements are otherwise applicable to coverage of the same type and in the same market; and
</P>
<P>(C) Reasonably identifies the discontinued product or products that correspond to the new product or products for purposes of the process and requirements applied pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this section, the term controlled group means a group of two or more persons that is treated as a single employer under sections 52(a), 52(b), 414(m), or 414(o) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, or a narrower group as may be provided by applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibition on market reentry.</I> An issuer who elects to discontinue offering all health insurance coverage in a market (or markets) in a State as described in paragraph (d) of this section may not issue coverage in the market (or markets) and State involved during the 5-year period beginning on the date of discontinuation of the last coverage not renewed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exception for uniform modification of coverage.</I> (1) Only at the time of coverage renewal may issuers modify the health insurance coverage for a product offered to a group health plan in the following—
</P>
<P>(i) Large group market; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Small group market if, for coverage available in this market (other than only through one or more bona fide associations), the modification is consistent with State law and is effective uniformly among group health plans with that product.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, modifications made uniformly and solely pursuant to applicable Federal or State requirements are considered a uniform modification of coverage if:
</P>
<P>(i) The modification is made within a reasonable time period after the imposition or modification of the Federal or State requirement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The modification is directly related to the imposition or modification of the Federal or State requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, other types of modifications made uniformly are considered a uniform modification of coverage if the health insurance coverage for the product in the small group market meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The product is offered by the same health insurance issuer (within the meaning of section 2791(b)(2) of the PHS Act), or if the issuer is a member of a controlled group (as described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section), any other health insurance issuer that is a member of such controlled group;
</P>
<P>(ii) The product is offered as the same product network type (for example, health maintenance organization, preferred provider organization, exclusive provider organization, point of service, or indemnity);
</P>
<P>(iii) The product continues to cover at least a majority of the same service area;
</P>
<P>(iv) Within the product, each plan has the same cost-sharing structure as before the modification, except for any variation in cost sharing solely related to changes in cost and utilization of medical care, or to maintain the same metal tier level described in sections 1302(d) and (e) of the Affordable Care Act; and
</P>
<P>(v) The product provides the same covered benefits, except for any changes in benefits that cumulatively impact the rate for any plan within the product within an allowable variation of ±2 percentage points (not including changes pursuant to applicable Federal or State requirements).
</P>
<P>(4) A State may only broaden the standards in paragraphs (f)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Application to coverage offered only through associations.</I> In the case of health insurance coverage that is made available by a health insurance issuer in the small or large group market to employers only through one or more associations, the reference to “plan sponsor” is deemed, with respect to coverage provided to an employer member of the association, to include a reference to such employer.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of renewal of coverage.</I> If an issuer in the small group market is renewing grandfathered coverage as described in paragraph (a) of this section, or uniformly modifying grandfathered coverage as described in paragraph (f) of this section, the issuer must provide to each plan sponsor written notice of the renewal at least 60 calendar days before the date the coverage will be renewed in a form and manner specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0938-0702)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 16958, Apr. 8, 1997; 62 FR 31670, June 10, 1997, as amended at 62 FR 35906, July 2, 1997; 79 FR 30335, May 27, 2014; 79 FR 53004, Sept. 5, 2014; 81 FR 94172, Dec. 22, 2016; 84 FR 17561, Apr. 25, 2019]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.160" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.160   Disclosure of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In connection with the offering of any health insurance coverage to a small employer, a health insurance issuer is required to—
</P>
<P>(1) Make a reasonable disclosure to the employer, as part of its solicitation and sales materials, of the availability of information described in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request of the employer, provide that information to the employer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information described.</I> Subject to paragraph (d) of this section, information that must be provided under paragraph (a)(2) of this section is information concerning the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Provisions of coverage relating to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuer's right to change premium rates and the factors that may affect changes in premium rates.
</P>
<P>(ii) Renewability of coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any preexisting condition exclusion, including use of the alternative method of counting creditable coverage.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any affiliation periods applied by HMOs.
</P>
<P>(v) The geographic areas served by HMOs.
</P>
<P>(2) The benefits and premiums available under all health insurance coverage for which the employer is qualified, under applicable State law. See § 146.150(b) through (f) for allowable limitations on product availability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of information.</I> The information must be described in language that is understandable by the average small employer, with a level of detail that is sufficient to reasonably inform small employers of their rights and obligations under the health insurance coverage. This requirement is satisfied if the issuer provides each of the following with respect to each product offered:
</P>
<P>(1) An outline of coverage. For purposes of this section, outline of coverage means a description of benefits in summary form.
</P>
<P>(2) The rate or rating schedule that applies to the product (with and without the preexisting condition exclusion or affiliation period).
</P>
<P>(3) The minimum employer contribution and group participation rules that apply to any particular type of coverage.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a network plan, a map or listing of counties served.
</P>
<P>(5) Any other information required by the State.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exception.</I> An issuer is not required to disclose any information that is proprietary and trade secret information under applicable law.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0938-0702)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 16958, Apr. 8, 1997, as amended at 62 FR 35906, July 2, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Exclusion of Plans and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 146.180" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.4.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 146.180   Treatment of non-Federal governmental plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Opt-out election for self-funded non-Federal governmental plans</I>—(1) <I>Requirements subject to exemption.</I> The PHS Act requirements described in this paragraph are the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Limitations on preexisting condition exclusion periods in accordance with section 2701 of the PHS Act as codified before enactment of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) Special enrollment periods for individuals and dependents described under section 2704(f) of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) Prohibitions against discriminating against individual participants and beneficiaries based on health status under section 2705 of the PHS Act, except that the sponsor of a self-funded non-Federal governmental plan cannot elect to exempt its plan from requirements under section 2705(a)(6) and 2705(c) through (f) that prohibit discrimination with respect to genetic information.
</P>
<P>(iv) Standards relating to benefits for mothers and newborns under section 2725 of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(v) Parity in mental health and substance use disorder benefits under section 2726 of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(vi) Required coverage for reconstructive surgery following mastectomies under section 2727 of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(vii) Coverage of dependent students on a medically necessary leave of absence under section 2728 of the PHS Act.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>General rule.</I> For plans years beginning on or after September 23, 2010, a sponsor of a non-Federal governmental plan may elect to exempt its plan, to the extent the plan is not provided through health insurance coverage (that is self-funded), from one or more of the requirements described in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv) through (vii) of this section, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(3) and (f)(1) of this section with respect to the requirements described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sunset of election option related to parity in mental health and substance use disorder benefits.</I> A sponsor of a non-Federal governmental plan may not newly elect to exempt its plans from the requirements described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section on or after December 29, 2022.




</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special rule for certain collectively bargained plans.</I> In the case of a plan that is maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement that was ratified before March 23, 2010, and whose sponsor made an election to exempt its plan from any of the requirements described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section, the provisions of paragraph (a)(2) of this section apply for plan years beginning after the expiration of the term of the agreement.


</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A non-Federal governmental employer has elected to exempt its self-funded group health plan from all of the requirements described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The plan year commences September 1st of each year. The plan is not subject to the provisions of paragraph (a)(2) of this section until the plan year that commences on September 1, 2011. Accordingly, for that plan year and any subsequent plan years, the plan sponsor may elect to exempt its plan only from the requirements described in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv) through (vii) of this section, subject to paragraphs (a)(3) and (f)(1) of this section with respect to the requirements described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> A non-Federal governmental employer has elected to exempt its collectively bargained self-funded plan from all of the requirements described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The collective bargaining agreement applies to 5 plan years, October 1, 2009, through September 30, 2014. For the plan year that begins on October 1, 2014, the plan sponsor is no longer permitted to elect to exempt its plan from the requirements described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section. Accordingly, for that plan year and any subsequent plan years, the plan sponsor may elect to exempt its plan only from the requirements described in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv) through (vii) of this section, subject to paragraphs (a)(3) and (f)(1) of this section with respect to the requirements described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section.


</P>
<P>(6) <I>Limitations.</I> (i) An election under this section cannot circumvent a requirement of the PHS Act to the extent the requirement applied to the plan before the effective date of the election.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Example 1.</I> A plan is subject to requirements of section 2727 of the PHS Act, under which a plan that covers medical and surgical benefits with respect to a mastectomy must cover reconstructive surgery and certain other services following a mastectomy. An enrollee who has had a mastectomy receives reconstructive surgery on August 24. Claims with respect to the surgery are submitted to and processed by the plan in September. The group health plan commences a new plan year each September 1. Effective September 1, the plan sponsor elects to exempt its plan from section 2727 of the PHS Act. The plan cannot, on the basis of its exemption election, decline to pay for the claims incurred on August 24.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) If a group health plan is co-sponsored by two or more employers, then only plan enrollees of the non-Federal governmental employer(s) with a valid election under this section are affected by the election.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Stop-loss or excess risk coverage.</I> For purposes of this section—


</P>
<P>(i) Subject to paragraph (a)(7)(ii) of this section, the purchase of stop-loss or excess risk coverage by a self-funded non-Federal governmental plan does not prevent an election under this section.






</P>
<P>(ii) Regardless of whether coverage offered by an issuer is designated as “stop-loss” coverage or “excess risk” coverage, if it is regulated as group health insurance under an applicable State law, then for purposes of this section, a non-Federal governmental plan that purchases the coverage is considered to be fully insured. In that event, a plan may not be exempted under this section from the requirements described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in this part should be construed as imposing collective bargaining obligations on any party to the collective bargaining process.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form and manner of election</I>—(1) <I>Election requirements.</I> The election must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Be made in an electronic format in a form and manner as described by the Secretary in guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be made in conformance with all of the plan sponsor's rules, including any public hearing requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify the beginning and ending dates of the period to which the election is to apply. This period can be either of the following periods:
</P>
<P>(A) A single specified plan year, as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(B) The “term of the agreement,” as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, in the case of a plan governed by collective bargaining.
</P>
<P>(iv) Specify the name of the plan and the name and address of the plan administrator, and include the name and telephone number of a person CMS may contact regarding the election.
</P>
<P>(v) State that the plan does not include health insurance coverage, or identify which portion of the plan is not funded through health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(vi) Specify each requirement described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section from which the plan sponsor elects to exempt the plan.
</P>
<P>(vii) Certify that the person signing the election document, including (if applicable) a third party plan administrator, is legally authorized to do so by the plan sponsor.
</P>
<P>(viii) Include, as an attachment, a copy of the notice described in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) In the case of a plan sponsor submitting one opt-out election for all group health plans subject to the same collective bargaining agreement, include a list of plans subject to the agreement.
</P>
<P>(x) In the case of a plan sponsor submitting opt-out elections for more than one group health plan that is not subject to a collective bargaining agreement, submit a separate election document for each such plan.
</P>
<P>(2) “<I>Term of the agreement” defined.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, for purposes of this section “term of the agreement” means all group health plan years governed by a single collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a group health plan for which the last plan year governed by a prior collective bargaining agreement expires during the bargaining process for a new agreement, the term of the prior agreement includes all plan years governed by the agreement plus the period of time that precedes the latest of the following dates, as applicable, with respect to the new agreement:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of an agreement between the governmental employer and union officials.
</P>
<P>(B) The date of ratification of an agreement between the governmental employer and the union.
</P>
<P>(C) The date impasse resolution, arbitration or other closure of the collective bargaining process is finalized when agreement is not reached.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a group health plan governed by a collective bargaining agreement for which closure is not reached before the last plan year under the immediately preceding agreement expires, the term of the new agreement includes all plan years governed by the agreement excluding the period that precedes the latest applicable date specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Construction</I>—(i) <I>Dispute resolution.</I> Nothing in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section should be construed to mean that CMS arbitrates disputes between plan sponsors, participants, beneficiaries, or their representatives regarding whether an election complies with all of a plan sponsor's rules.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Future elections not preempted.</I> If a plan must comply with one or more requirements described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for a given plan year or period of plan coverage, nothing in this section should be construed as preventing a plan sponsor from submitting an election in accordance with this section for a subsequent plan year or period of plan coverage.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing a timely election</I>—(1) <I>Plan not governed by collective bargaining.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(4) of this section, if a plan is not governed by a collective bargaining agreement, a plan sponsor or entity acting on behalf of a plan sponsor must file an election with CMS before the first day of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plan governed by a collective bargaining agreement.</I> Subject to paragraph (d)(4) of this section, if a plan is governed by a collective bargaining agreement that was ratified before March 23, 2010, a plan sponsor or entity acting on behalf of a plan sponsor must file an election with CMS before the first day of the first plan year governed by a collective bargaining agreement, or by the 45th day after the latest applicable date specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, if the 45th day falls on or after the first day of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule for timely filing.</I> If the latest filing date specified under paragraphs (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or a State or Federal holiday, CMS accepts filings submitted on the next business day.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Filing extension based on good cause.</I> CMS may extend the deadlines specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section for good cause if the plan substantially complies with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Failure to file a timely election.</I> Absent an extension under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, a plan sponsor's failure to file a timely election under paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section makes the plan subject to all requirements of this part for the entire plan year to which the election would have applied, or, in the case of a plan governed by a collective bargaining agreement, for any plan years under the agreement for which the election is not timely filed.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information required</I>—(1) <I>Written notification.</I> If an election is timely filed, but CMS determines that the election document (or the notice to plan enrollees) does not meet all of the requirements of this section, CMS may notify the plan sponsor, or other entity that filed the election, that it must submit any additional information that CMS has determined is necessary to meet those requirements. The additional information must be filed with CMS by the later of the following dates:
</P>
<P>(i) The last day of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The 45th day after the date of CMS's written notification requesting additional information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timely response.</I> For submissions via hard copy via U.S. Mail, CMS uses the postmark on the envelope in which the additional information is submitted to determine that the information is timely filed as specified under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. If the latest filing date falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or a State or Federal holiday, CMS accepts a postmark on the next business day.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Failure to respond timely.</I> CMS may invalidate an election if the plan sponsor, or other entity that filed the election, fails to timely submit the additional information as specified under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice to enrollees</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory notification.</I> (i) A plan that makes the election described in this section must notify each affected enrollee of the election, and explain the consequences of the election. For purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, if the dependent(s) of a participant reside(s) with the participant, a plan need only provide notice to the participant.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice must be in writing and, except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section with regard to initial notices, must be provided to each enrollee at the time of enrollment under the plan, and on an annual basis no later than the last day of each plan year (as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter) for which there is an election.
</P>
<P>(iii) A plan may meet the notification requirements of paragraph (e) of this section by prominently printing the notice in a summary plan description, or equivalent description, that it provides to each enrollee at the time of enrollment, and annually. Also, when a plan provides a notice to an enrollee at the time of enrollment, that notice may serve as the initial annual notice for that enrollee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial notices.</I> (i) If a plan is not governed by a collective bargaining agreement, with regard to the initial plan year to which an election under this section applies, the plan must provide the initial annual notice of the election to all enrollees before the first day of that plan year, and notice at the time of enrollment to all individuals who enroll during that plan year.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a collectively bargained plan, with regard to the initial plan year to which an election under this section applies, the plan must provide the initial annual notice of the election to all enrollees before the first day of the plan year, or within 30 days after the latest applicable date specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section if the 30th day falls on or after the first day of the plan year. Also, the plan must provide a notice at the time of enrollment to individuals who—
</P>
<P>(A) Enroll on or after the first day of the plan year, when closure of the collective bargaining process is reached before the plan year begins; or
</P>
<P>(B) Enroll on or after the latest applicable date specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section if that date falls on or after the first day of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice content.</I> The notice must include at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The specific requirements described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section from which the plan sponsor is electing to exempt the plan, and a statement that, in general, Federal law imposes these requirements upon group health plans.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that Federal law gives the plan sponsor of a self-funded non-Federal governmental plan the right to exempt the plan in whole, or in part, from the listed requirements, and that the plan sponsor has elected to do so.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement identifying which parts of the plan are subject to the election.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement identifying which of the listed requirements, if any, apply under the terms of the plan, or as required by State law, without regard to an exemption under this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Subsequent elections</I>—(1) <I>Election renewal.</I> A plan sponsor may renew an election under this section through subsequent elections. Notwithstanding the previous sentence and except as provided in paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section, an election with respect to the requirements described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section expiring on or after June 27, 2023, may not be renewed. The timeliness standards described in paragraph (c) of this section apply to election renewals under paragraph (f) of this section.






</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form and manner of renewal.</I> Except for the requirement to forward to CMS a copy of the notice to enrollees under paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section, the plan sponsor must comply with the election requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section. In lieu of providing a copy of the notice under paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section, the plan sponsor may include a statement that the notice has been, or will be, provided to enrollees as specified under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Election renewal includes provisions from which plan not previously exempted.</I> If an election renewal includes a requirement described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section from which the plan sponsor did not elect to exempt the plan for the preceding plan year, the advance notification requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section apply with respect to the additional requirement(s) of paragraph (a) of this section from which the plan sponsor is electing to exempt the plan.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special rules regarding renewal of an election under a collective bargaining agreement.</I> (i) If protracted negotiations with respect to a new agreement result in an extension of the term of the prior agreement (as provided under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section) under which an election under this section was in effect, the plan must comply with the enrollee notification requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and, following closure of the collective bargaining process, must file an election renewal with CMS as provided under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a single plan applies to more than one bargaining unit, and the plan is governed by collective bargaining agreements of varying lengths, paragraph (c)(2) of this section, with respect to an election renewal, applies to the plan as governed by the agreement that results in the earliest filing date.


</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a plan that is subject to multiple collective bargaining agreements of varying lengths and that has an election with respect to the requirements described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section in effect as of December 29, 2022, that expires on or after June 27, 2023, the plan may extend such election until the date on which the term of the last such agreement expires.


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Requirements not subject to exemption</I>—(1) <I>Genetic information.</I> Without regard to an election under this section that exempts a non-Federal governmental plan from any or all of the provisions of §§ 146.111 and 146.121, the exemption election must not be construed to exempt the plan from any provisions of this part that pertain to genetic information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Enforcement.</I> CMS enforces these requirements as provided under paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Effect of failure to comply with certification and notification requirements</I>—(1) <I>Substantial failure</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (h)(1)(iii) of this section, a substantial failure to comply with paragraph (e) or (g)(1) of this section results in the invalidation of an election under this section with respect to all plan enrollees for the entire plan year. That is, the plan is subject to all requirements of this part for the entire plan year to which the election otherwise would have applied.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Determination of substantial failure.</I> CMS determines whether a plan has substantially failed to comply with a requirement of paragraph (e) or (g)(1) of this section based on all relevant facts and circumstances, including previous record of compliance, gravity of the violation and whether a plan corrects the failure, as warranted, within 30 days of learning of the violation. However, in general, a plan's failure to provide a notice of the fact and consequences of an election under this section to an individual at the time of enrollment, or on an annual basis before a given plan year expires, constitutes a substantial failure.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exceptions</I>—(A) <I>Multiple employers.</I> If the plan is sponsored by multiple employers, and only certain employers substantially fail to comply with the requirements of paragraph (e) or (g)(1) of this section, then the election is invalidated with respect to those employers only, and not with respect to other employers that complied with those requirements, unless the plan chooses to cancel its election entirely.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limited failure to provide notice.</I> If a substantial failure to notify enrollees of the fact and consequences of an election is limited to certain individuals, the election under this section is valid only if, for the plan year with respect to which the failure has occurred, the plan agrees not to apply the election with respect to the individuals who were not notified and so informs those individuals in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A self-funded, non-Federal group health plan is co-sponsored by 10 school districts. Nine of the school districts have fully complied with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section, including providing notice to new employees at the time of their enrollment in the plan, regarding the group health plan's exemption under this section from requirements of this part. One school district, which hired 10 new teachers during the summer for the upcoming school year, neglected to notify three of the new hires about the group health plan's exemption election at the time they enrolled in the plan. The school district has substantially failed to comply with a requirement of paragraph (e) of this section with respect to these individuals. The school district learned of the oversight six weeks into the school year, and promptly (within 30 days of learning of the oversight) provided notice to the three teachers regarding the plan's exemption under this section and that the exemption does not apply to them, or their dependents, during the plan year of their enrollment because of the plan's failure to timely notify them of its exemption. The plan complies with the requirements of this part for these individuals for the plan year of their enrollment. CMS would not require the plan to come into compliance with the requirements of this part for other enrollees.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> Two non-Federal governmental employers cosponsor a self-funded group health plan. One employer substantially fails to comply with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section. While the plan may limit the invalidation of the election to enrollees of the plan sponsor that is responsible for the substantial failure, the plan sponsors determine that administering the plan in that manner would be too burdensome. Accordingly, in this example, the plan sponsors choose to cancel the election entirely. Both plan sponsors come into compliance with the requirements of this part with respect to all enrollees for the plan year for which the substantial failure has occurred.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Election invalidated.</I> If CMS finds cause to invalidate an election under this section, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(1) CMS notifies the plan sponsor (and the plan administrator if other than the plan sponsor and the administrator's address is known to CMS) in writing that CMS has made a preliminary determination that an election is invalid, and States the basis for that determination.
</P>
<P>(2) CMS's notice informs the plan sponsor that it has 45 days after the date of CMS's notice to explain in writing why it believes its election is valid. The plan sponsor should provide applicable statutory and regulatory citations to support its position.
</P>
<P>(3) CMS verifies that the plan sponsor's response is timely filed as provided under paragraph (c)(3) of this section. CMS will not consider a response that is not timely filed.
</P>
<P>(4) If CMS's preliminary determination that an election is invalid remains unchanged after CMS considers the plan sponsor's timely response (or in the event that the plan sponsor fails to respond timely), CMS provides written notice to the plan sponsor (and the plan administrator if other than the plan sponsor and the administrator's address is known to CMS) of CMS's final determination that the election is invalid. Also, CMS informs the plan sponsor that, within 45 days of the date of the notice of final determination, the plan, subject to paragraph (i)(1)(iii) of this section, must comply with all requirements of this part for the specified period for which CMS has determined the election to be invalid.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Enforcement.</I> To the extent that an election under this section has not been filed or a non-Federal governmental plan otherwise is subject to one or more requirements of this part, CMS enforces those requirements under part 150 of this subchapter. This may include imposing a civil money penalty against the plan or plan sponsor, as determined under subpart C of part 150.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in this section should be construed to prevent a State from taking the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishing, and enforcing compliance with, the requirements of State law (as defined in § 146.143(d)(1)), including requirements that parallel provisions of title XXVII of the PHS Act, that apply to non-Federal governmental plans or sponsors.
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibiting a sponsor of a non-Federal governmental plan within the State from making an election under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30336, May 27, 2014, as amended at 89 FR 77751, Sept. 23, 2024]










</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="147" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 147—HEALTH INSURANCE REFORM REQUIREMENTS FOR THE GROUP AND INDIVIDUAL HEALTH INSURANCE MARKETS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 300gg through 300gg-63, 300gg-91, 300gg-92, and 300gg-111 through 300gg-139, as amended, and section 3203, Pub. L. 116-136, 134 Stat. 281.
</PSPACE>
<XREF ID="20261006" REFID="34">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 63862, Oct. 6, 2026.</XREF></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 27138, May 13, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 147.100" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.100   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Part 147 of this subchapter implements the requirements of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act that apply to group health plans and health insurance issuers in the Group and Individual markets.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.102" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.102   Fair health insurance premiums.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> With respect to the premium rate charged by a health insurance issuer in accordance with § 156.80 of this subchapter for health insurance coverage offered in the individual or small group market—
</P>
<P>(1) The rate may vary with respect to the particular plan or coverage involved only by determining the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the plan or coverage covers an individual or family.
</P>
<P>(ii) Rating area, as established in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (a), rating area is determined—
</P>
<P>(A) In the individual market, using the primary policyholder's address.
</P>
<P>(B) In the small group market, using the group policyholder's principal business address. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B), principal business address means the principal business address registered with the State or, if a principal business address is not registered with the State, or is registered solely for purposes of service of process and is not a substantial worksite for the policyholder's business, the business address within the State where the greatest number of employees of such policyholder works. If, for a network plan, the group policyholder's principal business address is not within the service area of such plan, and the policyholder has employees who live, reside, or work within the service area, the principal business address for purposes of the network plan is the business address within the plan's service area where the greatest number of employees work as of the beginning of the plan year. If there is no such business address, the rating area for purposes of the network plan is the rating area that reflects where the greatest number of employees within the plan's service area live or reside as of the beginning of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(iii) Age, except that the rate may not vary by more than 3:1 for like individuals of different age who are age 21 and older and that the variation in rate must be actuarially justified for individuals under age 21, consistent with the uniform age rating curve under paragraph (e) of this section. For purposes of identifying the appropriate age adjustment under this paragraph and the age band under paragraph (d) of this section applicable to a specific enrollee, the enrollee's age as of the date of policy issuance or renewal must be used.
</P>
<P>(iv) Subject to section 2705 of the Public Health Service Act and its implementing regulations (related to prohibiting discrimination based on health status and programs of health promotion or disease prevention) as applicable, tobacco use, except that such rate may not vary by more than 1.5:1 and may only be applied with respect to individuals who may legally use tobacco under federal and state law. For purposes of this section, tobacco use means use of tobacco on average four or more times per week within no longer than the past 6 months. This includes all tobacco products, except that tobacco use does not include religious or ceremonial use of tobacco. Further, tobacco use must be defined in terms of when a tobacco product was last used.
</P>
<P>(2) The rate must not vary with respect to the particular plan or coverage involved by any other factor not described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rating area.</I> (1) A state may establish one or more rating areas within that state, as provided in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section, for purposes of applying this section and the requirements of title XXVII the Public Health Service Act and title I of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(2) If a state does not establish rating areas as provided in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section or provide information on such rating areas in accordance with § 147.103, or CMS determines in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section that a state's rating areas under paragraph (b)(4) of this section are not adequate, the default will be one rating area for each metropolitan statistical area in the state and one rating area comprising all non-metropolitan statistical areas in the state, as defined by the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(3) A state's rating areas must be based on the following geographic boundaries: Counties, three-digit zip codes, or metropolitan statistical areas and non-metropolitan statistical areas, as defined by the Office of Management and Budget, and will be presumed adequate if either of the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) The state established by law, rule, regulation, bulletin, or other executive action uniform rating areas for the entire state as of January 1, 2013.
</P>
<P>(ii) The state establishes by law, rule, regulation, bulletin, or other executive action after January 1, 2013 uniform rating areas for the entire state that are no greater in number than the number of metropolitan statistical areas in the state plus one.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(3) of this section, a state may propose to CMS for approval a number of rating areas that is greater than the number described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, provided such rating areas are based on the geographic boundaries specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) In determining whether the rating areas established by each state under paragraph (b)(4) of this section are adequate, CMS will consider whether the state's rating areas are actuarially justified, are not unfairly discriminatory, reflect significant differences in health care unit costs, lead to stability in rates over time, apply uniformly to all issuers in a market, and are based on the geographic boundaries of counties, three-digit zip codes, or metropolitan statistical areas and non-metropolitan statistical areas.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of variations based on age or tobacco use.</I> With respect to family coverage under health insurance coverage, the rating variations permitted under paragraphs (a)(1)(iii) and (a)(1)(iv) of this section must be applied based on the portion of the premium attributable to each family member covered under the coverage.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Per-member rating.</I> The total premium for family coverage must be determined by summing the premiums for each individual family member. With respect to family members under the age of 21, the premiums for no more than the three oldest covered children must be taken into account in determining the total family premium.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Family tiers under community rating.</I> If a state does not permit any rating variation for the factors described in paragraphs (a)(1)(iii) and (a)(1)(iv) of this section, the state may require that premiums for family coverage be determined by using uniform family tiers and the corresponding multipliers established by the state. If a state does not establish uniform family tiers and the corresponding multipliers, the per-member-rating methodology under paragraph (c)(1) of this section will apply in that state.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application to small group market</I>—(i) In the case of the small group market, the total premium charged to a group health plan is determined by summing the premiums of covered participants and beneficiaries in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, nothing in this section prevents a state from requiring issuers to offer to a group health plan, or an issuer from voluntarily offering to a group health plan, premiums that are based on average enrollee premium amounts, provided that the total group premium established at the time of applicable enrollment at the beginning of the plan year is the same total amount derived in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Effective for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, an issuer that, in connection with a group health plan in the small group market, offers premiums that are based on average enrollee premium amounts under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section must—
</P>
<P>(A) Ensure an average enrollee premium amount calculated based on applicable enrollment of participants and beneficiaries at the beginning of the plan year does not vary during the plan year.
</P>
<P>(B) Unless a state establishes and CMS approves an alternate rating methodology, calculate an average enrollee premium amount for covered individuals age 21 and older, and calculate an average enrollee premium amount for covered individuals under age 21. The premium for a given family composition is determined by summing the average enrollee premium amount applicable to each family member covered under the plan, taking into account no more than three covered children under age 21.
</P>
<P>(C) Pursuant to applicable state law, ensure that the average enrollee premium amount calculated for any individual covered under the plan does not include any rating variation for tobacco use permitted under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section. The rating variation for tobacco use permitted under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section is determined based on the premium rate that would be applied on a per-member basis with respect to an individual who uses tobacco and then included in the premium charged for that individual.
</P>
<P>(D) To the extent permitted by applicable State law and, in the case of coverage offered through a SHOP, as permitted by the SHOP, apply this paragraph (c)(3)(iii) uniformly among group health plans enrolling in that product, giving those group health plans the option to pay premiums based on average enrollee premium amounts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Uniform age bands.</I> The following uniform age bands apply for rating purposes under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Child age bands.</I> (i) For plan years or policy years beginning before January 1, 2018, a single age band for individuals age 0 through 20.
</P>
<P>(ii) For plan years or policy years beginning on or after January 1, 2018:
</P>
<P>(A) A single age band for individuals age 0 through 14.
</P>
<P>(B) One-year age bands for individuals age 15 through 20.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adult age bands.</I> One-year age bands for individuals age 21 through 63.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Older adult age bands.</I> A single age band for individuals age 64 and older.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Uniform age rating curves.</I> Each State may establish a uniform age rating curve in the individual or small group market, or both markets, for rating purposes under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section. If a State does not establish a uniform age rating curve or provide information on such age curve in accordance with § 147.103, a default uniform age rating curve specified in guidance by the Secretary to reflect market patterns in the individual and small group markets will apply in that State that takes into account the rating variation permitted for age under State law.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Special rule for large group market.</I> If a state permits health insurance issuers that offer coverage in the large group market in the state to offer such coverage through an Exchange starting in 2017, the provisions of this section applicable to coverage in the small group market apply to all coverage offered in the large group market in the state.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Grandfathered health plans.</I> This section does not apply to grandfathered health plans in accordance with § 147.140.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13436, Feb. 27, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 54133, Aug. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13834, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 12334, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94173, Dec. 22, 2016; 83 FR 17058, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.103" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.103   State reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>2014.</I> If a state has adopted or intends to adopt for the 2014 plan or policy year a standard or requirement described in this paragraph, the state must submit to CMS information about such standard or requirement in a form and manner specified in guidance by the Secretary no later than March 29, 2013. A state standard or requirement is described in this paragraph if it includes any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A ratio narrower than 3:1 in connection with establishing rates for individuals who are age 21 and older, pursuant to § 147.102(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(2) A ratio narrower than 1.5:1 in connection with establishing rates for individuals who use tobacco legally, pursuant to § 147.102(a)(1)(iv).
</P>
<P>(3) Geographic rating areas, pursuant to § 147.102(b).
</P>
<P>(4) In states that do not permit rating based on age or tobacco use, uniform family tiers and corresponding multipliers, pursuant to § 147.102(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(5) A requirement that that issuers in the small group market offer to a group premiums that are based on average enrollee amounts, pursuant to paragraph § 147.102(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(6) A uniform age rating curve, pursuant to § 147.102(e).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Updates.</I> If a state adopts a standard or requirement described in paragraph (a) of this section for any plan or policy year beginning after the 2014 plan or policy year (or updates a standard or requirement that applies for the 2014 plan or policy year), the state must submit to CMS information about such standard in a form and manner specified in guidance by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply on March 29, 2013.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13437, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.104" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.104   Guaranteed availability of coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Guaranteed availability of coverage in the individual and group market.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a health insurance issuer that offers health insurance coverage in the individual, small group, or large group market in a State must offer to any individual or employer in the State all products that are approved for sale in the applicable market, and must accept any individual or employer that applies for any of those products.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enrollment periods.</I> A health insurance issuer may restrict enrollment in health insurance coverage to open or special enrollment periods.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Open enrollment periods</I>—(i) <I>Group market.</I> (A) Subject to paragraph (b)(1)(i)(B) of this section, a health insurance issuer in the group market must allow an employer to purchase health insurance coverage for a group health plan at any point during the year.
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a group health plan in the small group market that cannot comply with employer contribution or group participation rules for the offering of health insurance coverage, as allowed under applicable State law, and in the case of a QHP offered in the SHOP, as permitted by § 156.285(e) or § 156.286(e) of this subchapter, a health insurance issuer may restrict the availability of coverage to an annual enrollment period that begins November 15 and extends through December 15 of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to coverage in the small group market, and in the large group market if such coverage is offered through a SHOP in a State, for a group enrollment received on the first through the fifteenth day of any month, the coverage effective date must be no later than the first day of the following month. For a group enrollment received on the 16th through last day of any month, the coverage effective date must be no later than the first day of the second following month. In either such case, a small employer may instead opt for a later effective date within a quarter for which small group market rates are available.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Individual market.</I> A health insurance issuer in the individual market must allow an individual to purchase health insurance coverage during the initial and annual open enrollment periods described in § 155.410(b) and (e) of this subchapter. Coverage must become effective consistent with the dates described in § 155.410(c) and (f) of this subchapter.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limited open enrollment periods.</I> (i) A health insurance issuer in the individual market must provide a limited open enrollment period for the triggering events described in § 155.420(d) of this subchapter, excluding, with respect to coverage offered outside of an Exchange, the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 155.420(d)(3) of this subchapter (concerning Exchange eligibility standards);
</P>
<P>(B) Section 155.420(d)(6) of this subchapter (to the extent concerning eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit or change in eligibility for cost-sharing reductions other than ineligibility);
</P>
<P>(C) Section 155.420(d)(8) of this subchapter (concerning Indians);
</P>
<P>(D) Section 155.420(d)(9) of this subchapter (concerning exceptional circumstances);
</P>
<P>(E) Section 155.420(d)(12) of this subchapter (concerning plan and benefit display errors); and
</P>
<P>(F) Section 155.420(d)(13) of this subchapter (concerning eligibility for insurance affordability programs or enrollment in the Exchange).
</P>
<P>(ii) In applying this paragraph (b)(2), a reference in § 155.420 (other than in § 155.420(a)(5) and (d)(4)) of this subchapter to a “QHP” is deemed to refer to a plan, a reference to “the Exchange” is deemed to refer to the applicable State authority, and a reference to a “qualified individual” is deemed to refer to an individual in the individual market. For purposes of § 155.420(d)(4) of this subchapter, “the Exchange” is deemed to refer to the Exchange or the health plan, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in § 155.420(d) of this subchapter, § 155.420(a)(4) of this subchapter does not apply to limited open enrollment periods under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special enrollment periods.</I> A health insurance issuer in the group and individual market must establish special enrollment periods for qualifying events as defined under section 603 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended. These special enrollment periods are in addition to any other special enrollment periods that are required under federal and state law.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Length of enrollment periods.</I> (i) In the group market, enrollees must be provided 30 calendar days after the date of the qualifying event described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section to elect coverage.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the individual market, subject to § 155.420(c)(5) of this subchapter, individuals must be provided 60 calendar days after the date of an event described in paragraph (b)(2) and (3) of this section to elect coverage, as well as 60 calendar days before certain triggering events as provided for in § 155.420(c)(2) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effective date of coverage for limited open and special enrollment periods.</I> With respect to an election made under paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section, coverage must become effective consistent with the dates described in § 155.420(b) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rules for network plans.</I> (1) In the case of a health insurance issuer that offers health insurance coverage in the group and individual market through a network plan, the issuer may do the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Limit the employers that may apply for the coverage to those with eligible individuals in the group market who live, work, or reside in the service area for the network plan, and limit the individuals who may apply for the coverage in the individual market to those who live or reside in the service area for the network plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within the service area of the plan, deny coverage to employers and individuals if the issuer has demonstrated to the applicable state authority (if required by the state authority) the following:
</P>
<P>(A) It will not have the capacity to deliver services adequately to enrollees of any additional groups or any additional individuals because of its obligations to existing group contract holders and enrollees.
</P>
<P>(B) It is applying paragraph (c)(1) of this section uniformly to all employers and individuals without regard to the claims experience of those individuals, employers and their employees (and their dependents) or any health status-related factor relating to such individuals, employees, and dependents.
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer that denies health insurance coverage to an individual or an employer in any service area, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, may not offer coverage in the individual, small group, or large group market, as applicable, for a period of 180 calendar days after the date the coverage is denied. This paragraph (c)(2) does not limit the issuer's ability to renew coverage already in force or relieve the issuer of the responsibility to renew that coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) Coverage offered within a service area after the 180-day period specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application of financial capacity limits.</I> (1) A health insurance issuer may deny health insurance coverage in the group or individual market if the issuer has demonstrated to the applicable state authority (if required by the state authority) the following:
</P>
<P>(i) It does not have the financial reserves necessary to offer additional coverage.
</P>
<P>(ii) It is applying this paragraph (d)(1) uniformly to all employers or individual in the large group, small group, or individual market, as applicable, in the State consistent with applicable State law and without regard to the claims experience of those individuals, employers and their employees (and their dependents) or any health status-related factor relating to such individuals, employees, and dependents.
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer that denies health insurance coverage to any employer or individual in a state under paragraph (d)(1) of this section may not offer coverage in the large group, small group, or individual market, as applicable, in the State before the later of either of the following dates:
</P>
<P>(i) The 181st day after the date the issuer denies coverage.
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the issuer demonstrates to the applicable state authority, if required under applicable state law, that the issuer has sufficient financial reserves to underwrite additional coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (d)(2) of this section does not limit the issuer's ability to renew coverage already in force or relieve the issuer of the responsibility to renew that coverage.
</P>
<P>(4) Coverage offered after the 180-day period specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section is subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) An applicable state authority may provide for the application of this paragraph (d) on a service-area-specific basis.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Marketing.</I> A health insurance issuer and its officials, employees, agents and representatives must comply with any applicable State laws and regulations regarding marketing by health insurance issuers and cannot employ marketing practices or benefit designs that will have the effect of discouraging the enrollment of individuals with significant health needs in health insurance coverage or discriminate based on an individual's race, color, national origin, present or predicted disability, age, sex (which includes discrimination on the basis of sex characteristics, including intersex traits; pregnancy or related conditions; sexual orientation; gender identity; and sex stereotypes), expected length of life, degree of medical dependency, quality of life, or other health conditions.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calendar year plans.</I> An issuer that offers coverage in the individual market, or in a merged market in a State that has elected to merge the individual market and small group market risk pools in accordance with section 1312(c)(3) of the Affordable Care Act, must ensure that such coverage is offered on a calendar year basis with a policy year ending on December 31 of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Grandfathered health plans.</I> This section does not apply to grandfathered health plans in accordance with § 147.140.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Coverage denials for failure to pay premiums for prior coverage.</I> To the extent permitted by applicable State law, a health insurance issuer may deny coverage to an individual or employer due to the individual's or employer's failure to pay premiums owed under a prior policy, certificate, or contract of insurance offered by the issuer (or, if the issuer is a member of a controlled group (as defined in § 147.106(d)(4)), any other issuer that is member of such controlled group), including by attributing payment of premium for a new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance to the prior policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, provided the issuer applies its past-due premium payment policy uniformly to all individuals or employers in similar circumstances in the applicable market and State regardless of health status, and consistent with applicable nondiscrimination requirements, and does not condition the effectuation of new coverage on payment of past-due premiums by any individual other than the person contractually responsible for the payment of premium. The amount of the past-due premium an issuer may require for this purpose is subject to any premium payment threshold the issuer has adopted pursuant to § 155.400(g) of this subchapter. The Secretary may specify additional clarifications of acceptable parameters for coverage denials for failure to pay premiums for prior coverage in guidance.






</P>
<P>(j) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in this section should be construed to require an issuer to offer coverage otherwise prohibited under applicable Federal law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13437, Feb. 27, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 65092, Oct. 30, 2013; 78 FR 76217, Dec. 17, 2013; 79 FR 30339, May 27, 2014; 79 FR 59138, Oct. 1, 2014; 80 FR 10862, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 94173, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 18381, Apr. 18, 2017; 83 FR 17058, Apr. 17, 2018; 85 FR 37247, June 19, 2020; 86 FR 24285, May 5, 2021; 86 FR 53503, Sept. 27, 2021; 87 FR 27386, May 6, 2022; 89 FR 37703, May 6, 2024; 90 FR 27220, June 25, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.106" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.106   Guaranteed renewability of coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section, a health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual, small group, or large group market is required to renew or continue in force the coverage at the option of the plan sponsor or the individual, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> An issuer may nonrenew or discontinue health insurance coverage offered in the group or individual market based only on one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Nonpayment of premiums.</I> The plan sponsor or individual, as applicable, has failed to pay premiums or contributions in accordance with the terms of the health insurance coverage, including any timeliness requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fraud.</I> The plan sponsor or individual, as applicable, has performed an act or practice that constitutes fraud or made an intentional misrepresentation of material fact in connection with the coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Violation of participation or contribution rules.</I> In the case of group health insurance coverage, the plan sponsor has failed to comply with a material plan provision relating to employer contribution or group participation rules, pursuant to applicable state law. For purposes of this paragraph the following apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The term “employer contribution rule” means a requirement relating to the minimum level or amount of employer contribution toward the premium for enrollment of participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “group participation rule” means a requirement relating to the minimum number of participants or beneficiaries that must be enrolled in relation to a specified percentage or number of eligible individuals or employees of an employer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of product.</I> The issuer is ceasing to offer coverage in the market in accordance with paragraph (c) or (d) of this section and applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Enrollees' movement outside service area.</I> For network plans, there is no longer any enrollee under the plan who lives, resides, or works in the service area of the issuer (or in the area for which the issuer is authorized to do business); and in the case of the small group market, the issuer applies the same criteria it would apply in denying enrollment in the plan under § 147.104(c)(1)(i); provided the issuer provides notice in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Association membership ceases.</I> For coverage made available in the small or large group market only through one or more bona fide associations, if the employer's membership in the bona fide association ceases, but only if the coverage is terminated uniformly without regard to any health status-related factor relating to any covered individual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discontinuing a particular product.</I> In any case in which an issuer decides to discontinue offering a particular product offered in the group or individual market, that product may be discontinued by the issuer in accordance with applicable state law in the applicable market only if the following occurs:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuer provides notice in writing, in a form and manner specified by the Secretary, to each plan sponsor or individual, as applicable, provided that particular product in that market (and to all participants and beneficiaries covered under such coverage) of the discontinuation at least 90 calendar days before the date the coverage will be discontinued.
</P>
<P>(2) The issuer offers to each plan sponsor or individual, as applicable, provided that particular product the option, on a guaranteed availability basis, to purchase all (or, in the case of the large group market, any) other health insurance coverage currently being offered by the issuer to a group health plan or individual health insurance coverage in that market.
</P>
<P>(3) In exercising the option to discontinue that product and in offering the option of coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the issuer acts uniformly without regard to the claims experience of those sponsors or individuals, as applicable, or any health status-related factor relating to any participants or beneficiaries covered or new participants or beneficiaries who may become eligible for such coverage.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discontinuing all coverage.</I> (1) An issuer may elect to discontinue offering all health insurance coverage in the individual, small group, or large group market, or all markets, in a State in accordance with applicable State law only if—
</P>
<P>(i) The issuer provides notice in writing to the applicable state authority and to each plan sponsor or individual, as applicable, (and all participants and beneficiaries covered under the coverage) of the discontinuation at least 180 calendar days prior to the date the coverage will be discontinued; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All health insurance policies issued or delivered for issuance in the state in the applicable market (or markets) are discontinued and not renewed.
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer that elects to discontinue offering all health insurance coverage in a market (or markets) in a state as described in this paragraph (d) may not issue coverage in the applicable market (or markets) and state involved during the 5-year period beginning on the date of discontinuation of the last coverage not renewed.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this paragraph (d), subject to applicable State law, an issuer will not be considered to have discontinued offering all health insurance coverage in a market in a State if—
</P>
<P>(i) The issuer (in this paragraph referred to as the initial issuer) or, if the issuer is a member of a controlled group, any other issuer that is a member of such controlled group, offers and makes available in the applicable market in the State at least one product that is considered in accordance with § 144.103 of this subchapter to be the same product as a product the initial issuer had been offering in such market in such State; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) Offers and makes available at least one product (in paragraphs (d)(3)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section referred to as the new product) in the applicable market in the State, even if such product is not considered in accordance with § 144.103 of this subchapter to be the same product as a product the issuer had been offering in the applicable market in the State (in paragraphs (d)(3)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section referred to as the discontinued product);
</P>
<P>(B) Subjects such new product or products to the applicable process and requirements established under part 154 of this title as if such process and requirements applied with respect to that product or products, to the extent such process and requirements are otherwise applicable to coverage of the same type and in the same market; and
</P>
<P>(C) Reasonably identifies the discontinued product or products that correspond to the new product or products for purposes of the process and requirements applied pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this section, the term controlled group means a group of two or more persons that is treated as a single employer under sections 52(a), 52(b), 414(m), or 414(o) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, or a narrower group as may be provided by applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exception for uniform modification of coverage.</I> (1) Only at the time of coverage renewal may issuers modify the health insurance coverage for a product offered to a group health plan or an individual, as applicable, in the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Large group market.
</P>
<P>(ii) Small group market if, for coverage available in this market (other than only through one or more bona fide associations), the modification is consistent with State law and is effective uniformly among group health plans with that product.
</P>
<P>(iii) Individual market if the modification is consistent with State law and is effective uniformly for all individuals with that product.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, modifications made uniformly and solely pursuant to applicable Federal or State requirements are considered a uniform modification of coverage if:
</P>
<P>(i) The modification is made within a reasonable time period after the imposition or modification of the Federal or State requirement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The modification is directly related to the imposition or modification of the Federal or State requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) Other types of modifications made uniformly are considered a uniform modification of coverage if the health insurance coverage for the product in the individual or small group market meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The product is offered by the same health insurance issuer (within the meaning of section 2791(b)(2) of the PHS Act), or if the issuer is a member of a controlled group (as described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section), any other health insurance issuer that is a member of such controlled group);
</P>
<P>(ii) The product is offered as the same product network type (for example, health maintenance organization, preferred provider organization, exclusive provider organization, point of service, or indemnity);
</P>
<P>(iii) The product continues to cover at least a majority of the same service area;
</P>
<P>(iv) Within the product, each plan has the same cost-sharing structure as before the modification, except for any variation in cost sharing solely related to changes in cost and utilization of medical care, or to maintain the same metal tier level described in sections 1302(d) and (e) of the Affordable Care Act; and
</P>
<P>(v) The product provides the same covered benefits, except for any changes in benefits that cumulatively impact the plan-adjusted index rate (as described in § 156.80(d)(2) of this subchapter) for any plan within the product within an allowable variation of ±2 percentage points (not including changes pursuant to applicable Federal or State requirements).
</P>
<P>(4) A State may only broaden the standards in paragraphs (e)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of renewal of coverage.</I> (1) If an issuer in the individual market is renewing non-grandfathered coverage as described in paragraph (a) of this section, or uniformly modifying non-grandfathered coverage as described in paragraph (e) of this section, the issuer must provide to each individual written notice of the renewal before the date of the first day of the next annual open enrollment period in a form and manner specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) If an issuer in the small group market is renewing coverage as described in paragraph (a) of this section, or uniformly modifying coverage as described in paragraph (e) of this section, the issuer must provide to each plan sponsor written notice of the renewal at least 60 calendar days before the date of the coverage will be renewed in a form and manner specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notification of change of ownership.</I> If an issuer of a QHP, a plan otherwise subject to risk corridors, a risk adjustment covered plan, or a reinsurance-eligible plan experiences a change of ownership, as recognized by the State in which the plan is offered, the issuer must notify HHS in a manner specified by HHS, by the latest of—
</P>
<P>(1) The date the transaction is entered into; or
</P>
<P>(2) The 30th day prior to the effective date of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Construction.</I> (1) Nothing in this section should be construed to require an issuer to renew or continue in force coverage for which continued eligibility would otherwise be prohibited under applicable Federal law.
</P>
<P>(2) Medicare entitlement or enrollment is not a basis to nonrenew an individual's health insurance coverage in the individual market under the same policy or contract of insurance.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Application to coverage offered only through associations.</I> In the case of health insurance coverage that is made available by a health insurance issuer in the small or large group market to employers only through one or more associations, the reference to “plan sponsor” is deemed, with respect to coverage provided to an employer member of the association, to include a reference to the employer.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Grandfathered health plans.</I> This section does not apply to grandfathered health plans in accordance with § 147.140.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13437, Feb. 27, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 65092, Oct. 30, 2013; 79 FR 30339, May 27, 2014; 79 FR 42985, July 24, 2014; 79 FR 53004, Sept. 5, 2014; 80 FR 10862, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 94173, Dec. 22, 2016; 84 FR 17561, Apr. 25, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.108" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.108   Prohibition of preexisting condition exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, may not impose any preexisting condition exclusion (as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraph (a) of this section are illustrated by the following examples (for additional examples illustrating the definition of a preexisting condition exclusion, <I>see</I> § 146.111(a)(2) of this subchapter):
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides benefits solely through an insurance policy offered by Issuer <I>P.</I> At the expiration of the policy, the plan switches coverage to a policy offered by Issuer <I>N. N'</I>s policy excludes benefits for oral surgery required as a result of a traumatic injury if the injury occurred before the effective date of coverage under the policy.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the exclusion of benefits for oral surgery required as a result of a traumatic injury if the injury occurred before the effective date of coverage is a preexisting condition exclusion because it operates to exclude benefits for a condition based on the fact that the condition was present before the effective date of coverage under the policy. Therefore, such an exclusion is prohibited.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>C</I> applies for individual health insurance coverage with Issuer <I>M. M</I> denies <I>C'</I>s application for coverage because a pre-enrollment physical revealed that <I>C</I> has type 2 diabetes.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion. See</I> <I>Example 2</I> in § 146.111(a)(2) of this subchapter for a conclusion that <I>M'</I>s denial of <I>C'</I>s application for coverage is a preexisting condition exclusion because a denial of an application for coverage based on the fact that a condition was present before the date of denial is an exclusion of benefits based on a preexisting condition.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Allowable screenings to determine eligibility for alternative coverage in the individual market</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) A health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage may screen applicants for eligibility for alternative coverage options before offering a child-only policy if—
</P>
<P>(A) The practice is permitted under State law;
</P>
<P>(B) The screening applies to all child-only applicants, regardless of health status; and
</P>
<P>(C) The alternative coverage options include options for which healthy children would potentially be eligible (<I>e.g.,</I> Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP) or group health insurance).
</P>
<P>(ii) An issuer must provide such coverage to an applicant effective on the first date that a child-only policy would have been effective had the applicant not been screened for an alternative coverage option, as provided by State law. A State may impose a reasonable time limit by when an issuer would have to enroll a child regardless of pending applications for other coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restrictions.</I> A health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage may screen applicants for eligibility for alternative coverage provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The screening process does not by its operation significantly delay enrollment or artificially engineer eligibility of a child for a program targeted to individuals with a pre-existing condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) The screening process is not applied to offers of dependent coverage for children; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuer does not consider whether an applicant is eligible for, or is provided medical assistance under, Medicaid in making enrollment decisions, as provided under 42 U.S.C. 1396a (25)(G).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2017. Until the applicability date for this regulation, plans and issuers are required to continue to comply with the corresponding sections of 45 CFR parts 144, 146 and 147, contained in the 45 CFR, parts 1 to 199, edition revised as of October 1, 2015.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72274, Nov. 18, 2015]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 80 FR 72284, Nov. 18, 2015, § 147.108 was revised to include two paragraphs (c)(2)(ii).</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.110" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.110   Prohibiting discrimination against participants, beneficiaries, and individuals based on a health factor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage must comply with all the requirements under 45 CFR 146.121 applicable to a group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage. Accordingly, with respect to an issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market, the issuer is subject to the requirements of § 146.121 to the same extent as an issuer offering group health insurance coverage, except the exception contained in § 146.121(f) (concerning nondiscriminatory wellness programs) does not apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section is applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group or individual health insurance coverage for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2014. See § 147.140, which provides that the rules of this section do not apply to grandfathered health plans that are individual health insurance coverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 33192, June 3, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.116" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.116   Prohibition on waiting periods that exceed 90 days.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, must not apply any waiting period that exceeds 90 days, in accordance with the rules of this section. If, under the terms of a plan, an individual can elect coverage that would begin on a date that is not later than the end of the 90-day waiting period, this paragraph (a) is considered satisfied. Accordingly, in that case, a plan or issuer will not be considered to have violated this paragraph (a) solely because individuals take, or are permitted to take, additional time (beyond the end of the 90-day waiting period) to elect coverage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiting period defined.</I> For purposes of this part, a waiting period is the period that must pass before coverage for an individual who is otherwise eligible to enroll under the terms of a group health plan can become effective. If an individual enrolls as a late enrollee (as defined under § 144.103 of this subchapter) or special enrollee (as described in § 146.117 of this subchapter), any period before such late or special enrollment is not a waiting period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relation to a plan's eligibility criteria</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section, being otherwise eligible to enroll under the terms of a group health plan means having met the plan's substantive eligibility conditions (such as, for example, being in an eligible job classification, achieving job-related licensure requirements specified in the plan's terms, or satisfying a reasonable and bona fide employment-based orientation period). Moreover, except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section, nothing in this section requires a plan sponsor to offer coverage to any particular individual or class of individuals (including, for example, part-time employees). Instead, this section prohibits requiring otherwise eligible individuals to wait more than 90 days before coverage is effective. <I>See also</I> section 4980H of the Code and its implementing regulations for an applicable large employer's shared responsibility to provide health coverage to full-time employees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility conditions based solely on the lapse of time.</I> Eligibility conditions that are based solely on the lapse of a time period are permissible for no more than 90 days.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other conditions for eligibility.</I> Other conditions for eligibility under the terms of a group health plan are generally permissible under PHS Act section 2708, unless the condition is designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation, determined in accordance with the rules of this paragraph (c)(3).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Application to variable-hour employees in cases in which a specified number of hours of service per period is a plan eligibility condition.</I> If a group health plan conditions eligibility on an employee regularly having a specified number of hours of service per period (or working full-time), and it cannot be determined that a newly-hired employee is reasonably expected to regularly work that number of hours per period (or work full-time), the plan may take a reasonable period of time, not to exceed 12 months and beginning on any date between the employee's start date and the first day of the first calendar month following the employee's start date, to determine whether the employee meets the plan's eligibility condition. Except in cases in which a waiting period that exceeds 90 days is imposed in addition to a measurement period, the time period for determining whether such an employee meets the plan's eligibility condition will not be considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation if coverage is made effective no later than 13 months from the employee's start date plus, if the employee's start date is not the first day of a calendar month, the time remaining until the first day of the next calendar month.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cumulative service requirements.</I> If a group health plan or health insurance issuer conditions eligibility on an employee's having completed a number of cumulative hours of service, the eligibility condition is not considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation if the cumulative hours-of-service requirement does not exceed 1,200 hours.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitation on orientation periods.</I> To ensure that an orientation period is not used as a subterfuge for the passage of time, or designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation, an orientation period is permitted only if it does not exceed one month. For this purpose, one month is determined by adding one calendar month and subtracting one calendar day, measured from an employee's start date in a position that is otherwise eligible for coverage. For example, if an employee's start date in an otherwise eligible position is May 3, the last permitted day of the orientation period is June 2. Similarly, if an employee's start date in an otherwise eligible position is October 1, the last permitted day of the orientation period is October 31. If there is not a corresponding date in the next calendar month upon adding a calendar month, the last permitted day of the orientation period is the last day of the next calendar month. For example, if the employee's start date is January 30, the last permitted day of the orientation period is February 28 (or February 29 in a leap year). Similarly, if the employee's start date is August 31, the last permitted day of the orientation period is September 30.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application to rehires.</I> A plan or issuer may treat an employee whose employment has terminated and who then is rehired as newly eligible upon rehire and, therefore, required to meet the plan's eligibility criteria and waiting period anew, if reasonable under the circumstances (for example, the termination and rehire cannot be a subterfuge to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counting days.</I> Under this section, all calendar days are counted beginning on the enrollment date (as defined in § 144.103), including weekends and holidays. A plan or issuer that imposes a 90-day waiting period may, for administrative convenience, choose to permit coverage to become effective earlier than the 91st day if the 91st day is a weekend or holiday.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides that full-time employees are eligible for coverage under the plan. Employee <I>A</I> begins employment as a full-time employee on January 19.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> any waiting period for <I>A</I> would begin on January 19 and may not exceed 90 days. Coverage under the plan must become effective no later than April 19 (assuming February lasts 28 days).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides that only employees with job title <I>M</I> are eligible for coverage under the plan. Employee <I>B</I> begins employment with job title <I>L</I> on January 30.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2, B</I> is not eligible for coverage under the plan, and the period while <I>B</I> is working with job title <I>L</I> and therefore not in an eligible class of employees, is not part of a waiting period under this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as in <I>Example 2,</I> except that <I>B</I> transfers to a new position with job title <I>M</I> on April 11.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3, B</I> becomes eligible for coverage on April 11, but for the waiting period. Any waiting period for <I>B</I> begins on April 11 and may not exceed 90 days; therefore, coverage under the plan must become effective no later than July 10.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides that only employees who have completed specified training and achieved specified certifications are eligible for coverage under the plan. Employee <I>C</I> is hired on May 3 and meets the plan's eligibility criteria on September 22.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4, C</I> becomes eligible for coverage on September 22, but for the waiting period. Any waiting period for <I>C</I> would begin on September 22 and may not exceed 90 days; therefore, coverage under the plan must become effective no later than December 21.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides that employees are eligible for coverage after one year of service.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the plan's eligibility condition is based solely on the lapse of time and, therefore, is impermissible under paragraph (c)(2) of this section because it exceeds 90 days.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Employer <I>V</I>'s group health plan provides for coverage to begin on the first day of the first payroll period on or after the date an employee is hired and completes the applicable enrollment forms. Enrollment forms are distributed on an employee's start date and may be completed within 90 days. Employee <I>D</I> is hired and starts on October 31, which is the first day of a pay period. <I>D</I> completes the enrollment forms and submits them on the 90th day after <I>D</I>'s start date, which is January 28. Coverage is made effective 7 days later, February 4, which is the first day of the next pay period.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> under the terms of <I>V</I>'s plan, coverage may become effective as early as October 31, depending on when <I>D</I> completes the applicable enrollment forms. Under the terms of the plan, when coverage becomes effective depends solely on the length of time taken by <I>D</I> to complete the enrollment materials. Therefore, under the terms of the plan, <I>D</I> may elect coverage that would begin on a date that does not exceed the 90-day waiting period limitation, and the plan complies with this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Under Employer <I>W</I>'s group health plan, only employees who are full-time (defined under the plan as regularly averaging 30 hours of service per week) are eligible for coverage. Employee <I>E</I> begins employment for Employer <I>W</I> on November 26 of Year 1. <I>E</I>'s hours are reasonably expected to vary, with an opportunity to work between 20 and 45 hours per week, depending on shift availability and <I>E</I>'s availability. Therefore, it cannot be determined at <I>E</I>'s start date that <I>E</I> is reasonably expected to work full-time. Under the terms of the plan, variable-hour employees, such as <I>E</I>, are eligible to enroll in the plan if they are determined to be a full-time employee after a measurement period of 12 months that begins on the employee's start date. Coverage is made effective no later than the first day of the first calendar month after the applicable enrollment forms are received. <I>E</I>'s 12-month measurement period ends November 25 of Year 2. <I>E</I> is determined to be a full-time employee and is notified of <I>E</I>'s plan eligibility. If <I>E</I> then elects coverage, <I>E</I>'s first day of coverage will be January 1 of Year 3.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> the measurement period is permissible because it is not considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation. The plan may use a reasonable period of time to determine whether a variable-hour employee is a full-time employee, provided that (a) the period of time is no longer than 12 months; (b) the period of time begins on a date between the employee's start date and the first day of the next calendar month (inclusive); (c) coverage is made effective no later than 13 months from <I>E</I>'s start date plus, if the employee's start date is not the first day of a calendar month, the time remaining until the first day of the next calendar month; and (d) in addition to the measurement period, no more than 90 days elapse prior to the employee's eligibility for coverage.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Employee <I>F</I> begins working 25 hours per week for Employer <I>X</I> on January 6 and is considered a part-time employee for purposes of <I>X</I>'s group health plan. <I>X</I> sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage to part-time employees after they have completed a cumulative 1,200 hours of service. <I>F</I> satisfies the plan's cumulative hours of service condition on December 15.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8,</I> the cumulative hours of service condition with respect to part-time employees is not considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation. Accordingly, coverage for <I>F</I> under the plan must begin no later than the 91st day after <I>F</I> completes 1,200 hours. (If the plan's cumulative hours-of-service requirement was more than 1,200 hours, the requirement would be considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 9.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A multiemployer plan operating pursuant to an arms-length collective bargaining agreement has an eligibility provision that allows employees to become eligible for coverage by working a specified number of hours of covered employment for multiple contributing employers. The plan aggregates hours in a calendar quarter and then, if enough hours are earned, coverage begins the first day of the next calendar quarter. The plan also permits coverage to extend for the next full calendar quarter, regardless of whether an employee's employment has terminated.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 9,</I> these eligibility provisions are designed to accommodate a unique operating structure, and, therefore, are not considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation, and the plan complies with this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 10.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Employee <I>G</I> retires at age 55 after 30 years of employment with Employer <I>Y</I> with no expectation of providing further services to Employer <I>Y.</I> Three months later, <I>Y</I> recruits <I>G</I> to return to work as an employee providing advice and transition assistance for <I>G</I>'s replacement under a one-year employment contract. <I>Y</I>'s plan imposes a 90-day waiting period from an employee's start date before coverage becomes effective.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 10, Y</I>'s plan may treat <I>G</I> as newly eligible for coverage under the plan upon rehire and therefore may impose the 90-day waiting period with respect to <I>G</I> for coverage offered in connection with <I>G</I>'s rehire.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 11.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Employee <I>H</I> begins working full time for Employer <I>Z</I> on October 16. <I>Z</I> sponsors a group health plan, under which full time employees are eligible for coverage after they have successfully completed a bona fide one-month orientation period. <I>H</I> completes the orientation period on November 15.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 11,</I> the orientation period is not considered a subterfuge for the passage of time and is not considered to be designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation. Accordingly, plan coverage for <I>H</I> must begin no later than February 14, which is the 91st day after <I>H</I> completes the orientation period. (If the orientation period was longer than one month, it would be considered to be a subterfuge for the passage of time and designed to avoid compliance with the 90-day waiting period limitation. Accordingly it would violate the rules of this section.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(g) <I>Special rule for health insurance issuers.</I> To the extent coverage under a group health plan is insured by a health insurance issuer, the issuer is permitted to rely on the eligibility information reported to it by the employer (or other plan sponsor) and will not be considered to violate the requirements of this section with respect to its administration of any waiting period, if both of the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuer requires the plan sponsor to make a representation regarding the terms of any eligibility conditions or waiting periods imposed by the plan sponsor before an individual is eligible to become covered under the terms of the plan (and requires the plan sponsor to update this representation with any changes), and
</P>
<P>(2) The issuer has no specific knowledge of the imposition of a waiting period that would exceed the permitted 90-day period.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>No effect on other laws.</I> Compliance with this section is not determinative of compliance with any other provision of State or Federal law (including ERISA, the Code, or other provisions of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act). <I>See e.g.,</I> § 146.121 of this subchapter and § 147.110, which prohibits discrimination in eligibility for coverage based on a health factor and Code section 4980H, which generally requires applicable large employers to offer coverage to full-time employees and their dependents or make an assessable payment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015. <I>See</I> § 147.140 providing that the prohibition on waiting periods exceeding 90 days applies to all group health plans and group health insurance issuers, including grandfathered health plans.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 10315, Feb. 24, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 35948, June 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.120" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.120   Eligibility of children until at least age 26.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>. (1) A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, that makes available dependent coverage of children must make such coverage available for children until attainment of 26 years of age.
</P>
<P>(2) The rule of this paragraph (a) is illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> For the plan year beginning January 1, 2011, a group health plan provides health coverage for employees, employees' spouses, and employees' children until the child turns 26. On the birthday of a child of an employee, July 17, 2011, the child turns 26. The last day the plan covers the child is July 16, 2011.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the plan satisfies the requirement of this paragraph (a) with respect to the child.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions on plan definition of dependent</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> With respect to a child who has not attained age 26, a plan or issuer may not define dependent for purposes of eligibility for dependent coverage of children other than in terms of a relationship between a child and the participant (in the individual market, the primary subscriber). Thus, for example, a plan or issuer may not deny or restrict dependent coverage for a child who has not attained age 26 based on the presence or absence of the child's financial dependency (upon the participant or primary subscriber, or any other person); residency with the participant (in the individual market, the primary subscriber) or with any other person; whether the child lives, works, or resides in an HMO's service area or other network service area; marital status; student status; employment; eligibility for other coverage; or any combination of those factors. (Other requirements of Federal or State law, including section 609 of ERISA or section 1908 of the Social Security Act, may require coverage of certain children.)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Construction.</I> A plan or issuer will not fail to satisfy the requirements of this section if the plan or issuer limits dependent child coverage to children under age 26 who are described in section 152(f)(1) of the Code. For an individual not described in Code section 152(f)(1), such as a grandchild or niece, a plan may impose additional conditions on eligibility for dependent child health coverage, such as a condition that the individual be a dependent for income tax purposes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage of grandchildren not required.</I> Nothing in this section requires a plan or issuer to make coverage available for the child of a child receiving dependent coverage.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Uniformity irrespective of age.</I> The terms of the plan or health insurance coverage providing dependent coverage of children cannot vary based on age (except for children who are age 26 or older).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraph (d) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers a choice of self-only or family health coverage. Dependent coverage is provided under family health coverage for children of participants who have not attained age 26. The plan imposes an additional premium surcharge for children who are older than age 18.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan violates the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section because the plan varies the terms for dependent coverage of children based on age.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers a choice among the following tiers of health coverage: self-only, self-plus-one, self-plus-two, and self-plus-three-or-more. The cost of coverage increases based on the number of covered individuals. The plan provides dependent coverage of children who have not attained age 26.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan does not violate the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section that the terms of dependent coverage for children not vary based on age. Although the cost of coverage increases for tiers with more covered individuals, the increase applies without regard to the age of any child.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers two benefit packages—an HMO option and an indemnity option. Dependent coverage is provided for children of participants who have not attained age 26. The plan limits children who are older than age 18 to the HMO option.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the plan violates the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section because the plan, by limiting children who are older than age 18 to the HMO option, varies the terms for dependent coverage of children based on age.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan sponsored by a large employer normally charges a copayment for physician visits that do not constitute preventive services. The plan charges this copayment to individuals age 19 and over, including employees, spouses, and dependent children, but waives it for those under age 19.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the plan does not violate the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section that the terms of dependent coverage for children not vary based on age. While the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section generally prohibits distinctions based upon age in dependent coverage of children, it does not prohibit distinctions based upon age that apply to all coverage under the plan, including coverage for employees and spouses as well as dependent children. In this <I>Example 4,</I> the copayments charged to dependent children are the same as those charged to employees and spouses. Accordingly, the arrangement described in this <I>Example 4</I> (including waiver, for individuals under age 19, of the generally applicable copayment) does not violate the requirement of paragraph (d) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2017. Until the applicability date for this regulation, plans and issuers are required to continue to comply with the corresponding sections of 45 CFR parts 144, 146 and 147, contained in the 45 CFR, parts 1 to 199, edition revised as of October 1, 2015.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72275, Nov. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.126" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.126   No lifetime or annual limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition</I>—(1) <I>Lifetime limits.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, may not establish any lifetime limit on the dollar amount of essential health benefits for any individual, whether provided in-network or out-of-network.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual limits</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (b) of this section, a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, may not establish any annual limit on the dollar amount of essential health benefits for any individual, whether provided in-network or out-of-network.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception for health flexible spending arrangements.</I> A health flexible spending arrangement (as defined in section 106(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code) offered through a cafeteria plan pursuant to section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code is not subject to the requirement in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Construction</I>—(1) <I>Permissible limits on specific covered benefits.</I> The rules of this section do not prevent a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, from placing annual or lifetime dollar limits with respect to any individual on specific covered benefits that are not essential health benefits to the extent that such limits are otherwise permitted under applicable Federal or State law. (The scope of essential health benefits is addressed in paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Condition-based exclusions.</I> The rules of this section do not prevent a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, from excluding all benefits for a condition. However, if any benefits are provided for a condition, then the requirements of this section apply. Other requirements of Federal or State law may require coverage of certain benefits.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of essential health benefits.</I> The term “essential health benefits” means essential health benefits under section 1302(b) of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act and applicable regulations. For the purpose of this section, a group health plan or a health insurance issuer that is not required to provide essential health benefits under section 1302(b) must define “essential health benefits” in a manner that is consistent with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2020, one of the EHB-benchmark plans applicable in a State under § 156.110 of this subchapter, and including coverage of any additional required benefits that are considered essential health benefits consistent with § 155.170(a)(2) of this subchapter, or one of the three Federal Employees Health Benefits Program (FEHBP) plan options as defined by § 156.100(a)(3) of this subchapter, supplemented as necessary, to satisfy the standards in § 156.110 of this subchapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2020, an EHB-benchmark plan selected by a State in accordance with the available options and requirements for EHB-benchmark plan selection at § 156.111 of this subchapter, including an EHB-benchmark plan in a State that takes no action to change its EHB-benchmark plan and thus retains the EHB-benchmark plan applicable in that State for the prior year in accordance with § 156.111(d)(1) of this subchapter, and including coverage of any additional required benefits that are considered essential health benefits consistent with § 155.170(a)(2) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Health reimbursement arrangements (HRAs) and other account-based group health plans</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If an HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan or individual health insurance coverage and the other group health plan or individual health insurance coverage, as applicable, separately is subject to and satisfies the requirements in PHS Act section 2711 and paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the fact that the benefits under the HRA or other account-based group health plan are limited does not cause the HRA or other account-based group health plan to fail to satisfy the requirements of PHS Act section 2711 and paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Similarly, if an HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan or individual health insurance coverage and the other group health plan or individual health insurance coverage, as applicable, separately is subject to and satisfies the requirements in PHS Act section 2713 and § 147.130(a)(1) of this subchapter, the fact that the benefits under the HRA or other account-based group health plan are limited does not cause the HRA or other account-based group health plan to fail to satisfy the requirements of PHS Act section 2713 and § 147.130(a)(1) of this subchapter. For the purpose of this paragraph (d), all individual health insurance coverage, except for coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits, is treated as being subject to and complying with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements for an HRA or other account-based group health plan to be integrated with another group health plan.</I> An HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan for purposes of PHS Act section 2711 and paragraph (a)(2) of this section if it satisfies the requirements under one of the integration methods set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section. For purposes of the integration methods under which an HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan, integration does not require that the HRA or other account-based group health plan and the other group health plan with which it is integrated share the same plan sponsor, the same plan document or governing instruments, or file a single Form 5500, if applicable. An HRA or other account-based group health plan integrated with another group health plan for purposes of PHS Act section 2711 and paragraph (a)(2) of this section may not be used to purchase individual health insurance coverage unless that coverage consists solely of excepted benefits, as defined in § 148.220 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Method for integration with a group health plan: Minimum value not required.</I> An HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan for purposes of this paragraph (d) if:
</P>
<P>(A) The plan sponsor offers a group health plan (other than the HRA or other account-based group health plan) to the employee that does not consist solely of excepted benefits;
</P>
<P>(B) The employee receiving the HRA or other account-based group health plan is actually enrolled in a group health plan (other than the HRA or other account-based group health plan) that does not consist solely of excepted benefits, regardless of whether the plan is offered by the same plan sponsor (referred to as non-HRA group coverage);
</P>
<P>(C) The HRA or other account-based group health plan is available only to employees who are enrolled in non-HRA group coverage, regardless of whether the non-HRA group coverage is offered by the plan sponsor of the HRA or other account-based group health plan (for example, the HRA may be offered only to employees who do not enroll in an employer's group health plan but are enrolled in other non-HRA group coverage, such as a group health plan maintained by the employer of the employee's spouse);
</P>
<P>(D) The benefits under the HRA or other account-based group health plan are limited to reimbursement of one or more of the following—co-payments, co-insurance, deductibles, and premiums under the non-HRA group coverage, as well as medical care expenses that do not constitute essential health benefits as defined in paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Under the terms of the HRA or other account-based group health plan, an employee (or former employee) is permitted to permanently opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA or other account-based group health plan at least annually and, upon termination of employment, either the remaining amounts in the HRA or other account-based group health plan are forfeited or the employee is permitted to permanently opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA or other account-based group health plan (see paragraph (d)(3) of this section for additional rules regarding forfeiture and waiver).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Method for integration with another group health plan: Minimum value required.</I> An HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with another group health plan for purposes of this paragraph (d) if:
</P>
<P>(A) The plan sponsor offers a group health plan (other than the HRA or other account-based group health plan) to the employee that provides minimum value pursuant to section 36B(c)(2)(C)(ii) of the Code (and its implementing regulations and applicable guidance);
</P>
<P>(B) The employee receiving the HRA or other account-based group health plan is actually enrolled in a group health plan (other than the HRA or other account-based group health plan) that provides minimum value pursuant to section 36B(c)(2)(C)(ii) of the Code (and applicable guidance), regardless of whether the plan is offered by the plan sponsor of the HRA or other account-based group health plan (referred to as non-HRA MV group coverage);
</P>
<P>(C) The HRA or other account-based group health plan is available only to employees who are actually enrolled in non-HRA MV group coverage, regardless of whether the non-HRA MV group coverage is offered by the plan sponsor of the HRA or other account-based group health plan (for example, the HRA may be offered only to employees who do not enroll in an employer's group health plan but are enrolled in other non-HRA MV group coverage, such as a group health plan maintained by an employer of the employee's spouse); and
</P>
<P>(D) Under the terms of the HRA or other account-based group health plan, an employee (or former employee) is permitted to permanently opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA or other account-based group health plan at least annually, and, upon termination of employment, either the remaining amounts in the HRA or other account-based group health plan are forfeited or the employee is permitted to permanently opt out of and waive future reimbursements from the HRA or other account-based group health plan (see paragraph (d)(3) of this section for additional rules regarding forfeiture and waiver).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Forfeiture.</I> For purposes of integration under paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(E) and (d)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, forfeiture or waiver occurs even if the forfeited or waived amounts may be reinstated upon a fixed date, a participant's death, or the earlier of the two events (the reinstatement event). For the purpose of this paragraph (d)(3), coverage under an HRA or other account-based group health plan is considered forfeited or waived prior to a reinstatement event only if the participant's election to forfeit or waive is irrevocable, meaning that, beginning on the effective date of the election and through the date of the reinstatement event, the participant and the participant's beneficiaries have no access to amounts credited to the HRA or other account-based group health plan. This means that upon and after reinstatement, the reinstated amounts under the HRA or other account-based group health plan may not be used to reimburse or pay medical care expenses incurred during the period after forfeiture and prior to reinstatement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requirements for an HRA or other account-based group health plan to be integrated with individual health insurance coverage or Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C.</I> An HRA or other account-based group health plan is integrated with individual health insurance coverage or Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C (and treated as complying with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713) if the HRA or other account-based group health plan satisfies the requirements of § 146.123(c) of this subchapter (as modified by § 146.123(e), for HRAs or other account-based group health plans integrated with Medicare Part A and B or Medicare Part C).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Integration with Medicare Part B and D.</I> For employers that are not required to offer their non-HRA group health plan coverage to employees who are Medicare beneficiaries, an HRA or other account-based group health plan that may be used to reimburse premiums under Medicare Part B or D may be integrated with Medicare (and deemed to comply with PHS Act sections 2711 and 2713) if the following requirements are satisfied with respect to employees who would be eligible for the employer's non-HRA group health plan but for their eligibility for Medicare (and the integration rules under paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section continue to apply to employees who are not eligible for Medicare):
</P>
<P>(i) The plan sponsor offers a group health plan (other than the HRA or other account-based group health plan and that does not consist solely of excepted benefits) to employees who are not eligible for Medicare;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee receiving the HRA or other account-based group health plan is actually enrolled in Medicare Part B or D;
</P>
<P>(iii) The HRA or other account-based group health plan is available only to employees who are enrolled in Medicare Part B or D; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The HRA or other account-based group health plan complies with paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(E) and (d)(2)(ii)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Account-based group health plan.</I> An account-based group health plan is an employer-provided group health plan that provides reimbursements of medical care expenses with the reimbursement subject to a maximum fixed dollar amount for a period. An HRA is a type of account-based group health plan. An account-based group health plan does not include a qualified small employer health reimbursement arrangement, as defined in section 9831(d)(2) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Medical care expenses.</I> Medical care expenses means expenses for medical care as defined under section 213(d) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2020. Until the applicability date for this section, plans and issuers are required to continue to comply with the corresponding sections of this subchapter B, contained in the 45 CFR, subtitle A, parts 1-199, revised as of October 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72276, Nov. 18, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 75326, Oct. 31, 2016; 84 FR 29025, June 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.128" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.128   Rules regarding rescissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition on rescissions</I>—(1) A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, must not rescind coverage under the plan, or under the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, with respect to an individual (including a group to which the individual belongs or family coverage in which the individual is included) once the individual is covered under the plan or coverage, unless the individual (or a person seeking coverage on behalf of the individual) performs an act, practice, or omission that constitutes fraud, or makes an intentional misrepresentation of material fact, as prohibited by the terms of the plan or coverage. A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, must provide at least 30 days advance written notice to each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) who would be affected before coverage may be rescinded under this paragraph (a)(1), regardless of, in the case of group coverage, whether the coverage is insured or self-insured, or whether the rescission applies to an entire group or only to an individual within the group. (The rules of this paragraph (a)(1) apply regardless of any contestability period that may otherwise apply.)
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a rescission is a cancellation or discontinuance of coverage that has retroactive effect. For example, a cancellation that treats a policy as void from the time of the individual's or group's enrollment is a rescission. As another example, a cancellation that voids benefits paid up to a year before the cancellation is also a rescission for this purpose. A cancellation or discontinuance of coverage is not a rescission if —
</P>
<P>(i) The cancellation or discontinuance of coverage has only a prospective effect;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cancellation or discontinuance of coverage is effective retroactively, to the extent it is attributable to a failure to timely pay required premiums or contributions (including COBRA premiums) towards the cost of coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) The cancellation or discontinuance of coverage is initiated by the individual (or by the individual's authorized representative) and the sponsor, employer, plan, or issuer does not, directly or indirectly, take action to influence the individual's decision to cancel or discontinue coverage retroactively or otherwise take any adverse action or retaliate against, interfere with, coerce, intimidate, or threaten the individual; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The cancellation or discontinuance of coverage is initiated by the Exchange pursuant to § 155.430 of this subchapter (other than under paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(3) The rules of this paragraph (a) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>A</I> seeks enrollment in an insured group health plan. The plan terms permit rescission of coverage with respect to an individual if the individual engages in fraud or makes an intentional misrepresentation of a material fact. The plan requires <I>A</I> to complete a questionnaire regarding <I>A'</I>s prior medical history, which affects setting the group rate by the health insurance issuer. The questionnaire complies with the other requirements of this part and part 146 of this subchapter. The questionnaire includes the following question: “Is there anything else relevant to your health that we should know?” <I>A</I> inadvertently fails to list that <I>A</I> visited a psychologist on two occasions, six years previously. <I>A</I> is later diagnosed with breast cancer and seeks benefits under the plan. On or around the same time, the issuer receives information about <I>A'</I>s visits to the psychologist, which was not disclosed in the questionnaire.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan cannot rescind <I>A'</I>s coverage because <I>A'</I>s failure to disclose the visits to the psychologist was inadvertent. Therefore, it was not fraudulent or an intentional misrepresentation of material fact.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An employer sponsors a group health plan that provides coverage for employees who work at least 30 hours per week. Individual <I>B</I> has coverage under the plan as a full-time employee. The employer reassigns <I>B</I> to a part-time position. Under the terms of the plan, <I>B</I> is no longer eligible for coverage. The plan mistakenly continues to provide health coverage, collecting premiums from <I>B</I> and paying claims submitted by <I>B.</I> After a routine audit, the plan discovers that <I>B</I> no longer works at least 30 hours per week. The plan rescinds <I>B'</I>s coverage effective as of the date that <I>B</I> changed from a full-time employee to a part-time employee.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan cannot rescind <I>B'</I>s coverage because there was no fraud or an intentional misrepresentation of material fact. The plan may cancel coverage for <I>B</I> prospectively, subject to other applicable Federal and State laws.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance with other requirements.</I> Other requirements of Federal or State law may apply in connection with a rescission of coverage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2017. Until the applicability date for this regulation, plans and issuers are required to continue to comply with the corresponding sections of 45 CFR parts 144, 146 and 147, contained in the 45 CFR, parts 1 to 199, edition revised as of October 1, 2015.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72277, Nov. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.130" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.130   Coverage of preventive health services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Services</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Beginning at the time described in paragraph (b) of this section and subject to §§ 147.131, 147.132, and 147.133, a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, must provide coverage for and must not impose any cost-sharing requirements (such as a copayment, coinsurance, or a deductible) for—
</P>
<P>(i) Evidence-based items or services that have in effect a rating of A or B in the current recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force with respect to the individual involved (except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section);
</P>
<P>(ii) Immunizations for routine use in children, adolescents, and adults that have in effect a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention with respect to the individual involved (for this purpose, a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is considered in effect after it has been adopted by the Director of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and a recommendation is considered to be for routine use if it is listed on the Immunization Schedules of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention);
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to infants, children, and adolescents, evidence-informed preventive care and screenings provided for in comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration;
</P>
<P>(iv) With respect to women, such additional preventive care and screenings not described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section as provided for in comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration for purposes of section 2713(a)(4) of the Public Health Service Act, subject to §§ 147.131, 147.132, and 147.133; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any qualifying coronavirus preventive service, which means an item, service, or immunization that is intended to prevent or mitigate coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) and that is, with respect to the individual involved—
</P>
<P>(A) An evidence-based item or service that has in effect a rating of A or B in the current recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force; or
</P>
<P>(B) An immunization that has in effect a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (regardless of whether the immunization is recommended for routine use). For purposes of this paragraph (a)(1)(v)(B), a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is considered in effect after it has been adopted by the Director of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Office visits.</I> (i) If an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is billed separately (or is tracked as individual encounter data separately) from an office visit, then a plan or issuer may impose cost-sharing requirements with respect to the office visit.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is not billed separately (or is not tracked as individual encounter data separately) from an office visit and the primary purpose of the office visit is the delivery of such an item or service, then a plan or issuer may not impose cost-sharing requirements with respect to the office visit.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is not billed separately (or is not tracked as individual encounter data separately) from an office visit and the primary purpose of the office visit is not the delivery of such an item or service, then a plan or issuer may impose cost-sharing requirements with respect to the office visit.
</P>
<P>(iv) The rules of this paragraph (a)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An individual covered by a group health plan visits an in-network health care provider. While visiting the provider, the individual is screened for cholesterol abnormalities, which has in effect a rating of A or B in the current recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force with respect to the individual. The provider bills the plan for an office visit and for the laboratory work of the cholesterol screening test.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan may not impose any cost-sharing requirements with respect to the separately-billed laboratory work of the cholesterol screening test. Because the office visit is billed separately from the cholesterol screening test, the plan may impose cost-sharing requirements for the office visit.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1.</I> As the result of the screening, the individual is diagnosed with hyperlipidemia and is prescribed a course of treatment that is not included in the recommendations under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> because the treatment is not included in the recommendations under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the plan is not prohibited from imposing cost-sharing requirements with respect to the treatment.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An individual covered by a group health plan visits an in-network health care provider to discuss recurring abdominal pain. During the visit, the individual has a blood pressure screening, which has in effect a rating of A or B in the current recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force with respect to the individual. The provider bills the plan for an office visit.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the blood pressure screening is provided as part of an office visit for which the primary purpose was not to deliver items or services described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Therefore, the plan may impose a cost-sharing requirement for the office visit charge.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A child covered by a group health plan visits an in-network pediatrician to receive an annual physical exam described as part of the comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration. During the office visit, the child receives additional items and services that are not described in the comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration, nor otherwise described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The provider bills the plan for an office visit.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the service was not billed as a separate charge and was billed as part of an office visit. Moreover, the primary purpose for the visit was to deliver items and services described as part of the comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration. Therefore, the plan may not impose a cost-sharing requirement for the office visit charge.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Out-of-network providers.</I> (i) Subject to paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section, nothing in this section requires a plan or issuer that has a network of providers to provide benefits for items or services described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that are delivered by an out-of-network provider, or precludes a plan or issuer that has a network of providers from imposing cost-sharing requirements for items or services described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that are delivered by an out-of-network provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a plan or issuer does not have in its network a provider who can provide an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the plan or issuer must cover the item or service when performed by an out-of-network provider, and may not impose cost sharing with respect to the item or service.
</P>
<P>(iii) A plan or issuer must provide coverage for and must not impose any cost-sharing requirements (such as a copayment, coinsurance, or a deductible) for any qualifying coronavirus preventive service described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section, regardless of whether such service is delivered by an in-network or out-of-network provider. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3)(iii), with respect to a qualifying coronavirus preventive service and a provider with whom the plan or issuer does not have a negotiated rate for such service (such as an out-of-network provider), the plan or issuer must reimburse the provider for such service in an amount that is reasonable, as determined in comparison to prevailing market rates for such service.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reasonable medical management.</I> Nothing prevents a plan or issuer from using reasonable medical management techniques to determine the frequency, method, treatment, or setting for an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section to the extent not specified in the relevant recommendation or guideline. To the extent not specified in a recommendation or guideline, a plan or issuer may rely on the relevant clinical evidence base and established reasonable medical management techniques to determine the frequency, method, treatment, or setting for coverage of a recommended preventive health service.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Services not described.</I> Nothing in this section prohibits a plan or issuer from providing coverage for items and services in addition to those recommended by the United States Preventive Services Task Force or the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, or provided for by guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services Administration, or from denying coverage for items and services that are not recommended by that task force or that advisory committee, or under those guidelines. A plan or issuer may impose cost-sharing requirements for a treatment not described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, even if the treatment results from an item or service described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> (1) A plan or issuer must provide coverage pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) that begin on or after September 23, 2010, or, if later, for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) that begin on or after the date that is one year after the date the recommendation or guideline is issued, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes in recommendations or guidelines.</I> (i) A plan or issuer that is required to provide coverage for any items and services specified in any recommendation or guideline described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section on the first day of a plan year (in the individual market, policy year), or as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, must provide coverage through the last day of the plan or policy year, even if the recommendation or guideline changes or is no longer described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, during the applicable plan or policy year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, to the extent a recommendation or guideline described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section that was in effect on the first day of a plan year (in the individual market, policy year), or as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, is downgraded to a “D” rating, or any item or service associated with any recommendation or guideline specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is subject to a safety recall or is otherwise determined to pose a significant safety concern by a Federal agency authorized to regulate the item or service during a plan or policy year, there is no requirement under this section to cover these items and services through the last day of the applicable plan or policy year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rapid coverage of preventive services for coronavirus.</I> In the case of a qualifying coronavirus preventive service described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section, a plan or issuer must provide coverage for such item, service, or immunization in accordance with this section by the date that is 15 business days after the date on which a recommendation specified in paragraph (a)(1)(v)(A) or (B) of this section is made relating to such item, service, or immunization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recommendations not current.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and for purposes of any other provision of law, recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force regarding breast cancer screening, mammography, and prevention issued in or around November 2009 are not considered to be current.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years (in the individual market, for policy years) beginning on or after September 23, 2010. <I>See</I> § 147.140 of this part for determining the application of this section to grandfathered health plans (providing that these rules regarding coverage of preventive health services do not apply to grandfathered health plans).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sunset date.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (a)(1)(v), (a)(3)(iii), and (b)(3) of this section will not apply with respect to a qualifying coronavirus preventive service furnished on or after the expiration of the public health emergency determined on January 31, 2020, to exist nationwide as of January 27, 2020, by the Secretary of Health and Human Services pursuant to section 319 of the Public Health Service Act, as a result of COVID-19, including any subsequent renewals of that determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 41759, July 19, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 46626, Aug. 3, 2011; 78 FR 39896, July 2, 2013; 80 FR 41346, July 14, 2015; 82 FR 47833, 47861, Oct. 13, 2017; 85 FR 71202, Nov. 6, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.131" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.131   Accommodations in connection with coverage of certain preventive health services.</HEAD>
<P>(a)-(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible organizations for optional accommodation.</I> An eligible organization is an organization that meets the criteria of paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The organization is an objecting entity described in § 147.132(a)(1)(i) or (ii), or 45 CFR 147.133(a)(1)(i) or (ii).
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding its exempt status under § 147.132(a) or § 147.133, the organization voluntarily seeks to be considered an eligible organization to invoke the optional accommodation under paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) The organization self-certifies in the form and manner specified by the Secretary or provides notice to the Secretary as described in paragraph (d) of this section. To qualify as an eligible organization, the organization must make such self-certification or notice available for examination upon request by the first day of the first plan year to which the accommodation in paragraph (d) of this section applies. The self-certification or notice must be executed by a person authorized to make the certification or provide the notice on behalf of the organization, and must be maintained in a manner consistent with the record retention requirements under section 107 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(4) An eligible organization may revoke its use of the accommodation process, and its issuer must provide participants and beneficiaries written notice of such revocation, as specified herein.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Transitional rule.</I> If contraceptive coverage is being offered on January 14, 2019, by an issuer through the accommodation process, an eligible organization may give 60-days notice pursuant to section 2715(d)(4) of the PHS Act and § 147.200(b), if applicable, to revoke its use of the accommodation process (to allow for the provision of notice to plan participants in cases where contraceptive benefits will no longer be provided). Alternatively, such eligible organization may revoke its use of the accommodation process effective on the first day of the first plan year that begins on or after 30 days after the date of the revocation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General rule.</I> In plan years that begin after January 14, 2019, if contraceptive coverage is being offered by an issuer through the accommodation process, an eligible organization's revocation of use of the accommodation process will be effective no sooner than the first day of the first plan year that begins on or after 30 days after the date of the revocation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Optional accommodation—insured group health plans</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A group health plan established or maintained by an eligible organization that provides benefits through one or more group health insurance issuers may voluntarily elect an optional accommodation under which its health insurance issuer(s) will provide payments for all or a subset of contraceptive services for one or more plan years. To invoke the optional accommodation process:
</P>
<P>(i) The eligible organization or its plan must contract with one or more health insurance issuers.
</P>
<P>(ii) The eligible organization must provide either a copy of the self-certification to each issuer providing coverage in connection with the plan or a notice to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services that it is an eligible organization and of its objection as described in § 147.132 or § 147.133 to coverage for all or a subset of contraceptive services.
</P>
<P>(A) When a self-certification is provided directly to an issuer, the issuer has sole responsibility for providing such coverage in accordance with § 147.130(a)(iv).
</P>
<P>(B) When a notice is provided to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services, the notice must include the name of the eligible organization; a statement that it objects as described in § 147.132 or § 147.133 to coverage of some or all contraceptive services (including an identification of the subset of contraceptive services to which coverage the eligible organization objects, if applicable) but that it would like to elect the optional accommodation process; the plan name and type (that is, whether it is a student health insurance plan within the meaning of § 147.145(a) or a church plan within the meaning of section 3(33) of ERISA); and the name and contact information for any of the plan's health insurance issuers. If there is a change in any of the information required to be included in the notice, the eligible organization must provide updated information to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services for the optional accommodation to remain in effect. The Department of Health and Human Services will send a separate notification to each of the plan's health insurance issuers informing the issuer that the Secretary of the Deparement of Health and Human Services has received a notice under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section and describing the obligations of the issuer under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If an issuer receives a copy of the self-certification from an eligible organization or the notification from the Department of Health and Human Services as described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section and does not have an objection as described in § 147.132 or § 147.133 to providing the contraceptive services identified in the self-certification or the notification from the Department of Health and Human Services, then the issuer will provide payments for contraceptive services as follows—
</P>
<P>(i) The issuer must expressly exclude contraceptive coverage from the group health insurance coverage provided in connection with the group health plan and provide separate payments for any contraceptive services required to be covered under § 141.130(a)(1)(iv) for plan participants and beneficiaries for so long as they remain enrolled in the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to payments for contraceptive services, the issuer may not impose any cost-sharing requirements (such as a copayment, coinsurance, or a deductible), premium, fee, or other charge, or any portion thereof, directly or indirectly, on the eligible organization, the group health plan, or plan participants or beneficiaries. The issuer must segregate premium revenue collected from the eligible organization from the monies used to provide payments for contraceptive services. The issuer must provide payments for contraceptive services in a manner that is consistent with the requirements under sections 2706, 2709, 2711, 2713, 2719, and 2719A of the PHS Act. If the group health plan of the eligible organization provides coverage for some but not all of any contraceptive services required to be covered under § 147.130(a)(1)(iv), the issuer is required to provide payments only for those contraceptive services for which the group health plan does not provide coverage. However, the issuer may provide payments for all contraceptive services, at the issuer's option.
</P>
<P>(3) A health insurance issuer may not require any documentation other than a copy of the self-certification from the eligible organization or the notification from the Department of Health and Human Services described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of availability of separate payments for contraceptive services—insured group health plans and student health insurance coverage.</I> For each plan year to which the optional accommodation in paragraph (d) of this section is to apply, an issuer required to provide payments for contraceptive services pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section must provide to plan participants and beneficiaries written notice of the availability of separate payments for contraceptive services contemporaneous with (to the extent possible), but separate from, any application materials distributed in connection with enrollment (or re-enrollment) in group health coverage that is effective beginning on the first day of each applicable plan year. The notice must specify that the eligible organization does not administer or fund contraceptive benefits, but that the issuer provides separate payments for contraceptive services, and must provide contact information for questions and complaints. The following model language, or substantially similar language, may be used to satisfy the notice requirement of this paragraph (e) “Your [employer/institution of higher education] has certified that your [group health plan/student health insurance coverage] qualifies for an accommodation with respect to the Federal requirement to cover all Food and Drug Administration-approved contraceptive services for women, as prescribed by a health care provider, without cost sharing. This means that your [employer/institution of higher education] will not contract, arrange, pay, or refer for contraceptive coverage. Instead, [name of health insurance issuer] will provide separate payments for contraceptive services that you use, without cost sharing and at no other cost, for so long as you are enrolled in your [group health plan/student health insurance coverage]. Your [employer/institution of higher education] will not administer or fund these payments . If you have any questions about this notice, contact [contact information for health insurance issuer].”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reliance.</I> (1) If an issuer relies reasonably and in good faith on a representation by the eligible organization as to its eligibility for the accommodation in paragraph (d) of this section, and the representation is later determined to be incorrect, the issuer is considered to comply with any applicable requirement under § 147.130(a)(1)(iv) to provide contraceptive coverage if the issuer complies with the obligations under this section applicable to such issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) A group health plan is considered to comply with any applicable requirement under § 147.130(a)(1)(iv) to provide contraceptive coverage if the plan complies with its obligations under paragraph (d) of this section, without regard to whether the issuer complies with the obligations under this section applicable to such issuer.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Definition.</I> For the purposes of this section, reference to “contraceptive” services, benefits, or coverage includes contraceptive or sterilization items, procedures, or services, or related patient education or counseling, to the extent specified for purposes of § 147.130(a)(1)(iv).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Severability.</I> Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 47833, Oct. 13, 2017, as amended at 82 FR 47861, Oct. 13, 2017; 83 FR 57589, Nov. 15, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.132" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.132   Religious exemptions in connection with coverage of certain preventive health services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Objecting entities.</I> (1) Guidelines issued under § 147.130(a)(1)(iv) by the Health Resources and Services Administration must not provide for or support the requirement of coverage or payments for contraceptive services with respect to a group health plan established or maintained by an objecting organization, or health insurance coverage offered or arranged by an objecting organization, to the extent of the objections specified below. Thus the Health Resources and Service Administration will exempt from any guidelines' requirements that relate to the provision of contraceptive services:
</P>
<P>(i) A group health plan and health insurance coverage provided in connection with a group health plan to the extent the non-governmental plan sponsor objects as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Such non-governmental plan sponsors include, but are not limited to, the following entities—
</P>
<P>(A) A church, an integrated auxiliary of a church, a convention or association of churches, or a religious order.
</P>
<P>(B) A nonprofit organization.
</P>
<P>(C) A closely held for-profit entity.
</P>
<P>(D) A for-profit entity that is not closely held.
</P>
<P>(E) Any other non-governmental employer.
</P>
<P>(ii) A group health plan, and health insurance coverage provided in connection with a group health plan, where the plan or coverage is established or maintained by a church, an integrated auxiliary of a church, a convention or association of churches, a religious order, a nonprofit organization, or other non-governmental organization or association, to the extent the plan sponsor responsible for establishing and/or maintaining the plan objects as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The exemption in this paragraph applies to each employer, organization, or plan sponsor that adopts the plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) An institution of higher education as defined in 20 U.S.C. 1002, which is non-governmental, in its arrangement of student health insurance coverage, to the extent that institution objects as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. In the case of student health insurance coverage, this section is applicable in a manner comparable to its applicability to group health insurance coverage provided in connection with a group health plan established or maintained by a plan sponsor that is an employer, and references to “plan participants and beneficiaries” will be interpreted as references to student enrollees and their covered dependents; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A health insurance issuer offering group or individual insurance coverage to the extent the issuer objects as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Where a health insurance issuer providing group health insurance coverage is exempt under this subparagraph (iv), the group health plan established or maintained by the plan sponsor with which the health insurance issuer contracts remains subject to any requirement to provide coverage for contraceptive services under Guidelines issued under § 147.130(a)(1)(iv) unless it is also exempt from that requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) The exemption of this paragraph (a) will apply to the extent that an entity described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section objects, based on its sincerely held religious beliefs, to its establishing, maintaining, providing, offering, or arranging for (as applicable):
</P>
<P>(i) Coverage or payments for some or all contraceptive services; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan, issuer, or third party administrator that provides or arranges such coverage or payments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objecting individuals.</I> Guidelines issued under § 147.130(a)(1)(iv) by the Health Resources and Services Administration must not provide for or support the requirement of coverage or payments for contraceptive services with respect to individuals who object as specified in this paragraph (b), and nothing in § 147.130(a)(1)(iv), 26 CFR 54.9815-2713(a)(1)(iv), or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713(a)(1)(iv) may be construed to prevent a willing health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, and as applicable, a willing plan sponsor of a group health plan, from offering a separate policy, certificate or contract of insurance or a separate group health plan or benefit package option, to any group health plan sponsor (with respect to an individual) or individual, as applicable, who objects to coverage or payments for some or all contraceptive services based on sincerely held religious beliefs. Under this exemption, if an individual objects to some but not all contraceptive services, but the issuer, and as applicable, plan sponsor, are willing to provide the plan sponsor or individual, as applicable, with a separate policy, certificate or contract of insurance or a separate group health plan or benefit package option that omits all contraceptives, and the individual agrees, then the exemption applies as if the individual objects to all contraceptive services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition.</I> For the purposes of this section, reference to “contraceptive” services, benefits, or coverage includes contraceptive or sterilization items, procedures, or services, or related patient education or counseling, to the extent specified for purposes of § 147.130(a)(1)(iv).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Severability.</I> Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 47835, Oct. 13, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 57590, Nov. 15, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.133" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.133   Moral exemptions in connection with coverage of certain preventive health services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Objecting entities.</I> (1) Guidelines issued under § 147.130(a)(1)(iv) by the Health Resources and Services Administration must not provide for or support the requirement of coverage or payments for contraceptive services with respect to a group health plan established or maintained by an objecting organization, or health insurance coverage offered or arranged by an objecting organization, to the extent of the objections specified below. Thus the Health Resources and Service Administration will exempt from any guidelines' requirements that relate to the provision of contraceptive services:
</P>
<P>(i) A group health plan and health insurance coverage provided in connection with a group health plan to the extent one of the following non-governmental plan sponsors object as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A nonprofit organization; or
</P>
<P>(B) A for-profit entity that has no publicly traded ownership interests (for this purpose, a publicly traded ownership interest is any class of common equity securities required to be registered under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934);
</P>
<P>(ii) An institution of higher education as defined in 20 U.S.C. 1002, which is non-governmental, in its arrangement of student health insurance coverage, to the extent that institution objects as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. In the case of student health insurance coverage, this section is applicable in a manner comparable to its applicability to group health insurance coverage provided in connection with a group health plan established or maintained by a plan sponsor that is an employer, and references to “plan participants and beneficiaries” will be interpreted as references to student enrollees and their covered dependents; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A health insurance issuer offering group or individual insurance coverage to the extent the issuer objects as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. Where a health insurance issuer providing group health insurance coverage is exempt under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, the group health plan established or maintained by the plan sponsor with which the health insurance issuer contracts remains subject to any requirement to provide coverage for contraceptive services under Guidelines issued under § 147.130(a)(1)(iv) unless it is also exempt from that requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) The exemption of this paragraph (a) will apply to the extent that an entity described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section objects, based on its sincerely held moral convictions, to its establishing, maintaining, providing, offering, or arranging for (as applicable):
</P>
<P>(i) Coverage or payments for some or all contraceptive services; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan, issuer, or third party administrator that provides or arranges such coverage or payments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objecting individuals.</I> Guidelines issued under § 147.130(a)(1)(iv) by the Health Resources and Services Administration must not provide for or support the requirement of coverage or payments for contraceptive services with respect to individuals who object as specified in this paragraph (b), and nothing in § 147.130(a)(1)(iv), 26 CFR 54.9815-2713(a)(1)(iv), or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713(a)(1)(iv) may be construed to prevent a willing health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, and as applicable, a willing plan sponsor of a group health plan, from offering a separate policy, certificate or contract of insurance or a separate group health plan or benefit package option, to any group health plan sponsor (with respect to an individual) or individual, as applicable, who objects to coverage or payments for some or all contraceptive services based on sincerely held moral convictions. Under this exemption, if an individual objects to some but not all contraceptive services, but the issuer, and as applicable, plan sponsor, are willing to provide the plan sponsor or individual, as applicable, with a separate policy, certificate or contract of insurance or a separate group health plan or benefit package option that omits all contraceptives, and the individual agrees, then the exemption applies as if the individual objects to all contraceptive services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition.</I> For the purposes of this section, reference to “contraceptive” services, benefits, or coverage includes contraceptive or sterilization items, procedures, or services, or related patient education or counseling, to the extent specified for purposes of § 147.130(a)(1)(iv).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Severability.</I> Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 47861, Oct. 13, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 57630, Nov. 15, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.136" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.136   Internal claims and appeals and external review processes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> This section sets forth requirements with respect to internal claims and appeals and external review processes for group health plans and health insurance issuers. Paragraph (b) of this section provides requirements for internal claims and appeals processes. Paragraph (c) of this section sets forth rules governing the applicability of State external review processes. Paragraph (d) of this section sets forth a Federal external review process for plans and issuers not subject to an applicable State external review process. Paragraph (e) of this section prescribes requirements for ensuring that notices required to be provided under this section are provided in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner. Paragraph (f) of this section describes the authority of the Secretary to deem certain external review processes in existence on March 23, 2010 as in compliance with paragraph (c) or (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application to grandfathered health plans and health insurance coverage.</I> The provisions of this section generally do not apply to coverage offered by health insurance issuers and group health plans that are grandfathered health plans, as defined under § 147.140. However, the external review process requirements under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, and related notice requirements under paragraph (e) of this section, apply to grandfathered health plans or coverage with respect to adverse benefit determinations involving items and services within the scope of the requirements for out-of-network emergency services, nonemergency services performed by nonparticipating providers at participating facilities, and air ambulance services furnished by nonparticipating providers of air ambulance services under PHS Act sections 2799A-1 and 2799A-2 and §§ 149.110 through 149.130.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Adverse benefit determination.</I> An <I>adverse benefit determination</I> means an adverse benefit determination as defined in 29 CFR 2560.503-1, as well as any rescission of coverage, as described in § 147.128 (whether or not, in connection with the rescission, there is an adverse effect on any particular benefit at that time).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Appeal (or internal appeal).</I> An <I>appeal</I> or <I>internal appeal</I> means review by a plan or issuer of an adverse benefit determination, as required in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Claimant. Claimant</I> means an individual who makes a claim under this section. For purposes of this section, references to claimant include a claimant's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>External review. External review</I> means a review of an adverse benefit determination (including a final internal adverse benefit determination) conducted pursuant to an applicable State external review process described in paragraph (c) of this section or the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Final internal adverse benefit determination.</I> A <I>final internal adverse benefit determination</I> means an adverse benefit determination that has been upheld by a plan or issuer at the completion of the internal appeals process applicable under paragraph (b) of this section (or an adverse benefit determination with respect to which the internal appeals process has been exhausted under the deemed exhaustion rules of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F) of this section).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Final external review decision.</I> A <I>final external review decision</I> means a determination by an independent review organization at the conclusion of an external review.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Independent review organization (or IRO).</I> An <I>independent review organization</I> (or <I>IRO</I>) means an entity that conducts independent external reviews of adverse benefit determinations and final internal adverse benefit determinations pursuant to paragraph (c) or (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>NAIC Uniform Model Act.</I> The <I>NAIC Uniform Model Act</I> means the Uniform Health Carrier External Review Model Act promulgated by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners in place on July 23, 2010.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Internal claims and appeals process</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage must implement an effective internal claims and appeals process, as described in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements for group health plans and group health insurance issuers.</I> A group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must comply with all the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2). In the case of health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan, if either the plan or the issuer complies with the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b)(2), then the obligation to comply with this paragraph (b)(2) is satisfied for both the plan and the issuer with respect to the health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Minimum internal claims and appeals standards.</I> A group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must comply with all the requirements applicable to group health plans under 29 CFR 2560.503-1, except to the extent those requirements are modified by paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section. Accordingly, under this paragraph (b), with respect to health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan, the group health insurance issuer is subject to the requirements in 29 CFR 2560.503-1 to the same extent as the group health plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional standards.</I> In addition to the requirements in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the internal claims and appeals processes of a group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must meet the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Clarification of meaning of adverse benefit determination.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), an “adverse benefit determination” includes an adverse benefit determination as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. Accordingly, in complying with 29 CFR 2560.503-1, as well as the other provisions of this paragraph (b)(2), a plan or issuer must treat a rescission of coverage (whether or not the rescission has an adverse effect on any particular benefit at that time) as an adverse benefit determination. (Rescissions of coverage are subject to the requirements of § 147.128.)
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Expedited notification of benefit determinations involving urgent care.</I> The requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(f)(2)(i) (which generally provide, among other things, in the case of urgent care claims for notification of the plan's benefit determination (whether adverse or not) as soon as possible, taking into account the medical exigencies, but not later than 72 hours after the receipt of the claim) continue to apply to the plan and issuer. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B), a claim involving urgent care has the meaning given in 29 CFR 2560.503-1(m)(1), as determined by the attending provider, and the plan or issuer shall defer to such determination of the attending provider.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Full and fair review.</I> A plan and issuer must allow a claimant to review the claim file and to present evidence and testimony as part of the internal claims and appeals process. Specifically, in addition to complying with the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(h)(2)—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan or issuer must provide the claimant, free of charge, with any new or additional evidence considered, relied upon, or generated by the plan or issuer (or at the direction of the plan or issuer) in connection with the claim; such evidence must be provided as soon as possible and sufficiently in advance of the date on which the notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is required to be provided under 29 CFR 2560.503-1(i) to give the claimant a reasonable opportunity to respond prior to that date; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Before the plan or issuer can issue a final internal adverse benefit determination based on a new or additional rationale, the claimant must be provided, free of charge, with the rationale; the rationale must be provided as soon as possible and sufficiently in advance of the date on which the notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is required to be provided under 29 CFR 2560.503-1(i) to give the claimant a reasonable opportunity to respond prior to that date. Notwithstanding the rules of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(i), if the new or additional evidence is received so late that it would be impossible to provide it to the claimant in time for the claimant to have a reasonable opportunity to respond, the period for providing a notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is tolled until such time as the claimant has a reasonable opportunity to respond. After the claimant responds, or has a reasonable opportunity to respond but fails to do so, the plan administrator shall notify the claimant of the plan's benefit determination as soon as a plan acting in a reasonable and prompt fashion can provide the notice, taking into account the medical exigencies.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Avoiding conflicts of interest.</I> In addition to the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(b) and (h) regarding full and fair review, the plan and issuer must ensure that all claims and appeals are adjudicated in a manner designed to ensure the independence and impartiality of the persons involved in making the decision. Accordingly, decisions regarding hiring, compensation, termination, promotion, or other similar matters with respect to any individual (such as a claims adjudicator or medical expert) must not be made based upon the likelihood that the individual will support the denial of benefits.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Notice.</I> A plan and issuer must provide notice to individuals, in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner (as described in paragraph (e) of this section) that complies with the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(g) and (j). The plan and issuer must also comply with the additional requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(E).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan and issuer must ensure that any notice of adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination includes information sufficient to identify the claim involved (including the date of service, the health care provider, the claim amount (if applicable), and a statement describing the availability, upon request, of the diagnosis code and its corresponding meaning, and the treatment code and its corresponding meaning).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The plan and issuer must provide to participants, beneficiaries and enrollees, as soon as practicable, upon request, the diagnosis code and its corresponding meaning, and the treatment code and its corresponding meaning, associated with any adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination. The plan or issuer must not consider a request for such diagnosis and treatment information, in itself, to be a request for an internal appeal under this paragraph (b) or an external review under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The plan and issuer must ensure that the reason or reasons for the adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination includes the denial code and its corresponding meaning, as well as a description of the plan's or issuer's standard, if any, that was used in denying the claim. In the case of a notice of final internal adverse benefit determination, this description must include a discussion of the decision.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The plan and issuer must provide a description of available internal appeals and external review processes, including information regarding how to initiate an appeal.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The plan and issuer must disclose the availability of, and contact information for, any applicable office of health insurance consumer assistance or ombudsman established under PHS Act section 2793 to assist individuals with the internal claims and appeals and external review processes.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Deemed exhaustion of internal claims and appeals processes.</I> (<I>1</I>) In the case of a plan or issuer that fails to strictly adhere to all the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2) with respect to a claim, the claimant is deemed to have exhausted the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b), except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F)(<I>2</I>) of this section. Accordingly the claimant may initiate an external review under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable. The claimant is also entitled to pursue any available remedies under section 502(a) of ERISA or under State law, as applicable, on the basis that the plan or issuer has failed to provide a reasonable internal claims and appeals process that would yield a decision on the merits of the claim. If a claimant chooses to pursue remedies under section 502(a) of ERISA under such circumstances, the claim or appeal is deemed denied on review without the exercise of discretion by an appropriate fiduciary.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b) will not be deemed exhausted based on <I>de minimis</I> violations that do not cause, and are not likely to cause, prejudice or harm to the claimant so long as the plan or issuer demonstrates that the violation was for good cause or due to matters beyond the control of the plan or issuer and that the violation occurred in the context of an ongoing, good faith exchange of information between the plan and the claimant. This exception is not available if the violation is part of a pattern or practice of violations by the plan or issuer. The claimant may request a written explanation of the violation from the plan or issuer, and the plan or issuer must provide such explanation within 10 days, including a specific description of its bases, if any, for asserting that the violation should not cause the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b) to be deemed exhausted. If an external reviewer or a court rejects the claimant's request for immediate review under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section on the basis that the plan met the standards for the exception under this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F)(<I>2</I>), the claimant has the right to resubmit and pursue the internal appeal of the claim. In such a case, within a reasonable time after the external reviewer or court rejects the claim for immediate review (not to exceed 10 days), the plan shall provide the claimant with notice of the opportunity to resubmit and pursue the internal appeal of the claim. Time periods for re-filing the claim shall begin to run upon claimant's receipt of such notice.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Requirement to provide continued coverage pending the outcome of an appeal.</I> A plan and issuer subject to the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2) are required to provide continued coverage pending the outcome of an appeal. For this purpose, the plan and issuer must comply with the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(f)(2)(ii), which generally provides that benefits for an ongoing course of treatment cannot be reduced or terminated without providing advance notice and an opportunity for advance review.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for individual health insurance issuers.</I> A health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage must comply with all the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Minimum internal claims and appeals standards.</I> A health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage must comply with all the requirements of the ERISA internal claims and appeals procedures applicable to group health plans under 29 CFR 2560.503-1 except for the requirements with respect to multiemployer plans, and except to the extent those requirements are modified by paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section. Accordingly, under this paragraph (b), with respect to individual health insurance coverage, the issuer is subject to the requirements in 29 CFR 2560.503-1 as if the issuer were a group health plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional standards.</I> In addition to the requirements in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, the internal claims and appeals processes of a health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage must meet the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Clarification of meaning of adverse benefit determination.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3), an adverse benefit determination includes an adverse benefit determination as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. Accordingly, in complying with 29 CFR 2560.503-1, as well as other provisions of this paragraph (b)(3), an issuer must treat a rescission of coverage (whether or not the rescission has an adverse effect on any particular benefit at that time) and any decision to deny coverage in an initial eligibility determination as an adverse benefit determination. (Rescissions of coverage are subject to the requirements of § 147.128.)
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Expedited notification of benefit determinations involving urgent care.</I> The requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(f)(2)(i) (which generally provide, among other things, in the case of urgent care claims for notification of the issuer's benefit determination (whether adverse or not) as soon as possible, taking into account the medical exigencies, but not later than 72 hours after receipt of the claim) continue to apply to the issuer. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(B), a claim involving urgent care has the meaning given in 29 CFR 2560.503-1(m)(1), as determined by the attending provider, and the issuer shall defer to such determination of the attending provider.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Full and fair review.</I> An issuer must allow a claimant to review the claim file and to present evidence and testimony as part of the internal claims and appeals process. Specifically, in addition to complying with the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(h)(2)—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The issuer must provide the claimant, free of charge, with any new or additional evidence considered, relied upon, or generated by the issuer (or at the direction of the issuer) in connection with the claim; such evidence must be provided as soon as possible and sufficiently in advance of the date on which the notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is required to be provided under 29 CFR 2560.503-1(i) to give the claimant a reasonable opportunity to respond prior to that date; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Before the issuer can issue a final internal adverse benefit determination based on a new or additional rationale, the claimant must be provided, free of charge, with the rationale; the rationale must be provided as soon as possible and sufficiently in advance of the date on which the notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is required to be provided under 29 CFR 2560.503-1(i) to give the claimant a reasonable opportunity to respond prior to that date. Notwithstanding the rules of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(i), if the new or additional evidence is received so late that it would be impossible to provide it to the claimant in time for the claimant to have a reasonable opportunity to respond, the period for providing a notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is tolled until such time as the claimant has a reasonable opportunity to respond. After the claimant responds, or has a reasonable opportunity to respond but fails to do so, the issuer shall notify the claimant of the issuer's determination as soon as an issuer acting in a reasonable and prompt fashion can provide the notice, taking into account the medical exigencies.
</P>
<P>(D) Avoiding conflicts of interest. In addition to the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(b) and (h) regarding full and fair review, the issuer must ensure that all claims and appeals are adjudicated in a manner designed to ensure the independence and impartiality of the persons involved in making the decision. Accordingly, decisions regarding hiring, compensation, termination, promotion, or other similar matters with respect to any individual (such as a claims adjudicator or medical expert) must not be made based upon the likelihood that the individual will support the denial of benefits.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Notice.</I> An issuer must provide notice to individuals, in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner (as described in paragraph (e) of this section) that complies with the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(g) and (j). The issuer must also comply with the additional requirements of this paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(E).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The issuer must ensure that any notice of adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination includes information sufficient to identify the claim involved (including the date of service, the name of the health care provider, the claim amount (if applicable), and a statement describing the availability, upon request, of the diagnosis code and its corresponding meaning, and the treatment code and its corresponding meaning).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The issuer must provide to participants and beneficiaries, as soon as practicable, upon request, the diagnosis code and its corresponding meaning, and the treatment code and its corresponding meaning, associated with any adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination. The issuer must not consider a request for such diagnosis and treatment information, in itself, to be a request for an internal appeal under this paragraph (b) or an external review under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The issuer must ensure that the reason or reasons for the adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination includes the denial code and its corresponding meaning, as well as a description of the issuer's standard, if any, that was used in denying the claim. In the case of a notice of final internal adverse benefit determination, this description must include a discussion of the decision.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The issuer must provide a description of available internal appeals and external review processes, including information regarding how to initiate an appeal.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The issuer must disclose the availability of, and contact information for, any applicable office of health insurance consumer assistance or ombudsman established under PHS Act section 2793 to assist individuals with the internal claims and appeals and external review processes.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Deemed exhaustion of internal claims and appeals processes.</I> (<I>1</I>) In the case of an issuer that fails to adhere to all the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3) with respect to a claim, the claimant is deemed to have exhausted the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b), except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(F)(<I>2</I>) of this section. Accordingly, the claimant may initiate an external review under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable. The claimant is also entitled to pursue any available remedies under State law, as applicable, on the basis that the issuer has failed to provide a reasonable internal claims and appeals process that would yield a decision on the merits of the claim.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b) will not be deemed exhausted based on <I>de minimis</I> violations that do not cause, and are not likely to cause, prejudice or harm to the claimant so long as the issuer demonstrates that the violation was for good cause or due to matters beyond the control of the issuer and that the violation occurred in the context of an ongoing, good faith exchange of information between the issuer and the claimant. This exception is not available if the violation is part of a pattern or practice of violations by the issuer. The claimant may request a written explanation of the violation from the issuer, and the issuer must provide such explanation within 10 days, including a specific description of its bases, if any, for asserting that the violation should not cause the internal claims and appeals process of this paragraph (b) to be deemed exhausted. If an external reviewer or a court rejects the claimant's request for immediate review under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section on the basis that the issuer met the standards for the exception under this paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(F)(<I>2</I>), the claimant has the right to resubmit and pursue the internal appeal of the claim. In such a case, within a reasonable time after the external reviewer or court rejects the claim for immediate review (not to exceed 10 days), the issuer shall provide the claimant with notice of the opportunity to resubmit and pursue the internal appeal of the claim. Time periods for re-filing the claim shall begin to run upon claimant's receipt of such notice.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>One level of internal appeal.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements in 29 CFR 2560.503-1(c)(3), a health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage must provide for only one level of internal appeal before issuing a final determination.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Recordkeeping requirements.</I> A health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage must maintain for six years records of all claims and notices associated with the internal claims and appeals process, including the information detailed in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(E) of this section and any other information specified by the Secretary. An issuer must make such records available for examination by the claimant or State or Federal oversight agency upon request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Requirement to provide continued coverage pending the outcome of an appeal.</I> An issuer subject to the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3) is required to provide continued coverage pending the outcome of an appeal. For this purpose, the issuer must comply with the requirements of 29 CFR 2560.503-1(f)(2)(ii) as if the issuer were a group health plan, so that the issuer cannot reduce or terminate an ongoing course of treatment without providing advance notice and an opportunity for advance review.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State standards for external review</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) If a State external review process that applies to and is binding on a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage includes at a minimum the consumer protections in the NAIC Uniform Model Act, then the issuer must comply with the applicable State external review process and is not required to comply with the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section. In such a case, to the extent that benefits under a group health plan are provided through health insurance coverage, the group health plan is not required to comply with either this paragraph (c) or the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent that a group health plan provides benefits other than through health insurance coverage (that is, the plan is self-insured) and is subject to a State external review process that applies to and is binding on the plan (for example, is not preempted by ERISA) and the State external review process includes at a minimum the consumer protections in the NAIC Uniform Model Act, then the plan must comply with the applicable State external review process and is not required to comply with the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section. Where a self-insured plan is not subject to an applicable State external review process, but the State has chosen to expand access to its process for plans that are not subject to the applicable State laws, the plan may choose to comply with either the applicable State external review process or the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a plan or issuer is not required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) or (c)(1)(ii) of this section to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (c), then the plan or issuer must comply with the Federal external review process of paragraph (d) of this section, except to the extent, in the case of a plan, the plan is not required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section to comply with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum standards for State external review processes.</I> An applicable State external review process must meet all the minimum consumer protections in this paragraph (c)(2). The Department of Health and Human Services will determine whether State external review processes meet these requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) The State process must provide for the external review of adverse benefit determinations (including final internal adverse benefit determinations) by issuers (or, if applicable, plans) that are based on the issuer's (or plan's) requirements for medical necessity, appropriateness, health care setting, level of care, or effectiveness of a covered benefit, as well as a consideration of whether a plan or issuer is complying with the surprise billing and cost-sharing protections under PHS Act sections 2799A-1 and 2799A-2 and §§ 149.110 through 149.130.
</P>
<P>(ii) The State process must require issuers (or, if applicable, plans) to provide effective written notice to claimants of their rights in connection with an external review for an adverse benefit determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) To the extent the State process requires exhaustion of an internal claims and appeals process, exhaustion must be unnecessary where the issuer (or, if applicable, the plan) has waived the requirement; the issuer (or the plan) is considered to have exhausted the internal claims and appeals process under applicable law (including by failing to comply with any of the requirements for the internal appeal process, as outlined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section); or the claimant has applied for expedited external review at the same time as applying for an expedited internal appeal.
</P>
<P>(iv) The State process provides that the issuer (or, if applicable, the plan) against which a request for external review is filed must pay the cost of the IRO for conducting the external review. Notwithstanding this requirement, a State external review process that expressly authorizes, as of November 18, 2015, a nominal filing fee may continue to permit such fees. For this purpose, to be considered nominal, a filing fee must not exceed $25, it must be refunded to the claimant if the adverse benefit determination (or final internal adverse benefit determination) is reversed through external review, it must be waived if payment of the fee would impose an undue financial hardship, and the annual limit on filing fees for any claimant within a single plan year must not exceed $75.
</P>
<P>(v) The State process may not impose a restriction on the minimum dollar amount of a claim for it to be eligible for external review. Thus, the process may not impose, for example, a $500 minimum claims threshold.
</P>
<P>(vi) The State process must allow at least four months after the receipt of a notice of an adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination for a request for an external review to be filed.
</P>
<P>(vii) The State process must provide that IROs will be assigned on a random basis or another method of assignment that assures the independence and impartiality of the assignment process (such as rotational assignment) by a State or independent entity, and in no event selected by the issuer, plan, or the individual.
</P>
<P>(viii) The State process must provide for maintenance of a list of approved IROs qualified to conduct the external review based on the nature of the health care service that is the subject of the review. The State process must provide for approval only of IROs that are accredited by a nationally recognized private accrediting organization.
</P>
<P>(ix) The State process must provide that any approved IRO has no conflicts of interest that will influence its independence. Thus, the IRO may not own or control, or be owned or controlled by a health insurance issuer, a group health plan, the sponsor of a group health plan, a trade association of plans or issuers, or a trade association of health care providers. The State process must further provide that the IRO and the clinical reviewer assigned to conduct an external review may not have a material professional, familial, or financial conflict of interest with the issuer or plan that is the subject of the external review; the claimant (and any related parties to the claimant) whose treatment is the subject of the external review; any officer, director, or management employee of the issuer; the plan administrator, plan fiduciaries, or plan employees; the health care provider, the health care provider's group, or practice association recommending the treatment that is subject to the external review; the facility at which the recommended treatment would be provided; or the developer or manufacturer of the principal drug, device, procedure, or other therapy being recommended.
</P>
<P>(x) The State process allows the claimant at least five business days to submit to the IRO in writing additional information that the IRO must consider when conducting the external review, and it requires that the claimant is notified of the right to do so. The process must also require that any additional information submitted by the claimant to the IRO must be forwarded to the issuer (or, if applicable, the plan) within one business day of receipt by the IRO.
</P>
<P>(xi) The State process must provide that the decision is binding on the plan or issuer, as well as the claimant except to the extent the other remedies are available under State or Federal law, and except that the requirement that the decision be binding shall not preclude the plan or issuer from making payment on the claim or otherwise providing benefits at any time, including after a final external review decision that denies the claim or otherwise fails to require such payment or benefits. For this purpose, the plan or issuer must provide benefits (including by making payment on the claim) pursuant to the final external review decision without delay, regardless of whether the plan or issuer intends to seek judicial review of the external review decision and unless or until there is a judicial decision otherwise.
</P>
<P>(xii) The State process must require, for standard external review, that the IRO provide written notice to the issuer (or, if applicable, the plan) and the claimant of its decision to uphold or reverse the adverse benefit determination (or final internal adverse benefit determination) within no more than 45 days after the receipt of the request for external review by the IRO.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The State process must provide for an expedited external review if the adverse benefit determination (or final internal adverse benefit determination) concerns an admission, availability of care, continued stay, or health care service for which the claimant received emergency services, but has not been discharged from a facility; or involves a medical condition for which the standard external review time frame would seriously jeopardize the life or health of the claimant or jeopardize the claimant's ability to regain maximum function. As expeditiously as possible but within no more than 72 hours after the receipt of the request for expedited external review by the IRO, the IRO must make its decision to uphold or reverse the adverse benefit determination (or final internal adverse benefit determination) and notify the claimant and the issuer (or, if applicable, the plan) of the determination. If the notice is not in writing, the IRO must provide written confirmation of the decision within 48 hours after the date of the notice of the decision.
</P>
<P>(xiv) The State process must require that issuers (or, if applicable, plans) include a description of the external review process in or attached to the summary plan description, policy, certificate, membership booklet, outline of coverage, or other evidence of coverage it provides to participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees, substantially similar to what is set forth in section 17 of the NAIC Uniform Model Act.
</P>
<P>(xv) The State process must require that IROs maintain written records and make them available upon request to the State, substantially similar to what is set forth in section 15 of the NAIC Uniform Model Act.
</P>
<P>(xvi) The State process follows procedures for external review of adverse benefit determinations (or final internal adverse benefit determinations) involving experimental or investigational treatment, substantially similar to what is set forth in section 10 of the NAIC Uniform Model Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transition period for external review processes</I>—(i) Through December 31, 2017, an applicable State external review process applicable to a health insurance issuer or group health plan is considered to meet the requirements of PHS Act section 2719(b). Accordingly, through December 31, 2017, an applicable State external review process will be considered binding on the issuer or plan (in lieu of the requirements of the Federal external review process). If there is no applicable State external review process, the issuer or plan is required to comply with the requirements of the Federal external review process in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An applicable State external review process must apply for final internal adverse benefit determinations (or, in the case of simultaneous internal appeal and external review, adverse benefit determinations) provided on or after January 1, 2018. The Federal external review process will apply to such internal adverse benefit determinations unless the Department of Health and Human Services determines that a State law meets all the minimum standards of paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Through December 31, 2017, a State external review process applicable to a health insurance issuer or group health plan may be considered to meet the minimum standards of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if it meets the temporary standards established by the Secretary in guidance for a process similar to the NAIC Uniform Model Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal external review process.</I> A plan or issuer not subject to an applicable State external review process under paragraph (c) of this section must provide an effective Federal external review process in accordance with this paragraph (d) (except to the extent, in the case of a plan, the plan is described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section as not having to comply with this paragraph (d)). In the case of health insurance coverage offered in connection with a group health plan, if either the plan or the issuer complies with the Federal external review process of this paragraph (d), then the obligation to comply with this paragraph (d) is satisfied for both the plan and the issuer with respect to the health insurance coverage. A Multi State Plan or MSP, as defined by 45 CFR 800.20, must provide an effective Federal external review process in accordance with this paragraph (d). In such circumstances, the requirement to provide external review under this paragraph (d) is satisfied when a Multi State Plan or MSP complies with standards established by the Office of Personnel Management.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Scope</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The Federal external review process established pursuant to this paragraph (d) applies to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) An adverse benefit determination (including a final internal adverse benefit determination) by a plan or issuer that involves medical judgment (including, but not limited to, those based on the plan's or issuer's requirements for medical necessity, appropriateness, health care setting, level of care, or effectiveness of a covered benefit; its determination that a treatment is experimental or investigational; its determination whether a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee is entitled to a reasonable alternative standard for a reward under a wellness program; its determination whether a plan or issuer is complying with the nonquantitative treatment limitation provisions of PHS Act section 2726 and §§ 146.136 and 147.160, which generally require, among other things, parity in the application of medical management techniques), as determined by the external reviewer. (A denial, reduction, termination, or a failure to provide payment for a benefit based on a determination that a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee fails to meet the requirements for eligibility under the terms of a group health plan or health insurance coverage is not eligible for the Federal external review process under this paragraph (d));
</P>
<P>(B) An adverse benefit determination that involves consideration of whether a plan or issuer is complying with the surprise billing and cost-sharing protections set forth in PHS Act sections 2799A-1 and 2799A-2 and §§ 149.110 through 149.130; and
</P>
<P>(C) A rescission of coverage (whether or not the rescission has any effect on any particular benefit at that time).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan provides coverage for 30 physical therapy visits generally. After the 30th visit, coverage is provided only if the service is preauthorized pursuant to an approved treatment plan that takes into account medical necessity using the plan's definition of the term. Individual <I>A</I> seeks coverage for a 31st physical therapy visit. <I>A</I>'s health care provider submits a treatment plan for approval, but it is not approved by the plan, so coverage for the 31st visit is not preauthorized. With respect to the 31st visit, <I>A</I> receives a notice of final internal adverse benefit determination stating that the maximum visit limit is exceeded.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the plan's denial of benefits is based on medical necessity and involves medical judgment. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. Moreover, the plan's notification of final internal adverse benefit determination is inadequate under paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>3</I>) of this section because it fails to make clear that the plan will pay for more than 30 visits if the service is preauthorized pursuant to an approved treatment plan that takes into account medical necessity using the plan's definition of the term. Accordingly, the notice of final internal adverse benefit determination should refer to the plan provision governing the 31st visit and should describe the plan's standard for medical necessity, as well as how the treatment fails to meet the plan's standard.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan does not provide coverage for services provided out of network, unless the service cannot effectively be provided in network. Individual <I>B</I> seeks coverage for a specialized medical procedure from an out-of-network provider because <I>B</I> believes that the procedure cannot be effectively provided in network. <I>B</I> receives a notice of final internal adverse benefit determination stating that the claim is denied because the provider is out-of-network.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan's denial of benefits is based on whether a service can effectively be provided in network and, therefore, involves medical judgment. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. Moreover, the plan's notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is inadequate under paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>3</I>) of this section because the plan does provide benefits for services on an out-of-network basis if the services cannot effectively be provided in network. Accordingly, the notice of final internal adverse benefit determination is required to refer to the exception to the out-of-network exclusion and should describe the plan's standards for determining effectiveness of services, as well as how services available to the claimant within the plan's network meet the plan's standard for effectiveness of services.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides benefits for services in an emergency department of a hospital or independent freestanding emergency department. Individual <I>C</I> receives pre-stabilization emergency treatment in an out-of-network emergency department of a hospital. The group health plan determines that protections for emergency services under § 149.110 do not apply because the treatment did not involve “emergency services” within the meaning of § 149.110(c)(2)(i). <I>C</I> receives an adverse benefit determination and the plan imposes cost-sharing requirements that are greater than the requirements that would apply if the same services were provided in an in-network emergency department.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the plan's determination that treatment received by <I>C</I> did not include emergency services involves medical judgment and consideration of whether the plan complied with § 149.110. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides benefits for anesthesiology services. Individual <I>D</I> undergoes a surgery at an in-network health care facility and during the course of the surgery, receives anesthesiology services from an out-of-network provider. The plan decides the claim for these services without regard to the protections related to items and services furnished by out-of-network providers at in-network facilities under § 149.120. As a result, <I>D</I> receives an adverse benefit determination for the services and is subject to cost-sharing liability that is greater than it would be if cost sharing had been calculated in a manner consistent with the requirements of § 149.120.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> whether the plan was required to decide the claim in a manner consistent with the requirements of § 149.120 involves considering whether the plan complied with § 149.120, as well as medical judgment, because it requires consideration of the health care setting and level of care. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides benefits for services in an emergency department of a hospital or independent freestanding emergency department. Individual <I>E</I> receives emergency services in an out-of-network emergency department of a hospital, including certain post-stabilization services. The plan processes the claim for the post-stabilization services as not being for emergency services under § 149.110(c)(2)(ii) based on representations made by the treating provider that <I>E</I> was in a condition to receive notice from the provider about cost-sharing and surprise billing protections for these services, and subsequently gave informed consent to waive those protections. <I>E</I> receives an adverse benefit determination and is subject to cost-sharing requirements that are greater than the cost-sharing requirements that would apply if the services were processed in a manner consistent with § 149.110.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> whether <I>E</I> was in a condition to receive notice about the availability of cost-sharing and surprise billing protections and give informed consent to waive those protections involves medical judgment and consideration of whether the plan complied with the requirements under § 149.110(c)(2)(ii). Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>F</I> gives birth to a baby at an in-network hospital. The baby is born prematurely and receives certain neonatology services from a nonparticipating provider during the same visit as the birth. <I>F</I> was given notice about cost-sharing and surprise billing protections for these services, and subsequently gave informed consent to waive those protections. The claim for the neonatology services is coded as a claim for routine post-natal services and the plan decides the claim without regard to the requirements under § 149.120(a) and the fact that those protections may not be waived for neonatology services under § 149.120(b). 
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> medical judgment is necessary to determine whether the correct code was used and compliance with § 149.120(a) and (b) must also be considered. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. The Departments also note that, to the extent the nonparticipating provider balance bills Individual <I>F</I> for the outstanding amounts not paid by the plan for the neonatology services, such provider would be in violation of PHS Act section 2799B-2 and its implementing regulations at 45 CFR 149.420(a).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan generally provides benefits to cover knee replacement surgery. Individual <I>G</I> receives a knee replacement surgery at an in-network facility and, after receiving proper notice about the availability of cost-sharing and surprise billing protections, provides informed consent to waive those protections. However, during the surgery, certain anesthesiology services are provided by an out-of-network nurse anesthetist. The claim for these anesthesiology services is decided by the plan without regard to the requirements under § 149.120(a) or to the fact that those protections may not be waived for ancillary services such as anesthesiology services provided by an out-of-network provider at an in-network facility under § 149.120(b). <I>G</I> receives an adverse benefit determination and is subject to cost-sharing requirements that are greater than the cost-sharing requirements that would apply if the services were provided in a manner consistent with § 149.120(a) and (b).
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> consideration of whether the plan complied with the requirements in § 149.120(a) and (b) is necessary to determine whether cost-sharing requirements were applied appropriately. Accordingly, the claim is eligible for external review under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>External review process standards.</I> The Federal external review process established pursuant to this paragraph (d) is considered similar to the process set forth in the NAIC Uniform Model Act and, therefore satisfies the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)) if such process provides the following.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Request for external review.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must allow a claimant to file a request for an external review with the plan or issuer if the request is filed within four months after the date of receipt of a notice of an adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination. If there is no corresponding date four months after the date of receipt of such a notice, then the request must be filed by the first day of the fifth month following the receipt of the notice. For example, if the date of receipt of the notice is October 30, because there is no February 30, the request must be filed by March 1. If the last filing date would fall on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the last filing date is extended to the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Preliminary review</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> Within five business days following the date of receipt of the external review request, the group health plan or health insurance issuer must complete a preliminary review of the request to determine whether:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The claimant is or was covered under the plan or coverage at the time the health care item or service was requested or, in the case of a retrospective review, was covered under the plan or coverage at the time the health care item or service was provided;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The adverse benefit determination or the final adverse benefit determination does not relate to the claimant's failure to meet the requirements for eligibility under the terms of the group health plan or health insurance coverage (<I>e.g.,</I> worker classification or similar determination);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The claimant has exhausted the plan's or issuer's internal appeal process unless the claimant is not required to exhaust the internal appeals process under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The claimant has provided all the information and forms required to process an external review.
</P>
<P>(B) Within one business day after completion of the preliminary review, the plan or issuer must issue a notification in writing to the claimant. If the request is complete but not eligible for external review, such notification must include the reasons for its ineligibility and current contact information, including the phone number, for the Employee Benefits Security Administration. If the request is not complete, such notification must describe the information or materials needed to make the request complete and the plan or issuer must allow a claimant to perfect the request for external review within the four-month filing period or within the 48 hour period following the receipt of the notification, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Referral to Independent Review Organization</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> The group health plan or health insurance issuer must assign an IRO that is accredited by URAC or by similar nationally-recognized accrediting organization to conduct the external review. The IRO referral process must provide for the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The plan or issuer must ensure that the IRO process is not biased and ensures independence;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The plan or issuer must contract with at least three (3) IROs for assignments under the plan or coverage and rotate claims assignments among them (or incorporate other independent, unbiased methods for selection of IROs, such as random selection); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The IRO may not be eligible for any financial incentives based on the likelihood that the IRO will support the denial of benefits.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The IRO process may not impose any costs, including filing fees, on the claimant requesting the external review.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>IRO contracts.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must include the following standards in the contract between the plan or issuer and the IRO:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The assigned IRO will utilize legal experts where appropriate to make coverage determinations under the plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The assigned IRO will timely notify a claimant in writing whether the request is eligible for external review. This notice will include a statement that the claimant may submit in writing to the assigned IRO, within ten business days following the date of receipt of the notice, additional information. This additional information must be considered by the IRO when conducting the external review. The IRO is not required to, but may, accept and consider additional information submitted after ten business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Within five business days after the date of assignment of the IRO, the plan or issuer must provide to the assigned IRO the documents and any information considered in making the adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination. Failure by the plan or issuer to timely provide the documents and information must not delay the conduct of the external review. If the plan or issuer fails to timely provide the documents and information, the assigned IRO may terminate the external review and make a decision to reverse the adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination. Within one business day after making the decision, the IRO must notify the claimant and the plan.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Upon receipt of any information submitted by the claimant, the assigned IRO must within one business day forward the information to the plan or issuer. Upon receipt of any such information, the plan or issuer may reconsider its adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination that is the subject of the external review. Reconsideration by the plan or issuer must not delay the external review. The external review may be terminated as a result of the reconsideration only if the plan decides, upon completion of its reconsideration, to reverse its adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination and provide coverage or payment. Within one business day after making such a decision, the plan must provide written notice of its decision to the claimant and the assigned IRO. The assigned IRO must terminate the external review upon receipt of the notice from the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The IRO will review all of the information and documents timely received. In reaching a decision, the assigned IRO will review the claim de novo and not be bound by any decisions or conclusions reached during the plan's or issuer's internal claims and appeals process applicable under paragraph (b). In addition to the documents and information provided, the assigned IRO, to the extent the information or documents are available and the IRO considers them appropriate, will consider the following in reaching a decision:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The claimant's medical records;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The attending health care professional's recommendation;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Reports from appropriate health care professionals and other documents submitted by the plan or issuer, claimant, or the claimant's treating provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The terms of the claimant's plan or coverage to ensure that the IRO's decision is not contrary to the terms of the plan or coverage, unless the terms are inconsistent with applicable law;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Appropriate practice guidelines, which must include applicable evidence-based standards and may include any other practice guidelines developed by the Federal government, national or professional medical societies, boards, and associations;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Any applicable clinical review criteria developed and used by the plan or issuer, unless the criteria are inconsistent with the terms of the plan or coverage or with applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) To the extent the final IRO decision maker is different from the IRO's clinical reviewer, the opinion of such clinical reviewer, after considering information described in this notice, to the extent the information or documents are available and the clinical reviewer or reviewers consider such information or documents appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The assigned IRO must provide written notice of the final external review decision within 45 days after the IRO receives the request for the external review. The IRO must deliver the notice of the final external review decision to the claimant and the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The assigned IRO's written notice of the final external review decision must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A general description of the reason for the request for external review, including information sufficient to identify the claim (including the date or dates of service, the health care provider, the claim amount (if applicable), and a statement describing the availability, upon request, of the diagnosis code and its corresponding meaning, the treatment code and its corresponding meaning, and the reason for the plan's or issuer's denial);
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The date the IRO received the assignment to conduct the external review and the date of the IRO decision;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) References to the evidence or documentation, including the specific coverage provisions and evidence-based standards, considered in reaching its decision;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) A discussion of the principal reason or reasons for its decision, including the rationale for its decision and any evidence-based standards that were relied on in making its decision;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) A statement that the IRO's determination is binding except to the extent that other remedies may be available under State or Federal law to either the group health plan or health insurance issuer or to the claimant, or to the extent the health plan or health insurance issuer voluntarily makes payment on the claim or otherwise provides benefits at any time, including after a final external review decision that denies the claim or otherwise fails to require such payment or benefits;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) A statement that judicial review may be available to the claimant; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Current contact information, including phone number, for any applicable office of health insurance consumer assistance or ombudsman established under PHS Act section 2793.
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) After a final external review decision, the IRO must maintain records of all claims and notices associated with the external review process for six years. An IRO must make such records available for examination by the claimant, plan, issuer, or State or Federal oversight agency upon request, except where such disclosure would violate State or Federal privacy laws.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) <I>Reversal of plan's or issuer's decision.</I> Upon receipt of a notice of a final external review decision reversing the adverse benefit determination or final adverse benefit determination, the plan or issuer immediately must provide coverage or payment (including immediately authorizing care or immediately paying benefits) for the claim.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited external review.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must comply with the following standards with respect to an expedited external review:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Request for external review.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must allow a claimant to make a request for an expedited external review with the plan or issuer at the time the claimant receives:
</P>
<P>(A) An adverse benefit determination if the adverse benefit determination involves a medical condition of the claimant for which the timeframe for completion of an expedited internal appeal under paragraph (b) of this section would seriously jeopardize the life or health of the claimant or would jeopardize the claimant's ability to regain maximum function and the claimant has filed a request for an expedited internal appeal; or
</P>
<P>(B) A final internal adverse benefit determination, if the claimant has a medical condition where the timeframe for completion of a standard external review would seriously jeopardize the life or health of the claimant or would jeopardize the claimant's ability to regain maximum function, or if the final internal adverse benefit determination concerns an admission, availability of care, continued stay, or health care item or service for which the claimant received emergency services, but has not been discharged from the facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Preliminary review.</I> Immediately upon receipt of the request for expedited external review, the plan or issuer must determine whether the request meets the reviewability requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section for standard external review. The plan or issuer must immediately send a notice that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) for standard review to the claimant of its eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Referral to independent review organization.</I> (A) Upon a determination that a request is eligible for expedited external review following the preliminary review, the plan or issuer will assign an IRO pursuant to the requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section for standard review. The plan or issuer must provide or transmit all necessary documents and information considered in making the adverse benefit determination or final internal adverse benefit determination to the assigned IRO electronically or by telephone or facsimile or any other available expeditious method.
</P>
<P>(B) The assigned IRO, to the extent the information or documents are available and the IRO considers them appropriate, must consider the information or documents described above under the procedures for standard review. In reaching a decision, the assigned IRO must review the claim de novo and is not bound by any decisions or conclusions reached during the plan's or issuer's internal claims and appeals process.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Notice of final external review decision.</I> The plan's or issuer's contract with the assigned IRO must require the IRO to provide notice of the final external review decision, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, as expeditiously as the claimant's medical condition or circumstances require, but in no event more than 72 hours after the IRO receives the request for an expedited external review. If the notice is not in writing, within 48 hours after the date of providing that notice, the assigned IRO must provide written confirmation of the decision to the claimant and the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternative, Federally-administered external review process.</I> Insured coverage not subject to an applicable State external review process under paragraph (c) of this section and a self-insured nonfederal governmental plan may elect to use either the Federal external review process, as set forth under paragraph (d) of this section or the Federally-administered external review process, as set forth by HHS in guidance. In such circumstances, the requirement to provide external review under this paragraph (d) is satisfied.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Form and manner of notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this section, a group health plan and a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage are considered to provide relevant notices in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner if the plan or issuer meets all the requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section with respect to the applicable non-English languages described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> (i) The plan or issuer must provide oral language services (such as a telephone customer assistance hotline) that includes answering questions in any applicable non-English language and providing assistance with filing claims and appeals (including external review) in any applicable non-English language;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan or issuer must provide, upon request, a notice in any applicable non-English language; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan or issuer must include in the English versions of all notices, a statement prominently displayed in any applicable non-English language clearly indicating how to access the language services provided by the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applicable non-English language.</I> With respect to an address in any United States county to which a notice is sent, a non-English language is an applicable non-English language if ten percent or more of the population residing in the county is literate only in the same non-English language, as determined in guidance published by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secretarial authority.</I> The Secretary may determine that the external review process of a group health plan or health insurance issuer, in operation as of March 23, 2010, is considered in compliance with the applicable process established under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section if it substantially meets the requirements of paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section generally are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2017. The external review scope provision at paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) of this section is applicable for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022. The external review provisions described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section are applicable to grandfathered health plans and grandfathered individual market policies, with respect to the types of claims specified under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72278, Nov. 18, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 56122, Oct. 7, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.138" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.138   Patient protections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Choice of health care professional</I>—(1) <I>Designation of primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, requires or provides for designation by a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a participating primary care provider, then the plan or issuer must permit each participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to designate any participating primary care provider who is available to accept the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is to be construed to prohibit the application of reasonable and appropriate geographic limitations with respect to the selection of primary care providers, in accordance with the terms of the plan or coverage, the underlying provider contracts, and applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(1) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires individuals covered under the plan to designate a primary care provider. The plan permits each individual to designate any primary care provider participating in the plan's network who is available to accept the individual as the individual's primary care provider. If an individual has not designated a primary care provider, the plan designates one until one has been designated by the individual. The plan provides a notice that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section regarding the ability to designate a primary care provider.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the plan has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>Designation of pediatrician as primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, requires or provides for the designation of a participating primary care provider for a child by a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee, the plan or issuer must permit the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to designate a physician (allopathic or osteopathic) who specializes in pediatrics (including pediatric subspecialties, based on the scope of that provider's license under applicable State law) as the child's primary care provider if the provider participates in the network of the plan or issuer and is available to accept the child. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a pediatrician as the child's primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is to be construed to waive any exclusions of coverage under the terms and conditions of the plan or health insurance coverage with respect to coverage of pediatric care.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan's HMO designates for each participant a physician who specializes in internal medicine to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and any beneficiaries. Participant <I>A</I> requests that Pediatrician <I>B</I> be designated as the primary care provider for <I>A'</I>s child. <I>B</I> is a participating provider in the HMO's network and is available to accept the child.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the HMO must permit <I>A'</I>s designation of <I>B</I> as the primary care provider for <I>A'</I>s child in order to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (a)(2).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except that <I>A</I> takes <I>A'</I>s child to <I>B</I> for treatment of the child's severe shellfish allergies. <I>B</I> wishes to refer <I>A'</I>s child to an allergist for treatment. The HMO, however, does not provide coverage for treatment of food allergies, nor does it have an allergist participating in its network, and it therefore refuses to authorize the referral.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the HMO has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(2) because the exclusion of treatment for food allergies is in accordance with the terms of <I>A'</I>s coverage.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>Patient access to obstetrical and gynecological care</I>—(i) <I>General rights</I>—(A) <I>Direct access.</I> A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section may not require authorization or referral by the plan, issuer, or any person (including a primary care provider) in the case of a female participant, beneficiary, or enrollee who seeks coverage for obstetrical or gynecological care provided by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) that the plan may not require authorization or referral for obstetrical or gynecological care by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. The plan or issuer may require such a professional to agree to otherwise adhere to the plan's or issuer's policies and procedures, including procedures regarding referrals and obtaining prior authorization and providing services pursuant to a treatment plan (if any) approved by the plan or issuer. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), a health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology is any individual (including a person other than a physician) who is authorized under applicable State law to provide obstetrical or gynecological care.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Obstetrical and gynecological care.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section must treat the provision of obstetrical and gynecological care, and the ordering of related obstetrical and gynecological items and services, pursuant to the direct access described under paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) of this section, by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology as the authorization of the primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application of paragraph.</I> A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, is described in this paragraph (a)(3) if the plan or issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) Provides coverage for obstetrical or gynecological care; and
</P>
<P>(B) Requires the designation by a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a participating primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section is to be construed to—
</P>
<P>(A) Waive any exclusions of coverage under the terms and conditions of the plan or health insurance coverage with respect to coverage of obstetrical or gynecological care; or
</P>
<P>(B) Preclude the group health plan or health insurance issuer involved from requiring that the obstetrical or gynecological provider notify the primary care health care professional or the plan or issuer of treatment decisions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(3) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires each participant to designate a physician to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and the participant's family. Participant <I>A,</I> a female, requests a gynecological exam with Physician <I>B,</I> an in-network physician specializing in gynecological care. The group health plan requires prior authorization from <I>A'</I>s designated primary care provider for the gynecological exam.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the group health plan has violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because the plan requires prior authorization from <I>A'</I>s primary care provider prior to obtaining gynecological services.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I> except that <I>A</I> seeks gynecological services from <I>C,</I> an out-of-network provider.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the group health plan has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) by requiring prior authorization because <I>C</I> is not a participating health care provider.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I> except that the group health plan only requires <I>B</I> to inform <I>A'</I>s designated primary care physician of treatment decisions.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the group health plan has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because <I>A</I> has direct access to <I>B</I> without prior authorization. The fact that the group health plan requires notification of treatment decisions to the designated primary care physician does not violate this paragraph (a)(3).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires each participant to designate a physician to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and the participant's family. The group health plan requires prior authorization before providing benefits for uterine fibroid embolization.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the plan requirement for prior authorization before providing benefits for uterine fibroid embolization does not violate the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because, though the prior authorization requirement applies to obstetrical services, it does not restrict access to any providers specializing in obstetrics or gynecology.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of right to designate a primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan or health insurance issuer requires the designation by a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a primary care provider, the plan or issuer must provide a notice informing each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a primary care provider and of the rights—
</P>
<P>(A) Under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, that any participating primary care provider who is available to accept the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee can be designated;
</P>
<P>(B) Under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, with respect to a child, that any participating physician who specializes in pediatrics can be designated as the primary care provider; and
</P>
<P>(C) Under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, that the plan may not require authorization or referral for obstetrical or gynecological care by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing.</I> In the case of a group health plan or group health insurance coverage, the notice described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section must be included whenever the plan or issuer provides a participant with a summary plan description or other similar description of benefits under the plan or health insurance coverage. In the case of individual health insurance coverage, the notice described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section must be included whenever the issuer provides a primary subscriber with a policy, certificate, or contract of health insurance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Model language.</I> The following model language can be used to satisfy the notice requirement described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) For plans and issuers that require or allow for the designation of primary care providers by participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees, insert:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>[Name of group health plan or health insurance issuer] generally [requires/allows] the designation of a primary care provider. You have the right to designate any primary care provider who participates in our network and who is available to accept you or your family members. [If the plan or health insurance coverage designates a primary care provider automatically, insert: Until you make this designation, [name of group health plan or health insurance issuer] designates one for you.] For information on how to select a primary care provider, and for a list of the participating primary care providers, contact the [plan administrator or issuer] at [insert contact information].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) For plans and issuers that require or allow for the designation of a primary care provider for a child, add:
</P>
<P>For children, you may designate a pediatrician as the primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(C) For plans and issuers that provide coverage for obstetric or gynecological care and require the designation by a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a primary care provider, add:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>You do not need prior authorization from [name of group health plan or issuer] or from any other person (including a primary care provider) in order to obtain access to obstetrical or gynecological care from a health care professional in our network who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. The health care professional, however, may be required to comply with certain procedures, including obtaining prior authorization for certain services, following a pre-approved treatment plan, or procedures for making referrals. For a list of participating health care professionals who specialize in obstetrics or gynecology, contact the [plan administrator or issuer] at [insert contact information].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage of emergency services</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, provides any benefits with respect to services in an emergency department of a hospital, the plan or issuer must cover emergency services (as defined in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section) consistent with the rules of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General rules.</I> A plan or issuer subject to the requirements of this paragraph (b) must provide coverage for emergency services in the following manner—
</P>
<P>(i) Without the need for any prior authorization determination, even if the emergency services are provided on an out-of-network basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Without regard to whether the health care provider furnishing the emergency services is a participating network provider with respect to the services;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the emergency services are provided out of network, without imposing any administrative requirement or limitation on coverage that is more restrictive than the requirements or limitations that apply to emergency services received from in-network providers;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the emergency services are provided out of network, by complying with the cost-sharing requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Without regard to any other term or condition of the coverage, other than—
</P>
<P>(A) The exclusion of or coordination of benefits;
</P>
<P>(B) An affiliation or waiting period permitted under part 7 of ERISA, part A of title XXVII of the PHS Act, or chapter 100 of the Internal Revenue Code; or
</P>
<P>(C) Applicable cost sharing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cost-sharing requirements</I>—(i) <I>Copayments and coinsurance.</I> Any cost-sharing requirement expressed as a copayment amount or coinsurance rate imposed with respect to a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee for out-of-network emergency services cannot exceed the cost-sharing requirement imposed with respect to a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee if the services were provided in-network. However, a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee may be required to pay, in addition to the in-network cost-sharing, the excess of the amount the out-of-network provider charges over the amount the plan or issuer is required to pay under this paragraph (b)(3)(i). A group health plan or health insurance issuer complies with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3) if it provides benefits with respect to an emergency service in an amount at least equal to the greatest of the three amounts specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i)(A),(B), and (C) of this section (which are adjusted for in-network cost-sharing requirements).
</P>
<P>(A) The amount negotiated with in-network providers for the emergency service furnished, excluding any in-network copayment or coinsurance imposed with respect to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee. If there is more than one amount negotiated with in-network providers for the emergency service, the amount described under this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) is the median of these amounts, excluding any in-network copayment or coinsurance imposed with respect to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee. In determining the median described in the preceding sentence, the amount negotiated with each in-network provider is treated as a separate amount (even if the same amount is paid to more than one provider). If there is no per-service amount negotiated with in-network providers (such as under a capitation or other similar payment arrangement), the amount under this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) is disregarded.
</P>
<P>(B) The amount for the emergency service calculated using the same method the plan generally uses to determine payments for out-of-network services (such as the usual, customary, and reasonable amount), excluding any in-network copayment or coinsurance imposed with respect to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee. The amount in this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) is determined without reduction for out-of-network cost sharing that generally applies under the plan or health insurance coverage with respect to out-of-network services. Thus, for example, if a plan generally pays 70 percent of the usual, customary, and reasonable amount for out-of-network services, the amount in this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) for an emergency service is the total (that is, 100 percent) of the usual, customary, and reasonable amount for the service, not reduced by the 30 percent coinsurance that would generally apply to out-of-network services (but reduced by the in-network copayment or coinsurance that the individual would be responsible for if the emergency service had been provided in-network).
</P>
<P>(C) The amount that would be paid under Medicare (part A or part B of title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1395 <I>et seq.</I>) for the emergency service, excluding any in-network copayment or coinsurance imposed with respect to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other cost sharing.</I> Any cost-sharing requirement other than a copayment or coinsurance requirement (such as a deductible or out-of-pocket maximum) may be imposed with respect to emergency services provided out of network if the cost-sharing requirement generally applies to out-of-network benefits. A deductible may be imposed with respect to out-of-network emergency services only as part of a deductible that generally applies to out-of-network benefits. If an out-of-pocket maximum generally applies to out-of-network benefits, that out-of-pocket maximum must apply to out-of-network emergency services.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special rules regarding out-of-network minimum payment standards.</I> (A) The minimum payment standards set forth under paragraph (b)(3) of this section do not apply in cases where State law prohibits a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee from being required to pay, in addition to the in-network cost sharing, the excess of the amount the out-of-network provider charges over the amount the plan or issuer provides in benefits, or where a group health plan or health insurance issuer is contractually responsible for such amounts. Nonetheless, in such cases, a plan or issuer may not impose any copayment or coinsurance requirement for out-of-network emergency services that is higher than the copayment or coinsurance requirement that would apply if the services were provided in network.
</P>
<P>(B) A group health plan and health insurance issuer must provide a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee adequate and prominent notice of their lack of financial responsibility with respect to the amounts described under this paragraph (b)(3)(iii), to prevent inadvertent payment by the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b)(3) are illustrated by the following examples. In all of these examples, the group health plan covers benefits with respect to emergency services.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan imposes a 25% coinsurance responsibility on individuals who are furnished emergency services, whether provided in network or out of network. If a covered individual notifies the plan within two business days after the day an individual receives treatment in an emergency department, the plan reduces the coinsurance rate to 15%.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the requirement to notify the plan in order to receive a reduction in the coinsurance rate does not violate the requirement that the plan cover emergency services without the need for any prior authorization determination. This is the result even if the plan required that it be notified before or at the time of receiving services at the emergency department in order to receive a reduction in the coinsurance rate.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan imposes a $60 copayment on emergency services without preauthorization, whether provided in network or out of network. If emergency services are preauthorized, the plan waives the copayment, even if it later determines the medical condition was not an emergency medical condition.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> by requiring an individual to pay more for emergency services if the individual does not obtain prior authorization, the plan violates the requirement that the plan cover emergency services without the need for any prior authorization determination. (By contrast, if, to have the copayment waived, the plan merely required that it be notified rather than a prior authorization, then the plan would not violate the requirement that the plan cover emergency services without the need for any prior authorization determination.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan covers individuals who receive emergency services with respect to an emergency medical condition from an out-of-network provider. The plan has agreements with in-network providers with respect to a certain emergency service. Each provider has agreed to provide the service for a certain amount. Among all the providers for the service: One has agreed to accept $85, two have agreed to accept $100, two have agreed to accept $110, three have agreed to accept $120, and one has agreed to accept $150. Under the agreement, the plan agrees to pay the providers 80% of the agreed amount, with the individual receiving the service responsible for the remaining 20%.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the values taken into account in determining the median are $85, $100, $100, $110, $110, $120, $120, $120, and $150. Therefore, the median amount among those agreed to for the emergency service is $110, and the amount under paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section is 80% of $110 ($88).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 3.</I> Subsequently, the plan adds another provider to its network, who has agreed to accept $150 for the emergency service.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the median amount among those agreed to for the emergency service is $115. (Because there is no one middle amount, the median is the average of the two middle amounts, $110 and $120.) Accordingly, the amount under paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section is 80% of $115 ($92).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4.</I> An individual covered by the plan receives the emergency service from an out-of-network provider, who charges $125 for the service. With respect to services provided by out-of-network providers generally, the plan reimburses covered individuals 50% of the reasonable amount charged by the provider for medical services. For this purpose, the reasonable amount for any service is based on information on charges by all providers collected by a third party, on a zip code by zip code basis, with the plan treating charges at a specified percentile as reasonable. For the emergency service received by the individual, the reasonable amount calculated using this method is $116. The amount that would be paid under Medicare for the emergency service, excluding any copayment or coinsurance for the service, is $80.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the plan is responsible for paying $92.80, 80% of $116. The median amount among those agreed to for the emergency service is $115 and the amount the plan would pay is $92 (80% of $115); the amount calculated using the same method the plan uses to determine payments for out-of-network services—$116—excluding the in-network 20% coinsurance, is $92.80; and the Medicare payment is $80. Thus, the greatest amount is $92.80. The individual is responsible for the remaining $32.20 charged by the out-of-network provider.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6</HED><PSPACE>—(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 5.</I> The group health plan generally imposes a $250 deductible for in-network health care. With respect to all health care provided by out-of-network providers, the plan imposes a $500 deductible. (Covered in-network claims are credited against the deductible.) The individual has incurred and submitted $260 of covered claims prior to receiving the emergency service out of network.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> the plan is not responsible for paying anything with respect to the emergency service furnished by the out-of-network provider because the covered individual has not satisfied the higher deductible that applies generally to all health care provided out of network. However, the amount the individual is required to pay is credited against the deductible.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions in this paragraph (b)(4) govern in applying the provisions of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Emergency medical condition.</I> The term <I>emergency medical condition</I> means a medical condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including severe pain) so that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in a condition described in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of section 1867(e)(1)(A) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd(e)(1)(A)). (In that provision of the Social Security Act, clause (i) refers to placing the health of the individual (or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious jeopardy; clause (ii) refers to serious impairment to bodily functions; and clause (iii) refers to serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Emergency services.</I> The term <I>emergency services</I> means, with respect to an emergency medical condition—
</P>
<P>(A) A medical screening examination (as required under section 1867 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1395dd) that is within the capability of the emergency department of a hospital, including ancillary services routinely available to the emergency department to evaluate such emergency medical condition, and
</P>
<P>(B) Such further medical examination and treatment, to the extent they are within the capabilities of the staff and facilities available at the hospital, as are required under section 1867 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd) to stabilize the patient.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Stabilize.</I> The term <I>to stabilize,</I> with respect to an emergency medical condition (as defined in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section) has the meaning given in section 1867(e)(3) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd(e)(3)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to group health plans and health insurance issuers for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning before January 1, 2022. <I>See also</I> subparts B and D of part 149 of this subchapter for rules applicable with respect to plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72286, Nov. 18, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 36970, July 13, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.140" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.140   Preservation of right to maintain existing coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of grandfathered health plan coverage</I>—(1) <I>In general</I>—(i) <I>Grandfathered health plan coverage</I> means coverage provided by a group health plan, or a group or individual health insurance issuer, in which an individual was enrolled on March 23, 2010 (for as long as it maintains that status under the rules of this section). A group health plan or group health insurance coverage does not cease to be grandfathered health plan coverage merely because one or more (or even all) individuals enrolled on March 23, 2010 cease to be covered, provided that the plan or group health insurance coverage has continuously covered someone since March 23, 2010 (not necessarily the same person, but at all times at least one person). In addition, subject to the limitation set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, a group health plan (and any health insurance coverage offered in connection with the group health plan) does not cease to be a grandfathered health plan merely because the plan (or its sponsor) enters into a new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance after March 23, 2010 (for example, a plan enters into a contract with a new issuer or a new policy is issued with an existing issuer). For purposes of this section, a plan or health insurance coverage that provides grandfathered health plan coverage is referred to as a grandfathered health plan. The rules of this section apply separately to each benefit package made available under a group health plan or health insurance coverage. Accordingly, if any benefit package relinquishes grandfather status, it will not affect the grandfather status of the other benefit packages.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Changes in group health insurance coverage.</I> Subject to paragraphs (f) and (g)(2) of this section, if a group health plan (including a group health plan that was self-insured on March 23, 2010) or its sponsor enters into a new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance after March 23, 2010 that is effective before November 15, 2010, then the plan ceases to be a grandfathered health plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure of grandfather status.</I> (i) To maintain status as a grandfathered health plan, a plan or health insurance coverage must include a statement that the plan or coverage believes it is a grandfathered health plan within the meaning of section 1251 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, and must provide contact information for questions and complaints, in any summary of benefits provided under the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following model language can be used to satisfy this disclosure requirement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This [group health plan or health insurance issuer] believes this [plan or coverage] is a “grandfathered health plan” under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (the Affordable Care Act). As permitted by the Affordable Care Act, a grandfathered health plan can preserve certain basic health coverage that was already in effect when that law was enacted. Being a grandfathered health plan means that your [plan or policy] may not include certain consumer protections of the Affordable Care Act that apply to other plans, for example, the requirement for the provision of preventive health services without any cost sharing. However, grandfathered health plans must comply with certain other consumer protections in the Affordable Care Act, for example, the elimination of lifetime dollar limits on benefits.
</P>
<P>Questions regarding which protections apply and which protections do not apply to a grandfathered health plan and what might cause a plan to change from grandfathered health plan status can be directed to the plan administrator at [insert contact information]. [For ERISA plans, insert: You may also contact the Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor at 1-866-444-3272 or <I>www.dol.gov/ebsa/healthreform</I>. This Web site has a table summarizing which protections do and do not apply to grandfathered health plans.] [For individual market policies and nonfederal governmental plans, insert: You may also contact the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services at <I>www.healthcare.gov</I>.]</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Documentation of plan or policy terms on March 23, 2010.</I> To maintain status as a grandfathered health plan, a group health plan, or group or individual health insurance coverage, must, for as long as the plan or health insurance coverage takes the position that it is a grandfathered health plan—
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain records documenting the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage in connection with the coverage in effect on March 23, 2010, and any other documents necessary to verify, explain, or clarify its status as a grandfathered health plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) Make such records available for examination upon request.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Change in group health insurance coverage.</I> To maintain status as a grandfathered health plan, a group health plan that enters into a new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance must provide to the new health insurance issuer (and the new health insurance issuer must require) documentation of plan terms (including benefits, cost sharing, employer contributions, and annual dollar limits) under the prior health coverage sufficient to determine whether a change causing a cessation of grandfathered health plan status under paragraph (g)(1) of this section has occurred.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Family members enrolling after March 23, 2010.</I> With respect to an individual who is enrolled in a group health plan or health insurance coverage on March 23, 2010, grandfathered health plan coverage includes coverage of family members of the individual who enroll after March 23, 2010 in the grandfathered health plan coverage of the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allowance for new employees to join current plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a group health plan (including health insurance coverage provided in connection with the group health plan) that provided coverage on March 23, 2010 and has retained its status as a grandfathered health plan (consistent with the rules of this section, including paragraph (g) of this section) is grandfathered health plan coverage for new employees (whether newly hired or newly enrolled) and their families enrolling in the plan after March 23, 2010. Further, the addition of a new contributing employer or new group of employees of an existing contributing employer to a grandfathered multiemployer health plan will not affect the plan's grandfather status.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Anti-abuse rules</I>—(i) <I>Mergers and acquisitions.</I> If the principal purpose of a merger, acquisition, or similar business restructuring is to cover new individuals under a grandfathered health plan, the plan ceases to be a grandfathered health plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Change in plan eligibility.</I> A group health plan or health insurance coverage (including a benefit package under a group health plan) ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if—
</P>
<P>(A) Employees are transferred into the plan or health insurance coverage (the transferee plan) from a plan or health insurance coverage under which the employees were covered on March 23, 2010 (the transferor plan);
</P>
<P>(B) Comparing the terms of the transferee plan with those of the transferor plan (as in effect on March 23, 2010) and treating the transferee plan as if it were an amendment of the transferor plan would cause a loss of grandfather status under the provisions of paragraph (g)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) There was no bona fide employment-based reason to transfer the employees into the transferee plan. For this purpose, changing the terms or cost of coverage is not a bona fide employment-based reason.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Illustrative list of bona fide employment-based reasons.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C), bona fide employment-based reasons include—
</P>
<P>(A) When a benefit package is being eliminated because the issuer is exiting the market;
</P>
<P>(B) When a benefit package is being eliminated because the issuer no longer offers the product to the employer;
</P>
<P>(C) When low or declining participation by plan participants in the benefit package makes it impractical for the plan sponsor to continue to offer the benefit package;
</P>
<P>(D) When a benefit package is eliminated from a multiemployer plan as agreed upon as part of the collective bargaining process; or
</P>
<P>(E) When a benefit package is eliminated for any reason and multiple benefit packages covering a significant portion of other employees remain available to the employees being transferred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers two benefit packages on March 23, 2010, Options <I>F</I> and <I>G.</I> During a subsequent open enrollment period, some of the employees enrolled in Option <I>F</I> on March 23, 2010 switch to Option <I>G.</I>
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the group health coverage provided under Option <I>G</I> remains a grandfathered health plan under the rules of paragraph (b)(1) of this section because employees previously enrolled in Option <I>F</I> are allowed to enroll in Option <I>G</I> as new employees.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan offers two benefit packages on March 23, 2010, Options <I>H</I> and <I>I.</I> On March 23, 2010, Option <I>H</I> provides coverage only for employees in one manufacturing plant. Subsequently, the plant is closed, and some employees in the closed plant are moved to another plant. The employer eliminates Option <I>H</I> and the employees that are moved are transferred to Option <I>I.</I> If instead of transferring employees from Option <I>H</I> to Option <I>I,</I> Option <I>H</I> was amended to match the terms of Option <I>I,</I> then Option <I>H</I> would cease to be a grandfathered health plan.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan has a bona fide employment-based reason to transfer employees from Option <I>H</I> to Option <I>I.</I> Therefore, Option <I>I</I> does not cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>General grandfathering rule.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, subtitles A and C of title I of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (and the amendments made by those subtitles, and the incorporation of those amendments into ERISA section 715 and Internal Revenue Code section 9815) do not apply to grandfathered health plan coverage. Accordingly, the provisions of PHS Act sections 2701, 2702, 2703, 2705, 2706, 2707, 2709 (relating to coverage for individuals participating in approved clinical trials, as added by section 10103 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act), 2713, 2715A, 2716, 2717, 2719, and 2719A, as added or amended by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, do not apply to grandfathered health plans. In addition, the provisions of PHS Act section 2704, and PHS Act section 2711 insofar as it relates to annual dollar limits, do not apply to grandfathered health plans that are individual health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent not inconsistent with the rules applicable to a grandfathered health plan, a grandfathered health plan must comply with the requirements of the PHS Act, ERISA, and the Internal Revenue Code applicable prior to the changes enacted by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Provisions applicable to all grandfathered health plans.</I> The provisions of PHS Act section 2711 insofar as it relates to lifetime dollar limits, and the provisions of PHS Act sections 2712, 2714, 2715, and 2718, apply to grandfathered health plans for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after September 23, 2010. The provisions of PHS Act section 2708 apply to grandfathered health plans for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability of PHS Act sections 2704, 2711, and 2714 to grandfathered group health plans and group health insurance coverage.</I> (1) The provisions of PHS Act section 2704 as it applies with respect to enrollees who are under 19 years of age, and the provisions of PHS Act section 2711 insofar as it relates to annual dollar limits, apply to grandfathered health plans that are group health plans (including group health insurance coverage) for plan years beginning on or after September 23, 2010. The provisions of PHS Act section 2704 apply generally to grandfathered health plans that are group health plans (including group health insurance coverage) for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(2) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2014, the provisions of PHS Act section 2714 apply in the case of an adult child with respect to a grandfathered health plan that is a group health plan only if the adult child is not eligible to enroll in an eligible employer-sponsored health plan (as defined in section 5000A(f)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code) other than a grandfathered health plan of a parent. For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014, the provisions of PHS Act section 2714 apply with respect to a grandfathered health plan that is a group health plan without regard to whether an adult child is eligible to enroll in any other coverage.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effect on collectively bargained plans</I>—<I>In general.</I> In the case of health insurance coverage maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements between employee representatives and one or more employers that was ratified before March 23, 2010, the coverage is grandfathered health plan coverage at least until the date on which the last of the collective bargaining agreements relating to the coverage that was in effect on March 23, 2010 terminates. Any coverage amendment made pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement relating to the coverage that amends the coverage solely to conform to any requirement added by subtitles A and C of title I of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (and the amendments made by those subtitles, and the incorporation of those amendments into ERISA section 715 and Internal Revenue Code section 9815) is not treated as a termination of the collective bargaining agreement. After the date on which the last of the collective bargaining agreements relating to the coverage that was in effect on March 23, 2010 terminates, the determination of whether health insurance coverage maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement is grandfathered health plan coverage is made under the rules of this section other than this paragraph (f) (comparing the terms of the health insurance coverage after the date the last collective bargaining agreement terminates with the terms of the health insurance coverage that were in effect on March 23, 2010).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Maintenance of grandfather status</I>—(1) <I>Changes causing cessation of grandfather status.</I> Subject to paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, the rules of this paragraph (g)(1) describe situations in which a group health plan or health insurance coverage ceases to be a grandfathered health plan. A plan or coverage will cease to be a grandfathered health plan when an amendment to plan terms that results in a change described in this paragraph (g)(1) becomes effective, regardless of when the amendment was adopted. Once grandfather status is lost, it cannot be regained.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Elimination of benefits.</I> The elimination of all or substantially all benefits to diagnose or treat a particular condition causes a group health plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan. For this purpose, the elimination of benefits for any necessary element to diagnose or treat a condition is considered the elimination of all or substantially all benefits to diagnose or treat a particular condition. Whether or not a plan or coverage has eliminated substantially all benefits to diagnose or treat a particular condition must be determined based on all the facts and circumstances, taking into account the items and services provided for a particular condition under the plan on March 23, 2010, as compared to the benefits offered at the time the plan or coverage makes the benefit change effective.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Increase in percentage cost-sharing requirement.</I> Any increase, measured from March 23, 2010, in a percentage cost-sharing requirement (such as an individual's coinsurance requirement) causes a group health plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Increase in a fixed-amount cost-sharing requirement other than a copayment.</I> Any increase in a fixed-amount cost-sharing requirement other than a copayment (for example, deductible or out-of-pocket limit), determined as of the effective date of the increase, causes a group health plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan, if the total percentage increase in the cost-sharing requirement measured from March 23, 2010 exceeds the maximum percentage increase (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(ii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Increase in a fixed-amount copayment.</I> Any increase in a fixed-amount copayment, determined as of the effective date of the increase, and determined for each copayment level if a plan has different copayment levels for different categories of services, causes a group health plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan, if the total increase in the copayment measured from March 23, 2010 exceeds the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) An amount equal to $5 increased by medical inflation, as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section (that is, $5 times medical inflation, plus $5); or
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum percentage increase (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(ii) of this section), determined by expressing the total increase in the copayment as a percentage.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Decrease in contribution rate by employers and employee organizations</I>—(A) <I>Contribution rate based on cost of coverage.</I> A group health plan or group health insurance coverage ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if the employer or employee organization decreases its contribution rate based on cost of coverage (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(iii)(A) of this section) towards the cost of any tier of coverage for any class of similarly situated individuals (as described in § 146.121(d) of this subchapter) by more than 5 percentage points below the contribution rate for the coverage period that includes March 23, 2010.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Contribution rate based on a formula.</I> A group health plan or group health insurance coverage ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if the employer or employee organization decreases its contribution rate based on a formula (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(iii)(B) of this section) towards the cost of any tier of coverage for any class of similarly situated individuals (as described in § 146.121(d) of this subchapter) by more than 5 percent below the contribution rate for the coverage period that includes March 23, 2010.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Changes in annual limits</I>—(A) <I>Addition of an annual limit.</I> A group health plan, or group or individual health insurance coverage that, on March 23, 2010, did not impose an overall annual or lifetime limit on the dollar value of all benefits ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if the plan or health insurance coverage imposes an overall annual limit on the dollar value of benefits. (But see § 147.126, which generally prohibits all annual dollar limits on essential health benefits for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2014).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Decrease in limit for a plan or coverage with only a lifetime limit.</I> Grandfathered individual health insurance coverage, that, on March 23, 2010, imposed an overall lifetime limit on the dollar value of all benefits but no overall annual limit on the dollar value of all benefits ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if the plan or health insurance coverage adopts an overall annual limit at a dollar value that is lower than the dollar value of the lifetime limit on March 23, 2010. (<I>But see</I> § 147.126, which generally prohibits all annual dollar limits on essential health benefits for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2014).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Decrease in limit for a plan or coverage with an annual limit.</I> A group health plan, or group or individual health insurance coverage, that, on March 23, 2010, imposed an overall annual limit on the dollar value of all benefits ceases to be a grandfathered health plan if the plan or health insurance coverage decreases the dollar value of the annual limit (regardless of whether the plan or health insurance coverage also imposed an overall lifetime limit on March 23, 2010 on the dollar value of all benefits). (<I>But see</I> § 147.126, which generally prohibits all annual dollar limits on essential health benefits for plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2014).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transitional rules</I>—(i) <I>Changes made prior to March 23, 2010.</I> If a group health plan or health insurance issuer makes the following changes to the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage, the changes are considered part of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage on March 23, 2010 even though they were not effective at that time and such changes do not cause a plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan:
</P>
<P>(A) Changes effective after March 23, 2010 pursuant to a legally binding contract entered into on or before March 23, 2010;
</P>
<P>(B) Changes effective after March 23, 2010 pursuant to a filing on or before March 23, 2010 with a State insurance department; or
</P>
<P>(C) Changes effective after March 23, 2010 pursuant to written amendments to a plan that were adopted on or before March 23, 2010.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Changes made after March 23, 2010 and adopted prior to issuance of regulations.</I> If, after March 23, 2010, a group health plan or health insurance issuer makes changes to the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage and the changes are adopted prior to June 14, 2010, the changes will not cause the plan or health insurance coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan if the changes are revoked or modified effective as of the first day of the first plan year (in the individual market, policy year) beginning on or after September 23, 2010, and the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage on that date, as modified, would not cause the plan or coverage to cease to be a grandfathered health plan under the rules of this section, including paragraph (g)(1) of this section. For this purpose, changes will be considered to have been adopted prior to June 14, 2010 if:
</P>
<P>(A) The changes are effective before that date;
</P>
<P>(B) The changes are effective on or after that date pursuant to a legally binding contract entered into before that date;
</P>
<P>(C) The changes are effective on or after that date pursuant to a filing before that date with a State insurance department; or
</P>
<P>(D) The changes are effective on or after that date pursuant to written amendments to a plan that were adopted before that date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule for certain grandfathered high deductible health plans.</I> With respect to a grandfathered group health plan or group health insurance coverage that is a high deductible health plan within the meaning of section 223(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, increases to fixed-amount cost-sharing requirements made effective on or after June 15, 2021 that otherwise would cause a loss of grandfather status will not cause the plan or coverage to relinquish its grandfather status, but only to the extent such increases are necessary to maintain its status as a high deductible health plan under section 223(c)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definitions</I>—(i) <I>Medical inflation defined.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g), the term <I>medical inflation</I> means the increase since March 2010 in the overall medical care component of the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) (unadjusted) published by the Department of Labor using the 1982-1984 base of 100. For purposes of this paragraph (g)(4)(i), the increase in the overall medical care component is computed by subtracting 387.142 (the overall medical care component of the CPI-U (unadjusted) published by the Department of Labor for March 2010, using the 1982-1984 base of 100) from the index amount for any month in the 12 months before the new change is to take effect and then dividing that amount by 387.142.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum percentage increase defined.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g), the term <I>maximum percentage increase</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to increases for a group health plan and group health insurance coverage made effective on or after March 23, 2010, and before June 15, 2021, medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section), expressed as a percentage, plus 15 percentage points;
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to increases for a group health plan and group health insurance coverage made effective on or after June 15, 2021, the greater of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section), expressed as a percentage, plus 15 percentage points; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The portion of the premium adjustment percentage, as defined in § 156.130(e) of this subchapter, that reflects the relative change between 2013 and the calendar year prior to the effective date of the increase (that is, the premium adjustment percentage minus 1), expressed as a percentage, plus 15 percentage points; and
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to increases for individual health insurance coverage, medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section), expressed as a percentage, plus 15 percentage points.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Contribution rate defined.</I> For purposes of paragraph (g)(1)(v) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Contribution rate based on cost of coverage.</I> The term <I>contribution rate based on cost of coverage</I> means the amount of contributions made by an employer or employee organization compared to the total cost of coverage, expressed as a percentage. The total cost of coverage is determined in the same manner as the applicable premium is calculated under the COBRA continuation provisions of section 604 of ERISA, section 4980B(f)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code, and section 2204 of the PHS Act. In the case of a self-insured plan, contributions by an employer or employee organization are equal to the total cost of coverage minus the employee contributions towards the total cost of coverage.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Contribution rate based on a formula.</I> The term <I>contribution rate based on a formula</I> means, for plans that, on March 23, 2010, made contributions based on a formula (such as hours worked or tons of coal mined), the formula.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (g) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On March 23, 2010, a grandfathered health plan has a coinsurance requirement of 20% for inpatient surgery. The plan is subsequently amended to increase the coinsurance requirement to 25%.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the increase in the coinsurance requirement from 20% to 25% causes the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Before March 23, 2010, the terms of a group health plan provide benefits for a particular mental health condition, the treatment for which is a combination of counseling and prescription drugs. Subsequently, the plan eliminates benefits for counseling.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the plan ceases to be a grandfathered health plan because counseling is an element that is necessary to treat the condition. Thus the plan is considered to have eliminated substantially all benefits for the treatment of the condition.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On March 23, 2010, a grandfathered group health plan has a copayment requirement of $30 per office visit for specialists. The plan is subsequently amended to increase the copayment requirement to $40, effective before June 15, 2021. Within the 12-month period before the $40 copayment takes effect, the greatest value of the overall medical care component of the CPI-U (unadjusted) is 475.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the increase in the copayment from $30 to $40, expressed as a percentage, is 33.33% (40−30 = 10; 10 ÷ 30 = 0.3333; 0.3333 = 33.33%). Medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section) from March 2010 is 0.2269 (475−387.142 = 87.858; 87.858 ÷ 387.142 = 0.2269). The maximum percentage increase permitted is 37.69% (0.2269 = 22.69%; 22.69% + 15% = 37.69%). Because 33.33% does not exceed 37.69%, the change in the copayment requirement at that time does not cause the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 3</I> of this paragraph (g)(5), except the grandfathered group health plan subsequently increases the $40 copayment requirement to $45 for a later plan year, effective before June 15, 2021. Within the 12-month period before the $45 copayment takes effect, the greatest value of the overall medical care component of the CPI-U (unadjusted) is 485.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the increase in the copayment from $30 (the copayment that was in effect on March 23, 2010) to $45, expressed as a percentage, is 50% (45−30 = 15; 15 ÷ 30 = 0.5; 0.5 = 50%). Medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section) from March 2010 is 0.2527 (485−387.142 = 97.858; 97.858 ÷ 387.142 = 0.2527). The increase that would cause a plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan under paragraph (g)(1)(iv) of this section is the greater of the maximum percentage increase of 40.27% (0.2527 = 25.27%; 25.27% + 15% = 40.27%), or $6.26 (5 × 0.2527 = $1.26; $1.26 + $5 = $6.26). Because 50% exceeds 40.27% and $15 exceeds $6.26, the change in the copayment requirement at that time causes the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 4</I> of this paragraph (g)(5), except the grandfathered group health plan increases the copayment requirement to $45, effective <I>after</I> June 15, 2021. The greatest value of the overall medical care component of the CPI-U (unadjusted) in the preceding 12-month period is still 485. In the calendar year that includes the effective date of the increase, the applicable portion of the premium adjustment percentage is 36%.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 5,</I> the grandfathered health plan may increase the copayment by the greater of: Medical inflation, expressed as a percentage, plus 15 percentage points; or the applicable portion of the premium adjustment percentage for the calendar year that includes the effective date of the increase, plus 15 percentage points. The latter amount is greater because it results in a 51% maximum percentage increase (36% + 15% = 51%) and, as demonstrated in <I>Example 4</I> of this paragraph (g)(5), determining the maximum percentage increase using medical inflation yields a result of 40.27%. The increase in the copayment, expressed as a percentage, is 50% (45−30 = 15; 15 ÷ 30 = 0.5; 0.5 = 50%). Because the 50% increase in the copayment is less than the 51% maximum percentage increase, the change in the copayment requirement at that time does not cause the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On March 23, 2010, a grandfathered group health plan has a copayment of $10 per office visit for primary care providers. The plan is subsequently amended to increase the copayment requirement to $15, effective before June 15, 2021. Within the 12-month period before the $15 copayment takes effect, the greatest value of the overall medical care component of the CPI-U (unadjusted) is 415.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 6,</I> the increase in the copayment, expressed as a percentage, is 50% (15−10 = 5; 5 ÷ 10 = 0.5; 0.5 = 50%). Medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section) from March 2010 is 0.0720 (415.0−387.142 = 27.858; 27.858 ÷ 387.142 = 0.0720). The increase that would cause a group plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan under paragraph (g)(1)(iv) of this section is the greater of the maximum percentage increase of 22.20% (0.0720 = 7.20%; 7.20% + 15% = 22.20%), or $5.36 ($5 × 0.0720 = $0.36; $0.36 + $5 = $5.36). The $5 increase in copayment in this <I>Example 6</I> would not cause the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan pursuant to paragraph (g)(1)(iv) of this section, which would permit an increase in the copayment of up to $5.36.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 6</I> of this paragraph (g)(5), except on March 23, 2010, the grandfathered health plan has no copayment ($0) for office visits for primary care providers. The plan is subsequently, amended to increase the copayment requirement to $5, effective before June 15, 2021.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 7,</I> medical inflation (as defined in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section) from March 2010 is 0.0720 (415.0−387.142 = 27.858; 27.858 ÷ 387.142 = 0.0720). The increase that would cause a plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan under paragraph (g)(1)(iv)(A) of this section is $5.36 ($5 × 0.0720 = $0.36; $0.36 + $5 = $5.36). The $5 increase in copayment in this <I>Example 7</I> is less than the amount calculated pursuant to paragraph (g)(1)(iv)(A) of this section of $5.36. Thus, the $5 increase in copayment does not cause the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On March 23, 2010, a self-insured group health plan provides two tiers of coverage—self-only and family. The employer contributes 80% of the total cost of coverage for self-only and 60% of the total cost of coverage for family. Subsequently, the employer reduces the contribution to 50% for family coverage, but keeps the same contribution rate for self-only coverage.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 8,</I> the decrease of 10 percentage points for family coverage in the contribution rate based on cost of coverage causes the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan. The fact that the contribution rate for self-only coverage remains the same does not change the result.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 9.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> On March 23, 2010, a self-insured grandfathered health plan has a COBRA premium for the 2010 plan year of $5,000 for self-only coverage and $12,000 for family coverage. The required employee contribution for the coverage is $1,000 for self-only coverage and $4,000 for family coverage. Thus, the contribution rate based on cost of coverage for 2010 is 80% ((5,000−1,000)/5,000) for self-only coverage and 67% ((12,000−4,000)/12,000) for family coverage. For a subsequent plan year, the COBRA premium is $6,000 for self-only coverage and $15,000 for family coverage. The employee contributions for that plan year are $1,200 for self-only coverage and $5,000 for family coverage. Thus, the contribution rate based on cost of coverage is 80% ((6,000−1,200)/6,000) for self-only coverage and 67% ((15,000−5,000)/15,000) for family coverage.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 9,</I> because there is no change in the contribution rate based on cost of coverage, the plan retains its status as a grandfathered health plan. The result would be the same if all or part of the employee contribution was made pre-tax through a cafeteria plan under section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 10.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan not maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement offers three benefit packages on March 23, 2010. Option <I>F</I> is a self-insured option. Options <I>G</I> and <I>H</I> are insured options. Beginning July 1, 2013, the plan increases coinsurance under Option <I>H</I> from 10% to 15%.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 10,</I> the coverage under Option <I>H</I> is not grandfathered health plan coverage as of July 1, 2013, consistent with the rule in paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section. Whether the coverage under Options <I>F</I> and <I>G</I> is grandfathered health plan coverage is determined separately under the rules of this paragraph (g).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 11.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan that is a grandfathered health plan and also a high deductible health plan within the meaning of section 223(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code had a $2,400 deductible for family coverage on March 23, 2010. The plan is subsequently amended after June 15, 2021 to increase the deductible limit by the amount that is necessary to comply with the requirements for a plan to qualify as a high deductible health plan under section 223(c)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, but that exceeds the maximum percentage increase.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 11,</I> the increase in the deductible at that time does not cause the plan to cease to be a grandfathered health plan because the increase was necessary for the plan to continue to satisfy the definition of a high deductible health plan under section 223(c)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code.</P></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72289, Nov. 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 81120, Dec. 15, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.145" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.145   Student health insurance coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> Student health insurance coverage is a type of individual health insurance coverage (as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter) that is provided pursuant to a written agreement between an institution of higher education (as defined in the Higher Education Act of 1965) and a health insurance issuer, and provided to students enrolled in that institution of higher education and their dependents, that meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Does not make health insurance coverage available other than in connection with enrollment as a student (or as a dependent of a student) in the institution of higher education.
</P>
<P>(2) Does not condition eligibility for the health insurance coverage on any health status-related factor (as defined in § 146.121(a) of this subchapter) relating to a student (or a dependent of a student).
</P>
<P>(3) Meets any additional requirement that may be imposed under State law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions from the Public Health Service Act and the Affordable Care Act</I>—(1) <I>Guaranteed availability and guaranteed renewability.</I> (i) For purposes of sections 2741(e)(1) and 2742(b)(5) of the Public Health Service Act, student health insurance coverage is deemed to be available only through a bona fide association.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of section 2702 of the Public Health Service Act, a health insurance issuer that offers student health insurance coverage is not required to accept individuals who are not students or dependents of students in such coverage, and, notwithstanding the requirements of § 147.104(b), is not required to establish open enrollment periods or coverage effective dates that are based on a calendar policy year or to offer policies on a calendar year basis.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of section 2703(a) of the Public Health Service Act, a health insurance issuer that offers student health insurance coverage is not required to renew or continue in force coverage for individuals who are no longer students or dependents of students.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Levels of coverage.</I> The requirement to provide a specific level of coverage described in section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act does not apply to student health insurance coverage for policy years beginning on or after July 1, 2016. However, the benefits provided by such coverage must provide at least 60 percent actuarial value, as calculated in accordance with § 156.135 of this subchapter. The issuer must specify in any plan materials summarizing the terms of the coverage the actuarial value and level of coverage (or next lowest level of coverage) the coverage would otherwise satisfy under § 156.140 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Single risk pool.</I> Student health insurance coverage is not subject to the requirements of section 1312(c) of the Affordable Care Act. A health insurance issuer that offers student health insurance coverage may establish one or more separate risk pools for an institution of higher education, if the distinction between or among groups of students (or dependents of students) who form the risk pool is based on a bona fide school-related classification and not based on a health factor (as described in § 146.121 of this subchapter). However, student health insurance rates must reflect the claims experience of individuals who comprise the risk pool, and any adjustments to rates within a risk pool must be actuarially justified.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Student administrative health fees</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> A student administrative health fee is a fee charged by the institution of higher education on a periodic basis to students of the institution of higher education to offset the cost of providing health care through health clinics regardless of whether the students utilize the health clinics or enroll in student health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preventive services.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements under section 2713 of the Public Health Service Act and its implementing regulations, student administrative health fees as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section are not considered cost-sharing requirements with respect to specified recommended preventive services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 16468, Mar. 21, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 13439, Feb. 27, 2013; 79 FR 13834, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 12334, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.150" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.150   Coverage of essential health benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement to cover the essential health benefits package.</I> A health insurance issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual or small group market must ensure that such coverage includes the essential health benefits package as defined in section 1302(a) of the Affordable Care Act effective for plan or policy years beginning on or after January 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cost-sharing under group health plans.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Child-only plans.</I> If a health insurance issuer offers health insurance coverage in any level of coverage specified under section 1302(d)(1) of the Affordable Care Act, the issuer must offer coverage in that level as a plan in which the only enrollees are individuals who, as of the beginning of a plan year, have not attained the age of 21.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12865, Feb. 25, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.160" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.160   Parity in mental health and substance use disorder benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The provisions of §§ 146.136 and 146.137 of this subchapter apply to individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer in the same manner and to the same extent as such provisions apply to health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer in connection with a group health plan in the large group market.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for policy years beginning on or after January 1, 2026. Until the applicability date in the preceding sentence, issuers are required to continue to comply with 45 CFR 147.160, incorporating 45 CFR 146.136, each revised as of October 1, 2023. This section applies to non-grandfathered and grandfathered health plans as defined in § 147.140.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 77751, Sept. 23, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.200" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.200   Summary of benefits and coverage and uniform glossary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Summary of benefits and coverage</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan (and its administrator as defined in section 3(16)(A) of ERISA)), and a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, is required to provide a written summary of benefits and coverage (SBC) for each benefit package without charge to entities and individuals described in this paragraph (a)(1) in accordance with the rules of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>SBC provided by a group health insurance issuer to a group health plan</I>—(A) <I>Upon application.</I> A health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage must provide the SBC to a group health plan (or its sponsor) upon application for health coverage, as soon as practicable following receipt of the application, but in no event later than seven business days following receipt of the application. If an SBC was provided before application pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i)(D) of this section (relating to SBCs upon request), this paragraph (a)(1)(i)(A) is deemed satisfied, provided there is no change to the information required to be in the SBC. However, if there has been a change in the information required, a new SBC that includes the changed information must be provided upon application pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>By first day of coverage (if there are changes).</I> If there is any change in the information required to be in the SBC that was provided upon application and before the first day of coverage, the issuer must update and provide a current SBC to the plan (or its sponsor) no later than the first day of coverage.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Upon renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment.</I> If the issuer renews or reissues a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance for a succeeding policy year, or automatically re-enrolls the policyholder or its participants and beneficiaries in coverage, the issuer must provide a new SBC as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If written application is required (in either paper or electronic form) for renewal or reissuance, the SBC must be provided no later than the date the written application materials are distributed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment is automatic, the SBC must be provided no later than 30 days prior to the first day of the new plan or policy year; however, with respect to an insured plan, if the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance has not been issued or renewed before such 30-day period, the SBC must be provided as soon as practicable but in no event later than seven business days after issuance of the new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, or the receipt of written confirmation of intent to renew, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Upon request.</I> If a group health plan (or its sponsor) requests an SBC or summary information about a health insurance product from a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, an SBC must be provided as soon as practicable, but in no event later than seven business days following receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>SBC provided by a group health insurance issuer and a group health plan to participants and beneficiaries</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan (including its administrator, as defined under section 3(16) of ERISA), and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, must provide an SBC to a participant or beneficiary (as defined under sections 3(7) and 3(8) of ERISA), and consistent with the rules of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, with respect to each benefit package offered by the plan or issuer for which the participant or beneficiary is eligible.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Upon application.</I> The SBC must be provided as part of any written application materials that are distributed by the plan or issuer for enrollment. If the plan or issuer does not distribute written application materials for enrollment, the SBC must be provided no later than the first date on which the participant is eligible to enroll in coverage for the participant or any beneficiaries. If an SBC was provided before application pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(F) of this section (relating to SBCs upon request), this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) is deemed satisfied, provided there is no change to the information required to be in the SBC. However, if there has been a change in the information that is required to be in the SBC, a new SBC that includes the changed information must be provided upon application pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>By first day of coverage (if there are changes).</I> (<I>1</I>) If there is any change to the information required to be in the SBC that was provided upon application and before the first day of coverage, the plan or issuer must update and provide a current SBC to a participant or beneficiary no later than the first day of coverage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the plan sponsor is negotiating coverage terms after an application has been filed and the information required to be in the SBC changes, the plan or issuer is not required to provide an updated SBC (unless an updated SBC is requested) until the first day of coverage.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Special enrollees.</I> The plan or issuer must provide the SBC to special enrollees (as described in § 146.117 of this subchapter) no later than the date by which a summary plan description is required to be provided under the timeframe set forth in ERISA section 104(b)(1)(A) and its implementing regulations, which is 90 days from enrollment.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Upon renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment.</I> If the plan or issuer requires participants or beneficiaries to renew in order to maintain coverage (for example, for a succeeding plan year), or automatically re-enrolls participants and beneficiaries in coverage, the plan or issuer must provide a new SBC, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If written application is required for renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment (in either paper or electronic form), the SBC must be provided no later than the date on which the written application materials are distributed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment is automatic, the SBC must be provided no later than 30 days prior to the first day of the new plan or policy year; however, with respect to an insured plan, if the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance has not been issued or renewed before such 30-day period, the SBC must be provided as soon as practicable but in no event later than seven business days after issuance of the new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, or the receipt of written confirmation of intent to renew, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Upon request.</I> A plan or issuer must provide the SBC to participants or beneficiaries upon request for an SBC or summary information about the health coverage, as soon as practicable, but in no event later than seven business days following receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special rules to prevent unnecessary duplication with respect to group health coverage.</I> (A) An entity required to provide an SBC under this paragraph (a)(1) with respect to an individual satisfies that requirement if another party provides the SBC, but only to the extent that the SBC is timely and complete in accordance with the other rules of this section. Therefore, for example, in the case of a group health plan funded through an insurance policy, the plan satisfies the requirement to provide an SBC with respect to an individual if the issuer provides a timely and complete SBC to the individual. An entity required to provide an SBC under this paragraph (a)(1) with respect to an individual that contracts with another party to provide such SBC is considered to satisfy the requirement to provide such SBC if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The entity monitors performance under the contract;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the entity has knowledge that the SBC is not being provided in a manner that satisfies the requirements of this section and the entity has all information necessary to correct the noncompliance, the entity corrects the noncompliance as soon as practicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the entity has knowledge the SBC is not being provided in a manner that satisfies the requirements of this section and the entity does not have all information necessary to correct the noncompliance, the entity communicates with participants and beneficiaries who are affected by the noncompliance regarding the noncompliance, and begins taking significant steps as soon as practicable to avoid future violations.
</P>
<P>(B) If a single SBC is provided to a participant and any beneficiaries at the participant's last known address, then the requirement to provide the SBC to the participant and any beneficiaries is generally satisfied. However, if a beneficiary's last known address is different than the participant's last known address, a separate SBC is required to be provided to the beneficiary at the beneficiary's last known address.
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to a group health plan that offers multiple benefit packages, the plan or issuer is required to provide a new SBC automatically to participants and beneficiaries upon renewal or reenrollment only with respect to the benefit package in which a participant or beneficiary is enrolled (or will be automatically re-enrolled under the plan); SBCs are not required to be provided automatically upon renewal or reenrollment with respect to benefit packages in which the participant or beneficiary is not enrolled (or will not automatically be enrolled). However, if a participant or beneficiary requests an SBC with respect to another benefit package (or more than one other benefit package) for which the participant or beneficiary is eligible, the SBC (or SBCs, in the case of a request for SBCs relating to more than one benefit package) must be provided upon request as soon as practicable, but in no event later than seven business days following receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(D) Subject to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, a plan administrator of a group health plan that uses two or more insurance products provided by separate health insurance issuers with respect to a single group health plan may synthesize the information into a single SBC or provide multiple partial SBCs provided that all the SBC include the content in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>SBC provided by a health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage</I>—(A) <I>Upon application.</I> A health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage must provide an SBC to an individual covered under the policy (including every dependent) upon receiving an application for any health insurance policy, as soon as practicable following receipt of the application, but in no event later than seven business days following receipt of the application. If an SBC was provided before application pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(D) of this section (relating to SBCs upon request), this paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(A) is deemed satisfied, provided there is no change to the information required to be in the SBC. However, if there has been a change in the information that is required to be in the SBC, a new SBC that includes the changed information must be provided upon application pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>By first day of coverage (if there are changes).</I> If there is any change in the information required to be in the SBC that was provided upon application and before the first day of coverage, the issuer must update and provide a current SBC to the individual no later than the first day of coverage.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Upon renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment.</I> If the issuer renews or reissues a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance for a succeeding policy year, or automatically re-enrolls an individual (or dependent) covered under a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance into a policy, certificate, or contract of insurance under a different plan or product, the issuer must provide an SBC for the coverage in which the individual (including every dependent) will be enrolled, as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If written application is required (in either paper or electronic form) for renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment, the SBC must be provided no later than the date on which the written application materials are distributed.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If renewal, reissuance, or reenrollment is automatic, the SBC must be provided no later than 30 days prior to the first day of the new policy year; however, if the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance has not been issued or renewed before such 30 day period, the SBC must be provided as soon as practicable but in no event later than seven business days after issuance of the new policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, or the receipt of written confirmation of intent to renew, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Upon request.</I> A health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage must provide an SBC to any individual or dependent upon request for an SBC or summary information about a health insurance product as soon as practicable, but in no event later than seven business days following receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Special rule to prevent unnecessary duplication with respect to individual health insurance coverage</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> If a single SBC is provided to an individual and any dependents at the individual's last known address, then the requirement to provide the SBC to the individual and any dependents is generally satisfied. However, if a dependent's last known address is different than the individual's last known address, a separate SBC is required to be provided to the dependent at the dependents' last known address.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Student health insurance coverage.</I> With respect to student health insurance coverage as defined at § 147.145(a), the requirement to provide an SBC to an individual will be considered satisfied for an entity if another party provides a timely and complete SBC to the individual. An entity required to provide an SBC under this paragraph (a)(1) with respect to an individual that contracts with another party to provide such SBC is considered to satisfy the requirement to provide such SBC if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The entity monitors performance under the contract;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the entity has knowledge that the SBC is not being provided in a manner that satisfies the requirements of this section and the entity has all information necessary to correct the noncompliance, the entity corrects the noncompliance as soon as practicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the entity has knowledge the SBC is not being provided in a manner that satisfies the requirements of this section and the entity does not have all information necessary to correct the noncompliance, the entity communicates with covered individuals and dependents who are affected by the noncompliance regarding the noncompliance, and begins taking significant steps as soon as practicable to avoid future violations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the SBC must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Uniform definitions of standard insurance terms and medical terms so that consumers may compare health coverage and understand the terms of (or exceptions to) their coverage, in accordance with guidance as specified by the Secretary;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the coverage, including cost sharing, for each category of benefits identified by the Secretary in guidance;
</P>
<P>(C) The exceptions, reductions, and limitations of the coverage;
</P>
<P>(D) The cost-sharing provisions of the coverage, including deductible, coinsurance, and copayment obligations;
</P>
<P>(E) The renewability and continuation of coverage provisions;
</P>
<P>(F) Coverage examples, in accordance with the rules of paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) With respect to coverage beginning on or after January 1, 2014, a statement about whether the plan or coverage provides minimum essential coverage as defined under section 5000A(f) and whether the plan's or coverage's share of the total allowed costs of benefits provided under the plan or coverage meets applicable requirements;
</P>
<P>(H) A statement that the SBC is only a summary and that the plan document, policy, certificate, or contract of insurance should be consulted to determine the governing contractual provisions of the coverage;
</P>
<P>(I) Contact information for questions;
</P>
<P>(J) For issuers, an Internet web address where a copy of the actual individual coverage policy or group certificate of coverage can be reviewed and obtained;
</P>
<P>(K) For plans and issuers that maintain one or more networks of providers, an Internet address (or similar contact information) for obtaining a list of network providers;
</P>
<P>(L) For plans and issuers that use a formulary in providing prescription drug coverage, an Internet address (or similar contact information) for obtaining information on prescription drug coverage;
</P>
<P>(M) An Internet address for obtaining the uniform glossary, as described in paragraph (c) of this section, as well as a contact phone number to obtain a paper copy of the uniform glossary, and a disclosure that paper copies are available; and
</P>
<P>(N) For qualified health plans sold through an individual market Exchange that exclude or provide for coverage of the services described in § 156.280(d)(1) or (2) of this subchapter, a notice of coverage or exclusion of such services.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Coverage examples.</I> The SBC must include coverage examples specified by the Secretary in guidance that illustrate benefits provided under the plan or coverage for common benefits scenarios (including pregnancy and serious or chronic medical conditions) in accordance with this paragraph (a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Number of examples.</I> The Secretary may identify up to six coverage examples that may be required in an SBC.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Benefits scenarios.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2)(ii), a benefits scenario is a hypothetical situation, consisting of a sample treatment plan for a specified medical condition during a specific period of time, based on recognized clinical practice guidelines as defined by the National Guideline Clearinghouse, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality. The Secretary will specify, in guidance, the assumptions, including the relevant items and services and reimbursement information, for each claim in the benefits scenario.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Illustration of benefit provided.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2)(ii), to illustrate benefits provided under the plan or coverage for a particular benefits scenario, a plan or issuer simulates claims processing in accordance with guidance issued by the Secretary to generate an estimate of what an individual might expect to pay under the plan, policy, or benefit package. The illustration of benefits provided will take into account any cost sharing, excluded benefits, and other limitations on coverage, as specified by the Secretary in guidance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Coverage provided outside the United States.</I> In lieu of summarizing coverage for items and services provided outside the United States, a plan or issuer may provide an Internet address (or similar contact information) for obtaining information about benefits and coverage provided outside the United States. In any case, the plan or issuer must provide an SBC in accordance with this section that accurately summarizes benefits and coverage available under the plan or coverage within the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appearance.</I> (i) A group health plan and a health insurance issuer must provide an SBC in the form, and in accordance with the instructions for completing the SBC, that are specified by the Secretary in guidance. The SBC must be presented in a uniform format, use terminology understandable by the average plan enrollee (or, in the case of individual market coverage, the average individual covered under a health insurance policy), not exceed four double-sided pages in length, and not include print smaller than 12-point font. A health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage must provide the SBC as a stand-alone document.
</P>
<P>(ii) A group health plan that utilizes two or more benefit packages (such as major medical coverage and a health flexible spending arrangement) may synthesize the information into a single SBC, or provide multiple SBCs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form.</I> (i) An SBC provided by an issuer offering group health insurance coverage to a plan (or its sponsor), may be provided in paper form. Alternatively, the SBC may be provided electronically (such as by email or an Internet posting) if the following three conditions are satisfied—
</P>
<P>(A) The format is readily accessible by the plan (or its sponsor);
</P>
<P>(B) The SBC is provided in paper form free of charge upon request; and
</P>
<P>(C) If the electronic form is an Internet posting, the issuer timely advises the plan (or its sponsor) in paper form or email that the documents are available on the Internet and provides the Internet address.
</P>
<P>(ii) An SBC provided by a group health plan or health insurance issuer to a participant or beneficiary may be provided in paper form. Alternatively, the SBC may be provided electronically (such as by email or an Internet posting) if the requirements of this paragraph (a)(4)(ii) are met.
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to participants and beneficiaries covered under the plan or coverage, the SBC may be provided electronically as described in this paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A). However, in all cases, the plan or issuer must provide the SBC in paper form if paper form is requested.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In accordance with the Department of Labor's disclosure regulations at 29 CFR 2520.104b-1;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In connection with online enrollment or online renewal of coverage under the plan; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In response to an online request made by a participant or beneficiary for the SBC.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to participants and beneficiaries who are eligible but not enrolled for coverage, the SBC may be provided electronically if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The format is readily accessible;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The SBC is provided in paper form free of charge upon request; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In a case in which the electronic form is an Internet posting, the plan or issuer timely notifies the individual in paper form (such as a postcard) or email that the documents are available on the Internet, provides the Internet address, and notifies the individual that the documents are available in paper form upon request.
</P>
<P>(iii) An issuer offering individual health insurance coverage must provide an SBC in a manner that can reasonably be expected to provide actual notice in paper or electronic form.
</P>
<P>(A) An issuer satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (a)(4)(iii) if the issuer:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Hand-delivers a printed copy of the SBC to the individual or dependent;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Mails a printed copy of the SBC to the mailing address provided to the issuer by the individual or dependent;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Provides the SBC by email after obtaining the individual's or dependent's agreement to receive the SBC or other electronic disclosures by email;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Posts the SBC on the Internet and advises the individual or dependent in paper or electronic form, in a manner compliant with paragraphs (a)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>) of this section, that the SBC is available on the Internet and includes the applicable Internet address; or
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Provides the SBC by any other method that can reasonably be expected to provide actual notice.
</P>
<P>(B) An SBC may not be provided electronically unless:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The format is readily accessible;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The SBC is placed in a location that is prominent and readily accessible;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The SBC is provided in an electronic form which can be electronically retained and printed;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The SBC is consistent with the appearance, content, and language requirements of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The issuer notifies the individual or dependent that the SBC is available in paper form without charge upon request and provides it upon request.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Deemed compliance.</I> A health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage that provides the content required under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, as specified in guidance published by the Secretary, to the federal health reform Web portal described in § 159.120 of this subchapter will be deemed to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(D) of this section with respect to a request for summary information about a health insurance product made prior to an application for coverage. However, nothing in this paragraph should be construed as otherwise limiting such issuer's obligations under this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) An SBC provided by a self-insured non-Federal governmental plan may be provided in paper form. Alternatively, the SBC may be provided electronically if the plan conforms to either the substance of the provisions in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Language.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must provide the SBC in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(5), a plan or issuer is considered to provide the SBC in a culturally and linguistically appropriate manner if the thresholds and standards of § 147.136(e) are met as applied to the SBC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of modification.</I> If a group health plan, or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, makes any material modification (as defined under section 102 of ERISA) in any of the terms of the plan or coverage that would affect the content of the SBC, that is not reflected in the most recently provided SBC, and that occurs other than in connection with a renewal or reissuance of coverage, the plan or issuer must provide notice of the modification to enrollees (or, in the case of individual market coverage, an individual covered under a health insurance policy) not later than 60 days prior to the date on which the modification will become effective. The notice of modification must be provided in a form that is consistent with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uniform glossary</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, must make available to participants and beneficiaries, and a health insurance issuer offering individual health insurance coverage must make available to applicants, policyholders, and covered dependents, the uniform glossary described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section in accordance with the appearance and form and manner requirements of paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Health-coverage-related terms and medical terms.</I> The uniform glossary must provide uniform definitions, specified by the Secretary in guidance, of the following health-coverage-related terms and medical terms:
</P>
<P>(i) Allowed amount, appeal, balance billing, co-insurance, complications of pregnancy, co-payment, deductible, durable medical equipment, emergency medical condition, emergency medical transportation, emergency room care, emergency services, excluded services, grievance, habilitation services, health insurance, home health care, hospice services, hospitalization, hospital outpatient care, in-network co-insurance, in-network co-payment, medically necessary, network, non-preferred provider, out-of-network coinsurance, out-of-network co-payment, out-of-pocket limit, physician services, plan, preauthorization, preferred provider, premium, prescription drug coverage, prescription drugs, primary care physician, primary care provider, provider, reconstructive surgery, rehabilitation services, skilled nursing care, specialist, usual customary and reasonable (UCR), and urgent care; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Such other terms as the Secretary determines are important to define so that individuals and employers may compare and understand the terms of coverage and medical benefits (including any exceptions to those benefits), as specified in guidance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appearance.</I> A group health plan, and a health insurance issuer, must provide the uniform glossary with the appearance specified by the Secretary in guidance to ensure the uniform glossary is presented in a uniform format and uses terminology understandable by the average plan enrollee (or, in the case of individual market coverage, an average individual covered under a health insurance policy).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form and manner.</I> A plan or issuer must make the uniform glossary described in this paragraph (c) available upon request, in either paper or electronic form (as requested), within seven business days after receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preemption.</I> For purposes of this section, the provisions of section 2724 of the PHS Act continue to apply with respect to preemption of State law. State laws that conflict with this section (including a state law that requires a health insurance issuer to provide an SBC that supplies less information than required under paragraph (a) of this section) are preempted.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to provide.</I> A health insurance issuer or a non-federal governmental health plan that willfully fails to provide information to a covered individual required under this section is subject to a fine of not more than $1,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 for each such failure. A failure with respect to each covered individual constitutes a separate offense for purposes of this paragraph (e). HHS will enforce these provisions in a manner consistent with §§ 150.101 through 150.465 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability to Medicare Advantage benefits.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to a group health plan benefit package that provides Medicare Advantage benefits pursuant to or 42 U.S.C. Chapter 7, Subchapter XVIII, Part C.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> (1) This section is applicable to group health plans and group health insurance issuers in accordance with this paragraph (g). (See § 147.140(d), providing that this section applies to grandfathered health plans.)
</P>
<P>(i) For disclosures with respect to participants and beneficiaries who enroll or re-enroll through an open enrollment period (including re-enrollees and late enrollees), this section applies beginning on the first day of the first open enrollment period that begins on or after September 1, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For disclosures with respect to participants and beneficiaries who enroll in coverage other than through an open enrollment period (including individuals who are newly eligible for coverage and special enrollees), this section applies beginning on the first day of the first plan year that begins on or after September 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(2) For disclosures with respect to plans, this section is applicable to health insurance issuers beginning September 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(3) For disclosures with respect individuals and covered dependents in the individual market, this section is applicable to health insurance issuers beginning with respect to SBCs issued for coverage that begins on or after January 1, 2016.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 34310, June 16, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 61581, Sept. 6, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.210" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.210   Transparency in coverage—definitions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20261006" REFID="35">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 63862, Oct. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth definitions for the price transparency requirements for group health plans and health insurance issuers in the individual and group markets established in this section and §§ 147.211 and 147.212.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and §§ 147.211 and 147.212, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Accumulated amounts</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of financial responsibility a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee has incurred at the time a request for cost-sharing information is made, with respect to a deductible or out-of-pocket limit. If an individual is enrolled in other than self-only coverage, these accumulated amounts shall include the financial responsibility a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee has incurred toward meeting his or her individual deductible or out-of-pocket limit, as well as the amount of financial responsibility that all the individuals enrolled under the plan or coverage have incurred, in aggregate, toward meeting the other than self-only deductible or out-of-pocket limit, as applicable. Accumulated amounts include any expense that counts toward a deductible or out-of-pocket limit (such as a copayment or coinsurance), but exclude any expense that does not count toward a deductible or out-of-pocket limit (such as any premium payment, out-of-pocket expense for out-of-network services, or amount for items or services not covered under the group health plan or health insurance coverage); and
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent a group health plan or health insurance issuer imposes a cumulative treatment limitation on a particular covered item or service (such as a limit on the number of items, days, units, visits, or hours covered in a defined time period) independent of individual medical necessity determinations, the amount that has accrued toward the limit on the item or service (such as the number of items, days, units, visits, or hours the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee has used within that time period).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Billed charge</I> means the total charges for an item or service billed to a group health plan or health insurance issuer by a provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Billing code</I> means the code used by a group health plan or health insurance issuer or provider to identify health care items or services for purposes of billing, adjudicating, and paying claims for a covered item or service, including the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code, Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) code, Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG) code, National Drug Code (NDC), or other common payer identifier.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Bundled payment arrangement</I> means a payment model under which a provider is paid a single payment for all covered items and services provided to a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee for a specific treatment or procedure.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Copayment assistance</I> means the financial assistance a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee receives from a prescription drug or medical supply manufacturer towards the purchase of a covered item or service.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Cost-sharing liability</I> means the amount a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee is responsible for paying for a covered item or service under the terms of the group health plan or health insurance coverage. Cost-sharing liability generally includes deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments, but does not include premiums, balance billing amounts by out-of-network providers, or the cost of items or services that are not covered under a group health plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Cost-sharing information</I> means information related to any expenditure required by or on behalf of a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee with respect to health care benefits that are relevant to a determination of the participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's cost-sharing liability for a particular covered item or service.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Covered items or services</I> means those items or services, including prescription drugs, the costs for which are payable, in whole or in part, under the terms of a group health plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Derived amount</I> means the price that a group health plan or health insurance issuer assigns to an item or service for the purpose of internal accounting, reconciliation with providers or submitting data in accordance with the requirements of § 153.710(c) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Enrollee</I> means an individual who is covered under an individual health insurance policy as defined under section 2791(b)(5) of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act.


</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Historical net price</I> means the retrospective average amount a group health plan or health insurance issuer paid for a prescription drug, inclusive of any reasonably allocated rebates, discounts, chargebacks, fees, and any additional price concessions received by the plan or issuer with respect to the prescription drug. The allocation shall be determined by dollar value for non-product specific and product-specific rebates, discounts, chargebacks, fees, and other price concessions to the extent that the total amount of any such price concession is known to the group health plan or health insurance issuer at the time of publication of the historical net price in a machine-readable file in accordance with § 147.212. However, to the extent that the total amount of any non-product specific and product-specific rebates, discounts, chargebacks, fees, or other price concessions is not known to the group health plan or health insurance issuer at the time of file publication, then the plan or issuer shall allocate such rebates, discounts, chargebacks, fees, and other price concessions by using a good faith, reasonable estimate of the average price concessions based on the rebates, discounts, chargebacks, fees, and other price concessions received over a time period prior to the current reporting period and of equal duration to the current reporting period, as determined under § 147.212(b)(1)(iii)(D)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>In-network provider</I> means any provider of any item or service with which a group health plan or health insurance issuer, or a third party for the plan or issuer, has a contract setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant item or service is provided to a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Items or services</I> means all encounters, procedures, medical tests, supplies, prescription drugs, durable medical equipment, and fees (including facility fees), provided or assessed in connection with the provision of health care.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Machine-readable file</I> means a digital representation of data or information in a file that can be imported or read by a computer system for further processing without human intervention, while ensuring no semantic meaning is lost.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>National Drug Code</I> means the unique 10- or 11-digit 3-segment number assigned by the Food and Drug Administration, which provides a universal product identifier for drugs in the United States.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Negotiated rate</I> means the amount a group health plan or health insurance issuer has contractually agreed to pay an in-network provider, including an in-network pharmacy or other prescription drug dispenser, for covered items and services, whether directly or indirectly, including through a third-party administrator or pharmacy benefit manager.
</P>
<P>(xvii) <I>Out-of-network allowed amount</I> means the maximum amount a group health plan or health insurance issuer will pay for a covered item or service furnished by an out-of-network provider.
</P>
<P>(xviii) <I>Out-of-network provider</I> means a provider of any item or service that does not have a contract under a participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's group health plan or health insurance coverage to provide items or services.
</P>
<P>(xix) <I>Out-of-pocket limit</I> means the maximum amount that a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee is required to pay during a coverage period for his or her share of the costs of covered items and services under his or her group health plan or health insurance coverage, including for self-only and other than self-only coverage, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(xx) <I>Plain language</I> means written and presented in a manner calculated to be understood by the average participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(xxi) <I>Prerequisite</I> means concurrent review, prior authorization, and step-therapy or fail-first protocols related to covered items and services that must be satisfied before a group health plan or health insurance issuer will cover the item or service. The term prerequisite does not include medical necessity determinations generally or other forms of medical management techniques.


</P>
<P>(xxii) <I>Underlying fee schedule rate</I> means the rate for a covered item or service from a particular in-network provider, or providers that a group health plan or health insurance issuer uses to determine a participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's cost-sharing liability for the item or service, when that rate is different from the negotiated rate or derived amount.


</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 72305, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.211" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.211   Transparency in coverage—required disclosures to participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20261006" REFID="36">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 63863, Oct. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section establishes price transparency requirements for group health plans and health insurance issuers in the individual and group markets for the timely disclosure of information about costs related to covered items and services under a plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the definitions in § 147.210 apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required disclosures to participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees.</I> At the request of a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee who is enrolled in a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, the plan or issuer must provide to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee the information required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, in accordance with the method and format requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Required cost-sharing information.</I> The information required under this paragraph (b)(1) is the following cost-sharing information, which is accurate at the time the request is made, with respect to a participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's cost-sharing liability for covered items and services:
</P>
<P>(i) An estimate of the participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's cost-sharing liability for a requested covered item or service furnished by a provider or providers, which must reflect any cost-sharing reductions the enrollee would receive, that is calculated based on the information described in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) If the request for cost-sharing information relates to items and services that are provided within a bundled payment arrangement, and the bundled payment arrangement includes items or services that have a separate cost-sharing liability, the group health plan or health insurance issuer must provide estimates of the cost-sharing liability for the requested covered item or service, as well as an estimate of the cost-sharing liability for each of the items and services in the bundled payment arrangement that have separate cost-sharing liabilities. While group health plans and health insurance issuers are not required to provide estimates of cost-sharing liability for a bundled payment arrangement where the cost-sharing is imposed separately for each item and service included in the bundled payment arrangement, nothing prohibits plans or issuers from providing estimates for multiple items and services in situations where such estimates could be relevant to participants or beneficiaries, as long as the plan or issuer also discloses information about the relevant items or services individually, as required in paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) For requested items and services that are recommended preventive services under section 2713 of the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act), if the group health plan or health insurance issuer cannot determine whether the request is for preventive or non-preventive purposes, the plan or issuer must display the cost-sharing liability that applies for non-preventive purposes. As an alternative, a group health plan or health insurance issuer may allow a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to request cost-sharing information for the specific preventive or non-preventive item or service by including terms such as “preventive”, “non-preventive” or “diagnostic” as a means to request the most accurate cost-sharing information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Accumulated amounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) In-network rate, comprised of the following elements, as applicable to the group health plan's or health insurance issuer's payment model:
</P>
<P>(A) Negotiated rate, reflected as a dollar amount, for an in-network provider or providers for the requested covered item or service; this rate must be disclosed even if it is not the rate the plan or issuer uses to calculate cost-sharing liability; and
</P>
<P>(B) Underlying fee schedule rate, reflected as a dollar amount, for the requested covered item or service, to the extent that it is different from the negotiated rate.
</P>
<P>(iv) Out-of-network allowed amount or any other rate that provides a more accurate estimate of an amount a group health plan or health insurance issuer will pay for the requested covered item or service, reflected as a dollar amount, if the request for cost-sharing information is for a covered item or service furnished by an out-of-network provider; provided, however, that in circumstances in which a plan or issuer reimburses an out-of-network provider a percentage of the billed charge for a covered item or service, the out-of-network allowed amount will be that percentage.
</P>
<P>(v) If a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee requests information for an item or service subject to a bundled payment arrangement, a list of the items and services included in the bundled payment arrangement for which cost-sharing information is being disclosed.
</P>
<P>(vi) If applicable, notification that coverage of a specific item or service is subject to a prerequisite.
</P>
<P>(vii) A notice that includes the following information in plain language:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that out-of-network providers may bill participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees for the difference between a provider's billed charges and the sum of the amount collected from the group health plan or health insurance issuer and from the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee in the form of a copayment or coinsurance amount (the difference referred to as balance billing), and that the cost-sharing information provided pursuant to this paragraph (b)(1) does not account for these potential additional amounts. This statement is only required if balance billing is permitted under state law;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the actual charges for a participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's covered item or service may be different from an estimate of cost-sharing liability provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, depending on the actual items or services the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee receives at the point of care;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the estimate of cost-sharing liability for a covered item or service is not a guarantee that benefits will be provided for that item or service;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement disclosing whether the plan counts copayment assistance and other third-party payments in the calculation of the participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's deductible and out-of-pocket maximum;
</P>
<P>(E) For items and services that are recommended preventive services under section 2713 of the PHS Act, a statement that an in-network item or service may not be subject to cost-sharing if it is billed as a preventive service if the group health plan or health insurance issuer cannot determine whether the request is for a preventive or non-preventive item or service; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any additional information, including other disclaimers, that the group health plan or health insurance issuer determines is appropriate, provided the additional information does not conflict with the information required to be provided by this paragraph (b)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required methods and formats for disclosing information to participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees.</I> The methods and formats for the disclosure required under this paragraph (b) are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Internet-based self-service tool.</I> Information provided under this paragraph (b) must be made available in plain language, without subscription or other fee, through a self-service tool on an internet website that provides real-time responses based on cost-sharing information that is accurate at the time of the request. Group health plans and health insurance issuers must ensure that the self-service tool allows users to:
</P>
<P>(A) Search for cost-sharing information for a covered item or service provided by a specific in-network provider or by all in-network providers by inputting:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A billing code (such as CPT code 87804) or a descriptive term (such as “rapid flu test”), at the option of the user;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The name of the in-network provider, if the user seeks cost-sharing information with respect to a specific in-network provider; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Other factors utilized by the plan or issuer that are relevant for determining the applicable cost-sharing information (such as location of service, facility name, or dosage).
</P>
<P>(B) Search for an out-of-network allowed amount, percentage of billed charges, or other rate that provides a reasonably accurate estimate of the amount a group health plan or health insurance issuer will pay for a covered item or service provided by out-of-network providers by inputting:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A billing code or descriptive term, at the option of the user; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Other factors utilized by the plan or issuer that are relevant for determining the applicable out-of-network allowed amount or other rate (such as the location in which the covered item or service will be sought or provided).
</P>
<P>(C) Refine and reorder search results based on geographic proximity of in-network providers, and the amount of the participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's estimated cost-sharing liability for the covered item or service, to the extent the search for cost-sharing information for covered items or services returns multiple results.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Paper method.</I> Information provided under this paragraph (b) must be made available in plain language, without a fee, in paper form at the request of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee. In responding to such a request, the group health plan or health insurance issuer may limit the number of providers with respect to which cost-sharing information for covered items and services is provided to no fewer than 20 providers per request. The group health plan or health insurance issuer is required to:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclose the applicable provider-per-request limit to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide the cost-sharing information in paper form pursuant to the individual's request, in accordance with the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Mail the cost-sharing information in paper form no later than 2 business days after an individual's request is received.
</P>
<P>(D) To the extent participants, beneficiaries, and enrollees request disclosure other than by paper (for example, by phone or email), plans and issuers may provide the disclosure through another means, provided the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee agrees that disclosure through such means is sufficient to satisfy the request and the request is fulfilled at least as rapidly as required for the paper method.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule to prevent unnecessary duplication</I>—(i) <I>Special rule for insured group health plans.</I> To the extent coverage under a group health plan consists of group health insurance coverage, the plan satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (b) if the plan requires the health insurance issuer offering the coverage to provide the information required by this paragraph (b) in compliance with this section pursuant to a written agreement. Accordingly, if a health insurance issuer and a plan sponsor enter into a written agreement under which the issuer agrees to provide the information required under this paragraph (b) in compliance with this section, and the issuer fails to do so, then the issuer, but not the plan, violates the transparency disclosure requirements of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other contractual arrangements.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer may satisfy the requirements under this paragraph (b) by entering into a written agreement under which another party (such as a pharmacy benefit manager or other third-party) provides the information required by this paragraph (b) in compliance with this section. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, if a group health plan or health insurance issuer chooses to enter into such an agreement and the party with which it contracts fails to provide the information in compliance with this paragraph (b), the plan or issuer violates the transparency disclosure requirements of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The provisions of this section apply for plan years (in the individual market, for policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2023 with respect to the 500 items and services to be posted on a publicly available website, and with respect to all covered items and services, for plan years (in the individual market, for policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2024.
</P>
<P>(2) As provided under § 147.140, this section does not apply to grandfathered health plans. This section also does not apply to health reimbursement arrangements or other account-based group health plans as defined in § 147.126(d)(6) or short term limited duration insurance as defined in 45 CFR 144.103.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this section alters or otherwise affects a group health plan's or health insurance issuer's duty to comply with requirements under other applicable state or Federal laws, including those governing the accessibility, privacy, or security of information required to be disclosed under this section, or those governing the ability of properly authorized representatives to access participant, beneficiary, or enrollee information held by plans and issuers.
</P>
<P>(4) A group health plan or health insurance issuer will not fail to comply with this section solely because it, acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, makes an error or omission in a disclosure required under paragraph (b) of this section, provided that the plan or issuer corrects the information as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(5) A group health plan or health insurance issuer will not fail to comply with this section solely because, despite acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, its internet website is temporarily inaccessible, provided that the plan or issuer makes the information available as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(6) To the extent compliance with this section requires a group health plan or health insurance issuer to obtain information from any other entity, the plan or issuer will not fail to comply with this section because it relied in good faith on information from the other entity, unless the plan or issuer knows, or reasonably should have known, that the information is incomplete or inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Severability.</I> Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 72305, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 147.212" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.5.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 147.212   Transparency in coverage—requirements for public disclosure.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20261006" REFID="37">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 63864, Oct. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section establishes price transparency requirements for group health plans and health insurance issuers in the individual and group markets for the timely disclosure of information about costs related to covered items and services under a plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the definitions in § 147.210 apply.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for public disclosure of in-network provider rates for covered items and services, out-of-network allowed amounts and billed charges for covered items and services, and negotiated rates and historical net prices for covered prescription drugs.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must make available on an internet website the information required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section in three machine-readable files, in accordance with the method and format requirements described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and that are updated as required under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Required information.</I> Machine-readable files required under this paragraph (b) that are made available to the public by a group health plan or health insurance issuer must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An in-network rate machine-readable file that includes the required information under this paragraph (b)(1)(i) for all covered items and services, except for prescription drugs that are subject to a fee-for-service reimbursement arrangement, which must be reported in the prescription drug machine-readable file pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section. The in-network rate machine-readable file must include:
</P>
<P>(A) For each coverage option offered by a group health plan or health insurance issuer, the name and the 14-digit Health Insurance Oversight System (HIOS) identifier, or, if the 14-digit HIOS identifier is not available, the 5-digit HIOS identifier, or if no HIOS identifier is available, the Employer Identification Number (EIN);
</P>
<P>(B) A billing code, which in the case of prescription drugs must be an NDC, and a plain language description for each billing code for each covered item or service under each coverage option offered by a plan or issuer; and
</P>
<P>(C) All applicable rates, which may include one or more of the following: Negotiated rates, underlying fee schedule rates, or derived amounts. If a group health plan or health insurance issuer does not use negotiated rates for provider reimbursement, then the plan or issuer should disclose derived amounts to the extent these amounts are already calculated in the normal course of business. If the group health plan or health insurance issuer uses underlying fee schedule rates for calculating cost sharing, then the plan or issuer should include the underlying fee schedule rates in addition to the negotiated rate or derived amount. Applicable rates, including for both individual items and services and items and services in a bundled payment arrangement, must be:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reflected as dollar amounts, with respect to each covered item or service that is furnished by an in-network provider. If the negotiated rate is subject to change based upon participant, beneficiary, or enrollee-specific characteristics, these dollar amounts should be reflected as the base negotiated rate applicable to the item or service prior to adjustments for participant, beneficiary, or enrollee-specific characteristics;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Associated with the National Provider Identifier (NPI), Tax Identification Number (TIN), and Place of Service Code for each in-network provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Associated with the last date of the contract term or expiration date for each provider-specific applicable rate that applies to each covered item or service; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Indicated with a notation where a reimbursement arrangement other than a standard fee-for-service model (such as capitation or a bundled payment arrangement) applies.
</P>
<P>(ii) An out-of-network allowed amount machine-readable file, including:
</P>
<P>(A) For each coverage option offered by a group health plan or health insurance issuer, the name and the 14-digit HIOS identifier, or, if the 14-digit HIOS identifier is not available, the 5-digit HIOS identifier, or, if no HIOS identifier is available, the EIN;
</P>
<P>(B) A billing code, which in the case of prescription drugs must be an NDC, and a plain language description for each billing code for each covered item or service under each coverage option offered by a plan or issuer; and
</P>
<P>(C) Unique out-of-network allowed amounts and billed charges with respect to covered items or services furnished by out-of-network providers during the 90-day time period that begins 180 days prior to the publication date of the machine-readable file (except that a group health plan or health insurance issuer must omit such data in relation to a particular item or service and provider when compliance with this paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) would require the plan or issuer to report payment of out-of-network allowed amounts in connection with fewer than 20 different claims for payments under a single plan or coverage). Consistent with paragraph (c)(3) of this section, nothing in this paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) requires the disclosure of information that would violate any applicable health information privacy law. Each unique out-of-network allowed amount must be:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reflected as a dollar amount, with respect to each covered item or service that is furnished by an out-of-network provider; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Associated with the NPI, TIN, and Place of Service Code for each out-of-network provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) A prescription drug machine-readable file, including:
</P>
<P>(A) For each coverage option offered by a group health plan or health insurance issuer, the name and the 14-digit HIOS identifier, or, if the 14-digit HIOS identifier is not available, the 5-digit HIOS identifier, or, if no HIOS identifier is available, the EIN;
</P>
<P>(B) The NDC, and the proprietary and nonproprietary name assigned to the NDC by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), for each covered item or service that is a prescription drug under each coverage option offered by a plan or issuer;
</P>
<P>(C) The negotiated rates which must be:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reflected as a dollar amount, with respect to each NDC that is furnished by an in-network provider, including an in-network pharmacy or other prescription drug dispenser;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Associated with the NPI, TIN, and Place of Service Code for each in-network provider, including each in-network pharmacy or other prescription drug dispenser; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Associated with the last date of the contract term for each provider-specific negotiated rate that applies to each NDC; and
</P>
<P>(D) Historical net prices that are:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reflected as a dollar amount, with respect to each NDC that is furnished by an in-network provider, including an in-network pharmacy or other prescription drug dispenser;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Associated with the NPI, TIN, and Place of Service Code for each in-network provider, including each in-network pharmacy or other prescription drug dispenser; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Associated with the 90-day time period that begins 180 days prior to the publication date of the machine-readable file for each provider-specific historical net price that applies to each NDC (except that a group health plan or health insurance issuer must omit such data in relation to a particular NDC and provider when compliance with this paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(D) would require the plan or issuer to report payment of historical net prices calculated using fewer than 20 different claims for payment). Consistent with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, nothing in this paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(D) requires the disclosure of information that would violate any applicable health information privacy law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required method and format for disclosing information to the public.</I> The machine-readable files described in this paragraph (b) must be available in a form and manner as specified in guidance issued by the Department of the Treasury, the Department of Labor, and the Department of Health and Human Services. The machine-readable files must be publicly available and accessible to any person free of charge and without conditions, such as establishment of a user account, password, or other credentials, or submission of personally identifiable information to access the file.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer must update the machine-readable files and information required by this paragraph (b) monthly. The group health plan or health insurance issuer must clearly indicate the date that the files were most recently updated.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special rules to prevent unnecessary duplication</I>—(i) <I>Special rule for insured group health plans.</I> To the extent coverage under a group health plan consists of group health insurance coverage, the plan satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (b) if the plan requires the health insurance issuer offering the coverage to provide the information pursuant to a written agreement. Accordingly, if a health insurance issuer and a group health plan sponsor enter into a written agreement under which the issuer agrees to provide the information required under this paragraph (b) in compliance with this section, and the issuer fails to do so, then the issuer, but not the plan, violates the transparency disclosure requirements of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other contractual arrangements.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer may satisfy the requirements under this paragraph (b) by entering into a written agreement under which another party (such as a third-party administrator or health care claims clearinghouse) will provide the information required by this paragraph (b) in compliance with this section. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, if a group health plan or health insurance issuer chooses to enter into such an agreement and the party with which it contracts fails to provide the information in compliance with this paragraph (b), the plan or issuer violates the transparency disclosure requirements of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Aggregation permitted for out-of-network allowed amounts.</I> Nothing in this section prohibits a group health plan or health insurance issuer from satisfying the disclosure requirement described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section by disclosing out-of-network allowed amounts made available by, or otherwise obtained from, an issuer, a service provider, or other party with which the plan or issuer has entered into a written agreement to provide the information, provided the minimum claim threshold described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) of this section is independently met for each item or service and for each plan or coverage included in an aggregated Allowed Amount File. Under such circumstances, health insurance issuers, service providers, or other parties with which the group health plan or issuer has contracted may aggregate out-of-network allowed amounts for more than one plan or insurance policy or contract. Additionally, nothing in this section prevents the Allowed Amount File from being hosted on a third-party website or prevents a plan administrator or issuer from contracting with a third party to post the file. However, if a plan or issuer chooses not to also host the file separately on its own website, it must provide a link on its own public website to the location where the file is made publicly available.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The provisions of this section apply for plan years (in the individual market, for policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
<P>(2) As provided under § 147.140, this section does not apply to grandfathered health plans. This section also does not apply to health reimbursement arrangements or other account-based group health plans as defined in § 147.126(d)(6) or short term limited duration insurance as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this section alters or otherwise affects a group health plan's or health insurance issuer's duty to comply with requirements under other applicable state or Federal laws, including those governing the accessibility, privacy, or security of information required to be disclosed under this section, or those governing the ability of properly authorized representatives to access participant, or beneficiary information held by plans and issuers.
</P>
<P>(4) A group health plan or health insurance issuer will not fail to comply with this section solely because it, acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, makes an error or omission in a disclosure required under paragraph (b) of this section, provided that the plan or issuer corrects the information as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(5) A group health plan or health insurance issuer will not fail to comply with this section solely because, despite acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, its internet website is temporarily inaccessible, provided that the plan or issuer makes the information available as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(6) To the extent compliance with this section requires a group health plan or health insurance issuer to obtain information from any other entity, the plan or issuer will not fail to comply with this section because it relied in good faith on information from the other entity, unless the plan or issuer knows, or reasonably should have known, that the information is incomplete or inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Severability.</I> Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 72305, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="148" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 148—REQUIREMENTS FOR THE INDIVIDUAL HEALTH INSURANCE MARKET
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 300gg through 300gg-63, 300gg-11 300gg-91, and 300-gg92, as amended.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 16995, Apr. 8, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.101" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.101   Basis and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements sections 2741 through 2763 and 2791 and 2792 of the PHS Act. Its purpose is to guarantee the renewability of all coverage in the individual market. It also provides certain protections for mothers and newborns with respect to coverage for hospital stays in connection with childbirth and protects all individuals and family members who have, or seek, individual health insurance coverage from discrimination based on genetic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30340, May 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.102" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.102   Scope and applicability date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and applicability.</I> (1) Individual health insurance coverage includes all health insurance coverage (as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter) that is neither health insurance coverage sold in connection with an employment-related group health plan, nor short-term, limited-duration coverage as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements that pertain to guaranteed renewability for all individuals, to protections for mothers and newborns with respect to hospital stays in connection with childbirth, and to protections against discrimination based on genetic information apply to all issuers of individual health insurance coverage in the State.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability dates.</I> Except as provided in §§ 148.124, 148.170, and 148.180, the requirements of this part apply to health insurance coverage offered, sold, issued, renewed, in effect, or operated in the individual market after June 30, 1997. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, for short-term, limited-duration insurance sold or issued on or after September 1, 2024, the definition of <I>short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> in § 144.103 of this subchapter applies for coverage periods beginning on or after September 1, 2024. For short-term, limited-duration insurance sold or issued before September 1, 2024 (including any subsequent renewal or extension consistent with applicable law), the definition of <I>short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> in 45 CFR 144.103, revised as of October 1, 2023, continues to apply, except that paragraph (1)(ii) of the definition of <I>short-term, limited-duration insurance</I> in § 144.103 applies for coverage periods beginning on or after September 1, 2024.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30340, May 27, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 75327, Oct. 31, 2016; 83 FR 38243, Aug. 3, 2018; 89 FR 23419, Apr. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements Relating to Access and Renewability of Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.120" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.120   Guaranteed availability of individual health insurance coverage to certain individuals with prior group coverage.</HEAD>
<P>The rules for guaranteeing the availability of individual health insurance coverage to certain eligible individuals with prior group coverage have been superseded by the requirements of § 147.104 of this subchapter, which set forth Federal requirements for guaranteed availability of coverage in the group and individual markets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30340, May 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.122" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.122   Guaranteed renewability of individual health insurance coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies to non-grandfathered and grandfathered health plans (within the meaning of § 147.140 of this subchapter) that are individual health insurance coverage. <I>See</I> also § 147.106 of this subchapter for requirements relating to guaranteed renewability of coverage with respect to non-grandfathered health plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) through (g) of this section, an issuer must renew or continue in force the coverage at the option of the individual.
</P>
<P>(2) Medicare entitlement or enrollment is not a basis to nonrenew an individual's health insurance coverage in the individual market under the same policy or contract of insurance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions to renewing coverage.</I> An issuer may nonrenew or discontinue health insurance coverage of an individual in the individual market based only on one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Nonpayment of premiums.</I> The individual has failed to pay premiums or contributions in accordance with the terms of the health insurance coverage, including any timeliness requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fraud.</I> The individual has performed an act or practice that constitutes fraud or made an intentional misrepresentation of material fact under the terms of the coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Termination of product.</I> The issuer is ceasing to offer coverage in the market in accordance with paragraph (d) or (e) of this section and applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Movement outside the service area.</I> For network plans, the individual no longer resides, lives, or works in the service area of the issuer, or area for which the issuer is authorized to do business, but only if coverage is terminated uniformly without regard to any health status-related factor of covered individuals; provided the issuer provides notice in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Association membership ceases.</I> For coverage made available in the individual market only through one or more bona fide associations, the individual's membership in the association ceases, but only if the coverage is terminated uniformly without regard to any health status-related factor of covered individuals.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discontinuing a particular type of coverage.</I> An issuer may discontinue offering a particular type of health insurance coverage offered in the individual market only if it meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides notice in writing, in a form and manner specified by the Secretary, to each individual provided coverage of that type of health insurance at least 90 calendar days before the date the coverage will be discontinued.
</P>
<P>(2) Offers to each covered individual, on a guaranteed issue basis, the option to purchase any other individual health insurance coverage currently being offered by the issuer for individuals in that market.
</P>
<P>(3) Acts uniformly without regard to any health status-related factor of covered individuals or dependents of covered individuals who may become eligible for coverage. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Discontinuing all coverage.</I> An issuer may discontinue offering all health insurance coverage in the individual market in a State only if it meets the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) Provides notice in writing to the applicable State authority and to each individual of the discontinuation at least 180 days before the date the coverage will expire.
</P>
<P>(2) Discontinues and does not renew all health insurance policies it issues or delivers for issuance in the State in the individual market.
</P>
<P>(3) Acts uniformly without regard to any health status-related factor of covered individuals or dependents of covered individuals who may become eligible for coverage.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph (e), subject to applicable State law, an issuer will not be considered to have discontinued offering all health insurance coverage in a market in a State if—
</P>
<P>(i) The issuer (in this paragraph referred to as the initial issuer) or, if the issuer is a member of a controlled group, any other issuer that is a member of such controlled group, offers and makes available in the applicable market in the State at least one product that is considered in accordance with § 144.103 of this subchapter to be the same product as a product the initial issuer had been offering in such market in such State; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) Offers and makes available at least one product (in paragraphs (e)(4)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section referred to as the new product) in the applicable market in the State, even if such product is not considered in accordance with § 144.103 of this subchapter to be the same product as a product the issuer had been offering in the applicable market in the State (in paragraphs (e)(4)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section referred to as the discontinued product);
</P>
<P>(B) Subjects such new product or products to the applicable process and requirements established under part 154 of this title as if such process and requirements applied with respect to that product or products, to the extent such process and requirements are otherwise applicable to coverage of the same type and in the same market; and
</P>
<P>(C) Reasonably identifies the discontinued product or products that correspond to the new product or products for purposes of the process and requirements applied pursuant to paragraph (e)(4)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of this section, the term controlled group means a group of two or more persons that is treated as a single employer under sections 52(a), 52(b), 414(m), or 414(o) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, or a narrower group as may be provided by applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibition on market reentry.</I> An issuer who elects to discontinue offering all health insurance coverage under paragraph (e) of this section may not issue coverage in the market and State involved during the 5-year period beginning on the date of discontinuation of the last coverage not renewed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exception for uniform modification of coverage.</I> (1) An issuer may, only at the time of coverage renewal, modify the health insurance coverage for a product offered in the individual market if the modification is consistent with State law and is effective uniformly for all individuals with that product.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (g) of this section, modifications made uniformly and solely pursuant to applicable Federal or State requirements are considered a uniform modification of coverage if:
</P>
<P>(i) The modification is made within a reasonable time period after the imposition or modification of the Federal or State requirement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The modification is directly related to the imposition or modification of the Federal or State requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (g) of this section, other types of modifications made uniformly are considered a uniform modification of coverage if the health insurance coverage for the product meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The product is offered by the same health insurance issuer (within the meaning of section 2791(b)(2) of the PHS Act), or if the issuer that is a member of a controlled group (as described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section), any other health insurance issuer that is a member of such controlled group;
</P>
<P>(ii) The product is offered as the same product network type (for example, health maintenance organization, preferred provider organization, exclusive provider organization, point of service, or indemnity);
</P>
<P>(iii) The product continues to cover at least a majority of the same service area;
</P>
<P>(iv) Within the product, each plan has the same cost-sharing structure as before the modification, except for any variation in cost sharing solely related to changes in cost and utilization of medical care, or to maintain the same metal tier level described in sections 1302(d) and (e) of the Affordable Care Act; and
</P>
<P>(v) The product provides the same covered benefits, except for any changes in benefits that cumulatively impact the rate for any plan within the product within an allowable variation of ±2 percentage points (not including changes pursuant to applicable Federal or State requirements).
</P>
<P>(4) A State may only broaden the standards in paragraphs (g)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Application to coverage offered only through associations.</I> In the case of health insurance coverage that is made available by a health insurance issuer in the individual market only through one or more associations, any reference in this section to an “individual” is deemed to include a reference to the association of which the individual is a member.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice of renewal of coverage.</I> If an issuer is renewing grandfathered coverage as described in paragraph (b) of this section, or uniformly modifying grandfathered coverage as described in paragraph (g) of this section, the issuer must provide to each individual written notice of the renewal at least 60 calendar days before the date the coverage will be renewed in a form and manner specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 0938-0703)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 16998, Apr. 8, 1997; 62 FR 31696, June 10, 1997, as amended at 62 FR 35906, July 2, 1997; 79 FR 30340, May 27, 2014; 79 FR 42986, July 24, 2014; 79 FR 53004, Sept. 5, 2014; 81 FR 94174, Dec. 22, 2016; 84 FR 17561, Apr. 25, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.124" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.124   Certification and disclosure of coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The rules for providing certificates of creditable coverage and demonstrating creditable coverage have been superseded by the prohibition on preexisting condition exclusions. <I>See</I> § 147.108 of this subchapter for rules prohibiting the imposition of a preexisting condition exclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this section apply beginning December 31, 2014.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30341, May 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.126" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.126   Determination of an eligible individual.</HEAD>
<P>The rules for guaranteeing the availability of individual health insurance coverage to certain eligible individuals with prior group coverage have been superseded by the requirements of § 147.104 of this subchapter, which set forth Federal requirements for guaranteed availability of coverage in the group and individual markets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30341, May 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.128" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.128   State flexibility in individual market reforms—alternative mechanisms.</HEAD>
<P>The rules for a State to implement an acceptable alternative mechanism for purposes of guaranteeing the availability of individual health insurance coverage to certain eligible individuals with prior group coverage have been superseded by the requirements of § 147.104 of this subchapter, which set forth Federal requirements for guaranteed availability of coverage in the group and individual markets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30341, May 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Requirements Related to Benefits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.170" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.170   Standards relating to benefits for mothers and newborns.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hospital length of stay</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, an issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market that provides benefits for a hospital length of stay in connection with childbirth for a mother or her newborn may not restrict benefits for the stay to less than—
</P>
<P>(i) 48 hours following a vaginal delivery; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 96 hours following a delivery by cesarean section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When stay begins</I>—(i) <I>Delivery in a hospital.</I> If delivery occurs in a hospital, the hospital length of stay for the mother or newborn child begins at the time of delivery (or in the case of multiple births, at the time of the last delivery).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Delivery outside a hospital.</I> If delivery occurs outside a hospital, the hospital length of stay begins at the time the mother or newborn is admitted as a hospital inpatient in connection with childbirth. The determination of whether an admission is in connection with childbirth is a medical decision to be made by the attending provider.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the issuer provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth and is subject to the requirements of this section, as follows:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A pregnant woman covered under a policy issued in the individual market goes into labor and is admitted to the hospital at 10 p.m. on June 11. She gives birth by vaginal delivery at 6 a.m. on June 12.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the 48-hour period described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section ends at 6 a.m. on June 14.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A woman covered under a policy issued in the individual market gives birth at home by vaginal delivery. After the delivery, the woman begins bleeding excessively in connection with the childbirth and is admitted to the hospital for treatment of the excessive bleeding at 7 p.m. on October 1.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2</I>, the 48-hour period described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section ends at 7 p.m. on October 3.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A woman covered under a policy issued in the individual market gives birth by vaginal delivery at home. The child later develops pneumonia and is admitted to the hospital. The attending provider determines that the admission is not in connection with childbirth.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3</I>, the hospital length-of-stay requirements of this section do not apply to the child's admission to the hospital because the admission is not in connection with childbirth.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Authorization not required</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> An issuer is prohibited from requiring that a physician or other health care provider obtain authorization from the issuer for prescribing the hospital length of stay specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. (See also paragraphs (b)(2) and (c)(3) of this section for rules and examples regarding other authorization and certain notice requirements.)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example.</I> The rule of this paragraph (a)(4) is illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> In the case of a delivery by cesarean section, an issuer subject to the requirements of this section automatically provides benefits for any hospital length of stay of up to 72 hours. For any longer stay, the issuer requires an attending provider to complete a certificate of medical necessity. The issuer then makes a determination, based on the certificate of medical necessity, whether a longer stay is medically necessary.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example</I>, the requirement that an attending provider complete a certificate of medical necessity to obtain authorization for the period between 72 hours and 96 hours following a delivery by cesarean section is prohibited by this paragraph (a)(4).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Discharge of mother.</I> If a decision to discharge a mother earlier than the period specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is made by an attending provider, in consultation with the mother, the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply for any period after the discharge.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Discharge of newborn.</I> If a decision to discharge a newborn child earlier than the period specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is made by an attending provider, in consultation with the mother (or the newborn's authorized representative), the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply for any period after the discharge.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Attending provider defined.</I> For purposes of this section, attending provider means an individual who is licensed under applicable state law to provide maternity or pediatric care and who is directly responsible for providing maternity or pediatric care to a mother or newborn child. Therefore, an issuer, plan, hospital, or managed care organization is not an attending provider.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(5) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A pregnant woman covered under a policy offered by an issuer subject to the requirements of this section goes into labor and is admitted to a hospital. She gives birth by cesarean section. On the third day after the delivery, the attending provider for the mother consults with the mother, and the attending provider for the newborn consults with the mother regarding the newborn. The attending providers authorize the early discharge of both the mother and the newborn. Both are discharged approximately 72 hours after the delivery. The issuer pays for the 72-hour hospital stays.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example</I>, the requirements of this paragraph (a) have been satisfied with respect to the mother and the newborn. If either is readmitted, the hospital stay for the readmission is not subject to this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions</I>—(1) <I>With respect to mothers</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> An issuer subject to the requirements of this section may not—
</P>
<P>(A) Deny a mother or her newborn child eligibility or continued eligibility to enroll in or renew coverage solely to avoid the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Provide payments (including payments-in-kind) or rebates to a mother to encourage her to accept less than the minimum protections available under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b)(1) are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the issuer is subject to the requirements of this section, as follows:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An issuer provides benefits for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery. If a mother and newborn covered under a policy issued in the individual market are discharged within 24 hours after the delivery, the issuer will waive the copayment and deductible.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> because waiver of the copayment and deductible is in the nature of a rebate that the mother would not receive if she and her newborn remained in the hospital, it is prohibited by this paragraph (b)(1). (In addition, the issuer violates paragraph (b)(2) of this section because, in effect, no copayment or deductible is required for the first portion of the stay and a double copayment and a deductible are required for the second portion of the stay.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An issuer provides benefits for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery. In the event that a mother and her newborn are discharged earlier than 48 hours and the discharges occur after consultation with the mother in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the issuer provides for a follow-up visit by a nurse within 48 hours after the discharges to provide certain services that the mother and her newborn would otherwise receive in the hospital.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> because the follow-up visit does not provide any services beyond what the mother and her newborn would receive in the hospital, coverage for the follow-up visit is not prohibited by this paragraph (b)(1).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(2) <I>With respect to benefit restrictions</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(3) of this section, an issuer may not restrict the benefits for any portion of a hospital length of stay specified in paragraph (a) of this section in a manner that is less favorable than the benefits provided for any preceding portion of the stay.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b)(2) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An issuer subject to the requirements of this section provides benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth. In the case of a delivery by cesarean section, the issuer automatically pays for the first 48 hours. With respect to each succeeding 24-hour period, the covered individual must call the issuer to obtain precertification from a utilization reviewer, who determines if an additional 24-hour period is medically necessary. If this approval is not obtained, the issuer will not provide benefits for any succeeding 24-hour period.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the requirement to obtain precertification for the two 24-hour periods immediately following the initial 48-hour stay is prohibited by this paragraph (b)(2) because benefits for the latter part of the stay are restricted in a manner that is less favorable than benefits for a preceding portion of the stay. (However, this section does not prohibit an issuer from requiring precertification for any period after the first 96 hours.) In addition, the requirement to obtain precertification from the issuer based on medical necessity for a hospital length of stay within the 96-hour period would also violate paragraph (a) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(3) <I>With respect to attending providers.</I> An issuer may not directly or indirectly—
</P>
<P>(i) Penalize (for example, take disciplinary action against or retaliate against), or otherwise reduce or limit the compensation of, an attending provider because the provider furnished care to a covered individual in accordance with this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide monetary or other incentives to an attending provider to induce the provider to furnish care to a covered individual in a manner inconsistent with this section, including providing any incentive that could induce an attending provider to discharge a mother or newborn earlier than 48 hours (or 96 hours) after delivery.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Construction.</I> With respect to this section, the following rules of construction apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Hospital stays not mandatory.</I> This section does not require a mother to—
</P>
<P>(i) Give birth in a hospital; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Stay in the hospital for a fixed period of time following the birth of her child.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hospital stay benefits not mandated.</I> This section does not apply to any issuer that does not provide benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth for a mother or her newborn child.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cost-sharing rules</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> This section does not prevent an issuer from imposing deductibles, coinsurance, or other cost-sharing in relation to benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth for a mother or a newborn under the coverage, except that the coinsurance or other cost-sharing for any portion of the hospital length of stay specified in paragraph (a) of this section may not be greater than that for any preceding portion of the stay.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c)(3) are illustrated by the following examples. In each example, the issuer is subject to the requirements of this section, as follows:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An issuer provides benefits for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay in connection with vaginal deliveries. The issuer covers 80 percent of the cost of the stay for the first 24-hour period and 50 percent of the cost of the stay for the second 24-hour period. Thus, the coinsurance paid by the patient increases from 20 percent to 50 percent after 24 hours.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1</I>, the issuer violates the rules of this paragraph (c)(3) because coinsurance for the second 24-hour period of the 48-hour stay is greater than that for the preceding portion of the stay. (In addition, the issuer also violates the similar rule in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> An issuer generally covers 70 percent of the cost of a hospital length of stay in connection with childbirth. However, the issuer will cover 80 percent of the cost of the stay if the covered individual notifies the issuer of the pregnancy in advance of admission and uses whatever hospital the issuer may designate.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the issuer does not violate the rules of this paragraph (c)(3) because the level of benefits provided (70 percent or 80 percent) is consistent throughout the 48-hour (or 96-hour) hospital length of stay required under paragraph (a) of this section. (In addition, the issuer does not violate the rules in paragraph (a)(4) or (b)(2) of this section.)</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Compensation of attending provider.</I> This section does not prevent an issuer from negotiating with an attending provider the level and type of compensation for care furnished in accordance with this section (including paragraph (b) of this section).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies to all health insurance coverage issued in the individual market, and is not limited in its application to coverage that is provided to eligible individuals as defined in section 2741(b) of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice requirement.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, an issuer offering health insurance in the individual market must meet the following requirements with respect to benefits for hospital lengths of stay in connection with childbirth:
</P>
<P>(1) Required statement. The insurance contract must disclose information that notifies covered individuals of their rights under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure notice. To meet the disclosure requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the following disclosure notice must be used:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Statement of Rights Under the Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act
</HD1>
<P>Under federal law, health insurance issuers generally may not restrict benefits for any hospital length of stay in connection with childbirth for the mother or newborn child to less than 48 hours following a vaginal delivery, or less than 96 hours following a delivery by cesarean section. However, the issuer may pay for a shorter stay if the attending provider (<I>e.g.</I> , your physician, nurse midwife, or physician assistant), after consultation with the mother, discharges the mother or newborn earlier.
</P>
<P>Also, under federal law, issuers may not set the level of benefits or out-of-pocket costs so that any later portion of the 48-hour (or 96-hour) stay is treated in a manner less favorable to the mother or newborn than any earlier portion of the stay.
</P>
<P>In addition, an issuer may not, under federal law, require that a physician or other health care provider obtain authorization for prescribing a length of stay of up to 48 hours (or 96 hours). However, to use certain providers or facilities, or to reduce your out-of-pocket costs, you may be required to obtain precertification. For information on precertification, contact your issuer.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Timing of disclosure.</I> The disclosure notice in paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall be furnished to the covered individuals in the form of a copy of the contract, or a rider (or equivalent amendment to the contract) no later than December 19, 2008. To the extent an issuer has already provided the disclosure notice in paragraph (d)(2) of this section to covered individuals, it need not provide another such notice by December 19, 2008.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exception.</I> The requirements of this paragraph (d) do not apply with respect to coverage regulated under a state law described in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability in certain states</I>—(1) <I>Health insurance coverage.</I> The requirements of section 2751 of the PHS Act and this section do not apply with respect to health insurance coverage in the individual market if there is a state law regulating the coverage that meets any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The state law requires the coverage to provide for at least a 48-hour hospital length of stay following a vaginal delivery and at least a 96-hour hospital length of stay following a delivery by cesarean section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The state law requires the coverage to provide for maternity and pediatric care in accordance with guidelines that relate to care following childbirth established by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, the American Academy of Pediatrics, or any other established professional medical association.
</P>
<P>(iii) The state law requires, in connection with the coverage for maternity care, that the hospital length of stay for such care is left to the decision of (or is required to be made by) the attending provider in consultation with the mother. State laws that require the decision to be made by the attending provider with the consent of the mother satisfy the criterion of this paragraph (e)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Relation to section 2762(a) of the PHS Act.</I> The preemption provisions contained in section 2762(a) of the PHS Act and § 148.210(b) do not supersede a state law described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> Section 2751 of the PHS Act applies to health insurance coverage offered, sold, issued, renewed, in effect, or operated in the individual market on or after January 1, 1998. This section applies to health insurance coverage offered, sold, issued, renewed, in effect, or operated in the individual market on or after January 1, 2009.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 62427, Oct. 20, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.180" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.180   Prohibition of discrimination based on genetic information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions as set forth in § 146.122 of this subchapter pertain to health insurance issuers in the individual market to the extent that those definitions are not inconsistent with respect to health insurance coverage offered, sold, issued, renewed, in effect or operated in the individual market:
</P>
<P><I>Collect</I> has the meaning set forth at § 146.122(a).
</P>
<P><I>Family member</I> has the meaning set forth at § 146.122(a).
</P>
<P><I>Genetic information</I> has the meaning set forth at § 146.122(a).
</P>
<P><I>Genetic services</I> has the meaning set forth at § 146.122(a).
</P>
<P><I>Genetic test</I> has the meaning set forth at § 146.122(a).
</P>
<P><I>Manifestation or manifested</I> has the meaning set forth at § 146.122(a).
</P>
<P><I>Preexisting condition exclusion</I> has the meaning set forth at § 144.103.
</P>
<P><I>Underwriting purposes</I> has the meaning set forth at § 148.180(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on genetic information as a condition of eligibility</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market may not establish rules for the eligibility (including continued eligibility) of any individual to enroll in individual health insurance coverage based on genetic information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (b)(1) of this section precludes an issuer from establishing rules for eligibility for an individual to enroll in individual health insurance coverage based on the manifestation of a disease or disorder in that individual, or in a family member of that individual when the family member is covered under the policy that covers the individual.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (b) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> A State implements the HIPAA guaranteed availability requirement in the individual health insurance market in accordance with § 148.120. Individual <I>A</I> and his spouse <I>S</I> are not “eligible individuals” as that term is defined at § 148.103 and, therefore, they are not entitled to obtain individual health insurance coverage on a guaranteed available basis. They apply for individual coverage with Issuer <I>M.</I> As part of the application for coverage, <I>M</I> receives health information about <I>A</I> and <I>S.</I> Although <I>A</I> has no known medical conditions, <I>S</I> has high blood pressure. <I>M</I> declines to offer coverage to <I>S.</I>
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1, M</I> permissibly may decline to offer coverage to <I>S</I> because <I>S</I> has a manifested disorder (high blood pressure) that makes her ineligible for coverage under the policy's rules for eligibility.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except that <I>S</I> does not have high blood pressure or any other known medical condition. The only health information relevant to <I>S</I> that <I>M</I> receives in the application indicates that both of <I>S'</I>s parents are overweight and have high blood pressure. <I>M</I> declines to offer coverage to <I>S.</I>
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2, M</I> cannot decline to offer coverage to <I>S</I> because <I>S</I> does not have a manifested disease or disorder. The only health information <I>M</I> has that relates to her pertains to a manifested disease or disorder of family members, which as family medical history constitutes genetic information with respect to <I>S.</I> If <I>M</I> denies eligibility to <I>S</I> based on genetic information, the denial will violate this paragraph (b).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition on genetic information in setting premium rates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market must not adjust premium amounts for an individual on the basis of genetic information regarding the individual or a family member of the individual.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rule of construction.</I> (i) Nothing in paragraph (c)(1) of this section precludes an issuer from adjusting premium amounts for an individual on the basis of a manifestation of a disease or disorder in that individual, or on the basis of a manifestation of a disease or disorder in a family member of that individual when the family member is covered under the policy that covers the individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) The manifestation of a disease or disorder in one individual cannot also be used as genetic information about other individuals covered under the policy issued to that individual and to further increase premium amounts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (c) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>B</I> is covered under an individual health insurance policy through Issuer <I>N.</I> Every other policy year, before renewal, <I>N</I> requires policyholders to submit updated health information before the policy renewal date for purposes of determining an appropriate premium, in excess of any increases due to inflation, based on the policyholders' health status. <I>B</I> complies with that requirement. During the past year, <I>B'</I>s blood glucose levels have increased significantly. <I>N</I> increases its premium for renewing <I>B'</I>s policy to account for <I>N'</I>s increased risk associated with <I>B'</I>s elevated blood glucose levels.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1, N</I> is permitted to increase the premium for <I>B'</I>s policy on the basis of a manifested disorder (elevated blood glucose) in <I>B.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1,</I> except that <I>B'</I>s blood glucose levels have not increased and are well within the normal range. In providing updated health information to <I>N, B</I> indicates that both his mother and sister are being treated for adult onset diabetes mellitus (Type 2 diabetes). <I>B</I> provides this information voluntarily and not in response to a specific request for family medical history or other genetic information. <I>N</I> increases <I>B</I>'s premium to account for <I>B</I>'s genetic predisposition to develop Type 2 diabetes in the future.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2, N</I> cannot increase <I>B'</I>s premium on the basis of <I>B'</I>s family medical history of Type 2 diabetes, which is genetic information with respect to <I>B.</I> Since there is no manifestation of the disease in <I>B</I> at this point in time, <I>N</I> cannot increase <I>B'</I>s premium.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition on genetic information as preexisting condition</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market may not, on the basis of genetic information, impose any preexisting condition exclusion with respect to that coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (d)(1) of this section precludes an issuer from imposing any preexisting condition exclusion for an individual with respect to health insurance coverage on the basis of a manifestation of a disease or disorder in that individual.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples:</I> The rules of this paragraph (d) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>C</I> has encountered delays in receiving payment from the issuer of his individual health insurance policy for covered services. He decides to switch carriers and applies for an individual health insurance policy through Issuer <I>O. C</I> is generally in good health, but has arthritis for which he has received medical treatment. <I>O</I> offers <I>C</I> an individual policy that excludes coverage for a 12-month period for any services related to <I>C'</I>s arthritis.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1, O</I> is permitted to impose a preexisting condition exclusion with respect to <I>C</I> because <I>C</I> has a manifested disease (arthritis).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>D</I> applies for individual health insurance coverage through Issuer <I>P. D</I> has no known medical conditions. However, in response to <I>P'</I>s request for medical information about <I>D, P</I> receives information from <I>D'</I>s physician that indicates that both of <I>D'</I>s parents have adult onset diabetes mellitus (Type 2 diabetes). <I>P</I> offers <I>D</I> an individual policy with a rider that permanently excludes coverage for any treatment related to diabetes that <I>D</I> may receive while covered by the policy, based on the fact that both of <I>D'</I>s parents have the disease.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the rider violates this paragraph (d) because the preexisting condition exclusion is based on genetic information with respect to <I>D</I> (family medical history of Type 2 diabetes).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(e) <I>Limitation on requesting or requiring genetic testing</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (e), an issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market must not request or require an individual or a family member of the individual to undergo a genetic test.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Health care professional may recommend a genetic test.</I> Nothing in paragraph (e)(1) of this section limits the authority of a health care professional who is providing health care services to an individual to request that the individual undergo a genetic test.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>E</I> goes to a physician for a routine physical examination. The physician reviews <I>E'</I>s family medical history, and <I>E</I> informs the physician that <I>E'</I>s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington's Disease. The physician advises <I>E</I> that Huntington's Disease is hereditary, and recommends that E undergo a genetic test.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the physician is a health care professional who is providing health care services to <I>E.</I> Therefore, the physician's recommendation that <I>E</I> undergo the genetic test does not violate this paragraph (e).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>F</I> is covered by a health maintenance organization (HMO). <I>F</I> is a child being treated for leukemia. <I>F</I>'s physician, who is employed by the HMO, is considering a treatment plan that includes six-mercaptopurine, a drug for treating leukemia in most children. However, the drug could be fatal if taken by a small percentage of children with a particular gene variant. <I>F</I>'s physician recommends that <I>F</I> undergo a genetic test to detect this variant before proceeding with this course of treatment.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> even though the physician is employed by the HMO, the physician is nonetheless a health care professional who is providing health care services to <I>F.</I> Therefore, the physician's recommendation that <I>F</I> undergo the genetic test does not violate this paragraph (e).</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(4) <I>Determination regarding payment</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> As provided in this paragraph (e)(4), nothing in paragraph (e)(1) of this section precludes an issuer offering health insurance in the individual market from obtaining and using the results of a genetic test in making a determination regarding payment. For this purpose, “payment” has the meaning given such term in § 164.501 of this subtitle of the privacy regulations issued under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Thus, if an issuer conditions payment for an item or service based on its medical appropriateness and the medical appropriateness of the item or service depends on a covered individual's genetic makeup, the issuer is permitted to condition payment on the outcome of a genetic test, and may refuse payment if the covered individual does not undergo the genetic test.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitation.</I> An issuer in the individual market is permitted to request only the minimum amount of information necessary to make a determination regarding payment. The minimum amount of information necessary is determined in accordance with the minimum necessary standard in § 164.502(b) of this subtitle of the privacy regulations issued under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples. See</I> paragraph (g) of this section for examples illustrating the rules of this paragraph (e)(4), as well as other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Research exception.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(1) of this section, an issuer may request, but not require, that an individual or family member covered under the same policy undergo a genetic test if all of the conditions of this paragraph (e)(5) are met:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Research in accordance with Federal regulations and applicable State or local law or regulations.</I> The issuer makes the request pursuant to research, as defined in § 46.102(d) of this subtitle, that complies with part 46 of this subtitle or equivalent Federal regulations, and any applicable State or local law or regulations for the protection of human subjects in research.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Written request for participation in research.</I> The issuer makes the request in writing, and the request clearly indicates to each individual (or, in the case of a minor child, to the child's legal guardian) that—
</P>
<P>(A) Compliance with the request is voluntary; and
</P>
<P>(B) Noncompliance will have no effect on eligibility for benefits (as described in paragraph (b) of this section) or premium amounts (as described in paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Prohibition on underwriting.</I> No genetic information collected or acquired under this paragraph (e)(5) can be used for underwriting purposes (as described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Notice to Federal agencies.</I> The issuer completes a copy of the “Notice of Research Exception under the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act” authorized by the Secretary and provides the notice to the address specified in the instructions thereto.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibitions on collection of genetic information</I>—(1) <I>For underwriting purposes</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> An issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market must not collect (as defined in paragraph (a) of this section) genetic information for underwriting purposes. <I>See</I> paragraph (g) of this section for examples illustrating the rules of this paragraph (f)(1), as well as other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Underwriting purposes defined.</I> Subject to paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section, <I>underwriting purposes</I> means, with respect to any issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market—
</P>
<P>(A) Rules for, or determination of, eligibility (including enrollment and continued eligibility) for benefits under the coverage;
</P>
<P>(B) The computation of premium amounts under the coverage;
</P>
<P>(C) The application of any preexisting condition exclusion under the coverage; and
</P>
<P>(D) Other activities related to the creation, renewal, or replacement of a contract of health insurance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Medical appropriateness.</I> An issuer in the individual market may limit or exclude a benefit based on whether the benefit is medically appropriate, and the determination of whether the benefit is medically appropriate is not within the meaning of underwriting purposes. Accordingly, if an issuer conditions a benefit based on its medical appropriateness and the medical appropriateness of the benefit depends on a covered individual's genetic information, the issuer is permitted to condition the benefit on the genetic information. An issuer is permitted to request only the minimum amount of genetic information necessary to determine medical appropriateness, and may deny the benefit if the covered individual does not provide the genetic information required to determine medical appropriateness. <I>See</I> paragraph (g) of this section for examples illustrating the applicability of this paragraph (f)(1)(iii), as well as other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior to or in connection with enrollment</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> An issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market must not collect genetic information with respect to any individual prior to that individual's enrollment under the coverage or in connection with that individual's enrollment. Whether or not an individual's information is collected prior to that individual's enrollment is determined at the time of collection.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Incidental collection exception</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> If an issuer offering health insurance coverage in the individual market obtains genetic information incidental to the collection of other information concerning any individual, the collection is not a violation of this paragraph (f)(2), as long as the collection is not for underwriting purposes in violation of paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitation.</I> The incidental collection exception of this paragraph (f)(2)(ii) does not apply in connection with any collection where it is reasonable to anticipate that health information will be received, unless the collection explicitly provides that genetic information should not be provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (f)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>G</I> applies for a health insurance policy through Issuer <I>Q. Q'</I>s application materials ask for the applicant's medical history, but not for family medical history. The application's instructions state that no genetic information, including family medical history, should be provided. <I>G</I> answers the questions in the application completely and truthfully, but volunteers certain health information about diseases his parents had, believing that <I>Q</I> also needs this information.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1, G'</I>s family medical history is genetic information with respect to <I>G.</I> However, since <I>Q</I> did not request this genetic information, and <I>Q'</I>s instructions stated that no genetic information should be provided, <I>Q'</I>s collection is an incidental collection under paragraph (f)(2)(ii). However, <I>Q</I> may not use the genetic information it obtained incidentally for underwriting purposes.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>H</I> applies for a health insurance policy through Issuer <I>R. R'</I>s application materials request that an applicant provide information on his or her individual medical history, including the names and contact information of physicians from whom the applicant sought treatment. The application includes a release which authorizes the physicians to furnish information to <I>R. R</I> forwards a request for health information about <I>H,</I> including the signed release, to his primary care physician. Although the request for information does not ask for genetic information, including family medical history, it does not state that no genetic information should be provided. The physician's office administrator includes part of <I>H'</I>s family medical history in the package to <I>R.</I>
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2, R'</I>s request was for health information solely about its applicant, <I>H,</I> which is not genetic information with respect to <I>H.</I> However, <I>R'</I>s materials did not state that genetic information should not be provided. Therefore, <I>R'</I>s collection of <I>H'</I>s family medical history (which is genetic information with respect to <I>H</I>), violates the rule against collection of genetic information and does not qualify for the incidental collection exception under paragraph (f)(2)(ii).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Issuer <I>S</I> acquires Issuer <I>T. S</I> requests <I>T'</I>s records, stating that <I>S</I> should not provide genetic information and should review the records to excise any genetic information. <I>T</I> assembles the data requested by <I>S</I> and, although <I>T</I> reviews it to delete genetic information, the data from a specific region included some individuals' family medical history. Consequently, <I>S</I> receives genetic information about some of <I>T'</I>s covered individuals.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3, S'</I>s request for health information explicitly stated that genetic information should not be provided. Therefore, its collection of genetic information was within the incidental collection exception. However, <I>S</I> may not use the genetic information it obtained incidentally for underwriting purposes.</P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(g) <I>Examples regarding determinations of medical appropriateness.</I> The application of the rules of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section to issuer determinations of medical appropriateness is illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>I</I> has an individual health insurance policy through Issuer <I>U</I> that covers genetic testing for celiac disease for individuals who have family members with this condition. <I>I'</I>s policy includes dependent coverage. After <I>I'</I>s son is diagnosed with celiac disease, <I>I</I> undergoes a genetic test and promptly submits a claim for the test to <I>U</I> for reimbursement. <I>U</I> asks <I>I</I> to provide the results of the genetic test before the claim is paid.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> under the rules of paragraph (e)(4) of this section, <I>U</I> is permitted to request only the minimum amount of information necessary to make a decision regarding payment. Because the results of the test are not necessary for <I>U</I> to make a decision regarding the payment of <I>I'</I>s claim, <I>U'</I>s request for the results of the genetic test violates paragraph (e) of this section.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>J</I> has an individual health insurance policy through Issuer <I>V</I> that covers a yearly mammogram for participants starting at age 40, or at age 30 for those with increased risk for breast cancer, including individuals with BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations. <I>J</I> is 33 years old and has the BRCA2 mutation. <I>J</I> undergoes a mammogram and promptly submits a claim to <I>V</I> for reimbursement. <I>V</I> asks <I>J</I> for evidence of increased risk of breast cancer, such as the results of a genetic test, before the claim for the mammogram is paid.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2, V</I> does not violate paragraphs (e) or (f) of this section. Under paragraph (e), an issuer is permitted to request and use the results of a genetic test to make a determination regarding payment, provided the issuer requests only the minimum amount of information necessary. Because the medical appropriateness of the mammogram depends on the covered individual's genetic makeup, the minimum amount of information necessary includes the results of the genetic test. Similarly, <I>V</I> does not violate paragraph (f) of this section because an issuer is permitted to request genetic information in making a determination regarding the medical appropriateness of a claim if the genetic information is necessary to make the determination (and the genetic information is not used for underwriting purposes).</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) <I>Facts.</I> Individual <I>K</I> was previously diagnosed with and treated for breast cancer, which is currently in remission. In accordance with the recommendation of <I>K'</I>s physician, <I>K</I> has been taking a regular dose of tamoxifen to help prevent a recurrence. <I>K</I> has an individual health insurance policy through Issuer <I>W</I> which adopts a new policy requiring patients taking tamoxifen to undergo a genetic test to ensure that tamoxifen is medically appropriate for their genetic makeup. In accordance with, at the time, the latest scientific research, tamoxifen is not helpful in up to 7 percent of breast cancer patients with certain variations of the gene for making the CYP<E T="52">2</E>D6 enzyme. If a patient has a gene variant making tamoxifen not medically appropriate, <I>W</I> does not pay for the tamoxifen prescription.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3, W</I> does not violate paragraph (e) of this section if it conditions future payments for the tamoxifen prescription on <I>K'</I>s undergoing a genetic test to determine the genetic markers <I>K</I> has for making the CYP<E T="52">2</E>D6 enzyme. <I>W</I> also does not violate paragraph (e) of this section if it refuses future payment if the results of the genetic test indicate that tamoxifen is not medically appropriate for <I>K.</I></P></EXAMPLE>
<P>(h) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are effective with respect to health insurance coverage offered, sold, issued, renewed, in effect, or operated in the individual market on or after December 7, 2009.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 51693, Oct. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Preemption; Excepted Benefits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.210" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.210   Preemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section describes the effect of sections 2741 through 2763 and 2791 of the PHS Act on a State's authority to regulate health insurance issuers in the individual market. This section makes clear that States remain subject to section 514 of ERISA, which generally preempts State law that relates to ERISA-covered plans.
</P>
<P>(2) Sections 2741 through 2763 and 2791 of the PHS Act cannot be construed to affect or modify the provisions of section 514 of ERISA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulation of insurance issuers.</I> The individual market rules of this part do not prevent a State law from establishing, implementing, or continuing in effect standards or requirements unless the standards or requirements prevent the application of a requirement of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.220" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.220   Excepted benefits.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of this part and part 147 of this subchapter do not apply to any individual coverage in relation to its provision of the benefits described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section (or any combination of the benefits).
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Benefits excepted in all circumstances.</I> The following benefits are excepted in all circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Coverage only for accident (including accidental death and dismemberment).
</P>
<P>(2) Disability income insurance.
</P>
<P>(3) Liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance.
</P>
<P>(4) Coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance.
</P>
<P>(5) Workers' compensation or similar insurance.
</P>
<P>(6) Automobile medical payment insurance.
</P>
<P>(7) Credit-only insurance (for example, mortgage insurance).
</P>
<P>(8) Coverage for on-site medical clinics.
</P>
<P>(9) Travel insurance, within the meaning of § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other excepted benefits.</I> The requirements of this part do not apply to individual health insurance coverage described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(6) of this section if the benefits are provided under a separate policy, certificate, or contract of insurance. These benefits include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Limited scope dental or vision benefits. These benefits are dental or vision benefits that are limited in scope to a narrow range or type of benefits that are generally excluded from benefit packages that combine hospital, medical, and surgical benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) Long-term care benefits. These benefits are benefits that are either—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to State long-term care insurance laws;
</P>
<P>(ii) For qualified long-term care insurance services, as defined in section 7702B(c)(1) of the Code, or provided under a qualified long-term care insurance contract, as defined in section 7702B(b) of the Code; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Based on cognitive impairment or a loss of functional capacity that is expected to be chronic.
</P>
<P>(3) Coverage only for a specified disease or illness (for example, cancer policies) if the policies meet the requirements of § 146.145(b)(4)(ii)(B) and (C) of this subchapter regarding noncoordination of benefits.
</P>
<P>(4) Hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance only if—
</P>
<P>(i) There is no coordination between the provision of benefits and an exclusion of benefits under any other health coverage;
</P>
<P>(ii) The benefits are paid in a fixed dollar amount per period of hospitalization or illness and/or per service (for example, $100/day or $50/visit) regardless of the amount of expenses incurred and without regard to the amount of benefits provided with respect to the event or service under any other health coverage; and
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) For coverage periods beginning on or after January 1, 2025, the issuer displays prominently on the first page (in either paper or electronic form, including on a website) of any marketing, application, and enrollment or reenrollment materials that are provided at or before the time an individual has the opportunity to apply, enroll or reenroll in coverage, and on the first page of the policy, certificate, or contract of insurance, in at least 14-point font, the language in the following notice:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03ap24.066.gif"/>
<P>(B) For coverage periods beginning on or after January 1, 2015, and prior to January 1, 2025, the issuer continues to follow the notice provision in 45 CFR 148.220(b)(4)(iv), revised as of October 1, 2023.
</P>
<P>(iv) If any provision of this paragraph (b)(4) is held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any entity or circumstance, or stayed pending further agency action, the provision shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, along with other provisions not found invalid or unenforceable, including as applied to entities not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances, unless such holding is that the provision is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which event the provision shall be severable from the remainder of this paragraph (b)(4) and shall not affect the remainder thereof.
</P>
<P>(5) Medicare supplemental health insurance (as defined under section 1882(g)(1) of the Social Security Act. 42 U.S.C. 1395ss, also known as Medigap or MedSupp insurance). The requirements of this part 148 (including genetic nondiscrimination requirements), do not apply to Medicare supplemental health insurance policies. However, Medicare supplemental health insurance policies are subject to similar genetic nondiscrimination requirements under section 104 of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-233), as incorporated into the NAIC Model Regulation relating to sections 1882(s)(2)(e) and (x) of the Act (The NAIC Model Regulation can be accessed at <I>http://www.naic.org.</I>).
</P>
<P>(6) Coverage supplemental to the coverage provided under Chapter 55, Title 10 of the United States Code (also known as CHAMPUS supplemental programs).
</P>
<P>(7) Similar supplemental coverage provided to coverage under a group health plan (as described in § 146.145(b)(5)(i)(C) of this subchapter).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 16995, Apr. 8, 1997; 62 FR 31696, June 10, 1997, as amended at 74 FR 51696, Oct. 7, 2009; 79 FR 30341, May 27, 2014; 81 FR 75327, Oct. 31, 2016; 89 FR 23420, Apr. 3, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Grants to States for Operation of Qualified High Risk Pools</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 23414, May 2, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 148.306" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.306   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements section 2745 of the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act). It extends grants to States that have qualified high risk pools that meet the specific requirements described in § 148.310. It also provides specific instructions on how to apply for the grants and outlines the grant review and grant award processes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 22285, Apr. 25, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.308" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.308   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Bonus grants</I> means funds that the Secretary provides from the appropriated grant funds to be used to provide supplemental consumer benefits to enrollees or potential enrollees in qualified high risk pools.
</P>
<P><I>CMS</I> stands for Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services. 
</P>
<P><I>Loss</I> means the difference between expenses incurred by a qualified high risk pool, including payment of claims and administrative expenses, and the premiums collected by the pool. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified high risk pool</I> as defined in sections 2744(c)(2) and 2745(g) of the PHS Act means a risk pool that—
</P>
<P>(1) Provides to all eligible individuals health insurance coverage (or comparable coverage) that does not impose any preexisting condition exclusion with respect to such coverage for all eligible individuals, except that it may provide for enrollment of eligible individuals through an acceptable alternative mechanism (as defined for purposes of section 2744 of the PHS Act) that includes a high risk pool as a component; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provides for premium rates and covered benefits for such coverage consistent with standards included in the NAIC Model Health Plan for Uninsurable Individuals Act that was in effect at the time of the enactment of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (August 21, 1996) but only if the model has been revised in State regulations to meet all of the requirements of this part and title 27 of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P><I>Standard risk rate</I> means a rate developed by a State using reasonable actuarial techniques and taking into account the premium rates charged by other insurers offering health insurance coverage to individuals in the same geographical service area to which the rate applies. The standard rate may be adjusted based upon age, sex, and geographical location. 
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the 50 States and the District of Columbia and includes the U.S. Territories of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>State fiscal year,</I> for purposes of this subpart, means the fiscal year used for accounting purposes by either a State or a risk pool entity to which a State has delegated the authority to conduct risk pool operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23414, May 2, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 15700, Mar. 26, 2004; 72 FR 41236, July 27, 2007; 73 FR 22285, Apr. 25, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.310" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.310   Eligibility requirements for a grant.</HEAD>
<P>A State must meet all of the following requirements to be eligible for a grant: 
</P>
<P>(a) The State has a qualified high risk pool as defined in § 148.308. 
</P>
<P>(b) The pool restricts premiums charged under the pool to no more than 200 percent of the premium for applicable standard risk rates for the State.
</P>
<P>(c) The pool offers a choice of two or more coverage options through the pool. 
</P>
<P>(d) The pool has in effect a mechanism reasonably designed to ensure continued funding of losses incurred by the State after the end of each fiscal year for which the State applies for Federal Funding in fiscal year (FY) 2005 through FY 2010 in connection with the operation of the pool.
</P>
<P>(e) The pool has incurred a loss in a period described in § 148.314. 
</P>
<P>(f) In the case of a qualified high risk pool in a State that charges premiums that exceed 150 percent of the premium for applicable standard risks, the State will use at least 50 percent of the amount of the grant provided to the State to reduce premiums for enrollees.
</P>
<P>(g) In no case will the aggregate amount allotted and made available to the U.S. Territories for a fiscal year exceed $1,000,000 in total.
</P>
<P>(h) Bonus grant funding must be used for one or more of the following benefits:
</P>
<P>(1) Low income premium subsidies;
</P>
<P>(2) Reduction in premium trends, actual premium or other cost-sharing requirements;
</P>
<P>(3) An expansion or broadening of the pool of individuals eligible for coverage, such as through eliminating waiting lists, increasing enrollment caps, or providing flexibility in enrollment rules;
</P>
<P>(4) Less stringent rules or additional waiver authority with respect to coverage of pre-existing conditions;
</P>
<P>(5) Increased benefits; and
</P>
<P>(6) The establishment of disease management programs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23414, May 2, 2003, as amended at 72 FR 41236, July 27, 2007; 73 FR 22285, Apr. 25, 2008] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.312" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.312   Amount of grant payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An eligible State may receive a grant to fund up to 100 percent of the losses incurred in the operation of its qualified high risk pool during the period for which it is applying or a lesser amount based on the limits of the allotment under the formula.
</P>
<P>(b) Funds will be allocated in accordance with this paragraph to each State that meets the eligibility requirements of § 148.310 and files an application in accordance with § 148.316. The amount will be divided among the States that apply and are awarded grants according to the allotment rules that generally provide that: 40 percent will be equally divided among those States; 30 percent will be divided among States and territories based on their number of uninsured residents in the State during the specified year as compared to all States that apply; and 30 percent will be divided among States and territories based on the number of people in State high risk pools during the specified year as compared to all States that apply.
</P>
<P>For purposes of this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of uninsured individuals is calculated for each eligible State by taking a 3-year average of the number of uninsured individuals in that State in the Current Population Survey (CPS) of the Census Bureau during the period for which it is applying. The 3-year average will be calculated using numbers available as of March 1 of each year.
</P>
<P>(2) The number of individuals enrolled in health care coverage through the qualified high risk pool of the State will be determined by attestation by the State in its grant application and verified for reasonability by the Secretary through acceptable industry data sources.
</P>
<P>(c) The amount awarded to each eligible State will be the lesser of the 50 percent of losses incurred by its qualified risk pool for the fiscal year in question or its allotment under the formula. 
</P>
<P>(d) One-third of the total appropriation will be available for the bonus grants. In no case will a State for a fiscal year receive bonus grants that exceed 10 percent of the total allotted funds for bonus grants.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23414, May 2, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 15700, Mar. 26, 2004; 72 FR 41237, July 27, 2007; 73 FR 22285, Apr. 25, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.314" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.314   Periods during which eligible States may apply for a grant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A State that meets the eligibility requirements in § 148.310 may apply for a grant to fund losses that were incurred during the State's FYs 2005, 2006, 2007, 2008 and 2009 in connection with the operation of its qualified high risk pool. Funding for FY 2007 through FY 2010 under the Extension Act requires subsequent enactment of appropriations authority. States will be unable to apply for grants unless and until such funding becomes available. Grants funding is on a retrospective basis and applies to the States previous fiscal year. If a State becomes eligible for a grant in the middle of its fiscal year, a State may apply for losses incurred in a partial fiscal year if a partial year audit is done. Only losses that are incurred after eligibility is established will qualify for a grant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maximum number of grants.</I> An eligible State may only be awarded a maximum of five grants, with one grant per fiscal year. A grant for a partial fiscal year counts as a full grant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deadline for submitting grant applications.</I> The deadlines for submitting grant applications are stated in § 148.316(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Distribution of grant funds.</I> States that meet all of the eligibility requirements in § 148.310 and submit timely requests in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section will receive an initial distribution of grant funds using the following methodology: Grant applications for losses will be on a retrospective basis. For example, grant applications for 2006 funds are based on the State's FY 2005 incurred losses. Grant funding was appropriated for Federal FY 2006 and is authorized to be appropriated for Federal FYs 2008 through 2010.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Grant allocations.</I> Grant allocations for each fiscal year will be determined by taking all grant applications during the period for which States are applying and allocating the funds in accordance with § 148.312.
</P>
<P>(1) In no case will a State receive funds greater than 100 percent of their losses.
</P>
<P>(2) If any excess funds remain after the initial calculation, these excess funds will be proportionately redistributed to the States whose allocations have not exceeded 100 percent of their losses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 22285, Apr. 25, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.316" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.316   Grant application instructions.</HEAD>
<P>Funding for FY 2008, FY 2009, and FY 2010 under the Extension Act requires the subsequent enactment of appropriations authority. Funding was appropriated for Federal FY 2006. States will be unable to apply for FY 2008 through FY 2010 grants unless and until such funding becomes available.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Application for operational losses.</I> Each State must compile an application package that documents that it has met the requirements for a grant. If a risk pool entity applies on behalf of a State, it must provide documentation that it has been delegated appropriate authority by the State. At a minimum, the application package must include a completed standard form application kit (see paragraph (b) of this section) along with the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>History and description of the qualified high risk pool.</I> Provide a detailed description of the qualified high risk pool that includes the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Brief history, including date of inception. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Enrollment criteria (including provisions for the admission of eligible individuals as defined in § 148.103) and number of enrollees. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Description of how coverage is provided administratively in the qualified high risk pool (that is, self-insured, through a private carrier, etc.). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Benefits options and packages offered in the qualified high risk pool to both eligible individual (as defined in § 148.103) and other applicants. 
</P>
<P>(v) Outline of plan benefits and coverage offered in the pool. Provide evidence that the level of plan benefits is consistent with either Alternative One or Alternative Two in Section 8 of the NAIC Model Health Plan for Uninsurable Individuals Act. See appendix for the text of Section 8 of the NAIC Model. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Premiums charged (in terms of dollars and in percentage of standard risk rate) and other cost-sharing mechanisms, such as co-pays and deductibles, imposed on enrollees (both eligible individuals (as defined in § 148.103) and non-eligible individuals if a distinction is made). 
</P>
<P>(vii) How the standard risk rate for the State is calculated and when it was last calculated. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Revenue sources for the qualified high risk pool, including current funding mechanisms and, if different, future funding mechanisms. Provide current projections of future income.
</P>
<P>(ix) Copies of all governing authorities of the pool, including statutes, regulations and plan of operation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounting of risk pool losses.</I> Provide a detailed accounting of claims paid, administrative expenses, and premiums collected for the fiscal year for which the grant is being requested. Indicate the timing of the fiscal year upon which the accounting is based. Provide the methodology of projecting losses and expenses, and include current projections of future operating losses (this information is needed to judge compliance with the requirements in § 148.310(d)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bonus grants for supplemental consumer benefits.</I> Provide detailed information about the following supplemental consumer benefits for which the entity is applying:
</P>
<P>(i) A narrative description of one or more of the following of the supplemental consumer benefits to be provided to enrollees and/or potential enrollees in the high risk pool:
</P>
<P>(A) Low income premium subsidies;
</P>
<P>(B) Reduction in premium trends, actual premium or other cost-sharing requirements;
</P>
<P>(C) An expansion or broadening of the pool of individuals eligible for coverage, such as through eliminating waiting lists, increasing enrollment caps, or providing flexibility in enrollment;
</P>
<P>(D) Less stringent rules, or additional waiver authority with respect to coverage of pre-existing conditions;
</P>
<P>(E) Increased benefits; and
</P>
<P>(F) The establishment of disease management programs.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the population or subset population that will be eligible for the supplemental consumer benefits.
</P>
<P>(iii) A projected budget for the use of bonus grant funds using the SF 424 A.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contact person.</I> Identify the name, position title, address, e-mail address, and telephone number of the person to contact for further information and questions.
</P>
<P>(b) Standard form application kit—(1) Forms. (i) The following standard forms must be completed with an original signature and enclosed as part of the application package:
</P>
<FP-1>SF-424 Application for Federal Assistance.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SF-424A Budget Information.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SF-424B Assurances Non-Construction Programs.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SF-LLL Disclosure of Lobbying Activities Biographical Sketch.
</FP-1>
<P>(ii) These forms can be accessed from the following Web site: <I>http://www.grants.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other narrative.</I> All other narrative in the application must be submitted on 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inches white paper.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application submission.</I> Submission of application package is through <I>http://www.grants.gov.</I> Submissions by facsimile (fax) transmissions will not be accepted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application deadlines.</I> (1) The deadline for States to submit an application for losses incurred in a State fiscal year is June 30 of the next Federal fiscal year that begins after the end of the State fiscal year. Funding for FY 2008, FY 2009, and FY 2010 under the Extension Act requires the subsequent enactment of appropriations authority. Funding was appropriated for Federal FY 2006. States will be unable to apply for FY 2008 through FY 2010 grants unless and until such funding becomes available.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deadline for States to submit an application for losses incurred in their fiscal year 2005.</I> States had to submit an application to CMS no later than June 30, 2006.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deadline for States to submit an application for losses incurred in their fiscal year 2006.</I> States must submit an application to CMS by no later than June 30, 2007.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Deadline for States to submit an application for losses incurred in their fiscal year 2007.</I> States must submit an application to CMS by no later than June 30, 2008.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Deadline for States to submit an application for losses incurred in their fiscal year 2008.</I> States must submit an application to CMS by no later than June 30, 2009.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Deadline for States to submit an application for losses incurred in their fiscal year 2009.</I> States must submit an application to CMS by no later than June 30, 2010.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Where to submit an application.</I> Applications must be submitted to <I>http://www.grants.gov.</I> Submissions by facsimile (fax) transmissions will not be accepted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23414, May 2, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 15701, Mar. 26, 2004; 72 FR 41237, July 27, 2007; 73 FR 22286, Apr. 25, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.318" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.318   Grant application review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Executive Order 12372.</I> This grant program is not listed by the Secretary under § 100.3 of this title, and therefore the grant program is not subject to review by States under part 100 of this title, which implements Executive Order 12372, “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs” (see part 100 of this title).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review team.</I> A team consisting of staff from CMS and the Department of Health and Human Services will review all applications. The team will meet as necessary on an ongoing basis as applications are received. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligibility criteria.</I> To be eligible for a grant, a State must submit sufficient documentation that its high risk pool meets the eligibility requirements described in § 148.310. A State must include sufficient documentation of the losses incurred in the operation of the qualified high risk pool in the period for when it is applying. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review criteria.</I> If the review team determines that a State meets the eligibility requirements described in § 148.310, the review team will use the following additional criteria in reviewing the applications:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Documentation of expenses incurred during operation of the qualified high risk pool.</I> The losses and expenses incurred in the operation of a State's pool are sufficiently documented.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Funding mechanism.</I> The State has outlined funding sources, such as assessments and State general revenues, which can cover the projected costs and are reasonably designed to ensure continued funding of losses a State incurs in connection with the operation of the qualified high risk pool after each fiscal year for which it is applying for grant funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23414, May 2, 2003, as amended at 72 FR 41238, July 27, 2007; 73 FR 22286, Apr. 25, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 148.320" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.6.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 148.320   Grant awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification and award letter.</I> (1) Each State applicant will be notified in writing of CMS's decision on its application. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the State applicant is awarded a grant, the award letter will contain the following terms and conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) All funds awarded to the grantee under this program must be used exclusively for the operation of a qualified high risk pool that meets the eligibility requirements for this program. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The grantee must keep sufficient records of the grant expenditures for audit purposes (see part 92 of this title). 
</P>
<P>(iii) The grantee will be required to submit quarterly progress and financial reports under part 92 of this title and in accordance with section 2745(f) of the Public Health Service Act, requiring the Secretary to make an annual report to Congress that includes information on the use of these grant funds by States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grantees letter of acceptance.</I> Grantees must submit a letter of acceptance to CMS' Acquisition and Grants Group within 30 days of the date of the award agreeing to the terms and conditions of the award letter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23414, May 2, 2003, as amended at 72 FR 41238, July 27, 2007; 73 FR 22286, Apr. 25, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="149" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 149—SURPRISE BILLING AND TRANSPARENCY REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 300gg-92 and 300gg-111 through 300gg-139, as amended.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 36970, July 13, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.10" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.10   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This part implements parts D and E of title XXVII of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part establishes standards for group health plans, health insurance issuers offering group or individual health insurance coverage, health care providers and facilities, and providers of air ambulance services with respect to surprise medical bills, transparency in health care coverage, and additional patient protections. This part also establishes an independent dispute resolution process, and standards for certifying independent dispute resolution entities. This part also establishes a Patient-Provider Dispute Resolution Process and standards for certifying Selected Dispute Resolution entities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 36970, July 13, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 56124, Oct. 7, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.20" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.20   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) The requirements in subparts B, D, and H of this part apply to group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group or individual health insurance coverage (including grandfathered health plans as defined in § 147.140 of this subchapter), except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements in subpart E of this part apply to health care providers, health care facilities, and providers of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements in subpart F of this part apply to certified IDR entities, health care providers, health care facilities, and providers of air ambulance services and group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group or individual health insurance coverage (including grandfathered health plans as defined in § 147.140 of this subchapter) except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements in subpart G of this part apply to Selected Dispute Resolution Entities, health care providers, providers of air ambulance services, health care facilities and uninsured (or self-pay) individuals, as defined in subpart G.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirements in subparts B, D, E, F, and H of this part do not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Excepted benefits as described in §§ 146.145 and 148.220 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Short-term, limited-duration insurance as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Health reimbursement arrangements or other account-based group health plans as described in § 147.126(d) of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 36970, July 13, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 56124, Oct. 7, 2021; 86 FR 66702, Nov. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.30" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.30   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions in part 144 of this subchapter apply to this part, unless otherwise specified. In addition, for purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Air ambulance service</I> means medical transport by a rotary wing air ambulance, as defined in 42 CFR 414.605, or fixed wing air ambulance, as defined in 42 CFR 414.605, for patients.
</P>
<P><I>Bundled payment arrangement</I> means an arrangement under which—
</P>
<P>(1) A provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services bills for multiple items or services furnished to a single patient under a single service code that represents multiple items or services (for example, a Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG) code); or
</P>
<P>(2) A plan or issuer makes an initial payment or notice of denial of payment to a provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services under a single service code that represents multiple items or services furnished to a single patient (for example, a DRG code).
</P>
<P><I>Cost sharing</I> means the amount a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee is responsible for paying for a covered item or service under the terms of the group health plan or health insurance coverage. Cost sharing generally includes copayments, coinsurance, and amounts paid towards deductibles, but does not include amounts paid towards premiums, balance billing by out-of-network providers, or the cost of items or services that are not covered under a group health plan or health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency department of a hospital</I> includes a hospital outpatient department that provides emergency services.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency medical condition</I> has the meaning given the term in § 149.110(c)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Emergency services</I> has the meaning given the term in § 149.110(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Health care facility,</I> with respect to a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage, in the context of non-emergency services, is each of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A hospital (as defined in section 1861(e) of the Social Security Act);
</P>
<P>(2) A hospital outpatient department;
</P>
<P>(3) A critical access hospital (as defined in section 1861(mm)(1) of the Social Security Act); and
</P>
<P>(4) An ambulatory surgical center described in section 1833(i)(1)(A) of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P><I>Independent freestanding emergency department</I> means a health care facility (not limited to those described in the definition of health care facility with respect to non-emergency services) that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is geographically separate and distinct and licensed separately from a hospital under applicable State law; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provides any emergency services as described in § 149.110(c)(2)(i).
</P>
<P><I>Nonparticipating emergency facility</I> means an emergency department of a hospital, or an independent freestanding emergency department (or a hospital, with respect to services that pursuant to § 149.110(c)(2)(ii) are included as emergency services), that does not have a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, with respect to the furnishing of an item or service under the plan or coverage, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Nonparticipating provider</I> means any physician or other health care provider who does not have a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, with respect to the furnishing of an item or service under the plan or coverage, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Notice of denial of payment</I> means, with respect to an item or service for which benefits subject to the protections of §§ 149.110 through 149.130 are provided or covered, a written notice from the plan or issuer to the health care provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, as applicable, that payment for such item or service will not be made by the plan or coverage and which explains the reason for denial. The term notice of denial of payment does not include a notice of benefit denial due to an adverse benefit determination as defined in 29 CFR 2560.503-1.
</P>
<P><I>Out-of-network rate</I> means, with respect to an item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider, nonparticipating emergency facility, or nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services—
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to paragraph (3) of this definition, in a State that has in effect a specified State law, the amount determined in accordance with such law;
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraph (3) of this definition, in a State that does not have in effect a specified State law—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to paragraph (2)(ii) of this definition, if the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility and the plan or issuer agree on an amount of payment (including if the amount agreed upon is the initial payment sent by the plan or issuer under 26 CFR 54.9816-4T(b)(3)(iv)(A), 54.9816-5T(c)(3), or 54.9817-1T(b)(4)(i); 29 CFR 2590.716-4(b)(3)(iv)(A), 2590.716-5(c)(3), or 2590.717-1(b)(4)(i); or § 149.110(b)(3)(iv)(A), § 149.120(c)(3), or § 149.130(b)(4)(i), as applicable, or is agreed on through negotiations with respect to such item or service), such agreed on amount; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility and the plan or issuer enter into the independent dispute resolution (IDR) process under section 9816(c) or 9817(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, section 716(c) or 717(b) of ERISA, or section 2799A-1(c) or 2799A-2(b) of the PHS Act, as applicable, and do not agree before the date on which a certified IDR entity makes a determination with respect to such item or service under such subsection, the amount of such determination; or
</P>
<P>(3) In a State that has an All-Payer Model Agreement under section 1115A of the Social Security Act that applies with respect to the plan or issuer; the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility; and the item or service, the amount that the State approves under the All-Payer Model Agreement for the item or service.
</P>
<P><I>Participating emergency facility</I> means any emergency department of a hospital, or an independent freestanding emergency department (or a hospital, with respect to services that pursuant to § 149.110(c)(2)(ii) are included as emergency services), that has a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant item or service is provided to a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee under the plan or coverage, respectively. A single case agreement between an emergency facility and a plan or issuer that is used to address unique situations in which a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee requires services that typically occur out-of-network constitutes a contractual relationship for purposes of this definition, and is limited to the parties to the agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Participating health care facility</I> means any health care facility described in this section that has a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant item or service is provided to a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee under the plan or coverage, respectively. A single case agreement between a health care facility and a plan or issuer that is used to address unique situations in which a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee requires services that typically occur out-of-network constitutes a contractual relationship for purposes of this definition, and is limited to the parties to the agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Participating provider</I> means any physician or other health care provider who has a contractual relationship directly or indirectly with a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage setting forth the terms and conditions on which a relevant item or service is provided to a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee under the plan or coverage, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Physician or health care provider</I> means a physician or other health care provider who is acting within the scope of practice of that provider's license or certification under applicable State law, but does not include a provider of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P><I>Provider of air ambulance services</I> means an entity that is licensed under applicable State and Federal law to provide air ambulance services.
</P>
<P><I>Same or similar item or service</I> has the meaning given the term in § 149.140(a)(13).
</P>
<P><I>Service code</I> has the meaning given the term in § 149.140(a)(14).
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying payment amount</I> has the meaning given the term in § 149.140(a)(16).
</P>
<P><I>Recognized amount</I> means, with respect to an item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility—
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to paragraph (3) of this definition, in a State that has in effect a specified State law, the amount determined in accordance with such law.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraph (3) of this definition, in a State that does not have in effect a specified State law, the lesser of—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount that is the qualifying payment amount (as determined in accordance with § 149.140); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount billed by the provider or facility.
</P>
<P>(3) In a State that has an All-Payer Model Agreement under section 1115A of the Social Security Act that applies with respect to the plan or issuer; the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility; and the item or service, the amount that the State approves under the All-Payer Model Agreement for the item or service.
</P>
<P><I>Specified State law</I> means a State law that provides for a method for determining the total amount payable under a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer to the extent such State law applies for an item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility (including where it applies because the State has allowed a plan that is not otherwise subject to applicable State law an opportunity to opt in, subject to section 514 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974). A group health plan that opts in to such a specified State law must do so for all items and services to which the specified State law applies and in a manner determined by the applicable State authority, and must prominently display in its plan materials describing the coverage of out-of-network services a statement that the plan has opted into the specified State law, identify the relevant State (or States), and include a general description of the items and services provided by nonparticipating facilities and providers that are covered by the specified State law.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means each of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Treating provider</I> is a physician or health care provider who has evaluated the individual.
</P>
<P><I>Visit,</I> with respect to items and services furnished to an individual at a health care facility, includes, in addition to items and services furnished by a provider at the facility, equipment and devices, telemedicine services, imaging services, laboratory services, and preoperative and postoperative services, regardless of whether the provider furnishing such items or services is at the facility.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 36970, July 13, 2021, as amended at 91 FR 34070, June 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Protections Against Balance Billing for the Group and Individual Health Insurance Markets</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.100" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.100   Use of claim adjustment reason codes and remittance advice remark codes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> When providing any remittance advice (including in paper or electronic form) to an entity (other than a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee) that does not have a contractual relationship, directly or indirectly, with a group health plan or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage for the furnishing of an item or service under the plan or coverage, in response to a claim for payment for health care items and services furnished by that entity, the plan or issuer must use claim adjustment reason codes (CARCs) and remittance advice remark codes (RARCs) (as those terms are described in standards and operating rules adopted in part 162 of this subtitle), in the manner and timeframe specified in guidance issued by the Secretaries of the Treasury, Labor, and Health and Human Services, or as required under any applicable adopted standards and operating rules under part 162 of this subtitle, to communicate information related to whether the claim is or is not subject to the provisions of this subpart and subparts E and F of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severability.</I> (1) Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, will be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding is one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision will be severable from this section and will not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions in this section are intended to be severable from the provisions in §§ 149.140, 149.510, and 149.530, from any grant of forbearance from removal resulting from this subpart, and from any provision referenced in §§ 149.140, 149.510, and 149.530.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 34070, June 4, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.110" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.110   Preventing surprise medical bills for emergency services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, provides or covers any benefits with respect to services in an emergency department of a hospital or with respect to emergency services in an independent freestanding emergency department, the plan or issuer must cover emergency services, as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and this coverage must be provided in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage requirements.</I> A plan or issuer described in paragraph (a) of this section must provide coverage for emergency services in the following manner—
</P>
<P>(1) Without the need for any prior authorization determination, even if the services are provided on an out-of-network basis.
</P>
<P>(2) Without regard to whether the health care provider furnishing the emergency services is a participating provider or a participating emergency facility, as applicable, with respect to the services.
</P>
<P>(3) If the emergency services are provided by a nonparticipating provider or a nonparticipating emergency facility—
</P>
<P>(i) Without imposing any administrative requirement or limitation on coverage that is more restrictive than the requirements or limitations that apply to emergency services received from participating providers and participating emergency facilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Without imposing cost-sharing requirements that are greater than the requirements that would apply if the services were provided by a participating provider or a participating emergency facility.
</P>
<P>(iii) By calculating the cost-sharing requirement as if the total amount that would have been charged for the services by such participating provider or participating emergency facility were equal to the recognized amount for such services.
</P>
<P>(iv) The plan or issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) Not later than 30 calendar days after the bill for the services is transmitted by the provider or facility (or, in cases where the recognized amount is determined by a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement, such other timeframe as specified by the State law or All-Payer Model Agreement), determines whether the services are covered under the plan or coverage and, if the services are covered, sends to the provider or facility, as applicable, an initial payment or a notice of denial of payment. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(A), the 30-calendar-day period begins on the date the plan or issuer receives the information necessary to decide a claim for payment for the services.
</P>
<P>(B) Pays a total plan or coverage payment directly to the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating facility that is equal to the amount by which the out-of-network rate for the services exceeds the cost-sharing amount for the services (as determined in accordance with paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section), less any initial payment amount made under paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(A) of this section. The total plan or coverage payment must be made in accordance with the timing requirement described in section 2799A-1(c)(6) of the PHS Act, or in cases where the out-of-network rate is determined under a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement, such other timeframe as specified by the State law or All-Payer Model Agreement.
</P>
<P>(v) By counting any cost-sharing payments made by the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee with respect to the emergency services toward any in-network deductible or in-network out-of-pocket maximums (including the annual limitation on cost sharing under section 2707(b) of the PHS Act) (as applicable) applied under the plan or coverage (and the in-network deductible and in-network out-of-pocket maximums must be applied) in the same manner as if the cost-sharing payments were made with respect to emergency services furnished by a participating provider or a participating emergency facility.
</P>
<P>(4) Without limiting what constitutes an emergency medical condition (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) solely on the basis of diagnosis codes.
</P>
<P>(5) Without regard to any other term or condition of the coverage, other than—
</P>
<P>(i) The exclusion or coordination of benefits (to the extent not inconsistent with benefits for an emergency medical condition, as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) An affiliation or waiting period (each as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter).
</P>
<P>(iii) Applicable cost sharing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> In this section—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Emergency medical condition</I> means a medical condition, including a mental health condition or substance use disorder, manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including severe pain) such that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in a condition described in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of section 1867(e)(1)(A) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd(e)(1)(A)). (In that provision of the Social Security Act, clause (i) refers to placing the health of the individual (or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious jeopardy; clause (ii) refers to serious impairment to bodily functions; and clause (iii) refers to serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergency services</I> means, with respect to an emergency medical condition—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In general.</I> (A) An appropriate medical screening examination (as required under section 1867 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd) or as would be required under such section if such section applied to an independent freestanding emergency department) that is within the capability of the emergency department of a hospital or of an independent freestanding emergency department, as applicable, including ancillary services routinely available to the emergency department to evaluate such emergency medical condition; and
</P>
<P>(B) Within the capabilities of the staff and facilities available at the hospital or the independent freestanding emergency department, as applicable, such further medical examination and treatment as are required under section 1867 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd), or as would be required under such section if such section applied to an independent freestanding emergency department, to stabilize the patient (regardless of the department of the hospital in which such further examination or treatment is furnished).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inclusion of additional services.</I> (A) Subject to paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, items and services—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For which benefits are provided or covered under the plan or coverage; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That are furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility (regardless of the department of the hospital in which such items or services are furnished) after the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee is stabilized and as part of outpatient observation or an inpatient or outpatient stay with respect to the visit in which the services described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section are furnished.
</P>
<P>(B) Items and services described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section are not included as emergency services if all of the conditions in § 149.410(b) are met.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>To stabilize,</I> with respect to an emergency medical condition, has the meaning given such term in section 1867(e)(3) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd(e)(3)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.120" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.120   Preventing surprise medical bills for non-emergency services performed by nonparticipating providers at certain participating facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, provides or covers any benefits with respect to items and services described in paragraph (b) of this section, the plan or issuer must cover the items and services when furnished by a nonparticipating provider in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Items and services described.</I> The items and services described in this paragraph (b) are items and services (other than emergency services) furnished to a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee by a nonparticipating provider with respect to a visit at a participating health care facility, unless the provider has satisfied the notice and consent criteria of § 149.420(c) through (i) with respect to such items and services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage requirements.</I> In the case of items and services described in paragraph (b) of this section, the plan or issuer—
</P>
<P>(1) Must not impose a cost-sharing requirement for the items and services that is greater than the cost-sharing requirement that would apply if the items or services had been furnished by a participating provider.
</P>
<P>(2) Must calculate the cost-sharing requirements as if the total amount that would have been charged for the items and services by such participating provider were equal to the recognized amount for the items and services.
</P>
<P>(3) Not later than 30 calendar days after the bill for the items or services is transmitted by the provider (or in cases where the recognized amount is determined by a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement, such other timeframe as specified under the State law or All-Payer Model Agreement), must determine whether the items and services are covered under the plan or coverage and, if the items and services are covered, send to the provider an initial payment or a notice of denial of payment. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), the 30-calendar-day period begins on the date the plan or issuer receives the information necessary to decide a claim for payment for the items or services.
</P>
<P>(4) Must pay a total plan or coverage payment directly to the nonparticipating provider that is equal to the amount by which the out-of-network rate for the items and services involved exceeds the cost-sharing amount for the items and services (as determined in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section), less any initial payment amount made under paragraph (c)(3) of this section. The total plan or coverage payment must be made in accordance with the timing requirement described in section 2799A-1(c)(6) of the PHS Act, or in cases where the out-of-network rate is determined under a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement, such other timeframe as specified by the State law or All-Payer Model Agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) Must count any cost-sharing payments made by the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee toward any in-network deductible and in-network out-of-pocket maximums (including the annual limitation on cost sharing under section 2707(b) of the PHS Act) (as applicable) applied under the plan or coverage (and the in-network deductible and out-of-pocket maximums must be applied) in the same manner as if such cost-sharing payments were made with respect to items and services furnished by a participating provider.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.130" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.130   Preventing surprise medical bills for air ambulance services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, provides or covers any benefits for air ambulance services, the plan or issuer must cover such services from a nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage requirements.</I> A plan or issuer described in paragraph (a) of this section must provide coverage of air ambulance services in the following manner—
</P>
<P>(1) The cost-sharing requirements with respect to the services must be the same requirements that would apply if the services were provided by a participating provider of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(2) The cost-sharing requirement must be calculated as if the total amount that would have been charged for the services by a participating provider of air ambulance services were equal to the lesser of the qualifying payment amount (as determined in accordance with § 149.140) or the billed amount for the services.
</P>
<P>(3) The cost-sharing amounts must be counted towards any in-network deductible and in-network out-of-pocket maximums (including the annual limitation on cost sharing under section 2707(b) of the PHS Act) (as applicable) applied under the plan or coverage (and the in-network deductible and out-of-pocket maximums must be applied) in the same manner as if the cost-sharing payments were made with respect to services furnished by a participating provider of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(4) The plan or issuer must—
</P>
<P>(i) Not later than 30 calendar days after the bill for the services is transmitted by the provider of air ambulance services, determine whether the services are covered under the plan or coverage and, if the services are covered, send to the provider an initial payment or a notice of denial of payment. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4)(i), the 30-calendar-day period begins on the date the plan or issuer receives the information necessary to decide a claim for payment for the services.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pay a total plan or coverage payment directly to the nonparticipating provider furnishing such air ambulance services that is equal to the amount by which the out-of-network rate for the services exceeds the cost-sharing amount for the services (as determined in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section), less any initial payment amount made under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section. The total plan or coverage payment must be made in accordance with the timing requirement described in section 2799A-2(b)(6) of the PHS Act, or in cases where the out-of-network rate is determined under a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement, such other timeframe as specified by the State law or All-Payer Model Agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.140" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.140   Methodology for calculating qualifying payment amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Contracted rate</I> means the total amount (including cost sharing) that a group health plan or health insurance issuer has contractually agreed to pay a participating provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services for covered items and services, whether directly or indirectly, including through a third-party administrator or pharmacy benefit manager. Solely for purposes of this definition, a single case agreement, letter of agreement, or other similar arrangement between a provider, facility, or air ambulance provider and a plan or issuer, used to supplement the network of the plan or coverage for a specific participant, beneficiary, or enrollee in unique circumstances, does not constitute a contract.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Derived amount</I> has the meaning given the term in § 147.210 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligible database</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) A State all-payer claims database; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any third-party database which—
</P>
<P>(A) Is not affiliated with, or owned or controlled by, any health insurance issuer, or a health care provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services (or any member of the same controlled group as, or under common control with, such an entity). For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(A), the term controlled group means a group of two or more persons that is treated as a single employer under sections 52(a), 52(b), 414(m), or 414(o) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended;
</P>
<P>(B) Has sufficient information reflecting in-network amounts paid by group health plans or health insurance issuers offering group or individual health insurance coverage to providers, facilities, or providers of air ambulance services for relevant items and services furnished in the applicable geographic region; and
</P>
<P>(C) Has the ability to distinguish amounts paid to participating providers and facilities by commercial payers, such as group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group or individual health insurance coverage, from all other claims data, such as amounts billed by nonparticipating providers or facilities and amounts paid by public payers, including the Medicare program under title XVIII of the Social Security Act, the Medicaid program under title XIX of the Social Security Act (or a demonstration project under title XI of the Social Security Act), or the Children's Health Insurance Program under title XXI of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Facility of the same or similar facility type</I> means, with respect to emergency services, either—
</P>
<P>(i) An emergency department of a hospital; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An independent freestanding emergency department.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>First coverage year</I> means, with respect to an item or service for which coverage is not offered in 2019 under a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, the first year after 2019 for which coverage for such item or service is offered under that plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>First sufficient information year</I> means, with respect to a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an item or service for which the plan or coverage does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section in 2019, the first year after 2022 for which the plan or issuer has sufficient information to calculate the median of such contracted rates in the year immediately preceding that first year after 2022; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a newly covered item or service, the first year after the first coverage year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage for which the plan or issuer has sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section in the year immediately preceding that first year.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Geographic region</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) For items and services other than air ambulance services—
</P>
<P>(A) Subject to paragraphs (a)(7)(i)(B) and (C) of this section, one region for each metropolitan statistical area, as described by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and published by the U.S. Census Bureau, in a State, and one region consisting of all other portions of the State.
</P>
<P>(B) If a plan or issuer does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section for an item or service provided in a geographic region described in paragraph (a)(7)(i)(A) of this section, one region consisting of all metropolitan statistical areas, as described by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and published by the U.S. Census Bureau, in the State, and one region consisting of all other portions of the State.
</P>
<P>(C) If a plan or issuer does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section for an item or service provided in a geographic region described in paragraph (a)(7)(i)(B) of this section, one region consisting of all metropolitan statistical areas, as described by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and published by the U.S. Census Bureau, in each Census division and one region consisting of all other portions of the Census division, as described by the U.S. Census Bureau.
</P>
<P>(ii) For air ambulance services—
</P>
<P>(A) Subject to paragraph (a)(7)(ii)(B) of this section, one region consisting of all metropolitan statistical areas, as described by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and published by the U.S. Census Bureau, in the State, and one region consisting of all other portions of the State, determined based on the point of pick-up (as defined in 42 CFR 414.605).
</P>
<P>(B) If a plan or issuer does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section for an air ambulance service provided in a geographic region described in paragraph (a)(7)(ii)(A) of this section, one region consisting of all metropolitan statistical areas, as described by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and published by the U.S. Census Bureau, in each Census division and one region consisting of all other portions of the Census division, as described by the U.S. Census Bureau, determined based on the point of pick-up (as defined in 42 CFR 414.605).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Insurance market</I> is, irrespective of the State, one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual market (other than short-term, limited-duration insurance or individual health insurance coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits).
</P>
<P>(ii) The large group market (other than coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits).
</P>
<P>(iii) The small group market (other than coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits).
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a self-insured group health plan, all self-insured group health plans (other than account-based plans, as defined in § 147.126(d)(6)(i) of this subchapter, and plans that consist solely of excepted benefits) of the same plan sponsor, or at the option of the plan sponsor, all self-insured group health plans administered by the same entity (including a third-party administrator contracted by the plan), to the extent otherwise permitted by law, that is responsible for calculating the qualifying payment amount on behalf of the plan.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Modifiers</I> mean codes applied to the service code that provide a more specific description of the furnished item or service and that may adjust the payment rate or affect the processing or payment of the code billed.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Newly covered item or service</I> means an item or service for which coverage was not offered in 2019 under a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, but that is offered under the plan or coverage in a year after 2019.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>New service code</I> means a service code that was created or substantially revised in a year after 2019.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Provider in the same or similar specialty</I> means the practice specialty of a provider, as identified by the plan or issuer consistent with the plan's or issuer's usual business practice, except that, with respect to air ambulance services, all providers of air ambulance services are considered to be a single provider specialty.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Same or similar item or service</I> means a health care item or service billed under the same service code, or a comparable code under a different procedural code system.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Service code</I> means the code that describes an item or service using the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code, Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS), or Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG) codes.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Sufficient information</I> means, for purposes of determining whether a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage has sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) The plan or issuer has at least three contracted rates on January 31, 2019, to calculate the median of the contracted rates in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For an item or service furnished during a year after 2022 that is used to determine the first sufficient information year—
</P>
<P>(A) The plan or issuer has at least three contracted rates on January 31 of the year immediately preceding that year to calculate the median of the contracted rates in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The contracted rates under paragraph (a)(15)(ii)(A) of this section account (or are reasonably expected to account) for at least 25 percent of the total number of claims paid for that item or service for that year with respect to all plans of the sponsor (or the administering entity as provided in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section, if applicable) or all coverage offered by the issuer that are offered in the same insurance market.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Qualifying payment amount</I> means, with respect to a sponsor of a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, the amount calculated using the methodology described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Underlying fee schedule rate</I> means the rate for a covered item or service from a particular participating provider, providers, or facility that a group health plan or health insurance issuer uses to determine a participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's cost-sharing liability for the item or service, when that rate is different from the contracted rate.


</P>
<P>(18) <I>Downcode</I> means the alteration by a plan or issuer of a service code to another service code, or the alteration, addition, or removal by a plan or issuer of a modifier, if the changed code or modifier is associated with a lower qualifying payment amount than the service code or modifier billed by the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services.






</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methodology for calculation of median contracted rate</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The median contracted rate for an item or service is calculated by arranging in order from least to greatest the contracted rates of all group health plans of the plan sponsor (or the administering entity as provided in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section, if applicable) or all group or individual health insurance coverage offered by the issuer in the same insurance market for the same or similar item or service that is provided by a provider in the same or similar specialty or facility of the same or similar facility type and provided in the geographic region in which the item or service is furnished and selecting the middle number. If there are an even number of contracted rates, the median contracted rate is the average of the middle two contracted rates. In determining the median contracted rate, the amount negotiated under each contract is treated as a separate amount. If a plan or issuer has a contract with a provider group or facility, the rate negotiated with that provider group or facility under the contract is treated as a single contracted rate if the same amount applies with respect to all providers of such provider group or facility under the single contract. However, if a plan or issuer has a contract with multiple providers, with separate negotiated rates with each particular provider, each unique contracted rate with an individual provider constitutes a single contracted rate. Further, if a plan or issuer has separate contracts with individual providers, the contracted rate under each such contract constitutes a single contracted rate (even if the same amount is paid to multiple providers under separate contracts).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation rules.</I> In calculating the median contracted rate, a plan or issuer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Calculate the median contracted rate with respect to all plans of such sponsor (or the administering entity as provided in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section, if applicable) or all coverage offered by such issuer that are offered in the same insurance market;
</P>
<P>(ii) Calculate the median contracted rate using the full contracted rate applicable to the service code, except that the plan or issuer must—
</P>
<P>(A) Calculate separate median contracted rates for CPT code modifiers “26” (professional component) and “TC” (technical component);
</P>
<P>(B) For anesthesia services, calculate a median contracted rate for the anesthesia conversion factor for each service code;
</P>
<P>(C) For air ambulance services, calculate a median contracted rate for the air mileage service codes (A0435 and A0436); and
</P>
<P>(D) Where contracted rates otherwise vary based on applying a modifier code, calculate a separate median contracted rate for each such service code-modifier combination;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of payments made by a plan or issuer that are not on a fee-for-service basis (such as bundled or capitation payments), calculate a median contracted rate for each item or service using the underlying fee schedule rates for the relevant items or services. If the plan or issuer does not have an underlying fee schedule rate for the item or service, it must use the derived amount to calculate the median contracted rate; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Exclude risk sharing, bonus, penalty, or other incentive-based or retrospective payments or payment adjustments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Provider specialties; facility types.</I> (i) If a plan or issuer has contracted rates that vary based on provider specialty for a service code, the median contracted rate is calculated separately for each provider specialty, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a plan or issuer has contracted rates for emergency services that vary based on facility type for a service code, the median contracted rate is calculated separately for each facility of the same or similar facility type.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methodology for calculation of the qualifying payment amount</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) For an item or service (other than items or services described in paragraphs (c)(1)(iii) through (vii) of this section) furnished during 2022, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by increasing the median contracted rate (as determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section) for the same or similar item or service under such plans or coverage, respectively, on January 31, 2019, by the combined percentage increase as published by the Department of the Treasury and the Internal Revenue Service to reflect the percentage increase in the CPI-U over 2019, such percentage increase over 2020, and such percentage increase over 2021.
</P>
<P>(A) The combined percentage increase for 2019, 2020, and 2021 will be published in guidance by the Internal Revenue Service. The Department of the Treasury and the Internal Revenue Service will calculate the percentage increase using the CPI-U published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1)(i), the CPI-U for each calendar year is the average of the CPI-U as of the close of the 12-month period ending on August 31 of the calendar year, rounded to 10 decimal places.
</P>
<P>(C) The combined percentage increase for 2019, 2020, and 2021 will be calculated as:
</P>
<FP-2>(CPI-U 2019/CPI-U 2018) × (CPI-U 2020/CPI-U 2019) × (CPI-U 2021/CPI-U 2020)
</FP-2>
<P>(ii) For an item or service (other than items or services described in paragraphs (c)(1)(iii) through (vii) of this section) furnished during 2023 or a subsequent year, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by increasing the qualifying payment amount determined under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, for such an item or service furnished in the immediately preceding year, by the percentage increase as published by the Department of the Treasury and the Internal Revenue Service.
</P>
<P>(A) The percentage increase for any year after 2022 will be published in guidance by the Internal Revenue Service. The Department of the Treasury and Internal Revenue Service will calculate the percentage increase using the CPI-U published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1)(ii), the CPI-U for each calendar year is the average of the CPI-U as of the close of the 12-month period ending on August 31 of the calendar year, rounded to 10 decimal places.
</P>
<P>(C) The combined percentage increase for any year will be calculated as CPI-U present year/CPI-U prior year.
</P>
<P>(iii) For anesthesia services furnished during 2022, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first increasing the median contracted rate for the anesthesia conversion factor (as determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section) for the same or similar item or service under such plans or coverage, respectively, on January 31, 2019, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section (referred to in this section as the indexed median contracted rate for the anesthesia conversion factor). The plan or issuer must then multiply the indexed median contracted rate for the anesthesia conversion factor by the sum of the base unit, time unit, and physical status modifier units of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to whom anesthesia services are furnished to determine the qualifying payment amount.
</P>
<P>(A) The base units for an anesthesia service code are the base units for that service code specified in the most recent edition (as of the date of service) of the American Society of Anesthesiologists Relative Value Guide.
</P>
<P>(B) The time unit is measured in 15-minute increments or a fraction thereof.
</P>
<P>(C) The physical status modifier on a claim is a standard modifier describing the physical status of the patient and is used to distinguish between various levels of complexity of the anesthesia services provided, and is expressed as a unit with a value between zero (0) and three (3).
</P>
<P>(D) The anesthesia conversion factor is expressed in dollars per unit and is a contracted rate negotiated with the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(iv) For anesthesia services furnished during 2023 or a subsequent year, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first increasing the indexed median contracted rate for the anesthesia conversion factor, determined under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section for such services furnished in the immediately preceding year, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. The plan or issuer must then multiply that amount by the sum of the base unit, time unit, and physical status modifier units for the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to whom anesthesia services are furnished to determine the qualifying payment amount.
</P>
<P>(v) For air ambulance services billed using the air mileage service codes (A0435 and A0436) that are furnished during 2022, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount for services billed using the air mileage service codes by first increasing the median contracted rate (as determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section), in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section (referred to in this section as the indexed median air mileage rate). The plan or issuer must then multiply the indexed median air mileage rate by the number of loaded miles provided to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to determine the qualifying payment amount.
</P>
<P>(A) The air mileage rate is expressed in dollars per loaded mile flown, is expressed in statute miles (not nautical miles), and is a contracted rate negotiated with the plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(B) The number of loaded miles is the number of miles a patient is transported in the air ambulance vehicle.
</P>
<P>(C) The qualifying payment amount for other service codes associated with air ambulance services is calculated in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) For air ambulance services billed using the air mileage service codes (A0435 and A0436) that are furnished during 2023 or a subsequent year, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first increasing the indexed median air mileage rate, determined under paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section for such services furnished in the immediately preceding year, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. The plan or issuer must then multiply the indexed median air mileage rate by the number of loaded miles provided to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to determine the qualifying payment amount.
</P>
<P>(vii) For any other items or services for which a plan or issuer generally determines payment for the same or similar items or services by multiplying a contracted rate by another unit value, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount using a methodology that is similar to the methodology required under paragraphs (c)(1)(iii) through (vi) of this section and reasonably reflects the payment methodology for same or similar items or services.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New plans and coverage.</I> With respect to a sponsor of a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage in a geographic region in which the sponsor or issuer, respectively, did not offer any group health plan or health insurance coverage during 2019—
</P>
<P>(i) For the first year in which the group health plan, group health insurance coverage, or individual health insurance coverage, respectively, is offered in such region—
</P>
<P>(A) If the plan or issuer has sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section for items and services that are covered by the plan or coverage and furnished during the first year; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the plan or issuer does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section for an item or service provided in a geographic region, the plan or issuer must determine the qualifying payment amount for the item or service in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each subsequent year the group health plan, group health insurance coverage, or individual health insurance coverage, respectively, is offered in the region, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by increasing the qualifying payment amount determined under this paragraph (c)(2) for the items and services furnished in the immediately preceding year, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii), (iv), or (vi) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insufficient information; newly covered items and services.</I> In the case of a plan or issuer that does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section in 2019 (or, in the case of a newly covered item or service, in the first coverage year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage if the plan or issuer does not have sufficient information) for an item or service provided in a geographic region—
</P>
<P>(i) For an item or service furnished during 2022 (or, in the case of a newly covered item or service, during the first coverage year for the item or service with respect to the plan or coverage), the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first identifying the rate that is equal to the median of the in-network allowed amounts for the same or similar item or service provided in the geographic region in the year immediately preceding the year in which the item or service is furnished (or, in the case of a newly covered item or service, the year immediately preceding such first coverage year) determined by the plan or issuer, respectively, through use of any eligible database, and then increasing that rate by the percentage increase in the CPI-U over such preceding year. For purposes of this section, in cases in which an eligible database is used to determine the qualifying payment amount with respect to an item or service furnished during a calendar year, the plan or issuer must use the same database for determining the qualifying payment amount for that item or service furnished through the last day of the calendar year, and if a different database is selected for some items or services, the basis for that selection must be one or more factors not directly related to the rate of those items or services (such as sufficiency of data for those items or services).
</P>
<P>(ii) For an item or service furnished in a subsequent year (before the first sufficient information year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage), the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by increasing the qualifying payment amount determined under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section or this paragraph (c)(3)(ii), as applicable, for such item or service for the year immediately preceding such subsequent year, by the percentage increase in CPI-U over such preceding year;
</P>
<P>(iii) For an item or service furnished in the first sufficient information year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(i), (iii), or (v) of this section, as applicable, except that in applying such paragraph to such item or service, the reference to `furnished during 2022' is treated as a reference to furnished during such first sufficient information year, the reference to 'in 2019' is treated as a reference to such sufficient information year, and the increase described in such paragraph is not applied; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For an item or service furnished in any year subsequent to the first sufficient information year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii), (iv), or (vi) of this section, as applicable, except that in applying such paragraph to such item or service, the reference to `furnished during 2023 or a subsequent year' is treated as a reference to furnished during the year after such first sufficient information year or a subsequent year.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>New service codes.</I> In the case of a plan or issuer that does not have sufficient information to calculate the median of the contracted rates described in paragraph (b) of this section and determine the qualifying payment amount under paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section because the item or service furnished is billed under a new service code—
</P>
<P>(i) For an item or service furnished during 2022 (or, in the case of a newly covered item or service, during the first coverage year for the item or service with respect to the plan or coverage), the plan or issuer must identify a reasonably related service code that existed in the immediately preceding year and—
</P>
<P>(A) If the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services has established a Medicare payment rate for the item or service billed under the new service code, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first calculating the ratio of the rate that Medicare pays for the item or service billed under the new service code compared to the rate that Medicare pays for the item or service billed under the related service code, and then multiplying the ratio by the qualifying payment amount for an item or service billed under the related service code for the year in which the item or service is furnished.
</P>
<P>(B) If the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services has not established a Medicare payment rate for the item or service billed under the new service code, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by first calculating the ratio of the rate that the plan or issuer reimburses for the item or service billed under the new service code compared to the rate that the plan or issuer reimburses for the item or service billed under the related service code, and then multiplying the ratio by the qualifying payment amount for an item or service billed under the related service code.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an item or service furnished in a subsequent year (before the first sufficient information year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage or before the first year for which an eligible database has sufficient information to a calculate a rate under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section in the immediately preceding year), the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount by increasing the qualifying payment amount determined under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section or this paragraph (c)(4)(ii), as applicable, for such item or service for the year immediately preceding such subsequent year, by the percentage increase in CPI-U over such preceding year;
</P>
<P>(iii) For an item or service furnished in the first sufficient information year for such item or service with respect to such plan or coverage or the first year for which an eligible database has sufficient information to calculate a rate under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section in the immediately preceding year, the plan or issuer must calculate the qualifying payment amount in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information to be shared about the qualifying payment amount.</I> In cases in which the recognized amount, for an item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility, is the qualifying payment amount or the amount billed by the provider or facility, or if the amount on which cost sharing is based for air ambulance services furnished by a nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services is the qualifying payment amount or the amount billed by the provider of air ambulance services, the plan or issuer must provide to the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, as applicable, in writing, in paper or electronic form—


</P>
<P>(1) With each initial payment or notice of denial of payment under § 149.110, § 149.120, or § 149.130:
</P>
<P>(i) The qualifying payment amount for each item or service involved;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the qualifying payment amount is based on a downcoded service code or modifier—
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the service code or modifier billed by the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services was downcoded;
</P>
<P>(B) An explanation of why the claim was downcoded, which must include a description of which service codes were altered, if any, and a description of which modifiers were altered, added, or removed, if any; and
</P>
<P>(C) The amount that would have been the qualifying payment amount had the service code or modifier not been downcoded;




</P>
<P>(iii) A statement to certify that, based on the determination of the plan or issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) The qualifying payment amount applies for purposes of the recognized amount (or, in the case of air ambulance services, for calculating the participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's cost sharing); and
</P>
<P>(B) Each qualifying payment amount shared with the provider or facility was determined in compliance with this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that—
</P>
<P>(A) If the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, as applicable, wishes to initiate a 30-business-day open negotiation period for purposes of determining the out-of-network rate, the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Contact the appropriate person or office to initiate open negotiation generally within 30 business days of receiving the initial payment or notice of denial of payment, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For disclosures required to be provided on or after the later of August 3, 2026 and the date that the open negotiation notice can be submitted through the Federal independent dispute resolution (IDR) portal, notify the Secretary as described under § 149.510(b)(1)(i); and
</P>
<P>(B) If the 30-business-day open negotiation period does not result in an agreement on the amount of payment, the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services may generally initiate the Federal IDR process within 4 business days after the end of the 30-business-day open negotiation period;




</P>
<P>(v) For disclosures required to be provided on or after August 3, 2026, the legal business name (if any) of the self-insured group health plan, FEHB Program carrier, or issuer and, if applicable, the legal business name of the self-insured group health plan sponsor, and the registration number assigned to the plan or issuer, as required under § 149.530.


</P>
<P>(vi) Contact information, including a telephone number and email address, for the appropriate person or office to initiate open negotiations for purposes of determining an amount of payment (including cost sharing) for such item or service.
</P>
<P>(2) In a timely manner upon the request of the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services:


</P>
<P>(i) Information about whether the qualifying payment amount for items and services involved included contracted rates that were not on a fee-for-service basis for those specific items and services and whether the qualifying payment amount for those items and services was determined using underlying fee schedule rates or a derived amount;
</P>
<P>(ii) If a plan or issuer uses an eligible database under paragraph (c)(3) of this section to determine the qualifying payment amount, information to identify which database was used; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If a related service code was used to determine the qualifying payment amount for an item or service billed under a new service code under paragraph (c)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section, information to identify the related service code; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If applicable, a statement that the plan's or issuer's contracted rates include risk-sharing, bonus, penalty, or other incentive-based or retrospective payments or payment adjustments for the items and services involved (as applicable) that were excluded for purposes of calculating the qualifying payment amount.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certain access fees to databases.</I> In the case of a plan or issuer that, pursuant to this section, uses an eligible database to determine the qualifying payment amount for an item or service, the plan or issuer is responsible for any costs associated with accessing such database.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Audits.</I> The procedures described in part 150 of this subchapter apply with respect to ensuring that a plan or coverage is in compliance with the requirement of applying a qualifying payment amount under this subpart and ensuring that such amount so applied satisfies the requirements under this section, as applicable.




</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable for plan years or in the individual market, policy years beginning on or after January 1, 2022, except that paragraph (a)(18) of this section regarding the definition of the term “downcode” and paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section regarding additional information that must be provided if the qualifying payment amount is based on a downcoded service code or modifier are applicable with respect to items or services provided or furnished on or after October 25, 2022, for plan years or in the individual market, policy years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Severability.</I> (1) Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, will be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding is one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision will be severable from this section and will not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions in this section are intended to be severable from the provisions in §§ 149.100, 149.510, and 149.530, from any grant of forbearance from removal resulting from this subpart, and from any provision referenced in §§ 149.100, 149.510, and 149.530.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 36970, July 13, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52652, Aug. 26, 2022; 91 FR 34070, June 4, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.150" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.150   Complaints process for surprise medical bills regarding group health plans and group and individual health insurance coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section establishes a process to receive and resolve complaints regarding information that a specific group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage may be failing to meet the requirements under this subpart, which may warrant an investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> In this section—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Complaint</I> means a communication, written or oral, that indicates there has been a potential violation of the requirements under subpart B of this part, whether or not a violation actually occurred.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Complainant</I> means any individual, or their authorized representative, who files a complaint as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaints process.</I> (1) HHS will consider the date a complaint is filed to be the date upon which HHS receives an oral or written statement that identifies information about the complaint sufficient to identify the parties involved and the action or inaction complained of.
</P>
<P>(2) HHS will notify complainants, by oral or written means, of receipt of the complaint no later than 60 business days after the complaint is received. HHS will include a response acknowledging receipt of the complaint, notifying the complainant of their rights and obligations under the complaints process, and describing the next steps of the complaints resolution process. As part of the response, HHS may request additional information needed to process the complaint. Such additional information may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Explanations of benefits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Processed claims;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information about the health care provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services involved;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information about the group health plan or health insurance issuer covering the individual;
</P>
<P>(v) Information to support a determination regarding whether the service was an emergency service or non-emergency service;
</P>
<P>(vi) The summary plan description, policy, certificate, contract of insurance, membership booklet, outline of coverage, or other evidence of coverage the plan or issuer provides to participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees;
</P>
<P>(vii) Documents regarding the facts in the complaint in the possession of, or otherwise attainable by, the complainant; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Any other information HHS may need to make a determination of facts for an investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) HHS will make reasonable efforts consistent with agency practices to notify the complainant of the outcome of the complaint after the submission is processed through appropriate methods as determined by HHS. A complaint is considered processed after HHS has reviewed the complaint and accompanying information and made an outcome determination. Based on the nature of the complaint and the plan or issuer involved, HHS may—
</P>
<P>(i) Refer the complainant to another appropriate Federal or State resolution process;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the complainant and make reasonable efforts to refer the complainant to the appropriate State or Federal regulatory authority if HHS receives a complaint where another entity has enforcement jurisdiction over the plan or issuer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Refer the plan or issuer for an investigation for enforcement action under 45 CFR part 150; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide the complainant with an explanation of the resolution of the complaint and any corrective action taken.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Additional Patient Protections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.310" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.310   Choice of health care professional.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Choice of health care professional</I>—(1) <I>Designation of primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, requires or provides for designation by a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a participating primary care provider, then the plan or issuer must permit each participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to designate any participating primary care provider who is available to accept the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section is to be construed to prohibit the application of reasonable and appropriate geographic limitations with respect to the selection of primary care providers, in accordance with the terms of the plan or coverage, the underlying provider contracts, and applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(1) are illustrated by the following example:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires individuals covered under the plan to designate a primary care provider. The plan permits each individual to designate any primary care provider participating in the plan's network who is available to accept the individual as the individual's primary care provider. If an individual has not designated a primary care provider, the plan designates one until the individual has made a designation. The plan provides a notice that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section regarding the ability to designate a primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example,</I> the plan has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Designation of pediatrician as primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, requires or provides for the designation of a participating primary care provider for a child by a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee, the plan or issuer must permit the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to designate a physician (allopathic or osteopathic) who specializes in pediatrics (including pediatric subspecialties, based on the scope of that provider's license under applicable State law) as the child's primary care provider if the provider participates in the network of the plan or issuer and is available to accept the child. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a pediatrician as the child's primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is to be construed to waive any exclusions of coverage under the terms and conditions of the plan or health insurance coverage with respect to coverage of pediatric care.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(2) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Example 1</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan's HMO designates for each participant a physician who specializes in internal medicine to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and any beneficiaries. Participant <I>A</I> requests that Pediatrician <I>B</I> be designated as the primary care provider for <I>A</I>'s child. <I>B</I> is a participating provider in the HMO's network and is available to accept the child.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the HMO must permit <I>A</I>'s designation of <I>B</I> as the primary care provider for <I>A</I>'s child in order to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (a)(2).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Example 2</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I> (paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section), except that <I>A</I> takes <I>A</I>'s child to <I>B</I> for treatment of the child's severe shellfish allergies. <I>B</I> wishes to refer <I>A</I>'s child to an allergist for treatment. The HMO, however, does not provide coverage for treatment of food allergies, nor does it have an allergist participating in its network, and it therefore refuses to authorize the referral.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the HMO has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(2) because the exclusion of treatment for food allergies is in accordance with the terms of <I>A</I>'s coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Patient access to obstetrical and gynecological care</I>—(i) <I>General rights</I>—(A) <I>Direct access.</I> A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, may not require authorization or referral by the plan, issuer, or any person (including a primary care provider) in the case of a female participant, beneficiary, or enrollee who seeks coverage for obstetrical or gynecological care provided by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. In such a case, the plan or issuer must comply with the rules of paragraph (a)(4) of this section by informing each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) that the plan may not require authorization or referral for obstetrical or gynecological care by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. The plan or issuer may require such a professional to agree to otherwise adhere to the plan's or issuer's policies and procedures, including procedures regarding referrals and obtaining prior authorization and providing services pursuant to a treatment plan (if any) approved by the plan or issuer. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), a health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology is any individual (including a person other than a physician) who is authorized under applicable State law to provide obstetrical or gynecological care.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Obstetrical and gynecological care.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section must treat the provision of obstetrical and gynecological care, and the ordering of related obstetrical and gynecological items and services, pursuant to the direct access described under paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) of this section, by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology as the authorization of the primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application of paragraph.</I> A group health plan, or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, is described in this paragraph (a)(3) if the plan or issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) Provides coverage for obstetrical or gynecological care; and
</P>
<P>(B) Requires the designation by a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a participating primary care provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Construction.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section is to be construed to—
</P>
<P>(A) Waive any exclusions of coverage under the terms and conditions of the plan or health insurance coverage with respect to coverage of obstetrical or gynecological care; or
</P>
<P>(B) Preclude the group health plan or health insurance issuer involved from requiring that the obstetrical or gynecological provider notify the primary care health care professional or the plan or issuer of treatment decisions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples.</I> The rules of this paragraph (a)(3) are illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Example 1</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires each participant to designate a physician to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and the participant's family. Participant <I>A</I>, a female, requests a gynecological exam with Physician <I>B</I>, an in-network physician specializing in gynecological care. The group health plan requires prior authorization from <I>A</I>'s designated primary care provider for the gynecological exam.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 1,</I> the group health plan has violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because the plan requires prior authorization from <I>A</I>'s primary care provider prior to obtaning gynecological services.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Example 2</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I> (paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) of this section) except that <I>A</I> seeks gynecological services from <I>C</I>, an out-of-network provider.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 2,</I> the group health plan has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) by requiring prior authorization because <I>C</I> is not a participating health care provider.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Example 3</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> Same facts as <I>Example 1</I> (paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) of this section) except that the group health plan only requires <I>B</I> to inform <I>A</I>'s designated primary care physician of treatment decisions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 3,</I> the group health plan has not violated the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because <I>A</I> has direct access to <I>B</I> without prior authorization. The fact that the group health plan requires the designated primary care physician to be notified of treatment decisions does not violate this paragraph (a)(3).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Example 4</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Facts.</I> A group health plan requires each participant to designate a physician to serve as the primary care provider for the participant and the participant's family. The group health plan requires prior authorization before providing benefits for uterine fibroid embolization.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Conclusion.</I> In this <I>Example 4,</I> the plan requirement for prior authorization before providing benefits for uterine fibroid embolization does not violate the requirements of this paragraph (a)(3) because, though the prior authorization requirement applies to obstetrical services, it does not restrict access to any providers specializing in obstetrics or gynecology.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of right to designate a primary care provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a group health plan or health insurance issuer requires the designation by a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a primary care provider, the plan or issuer must provide a notice informing each participant (in the individual market, primary subscriber) of the terms of the plan or health insurance coverage regarding designation of a primary care provider and of the rights—
</P>
<P>(A) Under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, that any participating primary care provider who is available to accept the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee can be designated;
</P>
<P>(B) Under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, with respect to a child, that any participating physician who specializes in pediatrics can be designated as the primary care provider; and
</P>
<P>(C) Under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, that the plan may not require authorization or referral for obstetrical or gynecological care by a participating health care professional who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing.</I> In the case of a group health plan or group health insurance coverage, the notice described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section must be included whenever the plan or issuer provides a participant with a summary plan description or other similar description of benefits under the plan or health insurance coverage. In the case of individual health insurance coverage, the notice described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section must be included whenever the issuer provides a primary subscriber with a policy, certificate, or contract of health insurance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Model language.</I> The following model language can be used to satisfy the notice requirement described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) For plans and issuers that require or allow for the designation of primary care providers by participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees, insert:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>[Name of group health plan or health insurance issuer] generally [requires/allows] the designation of a primary care provider. You have the right to designate any primary care provider who participates in our network and who is available to accept you or your family members. [If the plan or health insurance coverage designates a primary care provider automatically, insert: Until you make this designation, [name of group health plan or health insurance issuer] designates one for you.] For information on how to select a primary care provider, and for a list of the participating primary care providers, contact the [plan administrator or issuer] at [insert contact information].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) For plans and issuers that require or allow for the designation of a primary care provider for a child, add:</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>For children, you may designate a pediatrician as the primary care provider.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) For plans and issuers that provide coverage for obstetric or gynecological care and require the designation by a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a primary care provider, add:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>You do not need prior authorization from [name of group health plan or issuer] or from any other person (including a primary care provider) in order to obtain access to obstetrical or gynecological care from a health care professional in our network who specializes in obstetrics or gynecology. The health care professional, however, may be required to comply with certain procedures, including obtaining prior authorization for certain services, following a pre-approved treatment plan, or procedures for making referrals. For a list of participating health care professionals who specialize in obstetrics or gynecology, contact the [plan administrator or issuer] at [insert contact information].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years (in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Health Care Provider, Health Care Facility, and Air Ambulance Service Provider Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.410" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.410   Balance billing in cases of emergency services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In the case of a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee with benefits under a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer and who is furnished emergency services (for which benefits are provided under the plan or coverage) with respect to an emergency medical condition with respect to a visit at an emergency department of a hospital or an independent freestanding emergency department—
</P>
<P>(1) A nonparticipating emergency facility must not bill, and must not hold liable, the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee for a payment amount for such emergency services (as defined in 26 CFR 54.9816-4T(c)(2), 29 CFR 2590.716-4(c)(2), and § 149.110(c)(2), as applicable) that exceeds the cost-sharing requirement for such services (as determined in accordance with 26 CFR 54.9816-4T(b)(3)(ii) and (iii), 29 CFR 2590.716-4(b)(3)(ii) and (iii), and § 149.110(b)(3)(ii) and (iii), as applicable).
</P>
<P>(2) A nonparticipating provider must not bill, and must not hold liable, the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee for a payment amount for an emergency service (as defined in 26 CFR 54.9816-4T(c)(2), 29 CFR 2590.716-4(c)(2), and § 149.110(c)(2), as applicable) furnished to such individual by such provider with respect to such emergency medical condition and visit for which the individual receives emergency services at the hospital or independent freestanding emergency department that exceeds the cost-sharing requirement for such service (as determined in accordance with 26 CFR 54.9816-4T(b)(3)(ii) and (iii), 29 CFR 2590.716-4(b)(3)(ii) and (iii), and § 149.110(b)(3)(ii) and (iii), as applicable).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice and consent to be treated by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility.</I> The requirements in paragraph (a) of this section do not apply with respect to items and services described in 26 CFR, 54.9816-4T(c)(2)(ii)(A), 29 CFR 2590.716-4(c)(2)(ii)(A), § 149.110(c)(2)(ii)(A), as applicable, and are not included as emergency services if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The attending emergency physician or treating provider determines that the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee is able to travel using nonmedical transportation or nonemergency medical transportation to an available participating provider or facility located within a reasonable travel distance, taking into account the individual's medical condition. The attending emergency physician's or treating provider's determination is binding on the facility for purposes of this requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) The provider or facility furnishing such additional items and services satisfies the notice and consent criteria of § 149.420(c) through (g) with respect to such items and services, provided that the written notice additionally satisfies paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, as applicable. In applying this paragraph (b)(2), a reference in § 149.420 to a nonparticipating provider is deemed to include a nonparticipating emergency facility.
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a participating emergency facility and a nonparticipating provider, the written notice must also include a list of any participating providers at the facility who are able to furnish such items and services involved and notification that the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee may be referred, at their option, to such a participating provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a nonparticipating emergency facility, the written notice must include the good faith estimated amount that the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee may be charged for items or services furnished by the nonparticipating emergency facility or by nonparticipating providers with respect to the visit at such facility (including any item or service that is reasonably expected to be furnished by the nonparticipating emergency facility or nonparticipating providers in conjunction with such items or services).
</P>
<P>(3) The participant, beneficiary, or enrollee (or an authorized representative of such individual) is in a condition to receive the information described in § 149.420, as determined by the attending emergency physician or treating provider using appropriate medical judgment, and to provide informed consent under such section, in accordance with applicable State law. For purposes of this section and § 149.420, an authorized representative is an individual authorized under State law to provide consent on behalf of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee, provided that the individual is not a provider affiliated with the facility or an employee of the facility, unless such provider or employee is a family member of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(4) The provider or facility satisfies any additional requirements or prohibitions as may be imposed under State law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inapplicability of notice and consent exception to certain items and services.</I> A nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating facility specified in paragraph (a) of this section will always be subject to the prohibitions in paragraph (a) of this section, with respect to items or services furnished as a result of unforeseen, urgent medical needs that arise at the time an item or service is furnished, regardless of whether the nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility satisfied the notice and consent criteria in § 149.420(c) through (g).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention of certain documents.</I> A nonparticipating emergency facility (with respect to such facility or any nonparticipating provider at such facility) that obtains from a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage (or an authorized representative of such an individual) a written consent in accordance with § 149.420(e), with respect to furnishing an item or service to such an individual, must retain the written notice and consent for at least a 7-year period after the date on which the item or service is so furnished. If a nonparticipating provider obtains a signed consent from a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee, or such individual's authorized representative, the provider may either coordinate with the facility to retain the written notice and consent for a 7-year period, or the provider must retain the written notice and consent for a 7-year period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification to plan or issuer.</I> In the case of a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee who is stabilized and furnished additional items and services described in § 149.110(c)(2)(ii), a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating emergency facility must notify the plan or issuer, respectively, when transmitting the bill for such items and services, either on the bill or in a separate document, as to whether all of the conditions described in paragraph (b) of this section are met with respect to each of the items and services for which the bill is submitted, and if applicable, provide to the plan or issuer a copy of the signed written notice and consent document described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to emergency services furnished during a plan year (in the individual market, policy year) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.420" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.420   Balance billing in cases of non-emergency services performed by nonparticipating providers at certain participating health care facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A nonparticipating provider of a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage who provides items or services (other than emergency services) for which benefits are provided under the plan or coverage at a participating health care facility must not bill, and must not hold liable, a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of such plan or coverage for a payment amount for such an item or service furnished by such provider with respect to a visit at the facility that exceeds the cost-sharing requirement for such item or service (as determined in accordance with 26 CFR 54.9816-5T(c)(1) and (2), 29 CFR 2590.717-1(c)(1) and (2), and § 149.120(c)(1) and (2), as applicable), unless the provider (or the participating health care facility on behalf of the provider) satisfies the notice and consent criteria of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inapplicability of notice and consent exception to certain items and services.</I> The notice and consent criteria in paragraphs (c) through (i) of this section do not apply, and a nonparticipating provider specified in paragraph (a) of this section will always be subject to the prohibitions in paragraph (a) of this section, with respect to the following services:
</P>
<P>(1) Ancillary services, meaning—
</P>
<P>(i) Items and services related to emergency medicine, anesthesiology, pathology, radiology, and neonatology, whether provided by a physician or non-physician practitioner;
</P>
<P>(ii) Items and services provided by assistant surgeons, hospitalists, and intensivists;
</P>
<P>(iii) Diagnostic services, including radiology and laboratory services; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Items and services provided by a nonparticipating provider if there is no participating provider who can furnish such item or service at such facility.
</P>
<P>(2) Items or services furnished as a result of unforeseen, urgent medical needs that arise at the time an item or service is furnished, regardless of whether the nonparticipating provider satisfied the notice and consent criteria in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice and consent to be treated by a nonparticipating provider.</I> Subject to paragraph (f) of this section, and unless prohibited by State law, a nonparticipating provider satisfies the notice and consent criteria of this paragraph (c) with respect to items or services furnished by the provider to a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage, if the provider (or a participating health care facility on behalf on a nonparticipating provider)—
</P>
<P>(1) Provides to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee a written notice in paper or, as practicable, electronic form, as selected by the individual, that contains the information required under paragraph (d) of this section, provided such written notice is provided:
</P>
<P>(i) In accordance with guidance issued by HHS, and in the form and manner specified in such guidance;
</P>
<P>(ii) With the consent document, and is provided physically separate from other documents and not attached to or incorporated into any other document; and
</P>
<P>(iii) To such participant, beneficiary, or enrollee—
</P>
<P>(A) Not later than 72 hours prior to the date on which the individual is furnished such items or services, in the case where the appointment to be furnished such items or services is scheduled at least 72 hours prior to the date on which the individual is to be furnished such items and services; or
</P>
<P>(B) On the date the appointment to be furnished such items or services is scheduled, in the case where the appointment is scheduled within 72 hours prior to the date on which such items or services are to be furnished. Where an individual is provided the notice on the same date that the items or services are to be furnished, providers and facilities are required to provide the notice no later than 3 hours prior to furnishing items or services to which the notice and consent requirements apply.
</P>
<P>(2) Obtains from the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee the consent described in paragraph (e) of this section to be treated by the nonparticipating provider. An authorized representative may receive the notice on behalf of a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee, and may provide consent on behalf of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee. For purposes of this section and § 149.410, an authorized representative is an individual authorized under State law to provide consent on behalf of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee, provided that the individual is not a provider affiliated with the facility or an employee of the facility, unless such provider or employee is a family member of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee. The consent must—
</P>
<P>(i) Be provided voluntarily, meaning the individual is able to consent freely, without undue influence, fraud, or duress;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be obtained in accordance with, and in the form and manner specified in, guidance issued by HHS; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not be revoked, in writing, by the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee prior to the receipt of items and services to which the consent applies.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides a copy of the signed written notice and consent to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee in-person or through mail or email, as selected by the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information required under written notice.</I> The written notice described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section must be provided in the form and manner specified by HHS in guidance, and must—
</P>
<P>(1) State that the health care provider is a nonparticipating provider, with respect to the health plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) Include the good faith estimated amount that such nonparticipating provider may charge the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee for the items and services involved (including any item or service that is reasonably expected to be furnished by the nonparticipating provider in conjunction with such items or services), including notification that the provision of the estimate or consent to be treated under paragraph (e) of this section does not constitute a contract with respect to the charges estimated for such items and services or a contract that binds the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to be treated by that provider or facility.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a statement that prior authorization or other care management limitations may be required in advance of receiving such items or services at the facility.
</P>
<P>(4) Clearly state that consent to receive such items and services from such nonparticipating provider is optional and that the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee may instead seek care from an available participating provider, with respect to the plan or coverage, as applicable, and that in such cases the cost-sharing responsibility of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee would not exceed the responsibility that would apply with respect to such an item or service that is furnished by a participating provider, as applicable, with respect to such plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consent described to be treated by a nonparticipating provider.</I> The consent described in this paragraph (e), with respect to a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage who is to be furnished items or services by a nonparticipating provider, must be documented on a form specified by the Secretary, in consultation with the Secretary of Labor, through guidance and provided in accordance with such guidance, that must be signed by the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee before such items and services are furnished and that—
</P>
<P>(1) Acknowledges in clear and understandable language that the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee has been—
</P>
<P>(i) Provided with the written notice under paragraph (c) of this section, in the form selected by the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Informed that the payment of such charge by the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee might not accrue toward meeting any limitation that the plan or coverage places on cost sharing, including an explanation that such payment might not apply to an in-network deductible or out-of-pocket maximum applied under the plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) States that by signing the consent, the individual agrees to be treated by the nonparticipating provider and understands the individual may be balance billed and subject to cost-sharing requirements that apply to services furnished by the nonparticipating provider.
</P>
<P>(3) Documents the time and date on which the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee received the written notice described in paragraph (c) of this section and the time and date on which the individual signed the consent to be furnished such items or services by such nonparticipating provider.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Language access.</I> (1) A nonparticipating provider (or the participating health care facility on behalf of the nonparticipating provider) must provide the individual with the choice to receive the written notice and consent document in any of the 15 most common languages in the State in which the applicable facility is located, except that the notice and consent document may instead be available in any of the 15 most common languages in a geographic region that reasonably reflects the geographic region served by the applicable facility; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the individual's preferred language is not among the 15 most common languages in which the nonparticipating provider (or the participating health care facility on behalf of the nonparticipating provider) makes the notice and consent document available and the individual cannot understand the language in which the notice and consent document are provided, the notice and consent criteria in paragraph (c) of this section are not met unless the nonparticipating provider (or the participating health care facility on behalf of the nonparticipating provider) has obtained the services of a qualified interpreter to assist the individual with understanding the information contained in the notice and consent document.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Scope of consent.</I> The consent described in paragraph (e) of this section will constitute consent only to the receipt of the information provided pursuant to this section and will not constitute a contractual agreement of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee to any estimated charge or amount included in such information, or to be treated by that provider or facility.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Retention of certain documents.</I> A participating health care facility (with respect to nonparticipating providers at such facility) that obtains from a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage a written consent in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, with respect to furnishing an item or service to such an individual, must retain the written notice and consent for at least a 7-year period after the date on which the item or service is so furnished. If a nonparticipating provider obtains a signed consent from a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee, where the facility does not otherwise obtain the consent on behalf of the provider, the provider may either coordinate with the facility to retain the written notice and consent for a 7-year period, or the provider must retain the written notice and consent for a 7-year period.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notification to plan or issuer.</I> For each item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider described in paragraph (a) of this section, the provider (or the participating facility on behalf of the nonparticipating provider) must timely notify the plan or issuer that the item or service was furnished during a visit at a participating health care facility, and, if applicable, provide to the plan or issuer a copy of the signed written notice and consent document described in paragraphs (c) and (e) of this section. In instances where, to the extent permitted by this section, the nonparticipating provider bills the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee directly, the provider may satisfy the requirement to notify the plan or issuer by including the notice with the bill to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to items and services furnished during a plan year (in the individual market, policy year) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.430" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.430   Provider and facility disclosure requirements regarding patient protections against balance billing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Each health care provider and health care facility (including an emergency department of a hospital and an independent freestanding emergency department) must make publicly available, post on a public website of such provider or facility (if applicable), and provide to any individual who is a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer and to whom the provider or facility furnishes items or services, the information described in paragraph (b) of this section regarding patient protections against balance billing, except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section. A provider or facility must make the disclosures in accordance with the method and timing requirements set forth in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> The disclosures required under this section must include, in clear and understandable language, all the information described in this paragraph (b) (and may include any additional information that does not conflict with that information).
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that explains the requirements of and prohibitions applicable to the health care provider or health care facility under sections 2799B-1 and 2799B-2 of the PHS Act and their implementing regulations in §§ 149.410 and 149.420;
</P>
<P>(2) If applicable, a statement that explains any State law requirements regarding the amounts such provider or facility may, with respect to an item or service, charge a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee of a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer with respect to which such provider or facility does not have a contractual relationship, after receiving payment, if any, from the plan or coverage, respectively, for such item or service and any applicable cost-sharing payment from such participant, beneficiary, or enrollee; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement providing contact information for the appropriate State and Federal agencies that an individual may contact if the individual believes the provider or facility has violated a requirement described in the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required methods for disclosing information.</I> Health care providers and health care facilities must provide the disclosure required under this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to the required disclosure to be posted on a public website, the information described in paragraph (b) of this section, or a link to such information, must appear on a searchable homepage of the provider's or facility's website. A provider or facility that does not have its own website is not required to make a disclosure under this paragraph (c)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to the required disclosure to the public, a provider or facility must make public the information described in paragraph (b) of this section on a sign posted prominently at the location of the provider or facility. A provider that does not have a publicly accessible location is not required to make a disclosure under this paragraph (c)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to the required disclosure to individuals who are participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees of a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, a provider or facility must provide the information described in paragraph (b) of this section in a one-page (double-sided) notice, using print no smaller than 12-point font. The notice must be provided in-person or through mail or email, as selected by the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing of disclosure to individuals.</I> A health care provider or health care facility is required to provide the notice to individuals who are participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees of a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer no later than the date and time on which the provider or facility requests payment from the individual, or with respect to an individual from whom the provider or facility does not request payment, no later than the date on which the provider or facility submits a claim to the group health plan or health insurance issuer.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exceptions.</I> A health care provider is not required to make the disclosures required under this section—
</P>
<P>(1) If the provider does not furnish items or services at a health care facility, or in connection with visits at health care facilities; or
</P>
<P>(2) To individuals to whom the provider furnishes items or services, if such items or services are not furnished at a health care facility, or in connection with a visit at a health care facility.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Special rule to prevent unnecessary duplication with respect to health care providers.</I> To the extent a provider furnishes an item or service covered under the plan or coverage at a health care facility (including an emergency department of a hospital or independent freestanding emergency department), the provider satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section if the facility makes the information available, in the required form and manner, pursuant to a written agreement. Accordingly, if a provider and facility enter into a written agreement under which the facility agrees to make the information required under this section available on a sign posted prominently at the facility and to provide the one-page notice to individuals in compliance with this section, and the facility fails to do so, then the facility, but not the provider, violates the disclosure requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable beginning on January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.440" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.440   Balance billing in cases of air ambulance services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In the case of a participant, beneficiary, or enrollee with benefits under a group health plan or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer who is furnished air ambulance services (for which benefits are available under such plan or coverage) from a nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services, with respect to such plan or coverage, the provider must not bill, and must not hold liable, the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee for a payment amount for the air ambulance services furnished by the provider that is more than the cost-sharing amount for such service (as determined in accordance with 26 CFR 54.9817-1T(b)(1) and (2), 29 CFR 2590.717-1(b)(1) and (2), and § 149.130(b)(1) and (2), as applicable).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to air ambulance services furnished during a plan year (in the individual market, policy year) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.450" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.450   Complaint process for balance billing regarding providers and facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section establishes a process for HHS to receive and resolve complaints regarding information that a health care provider, provider of air ambulance services, or health care facility may be failing to meet the requirements under subpart E or subpart G of this part, which may warrant an investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> In this section—
</P>
<P>(i) Complaint means a communication, written, or oral, that indicates there has been a potential violation of the requirements under this subpart or subpart G of this part, whether or not a violation actually occurred.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Complainant</I> means any individual, or their authorized representative, who files a complaint as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaints process.</I> (1) HHS will consider the date a complaint is filed to be the date upon which HHS receives an oral, written, or electronic statement that identifies information about the complaint sufficient to identify the parties involved and the action or inaction complained of.
</P>
<P>(2) HHS will notify complainants, by oral or written means, of receipt of the complaint no later than 60 business days after the complaint is received. HHS will include a response acknowledging receipt of the complaint, notifying the complainant of their rights and obligations under the complaints process, and describing the next steps of the complaints resolution process. HHS may request additional information that may be needed to process the complaint as part of the response. Such additional information may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Health care provider, air ambulance provider, or health care facility bills;
</P>
<P>(ii) Health care provider, air ambulance provider, or health care facility network status;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information regarding the participant's, beneficiary's, or enrollee's health care plan or health insurance coverage;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information to support a determination regarding whether the service was an emergency service or non-emergency service;
</P>
<P>(v) Documents regarding the facts in the complaint in the possession of, or otherwise attainable by, the complainant; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other information HHS needs to make a determination of facts for an investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) HHS will make reasonable efforts consistent with agency practices to notify the complainant of the outcome of the complaint after the submission is processed through appropriate methods as determined by HHS. A complaint is considered processed after HHS has reviewed the complaint and accompanying information and made an outcome determination. Based on the nature of the complaint, HHS may—
</P>
<P>(i) Refer the complainant to another appropriate Federal or State resolution process;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the complainant and make reasonable efforts to refer the complainant to the appropriate State or Federal regulatory authority if HHS receives a complaint where another entity has enforcement jurisdiction over the health care provider, air ambulance provider or health care facility;
</P>
<P>(iii) Refer the health care provider, air ambulance provider or health care facility for an investigation for enforcement action under 45 CFR part 150; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide the complainant with an explanation of resolution and any corrective action taken.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 36970, July 13, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 56124, Oct. 7, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Independent Dispute Resolution Process</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 56124, Oct. 7, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 149.510" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.510   Independent dispute resolution process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth requirements with respect to the independent dispute resolution (IDR) process (referred to in this section as the Federal IDR process) under which a nonparticipating provider, nonparticipating emergency facility, or nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services (as applicable), and a group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage completes a requisite open negotiation period and at least one party submits a notification under paragraph (b) of this section to initiate the Federal IDR process under paragraph (c) of this section, and under which an IDR entity (as certified under paragraph (e) of this section) determines the amount of payment under the plan or coverage for an item or service furnished by the provider or facility.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> Unless otherwise stated, the definitions in § 149.30 of this part apply to this section. Additionally, for purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Batched qualified IDR items and services</I> means multiple qualified IDR items or services that are considered jointly as part of one payment determination by a certified IDR entity for purposes of the Federal IDR process in accordance with paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Breach</I> means the acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of individually identifiable health information (IIHI) in a manner not permitted under paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section that compromises the security or privacy of the IIHI.
</P>
<P>(A) Breach excludes:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any unintentional acquisition, access, or use of IIHI by personnel, a contractor, or a subcontractor of a certified IDR entity that is acting under the authority of that certified IDR entity, if the acquisition, access, or use was made in good faith and within the scope of that authority and that does not result in further use or disclosure in a manner not permitted under paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any inadvertent disclosure by a person who is authorized to access IIHI at a certified IDR entity to another person authorized to access IIHI at the same certified IDR entity, and the information received as a result of the disclosure is not further used or disclosed in a manner not permitted under paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A disclosure of IIHI in which a certified IDR entity has a good faith belief that an unauthorized person to whom the disclosure was made would not reasonably have been able to retain such information.
</P>
<P>(B) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this definition, access, use, or disclosure of IIHI in a manner not permitted under paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section is presumed to be a breach unless the certified IDR entity demonstrates that there is a low probability that the security or privacy of the IIHI has been compromised based on a risk assessment encompassing at least the following factors:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The nature and extent of the IIHI involved, including the types of identifiers and the likelihood of re-identification;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The unauthorized person who used the IIHI or to whom the disclosure was made;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Whether the IIHI was actually acquired or viewed; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The extent to which the risk to the IIHI has been mitigated.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Certified IDR entity</I> means an entity responsible for conducting determinations under paragraph (c) of this section that meets the certification criteria specified in paragraph (e) of this section and that has been certified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretaries of Labor and the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Conflict of interest</I> means, with respect to a party to a payment determination, or certified IDR entity, a material relationship, status, or condition of the party, or certified IDR entity that impacts the ability of the certified IDR entity to make an unbiased and impartial payment determination. For purposes of this section, a conflict of interest exists when a certified IDR entity is:
</P>
<P>(A) A group health plan; a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, individual health insurance coverage, or short-term, limited-duration insurance; a carrier offering a health benefits plan under 5 U.S.C. 8902; or a provider, a facility, or a provider of air ambulance services;
</P>
<P>(B) An affiliate or a subsidiary of a group health plan; a health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage, individual health insurance coverage, or short-term limited-duration insurance; a carrier offering a health benefits plan under 5 U.S.C. 8902; or a provider, a facility, or a provider of air ambulance services;
</P>
<P>(C) An affiliate or subsidiary of a professional or trade association representing group health plans; health insurance issuers offering group health insurance coverage, individual health insurance coverage, or short-term limited duration insurance; carriers offering a health benefits plan under 5 U.S.C. 8902; or providers, facilities, or providers of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(D) A certified IDR entity, that has, or that has any personnel, contractors, or subcontractors assigned to a determination who have, a material familial, financial, or professional relationship with a party to the payment determination being disputed, or with any officer, director, or management employee of the plan, issuer, or carrier offering a health benefits plan under 5 U.S.C. 8902; the plan or coverage administrator, plan or coverage fiduciaries, or plan, issuer or carrier employees; the health care provider, the health care provider's group or practice association; the provider of air ambulance services, the provider of air ambulance services' group or practice association, or the facility that is a party to the dispute.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Credible information</I> means information that upon critical analysis is worthy of belief and is trustworthy.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>IDR entity</I> means an entity that may apply or has applied for certification to conduct determinations under paragraph (c) of this section, and that currently is not certified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretaries of Labor and the Treasury, pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Individually identifiable health information (IIHI)</I> means any information, including demographic data, that relates to the past, present, or future physical or mental health or condition of an individual; the provision of health care to an individual; or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to an individual; and
</P>
<P>(A) That identifies the individual; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to which there is a reasonable basis to believe the information can be used to identify the individual.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Material familial relationship</I> means any relationship as a spouse, domestic partner, child, parent, sibling, spouse's or domestic partner's parent, spouse's or domestic partner's sibling, spouse's or domestic partner's child, child's parent, child's spouse or domestic partner, or sibling's spouse or domestic partner.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Material financial relationship</I> means any financial interest of more than five percent of total annual revenue or total annual income of a certified IDR entity or an officer, director, or manager thereof, or of a reviewer or reviewing physician employed or engaged by a certified IDR entity to conduct or participate in any review in the Federal IDR process. The terms annual revenue and annual income do not include mediation fees received by mediators who are also arbitrators, provided that the mediator acts in the capacity of a mediator and does not represent a party in the mediation.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Material professional relationship</I> means any physician-patient relationship, any partnership or employment relationship, any shareholder or similar ownership interest in a professional corporation, partnership, or other similar entity; or any independent contractor arrangement that constitutes a material financial relationship with any expert used by the certified IDR entity or any officer or director of the certified IDR entity.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Qualified IDR item or service</I> means an item or service:
</P>
<P>(A) That is an emergency service furnished by a nonparticipating provider or nonparticipating facility subject to the protections of 26 CFR 54.9816-4T, 29 CFR 2590.716-4, or § 149.110, as applicable, for which the conditions of § 149.410(b) are not met, or an item or service furnished by a nonparticipating provider at a participating health care facility, subject to the requirements of 26 CFR 54.9816-5T, 29 CFR 2590.717-5, or § 149.120, as applicable, for which the conditions of § 149.420(c)-(i) are not met, or air ambulance services furnished by a nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services subject to the protections of 26 CFR 54.9817-1T, 29 CFR 2590.717-1, or § 149.130, as applicable, and for which the out-of-network rate is not determined by reference to an All-Payer Model Agreement under section 1115A of the Social Security Act or a specified State law as defined in § 149.30;
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to which a provider or facility (as applicable) or group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage submits a notification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) That is not an item or service that is the subject of an open negotiation under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) That is not an item or service for which a notification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section is submitted during the 90-calendar-day period under paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(B) of this section, but that may include such an item or service if the notification is submitted during the subsequent 30-business-day period under paragraph (c)(4)(vi)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Unsecured IIHI</I> means IIHI that is not rendered unusable, unreadable, or indecipherable to unauthorized persons through the use of a technology or methodology specified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of payment amount through open negotiation and initiation of the Federal IDR process</I>—(1) <I>Determination of payment amount through open negotiation</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> For an item or service that meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(xi)(A) of this section, the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services or the group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage may, during the 30-business-day period beginning on the day the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services receives an initial payment or notice of denial of payment regarding the item or service, initiate a 30-business-day open negotiation period for purposes of determining the out-of-network rate for such item or service. To initiate the open negotiation period, a party must submit a written open negotiation notice with the content specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section to the other party and to the Secretary in the manner specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. The 30-business-day open negotiation period begins on the day on which the party first submits the open negotiation notice, including the remittance advice documentation specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A)(<I>12</I>) of this section, to the other party and the Secretary. The party in receipt of the open negotiation notice must provide to the party that initiated open negotiation and to the Secretary in the manner specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, as soon as practicable, but no later than the 15th business day of the 30-business-day open negotiation period, a written notice and supporting documentation in response to the open negotiation notice, as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Open negotiation notice.</I> (A) <I>Content.</I> The open negotiation notice must include, for the item or service that is the subject of the open negotiation notice, information about the item or service and the parties, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Information sufficient to identify the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, including the name and current contact information (including the legal business name, email address, phone number, and mailing address) as provided with the claim form submitted by the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services to the plan or issuer, and the applicable National Provider Identifier (NPI);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Information sufficient to identify the plan or issuer, including the plan's or issuer's registration number, as required under § 149.530, or an attestation from the party submitting the open negotiation notice that the plan's or issuer's registration number was not provided on any remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service; the legal business name of the plan or issuer (or, in the case of a self-insured group health plan that does not have a legal business name, the legal business name of the plan sponsor), as well as the current contact information (name, email address, phone number, and mailing address) of the plan or issuer as provided with any remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service; and if the party submitting the open negotiation notice is a plan or issuer, the plan type (for example, self-insured or fully-insured);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The name and contact information (including the legal business name, email address, phone number, and mailing address) for any third party representing the party submitting the open negotiation notice, and an attestation that the third party has the authority to act on behalf of the party it represents in the open negotiation;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Information sufficient to identify the item or service, including: the date(s) the item or service was furnished and, if the party submitting the open negotiation notice is a provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, the date(s) that the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services received the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service from the plan or issuer; the type of item or service (specifically, whether the item or service is an emergency service as defined in § 149.110(c)(2)(i) or (ii), a non-emergency service as described in § 149.120(b), or an air ambulance service as defined in § 149.30); whether the service is a professional service or facility-based service; the State where the item or service was furnished; the claim number; the service code; and information to identify the location where the item or service was furnished (such as, place of service code or bill type code);
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The initial payment amount (including $0 if payment is denied);
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The qualifying payment amount, if provided in a remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment, or if the party submitting the open negotiation notice is a plan or issuer;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) An offer of an out-of-network rate for each item or service;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) If the party submitting the open negotiation notice is a plan or issuer, the amount of cost sharing imposed for the item or service, if any;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) If the party submitting the open negotiation notice is a provider or facility, a statement that the items and services do not qualify for the notice and consent exception described at 45 § 149.410(b) or § 149.420(c) through (i);
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) A statement that the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services was a nonparticipating provider, nonparticipating emergency facility, or nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services on the date the item or service was furnished;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) General information listed in the standard open negotiation notice developed by the Secretary pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section describing the open negotiation period and the Federal IDR process (including a description of the purpose of the open negotiation period and Federal IDR process and key deadlines in the open negotiation period and Federal IDR process); and
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) A copy of any remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Open negotiation response notice</I>—(A) <I>Content.</I> The response to the open negotiation notice must include, for the item or service that is the subject of the open negotiation response notice, information about the item or service and the parties, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Information sufficient to identify the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, including the name and current contact information (including the legal business name, email address, phone number, and mailing address) as provided with the claim form submitted by the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services to the plan or issuer, and the applicable NPI;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Information sufficient to identify the plan or issuer, including the plan's or issuer's registration number, as required under § 149.530, or an attestation from the party submitting the open negotiation response notice that the plan's or issuer's registration number was not provided on any remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service, as well as the legal business name of the plan or issuer (or, in the case of a self-insured group health plan that does not have a legal business name, the legal business name of the plan sponsor), the current contact information (name, email address, phone number, and mailing address) of the plan or issuer as provided with any remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service; and if the party submitting the open negotiation response notice is a plan or issuer, the plan type (for example, self-insured or fully-insured);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The name and contact information (including the legal business name, email address, phone number, and mailing address) for any third party representing the party submitting the open negotiation response notice, and an attestation that the third party has the authority to act on behalf of the party it represents in the open negotiation;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Information sufficient to identify the item or service included in the open negotiation notice, including the date(s) the item or service was furnished, and if the party submitting the open negotiation response notice is a provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, the date(s) that the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services received the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service from the plan or issuer, and the claim number;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If the party submitting the open negotiation response notice is a plan or issuer, a statement as to whether it agrees that the initial payment amount (including $0 if payment is denied) and the qualifying payment amount reflected in the open negotiation notice accurately reflect the initial payment amount and qualifying payment amount disclosed with the initial payment for the item or service, and if not, or if the open negotiation notice indicates that the initial payment amount or qualifying payment amount was not communicated by the plan or issuer in a remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment, the initial payment amount (including $0 if payment is denied) and/or qualifying payment amount it believes to be correct, and documentation to support the statement (for example, the remittance advice confirming the qualifying payment amount);
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) If the party submitting the open negotiation response notice is a plan or issuer, the amount of cost sharing imposed for the item or service, if any;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If the party submitting the open negotiation response notice is a provider or facility, a statement that the items and services do not qualify for the notice and consent exception described at § 149.410(b) or § 149.420(c) through (i);
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) For each item or service, either a statement and supporting documentation that explains why the item or service is not subject to the Federal IDR process or a statement agreeing that the item or service is subject to the Federal IDR process;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) A statement as to whether any of the information provided in the open negotiation notice is inaccurate and the basis for the statement, as well as supporting documentation; and
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) A statement confirming that the initial payment or notice of denial of payment or other remittance advice reflected in the open negotiation notice under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A)(<I>12</I>) of this section is accurate, or, if inaccurate, a copy of the accurate remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initiating the Federal IDR process</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Either party may initiate the Federal IDR process for a qualified IDR item or service as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(xi) of this section for which the parties have not agreed on an out-of-network rate by the last day of the open negotiation period provided for under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. To initiate the Federal IDR process, a party (the initiating party) must submit a written notice of IDR initiation, consistent with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, to the other party to the dispute (the non-initiating party) and to the Secretary in the manner specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, during the 4-business-day period beginning on the first business day after the last day of the open negotiation period (unless it is otherwise required to be submitted in the timeframe specified in paragraph (c)(5)(vii)(C) of this section). The date of IDR initiation is the date the Secretary receives the notice of IDR initiation described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Exception for items and services provided by certain nonparticipating providers and facilities.</I> A party may not initiate the Federal IDR process for an item or service if, for that item or service, the party knows (or reasonably should have known) that the provider or facility provided notice and received consent under § 149.410(b) or § 149.420(c) through (i).
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice of IDR initiation</I>—(A) <I>Content.</I> The notice of IDR initiation must include, for the item or service that is the subject of the notice, information about the item or service and the parties including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Information sufficient to identify the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, including the name and current contact information (including the legal business name, email address, phone number, and mailing address), and the NPI; and if the initiating party is a provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, the Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Information sufficient to identify the plan or issuer, including the plan's or issuer's registration number, as required under § 149.530, or an attestation from the initiating party that the plan's or issuer's registration number was not provided on any remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service; the legal business name of the plan or issuer (or, in the case of a self-insured group health plan that does not have a legal business name, the legal business name of the plan sponsor), as well as the current contact information (name, email address, phone number, and mailing address) of the plan or issuer as provided with any remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service; and if the initiating party is a plan or issuer, the plan type (for example, self-insured or fully-insured) and TIN (or, in the case of a plan that does not have a TIN, the TIN of the plan sponsor);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The name and contact information (including the legal business name, email address, phone number, TIN, and mailing address) for any third party representing the initiating party, and an attestation that the third party has the authority to act on behalf of the party it represents in the Federal IDR process;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Information sufficient to identify whether the dispute being initiated includes batched or bundled qualified IDR items or services as described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Information sufficient to identify the qualified IDR item or service that is the subject of the notice of IDR initiation, including the date(s) the qualified IDR item or service was furnished; if the initiating party is a provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, the date(s) that the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services received the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for such item or service from the plan or issuer; the date the open negotiation period under paragraph (b)(1) of this section began; the type of item or service (specifically, whether the item or service that meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(xi)(A) of this section is an emergency service as defined in § 149.110(c)(2)(i) or (ii), a non-emergency service as described in § 149.120(b), or an air ambulance service as defined in § 149.30); whether the service is a professional service or facility-based service; the State where the item or service was furnished; the claim number; the service code; and information to identify the location the item or service was furnished (including place of service code or bill type code);
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The initial payment amount (including $0 if payment is denied);
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If the initiating party is a plan or issuer, the amount of cost sharing imposed for the item or service, if any;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The qualifying payment amount, if provided with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment, or if the initiating party is a plan or issuer;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) If the initiating party is a provider or facility, a statement that the items and services do not qualify for the notice and consent exception described at § 149.410(b) or § 149.420(c) through (i);
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) A statement that the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services was a nonparticipating provider, a nonparticipating emergency facility, or nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services on the date the item or service was furnished;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Attestation that the item or service under dispute is a qualified IDR item or service as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(xi) of this section and is eligible for the Federal IDR process, and the basis for the attestation;
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) General information listed in the standard notice of IDR initiation developed by the Secretary under paragraph (b)(3) of this section describing the Federal IDR process (including a description of the purpose of the Federal IDR process and key deadlines in the Federal IDR process);
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) A copy of any remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service; and
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) Preferred certified IDR entity.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice of IDR initiation response.</I> The non-initiating party must provide to the initiating party and the Secretary in the manner specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section within 3 business days after the date of IDR initiation, a written notice and supporting documentation in response to the notice of IDR initiation, as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Content.</I> The notice of IDR initiation response must include, for the item or service that is the subject of the notice, information about the item or service and the parties, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Information sufficient to identify the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, including the name and current contact information (including the legal business name, email address, phone number, and mailing address), and the NPI; and if the non-initiating party is a provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, the TIN;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Information sufficient to identify the plan or issuer, including the plan's or issuer's registration number, as required under § 149.530, or an attestation from the non-initiating party that the plan's or issuer's registration number was not provided on any remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service; the legal business name of the plan or issuer (or, in the case of a self-insured group health plan that does not have a legal business name, the legal business name of the plan sponsor), as well as the current contact information (name, email address, phone number, and mailing address) of the plan or issuer as provided with any remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment; and if the non-initiating party is a plan or issuer, the plan type (for example, self-insured or fully-insured) and TIN (or, in the case of a plan that does not have a TIN, the TIN of the plan sponsor);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The name and contact information (including the legal business name, email address, phone number, TIN, and mailing address) for any third party representing the non-initiating party, and an attestation that the third party has the authority to act on behalf of the party it represents in the Federal IDR process;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Information sufficient to identify each item or service included in the notice of IDR initiation, including the date(s) the item or service was furnished and if the non-initiating party is a provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, the date(s) that the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services received the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for such item or service from the plan or issuer, and the claim number;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If the non-initiating party is a plan or issuer, a statement as to whether the non-initiating party agrees that the initial payment (including $0 if payment is denied) and the qualifying payment amount reflected in the notice of IDR initiation is accurate for the item or service that is the subject of the dispute, and if not, the initial payment amount (including $0 if payment is denied) and/or qualifying payment amount it believes to be correct, and documentation to support the statement (for example, the remittance advice confirming the qualifying payment amount);
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) If the non-initiating party is a plan or issuer, the amount of cost sharing imposed for the item or service, if any;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If the non-initiating party is a provider or facility, a statement that the items and services do not qualify for the notice and consent exception described at § 149.410(b) or § 149.420(c) through (i);
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) For each item or service that is the subject of the dispute, either an attestation that the item or service is a qualified IDR item or service as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(xi) of this section and is eligible for the Federal IDR process, or for each item or service that the non-initiating party asserts is not a qualified IDR item or service that is eligible for the Federal IDR process, an explanation and documentation to support the assertion;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) A statement confirming that the remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment provided by the initiating party under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>13</I>) of this section is accurate, or, if inaccurate, a copy of the accurate remittance advice associated with the initial payment or notice of denial of payment for the item or service;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) A statement as to whether any of the information provided in the notice of IDR initiation is inaccurate and the basis for the statement, as well as any supporting documentation; and
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) A statement as to whether the non-initiating party agrees or objects to the initiating party's preferred certified IDR entity. If the non-initiating party objects to the initiating party's preferred certified IDR entity, the notice of IDR initiation response must include the name of an alternative preferred certified IDR entity and, if applicable, an explanation of any conflict of interest with the initiating party's preferred certified IDR entity.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Manner.</I> A party furnishing notices as required under paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (iii) and (b)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section must furnish the notices using the standard forms developed by the Secretary and must furnish the notices and supporting documentation to the other party and the Secretary through the Federal IDR portal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal IDR process following initiation</I>—(1) <I>Selection of certified IDR entity</I>—(i) <I>Preliminary selection of the certified IDR entity.</I> Within 3 business days after the date of IDR initiation, the non-initiating party must agree or object to the preferred certified IDR entity identified in the notice of IDR initiation by submitting the notice of IDR initiation response described in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, which contains the information described in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>11</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) If the non-initiating party agrees or fails to respond to the selection of the initiating party's preferred certified IDR entity in the manner and timeframe described in this paragraph (c)(1)(i), the initiating party's preferred certified IDR entity will be considered jointly selected on the third business day after the date of IDR initiation.
</P>
<P>(B) If the non-initiating party objects to the selection of the initiating party's preferred certified IDR entity by designating an alternative preferred certified IDR entity in the manner and timeframe described in this paragraph (c)(1)(i), the initiating party may then agree or object to the non-initiating party's alternative preferred certified IDR entity by submitting the notice of certified IDR entity selection in the manner specified in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the initiating party agrees to the non-initiating party's alternative preferred certified IDR entity within 3 business days after the date of IDR initiation, the alternative preferred certified IDR entity will be considered jointly selected by the parties.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the non-initiating party submits the notice of IDR initiation response on the first or second business day after the date of IDR initiation, and the initiating party fails to respond within 3 business days after the date of IDR initiation, the alternative preferred certified IDR entity will be considered jointly selected by the parties.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the non-initiating party submits the notice of IDR initiation response on the third business day after the date of IDR initiation and the initiating party fails to respond on the same day, selection will proceed pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) If a certified IDR entity is not jointly selected under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, either party may select an alternative preferred certified IDR entity by submitting the notice of certified IDR entity selection in the manner specified in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section, until the earlier of the date that the parties agree on the alternative preferred certified IDR entity or the deadline for joint selection, which is 3 business days after the date of IDR initiation. Once a party submits a notice of certified IDR entity selection, it may not submit another notice of certified IDR entity selection until it receives a responding notice of certified IDR entity selection from the other party.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If a party submits a notice of certified IDR entity selection to the other party on the first or second business day after the date of IDR initiation and the party in receipt of the notice agrees or fails to respond to the alternative preferred certified IDR entity by the third business day after the date of IDR initiation, the alternative preferred certified IDR entity will be considered jointly selected by the parties.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a party submits a notice of certified IDR entity selection to the other party on the third business day after the date of IDR initiation and the party last in receipt of the notice agrees to the alternative preferred certified IDR entity on the same day, the alternative preferred certified IDR entity will be considered jointly selected by the parties.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If a party submits a notice of certified IDR entity selection to the other party on the third business day after the date of IDR initiation, and the party last in receipt of the notice fails to respond to the alternative preferred certified IDR entity on the same day, the parties will have failed to jointly select a certified IDR entity.
</P>
<P>(D) To notify the other party and the Secretary of an agreement or objection to an alternative preferred certified IDR entity as described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(C) of this section, a party must furnish a notice of certified IDR entity selection, using the standard form developed by the Secretary, to the other party and the Secretary through the Federal IDR portal within 3 business days after the date of IDR initiation. The notice of certified IDR entity selection must include a statement indicating the party's agreement with or objection to the other party's alternative preferred certified IDR entity and, if applicable, an explanation of any conflict of interest with the alternative preferred certified IDR entity, and the name of another alternative preferred certified IDR entity. However, in the event the conditions for failure to jointly select a certified IDR entity apply, selection will proceed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Failure to jointly select a certified IDR entity.</I> If the parties fail to jointly select a certified IDR entity within 3 business days after the date of IDR initiation, the Secretary will select a certified IDR entity. The parties will have failed to jointly select a certified IDR entity if, by the end of the third business day after the date of IDR initiation, the party last in receipt of the notice of IDR initiation response or the notice of certified IDR entity selection has received an objection to their preferred or alternative preferred certified IDR entity in the applicable notice. Alternatively, the parties will have failed to jointly select a certified IDR entity if the notice of IDR initiation response or the notice of certified IDR entity selection is submitted to the other party on the third business day after the date of IDR initiation and the party in receipt of the notice fails to respond to the alternative preferred certified IDR entity on the same day.
</P>
<P>(A) In selecting the certified IDR entity, the Secretary will first confirm whether a party submitted the notice of IDR initiation response or the notice of certified IDR entity selection with an alternative preferred certified IDR entity on the third business day after the date of IDR initiation without the other party's agreement to the selection. If either notice was provided on the third business day after the date of IDR initiation without the other party's agreement to the alternative preferred certified IDR entity by the end of the third business day after the date of IDR initiation, the Secretary will provide the party last in receipt of the applicable notice, as of the end of the third business day after the date of IDR initiation, 2 additional business days to agree or object to the other party's alternative preferred certified IDR entity selection.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the party last in receipt of the applicable notice, as of the end of the third business day after the date of IDR initiation, agrees with the other party's alternative preferred certified IDR entity and notifies the Secretary of the agreement, or fails to respond, in the Federal IDR portal by the fifth business day after the date of IDR initiation, the Secretary will select the final alternative preferred certified IDR entity selected in the applicable notice.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the party last in receipt of the applicable notice, as of the end of the third business day after the date of IDR initiation, notifies the Secretary of its objection to the alternative preferred certified IDR entity by the fifth business day after the date of IDR initiation, the Secretary will randomly select a certified IDR entity from among the certified IDR entities (other than the preferred certified IDR entity and any alternative preferred certified IDR entity previously selected in such dispute by a party, unless there is no other certified IDR entity available to select) that charge a fee within the allowed range of certified IDR entity fees, not later than the sixth business day after the date of IDR initiation. If there are insufficient certified IDR entities that charge a fee within the allowed range of certified IDR entity fees available to arbitrate the dispute, the Secretary will select a certified IDR entity that has received approval, as described in paragraph (e)(2)(vii)(A) of this section, to charge a fee outside of the allowed range of certified IDR entity fees. In either case, the Secretary will notify the parties of the preliminary selection of the certified IDR entity not later than 6 business days after the date of IDR initiation.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Date of preliminary selection of the certified IDR entity.</I> The date of preliminary selection of the certified IDR entity will be:
</P>
<P>(A) Three business days after the date of IDR initiation if the parties jointly select a certified IDR entity, as specified in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Six business days after the date of IDR initiation, if the parties fail to jointly select a certified IDR entity as specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Final selection of the certified IDR entity</I>—(A) <I>Conflict-of-interest review.</I> The certified IDR entity preliminarily selected for a dispute must review the selection. The selection of the certified IDR entity will be finalized only if the certified IDR entity attests to the Secretary that it meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The certified IDR entity does not have a conflict of interest as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The certified IDR entity will only assign personnel to a dispute and make decisions regarding hiring, compensation, termination, promotion, or other similar matters related to personnel assigned to the dispute in a manner that is not based upon the likelihood that the assigned personnel will support a particular party to the dispute; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The certified IDR entity will not assign any personnel to a dispute who would have any conflicts of interest, as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section, regarding any party to the dispute or whose relationship with a party within the 1 year immediately preceding the assignment to the dispute would violate the restrictions on aiding or advising a former employer or principal in a manner similar to the restrictions set forth in 18 U.S.C. 207(b).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Failure to meet conflict-of-interest requirements.</I> If the certified IDR entity fails to attest to the Secretary within 3 business days of the date of preliminary selection of the certified IDR entity that it meets the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>) of this section, the Secretary will randomly select another certified IDR entity consistent with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. The Secretary will notify the parties of the new randomly preliminarily selected certified IDR entity no later than 1 business day after the date of preliminary selection of the certified IDR entity, no later than 1 business day after the end of the 3-business-day period.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Date of final selection of the certified IDR entity.</I> If the certified IDR entity that has been preliminarily selected attests within 3 business days that it meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(A) of this section, the Secretary will notify the parties of the final selection of the certified IDR entity no later than 1 business day after the certified IDR entity attests that it meets the conflict-of-interest requirements. The date of final selection of the certified IDR entity is the date that the Secretary provides this notice to the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal IDR process eligibility review</I>—(i) <I>Federal IDR process eligibility determination by certified IDR entity.</I> The selected certified IDR entity must review the information in the notice of IDR initiation, notice of IDR initiation response, and any additional information described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, and make a final determination as to whether the item or service is a qualified IDR item or service (and in the case of a batched dispute, whether the items or services are qualified IDR items or services), as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(xi) of this section, that is eligible for the Federal IDR process. The certified IDR entity must make such a determination and notify the Secretary and both parties no later than 5 business days after the date of final selection of the certified IDR entity. If the certified IDR entity determines that the item or service is not a qualified IDR item or service that is eligible for the Federal IDR process, the dispute will be closed, and the selected certified IDR entity will not take any further action with respect to the dispute. In the case of a batched dispute, only those items and services determined to be qualified IDR items or services that are eligible for the Federal IDR process and that meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section will continue through the Federal IDR process, and the selected certified IDR entity will not take any further action with respect to the other items and services included in the batched dispute.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for additional information.</I> The selected certified IDR entity may request additional information from either party to a dispute at any time, including for the purpose of assessing whether a conflict of interest exists, conducting an eligibility determination, or making a payment determination.
</P>
<P>(A) Upon request, a party must submit the additional information within 5 business days to the selected certified IDR entity through the Federal IDR portal. Following a request for additional information, the time period for the applicable stage of the Federal IDR process will be tolled until the earlier of the date either all of the requested information is provided or the 5-business-day period expires, and each subsequent timeframe in the Federal IDR process will be determined based on the date of completion of the stage of the Federal IDR process that was tolled for provision of the requested information.
</P>
<P>(B) If a party fails to submit the additional information as required, the related determination, including the conflict-of-interest review, eligibility determination, or payment determination, will be made without the requested information unless a good-cause extension of the 5-business-day period, as specified in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, has been provided, and the party subsequently submits the additional information requested within the extended period. If the related determination cannot be made because both parties failed to provide the additional information as required, the dispute will be considered withdrawn, as specified in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authority to continue negotiations or withdraw</I>—(i) <I>Authority to continue to negotiate.</I> If the parties to the Federal IDR process agree on an out-of-network rate for a qualified IDR item or service after providing the notice of IDR initiation to the Secretary required under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, but before the certified IDR entity has made its payment determination, the amount agreed to by the parties for the qualified IDR item or service will be treated as the out-of-network rate for the qualified IDR item or service. To the extent the amount exceeds the initial payment amount and any cost sharing paid or owed by the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee, payment must be made directly by the plan or issuer to the nonparticipating provider, nonparticipating facility, or nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services not later than 30 calendar days after the date the agreement is reached. In no instance may either party seek additional payment from the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee, calculated based on the agreed-upon amount, in instances in which the out-of-network rate exceeds the qualifying payment amount. The initiating party must send a notification for the parties' agreement to the Secretary and the certified IDR entity (if selected) through the Federal IDR portal as soon as possible, but no later than 3 business days after the date of the agreement. The notification must include the dispute number, a statement of the agreed-on out-of-network rate for the qualified IDR item or service, and signatures from authorized signatories for both parties.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Withdrawal of disputes.</I> A dispute may be withdrawn from the Federal IDR process by the initiating party, the Secretary, or a certified IDR entity before a payment determination is made, if one of the following conditions is met:
</P>
<P>(A) The initiating party provides notification through the Federal IDR portal to the Secretary and the certified IDR entity (if selected) that both parties to the dispute agree to withdraw the dispute from the Federal IDR process without agreement on an out-of-network rate. The notification must include the dispute number, a statement about both parties' agreement to withdraw, and signatures from authorized signatories for both parties;
</P>
<P>(B) The initiating party provides a standard withdrawal request notice through the Federal IDR portal to the Secretary, the certified IDR entity (if selected), and the non-initiating party of its request to withdraw the dispute from the Federal IDR process, and the non-initiating party notifies the Secretary, certified IDR entity (if selected), and the initiating party through the Federal IDR portal of its agreement to withdraw from the Federal IDR process within 5 business days of the initiating party's request. Provision of the withdrawal request through the Federal IDR portal pauses the Federal IDR process for 5 business days or until the non-initiating party responds, whichever happens first. If the non-initiating party fails to respond within 5 business days of the initiating party's request, the non-initiating party will be considered to have agreed to the withdrawal, and the dispute will be withdrawn;
</P>
<P>(C) The certified IDR entity cannot determine eligibility, for example, because both parties to the dispute are nonresponsive to any requests for additional information to determine eligibility as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(D) The certified IDR entity cannot make a payment determination, for example, because both parties to the dispute have failed to submit an offer as described in paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Treatment of batched qualified IDR items and services</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of encouraging efficiencies (including minimizing costs) in the Federal IDR process, a certified IDR entity may consider up to 50 qualified IDR items and services jointly as part of a single payment determination that is subject to the certified IDR entity fee for batched disputes, only if the qualified IDR items and services meet the requirements of this paragraph (c)(4)(i):
</P>
<P>(A) The qualified IDR items and services are billed by the same provider or group of providers, the same facility, or the same provider of air ambulance services. Items and services are billed by the same provider or group of providers, the same facility, or the same provider of air ambulance services if the items or services are billed with the same National Provider Identifier or Tax Identification Number;
</P>
<P>(B) Payment for the qualified IDR items and services is required to be made by the same group health plan or health insurance issuer. For group or individual health insurance coverage, this requirement is satisfied if the same issuer is required to make payment for the qualified IDR items and services, even if the qualified IDR items and services relate to claims from different group health plans or individual market policies. For self-insured group health plans, this requirement is satisfied if the same self-insured group health plan is required to make payment for the qualified IDR items and services, including when the plan makes payments through a third party administrator; the requirement is not satisfied if multiple self-insured group health plans are required to make payments for the qualified IDR items and services, even if those group health plans make payments through the same third party administrator;
</P>
<P>(C) The qualified IDR items and services meet any of the following criteria under which multiple qualified IDR items and services relate to the treatment of a similar condition:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The qualified IDR items or services were furnished to a single patient during a single patient encounter. For purposes of this section, a single patient encounter is defined as a patient encounter on one or more consecutive days during which the qualified IDR items or services were furnished to the same patient and billed on the same claim form; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The qualified IDR items and services were furnished to one or more patients and were billed under the same service code or a comparable code under a different procedural coding system, such as Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes with modifiers, if applicable, Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) codes with modifiers, if applicable, or Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG) codes with modifiers, if applicable; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For anesthesiology, radiology, pathology, and laboratory qualified IDR items and services, the qualified IDR items and services were furnished to one or more patients and were billed under service codes belonging to the same Category I CPT code range, as specified in guidance published by the Secretary; and
</P>
<P>(D) All the qualified IDR items and services were furnished within the same 30-business-day period following the date on which the first item or service included in the batched dispute was furnished, and the qualified IDR items and services were the subjects of a 30-business-day open negotiation period that ended within 4 business days of IDR initiation, except as provided in paragraph (c)(5)(vii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Treatment of bundled payment arrangements.</I> Qualified IDR items and services that meet the definition of a bundled payment arrangement under § 149.30 may be submitted and considered as a single payment determination, and the certified IDR entity must make a single payment determination for the multiple qualified IDR items and services included in the bundled payment arrangement. Bundled payment arrangements as defined in § 149.30 and submitted under this paragraph (c)(4)(ii) are subject to the certified IDR entity fee for single determinations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Payment determination for a qualified IDR item or service</I>—(i) <I>Submission of offers.</I> Not later than 10 business days after the date of final selection of the certified IDR entity as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(C) of this section (or not later than 10 business days after the qualified IDR items and services are determined eligible as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, when the Secretary determines that any of the extenuating circumstances described in paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section apply), the plan or issuer and the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services:
</P>
<P>(A) Must each submit to the certified IDR entity:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An offer of an out-of-network rate expressed as both a dollar amount and the corresponding percentage of the qualifying payment amount represented by that dollar amount.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Information requested by the certified IDR entity relating to the offer.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The following additional information, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For providers and facilities, information on the size of the provider's practice or of the facility (if applicable). Specifically, a group of providers must specify whether the providers' practice has fewer than 20 employees, 20 to 50 employees, 51 to 100 employees, 101 to 500 employees, or more than 500 employees. For facilities, the facility must specify whether the facility has 50 or fewer employees, 51 to 100 employees, 101 to 500 employees, or more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For providers and facilities, information on the practice specialty or type, respectively (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) For plans and issuers, information on the coverage area of the plan or issuer, the relevant geographic region for purposes of the qualifying payment amount, whether the coverage is fully-insured or partially or fully self-insured (or a FEHB carrier if the item or service relates to FEHB plans); and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The qualifying payment amount for the applicable year for the same or similar item or service as the qualified IDR item or service.
</P>
<P>(B) May each submit to the certified IDR entity any information relating to the offer that was submitted by either party, except that the information may not include information on factors described in paragraph (c)(5)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Payment determination and notification.</I> Not later than 30 business days after the date of final selection of the certified IDR entity as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(C) of this section (or not later than 30 business days after the qualified IDR items and services are determined eligible as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, when the Secretary determines that any of the extenuating circumstances described in paragraph (g) of this section apply), the certified IDR entity must:
</P>
<P>(A) Select as the out-of-network rate for the qualified IDR item or service one of the offers submitted under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, weighing only the considerations specified in paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section (as applied to the information provided by the parties pursuant to 29 CFR 2590.716-8(c)(5)(i). The certified IDR entity must select the offer that the certified IDR entity determines best represents the value of the qualified IDR item or service as the out-of-network rate.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Prevailing party.</I> In the case of single determinations, the party whose offer is selected by the certified IDR entity is considered the prevailing party. In the case of batched determinations, the party with the most determinations in its favor is considered the prevailing party.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Non-prevailing party.</I> In the case of single determinations, the party whose offer is not selected by the certified IDR entity is considered the non-prevailing party. In the case of batched determinations, the party with the fewest determinations in its favor is considered the non-prevailing party.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Parties prevailing in equal numbers of determinations.</I> If each party prevails in an equal number of determinations, neither party will be considered the prevailing party or the non-prevailing party, and the certified IDR entity fee will be split evenly between the parties.
</P>
<P>(B) Notify the plan or issuer and the provider or facility, as applicable, of the selection of the offer under paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(A) of this section, and provide the written decision required under paragraph (c)(5)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Considerations in determination.</I> In determining which offer to select:
</P>
<P>(A) The certified IDR entity must consider the qualifying payment amount(s) for the applicable year for the same or similar item or service.
</P>
<P>(B) The certified IDR entity must consider information submitted by a party that relates to the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The level of training, experience, and quality and outcomes measurements of the provider or facility that furnished the qualified IDR item or service (such as those endorsed by the consensus-based entity authorized in section 1890 of the Social Security Act).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The market share held by the provider or facility or that of the plan or issuer in the geographic region in which the qualified IDR item or service was provided.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The acuity of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee receiving the qualified IDR item or service, or the complexity of furnishing the qualified IDR item or service to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The teaching status, case mix, and scope of services of the facility that furnished the qualified IDR item or service, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Demonstration of good faith efforts (or lack thereof) made by the provider or facility or the plan or issuer to enter into network agreements with each other, and, if applicable, contracted rates between the provider or facility, as applicable, and the plan or issuer, as applicable, during the previous 4 plan years.
</P>
<P>(C) The certified IDR entity must also consider information provided by a party in response to a request by the certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(5)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section that relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service that is the subject of the payment determination and that does not include information on factors described in paragraph (c)(5)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) The certified IDR entity must also consider additional information submitted by a party that relates to the offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR item or service that is the subject of the payment determination and that does not include information on factors described in paragraph (c)(5)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Prohibition on consideration of certain factors.</I> In determining which offer to select, the certified IDR entity must not consider:
</P>
<P>(A) Usual and customary charges (including payment or reimbursement rates expressed as a proportion of usual and customary charges);
</P>
<P>(B) The amount that would have been billed by the provider or facility for the qualified IDR item or service had the provisions of §§ 149.410 and 149.420 (as applicable) not applied; or
</P>
<P>(C) The payment or reimbursement rate for items and services furnished by the provider or facility payable by a public payor, including under the Medicare program under title XVIII of the Social Security Act; the Medicaid program under title XIX of the Social Security Act; the Children's Health Insurance Program under title XXI of the Social Security Act; the TRICARE program under chapter 55 of title 10, United States Code; chapter 17 of title 38, United States Code; or demonstration projects under section 1115 of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Written decision.</I> (A) The certified IDR entity must explain its determination in a written decision submitted to the parties and the Secretary, in a form and manner specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(B) The certified IDR entity's written decision must include an explanation of their determination, including what information the certified IDR entity determined demonstrated that the offer selected as the out-of-network rate is the offer that best represents the value of the qualified IDR item or service, including the weight given to the qualifying payment amount and any additional credible information under paragraphs (c)(5)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Effects of determination</I>—(A) <I>Binding.</I> A determination made by a certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Is binding upon the parties, in the absence of fraud or evidence of intentional misrepresentation of material facts presented to the certified IDR entity regarding the claim; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is not subject to judicial review, except in a case described in any of paragraphs (1) through (4) of section 10(a) of title 9, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Suspension of certain subsequent IDR requests.</I> In the case of a single determination made by a certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section, the party that submitted the initial notification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may not submit a subsequent notification involving the same other party for a claim for the same item or service that was the subject of the initial notification during the 90-calendar-day period following the determination. In the case of a batched determination made by a certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section, the party that submitted the initial notification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may not submit a subsequent notification involving the same other party for a claim for the same items or services that were the subject of the initial notification during the 30-business-day period following the determination.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Subsequent submission of requests permitted.</I> In the case of a single determination made by a certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section, if the end of the open negotiation period specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section occurs during the 90-calendar-day suspension period regarding claims for the same item or service that were the subject of the single determination, either party may initiate the Federal IDR process for those claims by submitting a notification as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section during the 30-business-day period beginning on the day after the last day of the 90-calendar-day suspension period. In the case of a batched determination made by a certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section, if the end of the open negotiation period specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is completed in the 30 business days prior to or during the 30-business-day suspension period regarding claims for the same items or services that were the subject of the batched determination, either party may initiate the Federal IDR process for those claims by submitting a notification as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section during the 4-business-day period beginning on the business day after the 30-business-day suspension period as described in paragraph (c)(5)(vii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Recordkeeping requirements.</I> The certified IDR entity must maintain records of all claims and notices associated with the Federal IDR process with respect to any determination for 6 years. The certified IDR entity must make these records available for examination by the plan, issuer, FEHB carrier, provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services, or a State or Federal oversight agency upon request, except to the extent the disclosure would violate either State or Federal privacy law.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Payment.</I> If applicable, the amount of the offer selected by the certified IDR entity (less the sum of the initial payment and any cost sharing paid or owed by the participant or beneficiary) must be paid directly to the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services not later than 30 calendar days after the determination by the certified IDR entity. If the offer selected by the certified IDR entity is less than the sum of the initial payment and any cost sharing paid by the participant or beneficiary, the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services will be liable to the plan or issuer for the difference. The provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services must pay the difference directly to the plan or issuer not later than 30 calendar days after the determination by the certified IDR entity.






</P>
<P>(d) <I>Costs of IDR process</I>—(1) <I>Certified IDR entity fee</I>—(i) <I>Timing of payment of certified IDR entity fee.</I> Each party to a dispute for which there is a final selection of the certified IDR entity and a determination that the dispute is eligible for the Federal IDR process in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section must pay to the certified IDR entity the predetermined certified IDR entity fee charged by the certified IDR entity. The certified IDR entity fee must be paid no later than the date a party submits its offer to the certified IDR entity, in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Failure to timely pay certified IDR entity fee.</I> If a party fails to pay the certified IDR entity fee as specified in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, that party's offer will not be considered received. Such party will continue to be responsible for payment of the certified IDR entity fee.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Method of allocation of the certified IDR entity fee after a payment determination.</I> After making a payment determination, the certified IDR entity will retain the certified IDR entity fee described under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section paid by the non-prevailing party as defined in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section. The certified IDR entity must return the fee paid by the prevailing party, as defined in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section, within 30 business days following the date of the certified IDR entity's payment determination. In the event of a batched dispute in which each party prevails in an equal number of determinations, the certified IDR entity fee will be split evenly between the parties. In that case, the certified IDR entity must return half of the fee paid by each party within 30 business days following the date of the certified IDR entity's payment determination.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Method of allocation of the certified IDR entity fee upon agreement or withdrawal after an eligibility determination.</I> For a dispute for which there is a final selection of the certified IDR entity and a determination that the dispute is eligible for the Federal IDR process in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, unless directed otherwise by both parties, the certified IDR entity is required to return half of each party's certified IDR entity fee within 30 business days of the date both parties notify the certified IDR entity that they have:
</P>
<P>(A) Reached an agreement on an out-of-network rate for qualified IDR items or services before the certified IDR entity has made its payment determination, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Withdrawn the dispute before the certified IDR entity has made its payment determination, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Method of allocation of the certified IDR entity fee upon agreement or withdrawal before an eligibility determination.</I> For a dispute for which there is a final selection of the certified IDR entity, but the dispute has been determined ineligible or no eligibility determination has been made for the dispute, in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section (excluding situations as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(C) of this section where a certified IDR entity cannot determine eligibility), the certified IDR entity is required to return the entirety of each party's certified IDR entity fee within 30 business days of the date both parties notify the certified IDR entity that they have:
</P>
<P>(A) Reached an agreement on an out-of-network rate for qualified IDR items or services before the certified IDR entity has made its payment determination, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Withdrawn the dispute before the certified IDR entity has made its payment determination, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section.

 


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Administrative fee.</I> (i) Each party to a determination for which a certified IDR entity is selected under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must, at the time the certified IDR entity is selected under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, pay to the certified IDR entity a non-refundable administrative fee due to the Secretary for participating in the Federal IDR process described in this section.






</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Administrative fee amount.</I> The administrative fee amount will be established through notice and comment rulemaking no more frequently than once per calendar year in a manner such that the total administrative fees paid for a year are estimated to be equal to the amount of expenditures estimated to be made by the Secretaries of the Treasury, Labor, and Health and Human Services for the year in carrying out the Federal IDR process. The administrative fee amount will remain in effect until changed by notice and comment rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(A) For disputes initiated on January 22, 2024, through June 10, 2026, the administrative fee amount is $115 per party per dispute.
</P>
<P>(B) For disputes initiated on or after June 11, 2026, the administrative fee amount is $15 per party per dispute.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Failure to pay the administrative fee.</I> If a party fails to pay the administrative fee as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, that party's offer will not be considered received. Such party will continue to be responsible for payment of the administrative fee.






</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification of IDR entity</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In order to be selected under paragraph (c)(1) of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) An IDR entity must meet the standards described in this paragraph (e) and be certified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretaries of Labor and the Treasury, as set forth in this paragraph (e) of this section and guidance promulgated by the Secretary. Once certified, the IDR entity will be provided with a certified IDR entity number.
</P>
<P>(ii) An IDR entity must provide written documentation to the Secretary regarding general company information (such as contact information, Taxpayer Identification Number, and website), as well as the applicable service area in which the IDR entity intends to conduct payment determinations under the Federal IDR process. IDR entities may choose to submit their application for all States or self-limit to a particular subset of States.
</P>
<P>(iii) An IDR entity that the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of Labor and the Secretary of the Treasury, certifies must enter into an agreement as a condition of certification. The agreement shall include specified provisions encompassed by this section, including, but not limited to, the requirements applicable to certified IDR entities when making payment determinations as well as the requirements regarding certification and revocation (such as specifications for wind down activities and reallocation of certified IDR entity fees, where warranted).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> An IDR entity must provide written documentation to the Secretary through the Federal IDR portal that demonstrates that the IDR entity satisfies the following standards to be a certified IDR entity under this paragraph (e):
</P>
<P>(i) Possess (directly or through contracts or other arrangements) sufficient arbitration and claims administration of health care services, managed care, billing and coding, medical and legal expertise to make the payment determinations described in paragraph (c) of this section within the time prescribed in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Employ (directly or through contracts or other arrangements) a sufficient number of personnel to make the determinations described in paragraph (c) of this section within the time prescribed by (c)(4)(ii) of this section. To satisfy this standard, the written documentation must include a description of the IDR entity's organizational structure and capabilities, including an organizational chart and the credentials, responsibilities, and number of personnel employed to make determinations described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintain a current accreditation from a nationally recognized and relevant accrediting organization, such as URAC, or ensure that it otherwise possesses the requisite training to conduct payment determinations (for example, providing documentation that personnel employed by the IDR entity have completed arbitration training by the American Arbitration Association, the American Health Law Association, or a similar organization).
</P>
<P>(iv) Have a process to ensure that no conflict of interest, as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, exists between the parties and the personnel the certified IDR entity assigns to a payment determination to avoid violating paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, including policies and procedures for conducting ongoing audits for conflicts of interest, to ensure that should any arise, the certified IDR entity has procedures in place to inform the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, of the conflict of interest and to mitigate the risk by reassigning the dispute to other personnel in the event that any personnel previously assigned have a conflict of interest.
</P>
<P>(v) Have a process to maintain the confidentiality of IIHI obtained in the course of conducting determinations. A certified IDR entity's responsibility to comply with these confidentiality requirements shall survive revocation of the IDR entity's certification for any reason, and IDR entities must comply with the record retention and disposal requirements described in this section. Under this process, once certified, the certified IDR entity must comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Privacy.</I> The certified IDR entity may create, collect, handle, disclose, transmit, access, maintain, store, and/or use IIHI, only to perform:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The certified IDR entity's required duties described in this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Functions related to carrying out additional obligations as may be required under applicable Federal or State laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Security.</I> (<I>1</I>) The certified IDR entity must ensure the confidentiality of all IIHI it creates, obtains, maintains, stores, and transmits;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The certified IDR entity must protect against any reasonably anticipated threats or hazards to the security of this information;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The certified IDR entity must ensure that IIHI is securely destroyed or disposed of in an appropriate and reasonable manner 6 years from either the date of its creation or the first date on which the certified IDR entity had access to it, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The certified IDR entity must implement policies and procedures to prevent, detect, contain, and correct security violations in the event of a breach of IIHI;
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Breach notification.</I> The certified IDR entity must, following the discovery of a breach of unsecured IIHI, notify of the breach the provider, facility, or provider of air ambulance services; the plan and issuer; the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor; and each individual whose unsecured IIHI has been, or is reasonably believed to have been, subject to the breach, to the extent possible.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Breaches treated as discovered.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2)(v)(C), a breach shall be treated as discovered by a certified IDR entity as of the first day on which the breach is known to the certified IDR entity or, by exercising reasonable diligence, would have been known to the certified IDR entity. A certified IDR entity shall be deemed to have knowledge of a breach if the breach is known, or by exercising reasonable diligence would have been known, to any person, other than the person committing the breach, who is an employee, officer, or other agent of the certified IDR entity;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Timing of notification.</I> A certified IDR entity must provide the notification required by this paragraph (e)(2)(v)(C) without unreasonable delay and in no case later than 60 calendar days after discovery of a breach.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Content of notification.</I> The notification required by this paragraph (e)(2)(v)(C) must include, to the extent possible:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The identification of each individual whose unsecured IIHI has been, or is reasonably believed by the certified IDR entity to have been, subject to the breach;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A brief description of what happened, including the date of the breach and the date of the discovery of the breach, to the extent known;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A description of the types of unsecured IIHI that were involved in the breach (for example whether full name, social security number, date of birth, home address, account number, diagnosis, disability code, or other types of information were involved);
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) A brief description of what the certified IDR entity involved is doing to investigate the breach, to mitigate harm to the affected parties, and to protect against any further breaches; and
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Contact procedures for individuals to ask questions or learn additional information, which must include a toll-free telephone number, email address, website, or postal address.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Method for providing notification.</I> A certified IDR entity must submit the notification required by this paragraph (e)(2)(v)(C) in written form (in clear and understandable language) either on paper or electronically through the Federal IDR portal or electronic mail.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Application to contractor and subcontractors.</I> The certified IDR entity must ensure compliance with this paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section by any contractor or subcontractor with access to IIHI performing any duties related to the Federal IDR process.
</P>
<P>(vi) Meet appropriate indicators of fiscal integrity and stability by demonstrating that the certified IDR entity has a system of safeguards and controls in place to prevent and detect improper financial activities by its employees and agents to assure fiscal integrity and accountability for all certified IDR entity fees and administrative fees received, held, and disbursed and by submitting 3 years of financial statements or, if not available, other information to demonstrate fiscal stability of the IDR entity.
</P>
<P>(vii) Provide, no more frequently than once per calendar year, a fixed fee for single determinations and a separate fixed fee for batched determinations, as well as an additional fixed tiered fee for batched determinations, if applicable, within the upper and lower limits for each, as established by the Secretary in notice and comment rulemaking. The certified IDR entity fee ranges established by the Secretary in rulemaking will remain in effect until changed by notice and comment rulemaking. The certified IDR entity may not charge a fee outside the limits set forth in rulemaking unless the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification receives advance written approval from the Secretary to charge a fixed fee beyond the upper or lower limits by following the process described in paragraph (e)(2)(vii)(A) of this section. A certified IDR entity may also seek advance written approval from the Secretary to update its fees one additional time per calendar year by meeting the requirements described in paragraph (e)(2)(vii)(A). The Secretary will approve a request to charge a fixed fee beyond the upper or lower limits for fees as set forth in rulemaking or to update the fixed fee during the calendar year if, in their discretion, they determine the information submitted by a certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification demonstrates that the proposed change to the certified IDR entity fee would ensure the financial viability of the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification and would not impose on parties an undue barrier to accessing the Federal IDR process.
</P>
<P>(A) In order for the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification to receive the Secretary's written approval to charge a fixed fee beyond the upper or lower limits for fees as set forth in rulemaking or to update the fixed fee during the calendar year, the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification must submit to the Secretary, in the form and manner specified by the Secretary:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The fixed fee the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification believes is appropriate for the certified IDR entity or IDR entity seeking certification to charge;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A description of the circumstances that require the alternative fixed fee, or that require a change to the fixed fee during the calendar year, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A detailed description that reasonably explains how the alternative fixed fee or the change to the fixed fee during the calendar year, as applicable, will be used to mitigate the effects of those circumstances.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(viii) For disputes initiated on or after January 22, 2024, certified IDR entities are permitted to charge a fixed certified IDR entity fee for single determinations within the range of $200 to $840, and a fixed certified IDR entity fee for batched determinations within the range of $268 to $1,173, unless a fee outside such ranges is approved by the Secretary, pursuant to paragraph (e)(2)(vii)(A) of this section. As part of the batched determination fee, certified IDR entities are permitted to charge an additional fixed tiered fee within the range of $75 to $250 for every additional 25 line items within a batched dispute, beginning with the 26th line item. The ranges for the certified IDR entity fees for single and batched determinations will remain in effect until changed by notice and comment rulemaking.


</P>
<P>(ix) Have a procedure in place to retain the certified IDR entity fees described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section paid by both parties in a trust or escrow account and to return the certified IDR entity fee paid by the prevailing party or a portion of each party's certified IDR entity fee in the case of an agreement described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, a withdrawal described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, or a circumstance in which each party prevails in an equal number of determinations, as described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section, within 30 business days following the date of the determination or the date the certified IDR entity is notified by both parties of an agreement or withdrawal, as applicable;




</P>
<P>(x) Have a procedure in place to retain the administrative fees described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and to remit the administrative fees to the Secretary in accordance with the timeframe and procedures set forth in guidance published by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(xi) Discharge its responsibilities in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, including not making any determination with respect to which the certified IDR entity would not be eligible for selection pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xii) Collect the information required to be reported to the Secretary under paragraph (f) of this section and report the information on a timely basis in the form and manner provided in guidance published by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) Conflict-of-interest standards. In addition to the general standards set forth in paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section, an IDR entity must provide written documentation that the IDR entity satisfies the standards to be a certified IDR entity under this paragraph (e)(3).
</P>
<P>(i) The IDR entity must provide an attestation indicating that it does not have a conflict of interest as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The IDR entity must have procedures in place to ensure that personnel assigned to a determination do not have any conflicts of interest regarding any party to the dispute within the 1 year immediately preceding an assignment of dispute determination, similar to the requirements laid out in 18 U.S.C. 207(b). In order to satisfy this requirement, if certified, the IDR entity must ensure that any personnel assigned to a determination do not have any conflicts of interest as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Following certification under this paragraph (e), if a certified IDR entity acquires control of, becomes controlled by, or comes under common control with any entity described in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, the certified IDR entity must notify the Secretary in writing no later than 3 business days after the acquisition or exercise of control and shall be subject to the revocation of certification under paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Period of certification.</I> Subject to paragraphs (e)(5) and (6) of this section, each certification (including a recertification) of a certified IDR entity under the process described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section will be effective for a 5-year period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Petition for denial or revocation</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> An individual, provider, facility, provider of air ambulance services, plan, or issuer may petition for a denial of a certification for an IDR entity or a revocation of a certification for a certified IDR entity for failure to meet a requirement of this section using the standard form and manner set forth in guidance to be issued by the Secretary. The petition for denial of a certification must be submitted within the timeframe set forth in guidance issued by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content of petition.</I> The individual, provider, facility, provider of air ambulance services, plan, or issuer seeking denial or revocation of certification must submit a written petition using the standard form issued by the Secretary including the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The identity of the IDR entity seeking certification or certified IDR entity that is the subject of the petition;
</P>
<P>(B) The reason(s) for the petition;
</P>
<P>(C) Whether the petition seeks denial or revocation of a certification;
</P>
<P>(D) Documentation to support the reasons outlined in the petition; and
</P>
<P>(E) Other information as may be required by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Process.</I> (A) The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor will acknowledge receipt of the petition within 10 business days of receipt of the petition.
</P>
<P>(B) If the Secretary finds that the petition adequately shows a failure of the IDR entity seeking certification or the certified IDR entity to follow the requirements of this paragraph (e), the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, will notify the IDR entity seeking certification or the certified IDR entity by providing a de-identified copy of the petition. Following the notification, the IDR entity seeking certification or certified IDR entity will have 10 business days to provide a response. After the time period for providing the response has passed, the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, will review the response (if any), determine whether a denial or revocation of a certification is warranted, and issue a notice of the decision to the IDR entity or certified IDR entity and to the petitioner. This decision will be subject to the appeal requirements of paragraph (e)(6)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Effect on certification under petition. Regarding a petition for revocation of a certified IDR entity's certification, if the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, finds that the petition adequately shows a failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (e), following the Secretary's notification of the failure to the certified IDR entity under paragraph (e)(5)(iii)(B) of this section, the certified IDR entity may continue to work on previously assigned determinations but may not accept new determinations until the Secretary issues a notice of the decision to the certified IDR entity finding that a revocation of certification is not warranted.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Denial of IDR entity certification or revocation of certified IDR entity certification</I>—(i) <I>Denial of IDR entity certification.</I> The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, may deny the certification of an IDR entity under paragraph (e)(1) of this section if, during the process of certification, including as a result of a petition described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, the Secretary determines the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The IDR entity fails to meet the applicable standards set forth under this paragraph (e);
</P>
<P>(B) The IDR entity has committed or participated in fraudulent or abusive activities, including, during the certification process, submitting fraudulent data, or submitting information or data the IDR entity knows to be false to the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury or the Secretary of Labor;
</P>
<P>(C) The IDR entity has failed to comply with requests for information from the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury, or the Secretary of Labor as part of the certification process;
</P>
<P>(D) In conducting payment determinations, including those outside the Federal IDR process, the IDR entity has failed to meet the standards that applied to those determinations or reviews, including standards of independence and impartiality; or
</P>
<P>(E) The IDR entity is otherwise not fit or qualified to make determinations under the Federal IDR process.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Revocation of certification of a certified IDR entity.</I> The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, may revoke the certification of a certified IDR entity under paragraph (e)(1) of this section if, as a result of an audit, a petition described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, or otherwise, the Secretary determines the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The certified IDR entity has a pattern or practice of noncompliance with any requirements of this paragraph (e);
</P>
<P>(B) The certified IDR entity is operating in a manner that hinders the efficient and effective administration of the Federal IDR process;
</P>
<P>(C) The certified IDR entity no longer meets the applicable standards for certification set forth under this paragraph (e);
</P>
<P>(D) The certified IDR entity has committed or participated in fraudulent or abusive activities, including submission of false or fraudulent data to the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury, or the Secretary of Labor;
</P>
<P>(E) The certified IDR entity lacks the financial viability to provide arbitration under the Federal IDR process;
</P>
<P>(F) The certified IDR entity has failed to comply with requests from the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury, or the Secretary of Labor made as part of an audit, including failing to submit all records of the certified IDR entity that pertain to its activities within the Federal IDR process; or
</P>
<P>(G) The certified IDR entity is otherwise no longer fit or qualified to make determinations.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice of denial or revocation.</I> The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, will issue a written notice of denial to the IDR entity or revocation to the certified IDR entity within 10 business days of the Secretary's decision, including the effective date of denial or revocation, the reason(s) for denial or revocation, and the opportunity to request appeal of the denial or revocation.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Request for appeal of denial or revocation.</I> To request an appeal, the IDR entity or certified IDR entity must submit a request for appeal to the Secretary within 30 business days of the date of the notice under paragraph (e)(6)(iii) of this section of denial or revocation and in the manner prescribed by the instructions to the notice. During this time period, the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, will not issue a notice of final denial or revocation and a certified IDR entity may continue to work on previously assigned determinations but may not accept new determinations. If the IDR entity or certified IDR entity does not timely submit a request for appeal of the denial or revocation, the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, will issue a notice of final denial or revocation to the IDR entity or certified IDR entity (if applicable) and the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Denial or final revocation.</I> Upon notice of denial or final revocation, the IDR entity shall not be considered a certified IDR entity and therefore shall not be eligible to accept payment determinations under the Federal IDR process. Moreover, after a notice of final revocation, the IDR entity may not re-apply to be a certified IDR entity until on or after the 181st day after the date of the notice of denial or final revocation.




</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reporting of information relating to the Federal IDR process</I>—(1) <I>Reporting of information.</I> Within 30 business days of the close of each month, for qualified IDR items and services furnished on or after January 1, 2022, each certified IDR entity must, in a form and manner specified by the Secretary, report:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of notices of IDR initiation submitted under paragraph (b)(2) of this section to the certified IDR entity during the immediately preceding month;
</P>
<P>(ii) The size of the provider practices and the size of the facilities submitting notices of IDR initiation under paragraph (b)(2) of this section during the immediately preceding month, as required to be provided to the certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of such notices of IDR initiation with respect to which a determination was made under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) The number of times during the month that the out-of-network rate determined (or agreed to) under this section has exceeded the qualifying payment amount, specified by qualified IDR items and services;
</P>
<P>(v) With respect to each notice of IDR initiation under paragraph (b)(2) of this section for which such a determination was made, the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the qualified IDR items and services included with respect to the notification, including the relevant billing and service codes;
</P>
<P>(B) The relevant geographic region for purposes of the qualifying payment amount for the qualified IDR items and services with respect to which the notification was provided;
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of the offer submitted under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section by the plan or issuer (as applicable) and by the provider or facility (as applicable) expressed as a dollar amount and as a percentage of the qualifying payment amount;
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the offer selected by the certified IDR entity under paragraph (c)(4) of this section was the offer submitted by the plan or issuer (as applicable) or by the provider or facility (as applicable);
</P>
<P>(E) The amount of the selected offer expressed as a dollar amount and as a percentage of the qualifying payment amount;


</P>
<P>(F) The rationale for the certified IDR entity's decision, including the extent to which the decision relied on the criteria in paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section;






</P>
<P>(G) The practice specialty or type of each provider or facility, respectively, involved in furnishing each qualified IDR item or service;
</P>
<P>(H) The identity for each plan or issuer, and provider or facility, with respect to the notification. Specifically, each certified IDR entity must provide each party's name and address, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(I) For each determination, the number of business days elapsed between selection of the certified IDR entity and the determination of the out-of-network rate by the certified IDR entity.
</P>
<P>(vi) The total amount of certified IDR entity fees paid to the certified IDR entity under paragraph (d)(1) of this section during the month.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Extension of time periods for extenuating circumstances—</I>(1) <I>In general.</I> The time periods specified in this section (other than the time for payment, if applicable, under paragraph (c)(5)(ix) of this section) may be extended in extenuating circumstances at the Secretary's discretion. Extenuating circumstances include, but are not limited to, when:
</P>
<P>(i) For a specific dispute, the Secretary determines that the parties or certified IDR entity cannot meet applicable timeframes due to matters beyond the control of one or both parties or the certified IDR entity, or for other good cause. The certified IDR entity or either party may also submit a request for an extension due to extenuating circumstances to the Secretary through the Federal IDR portal. The requesting certified IDR entity or party must attest that it will take prompt action to ensure that the certified IDR entity's payment determination under this section may be made as soon as administratively practicable under the circumstances; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Secretary determines that the parties or certified IDR entity cannot meet applicable timeframes due to systematic delays in processing disputes under the Federal IDR process, such as an unforeseen volume of disputes or Federal IDR portal system failures. Extensions provided due to extenuating circumstances caused by an unforeseen volume of disputes will be applied to the timeframe for eligibility determinations under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Extensions provided due to extenuating circumstances caused by systems failures within the Federal IDR portal will be applied to the Federal IDR process timeframe(s) determined relevant by the Secretary. The Secretary will post a public notice regarding any extensions of time periods under this paragraph (g)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Timeframe following an extension to eligibility determination.</I> When an extension to the eligibility determination timeframe under paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section is in effect, the start date of the subsequent timeframes in the Federal IDR process will be determined based on the date of completion of the eligibility determination by the certified IDR entity.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Submission of offers.</I> The parties must submit their offers and certified IDR entity fees to the certified IDR entity not later than 10 business days after the qualified IDR items and services are determined eligible as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Payment determination.</I> The certified IDR entity must make the payment determination and provide notification of the payment determination to the parties not later than 30 business days after the qualified IDR items and services are determined eligible as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Timeframe following an extension to other timeframes in the Federal IDR process.</I> When an extension to any timeframe within the Federal IDR process, other than the eligibility timeframe, is in effect under paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section, the start date of each subsequent timeframe in the Federal IDR process will be determined based on the date of completion of the process for which the extension was granted.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(h) <I>Applicability date.</I> (1) Paragraph (a) of this section is applicable for plan years (or in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022, except that the provisions regarding IDR entity certification at paragraph (a) of this section are applicable beginning on October 7, 2021, and the definition for batched IDR items and services at paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is applicable to disputes with open negotiation periods beginning on November 1, 2026.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (b) of this section is applicable to disputes with open negotiation periods beginning 90 calendar days after the Departments issue guidance announcing that the functionality supporting these provisions has become available.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (c)(1) of this section, regarding the selection of a certified IDR entity, is applicable for plan years (or in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022, and paragraph (c)(1) of this section is applicable to disputes with open negotiation periods beginning 90 calendar days after the Departments issue guidance announcing that the functionality supporting these provisions has become available.
</P>
<P>(4) Paragraph (c)(2) of this section, regarding the Federal IDR process eligibility review, paragraph (c)(3) of this section, regarding the authority to continue negotiations or withdraw, and paragraph (c)(4) of this section, regarding the treatment of batched and bundled qualified IDR items and services, are applicable for plan years (or in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022. Paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (c)(3)(ii)(C) and (D) of this section are applicable beginning on November 1, 2026. Paragraphs (c)(2), (c)(3)(ii)(A) and (B), and (c)(4) of this section are applicable to disputes with open negotiation periods beginning 90 calendar days after the Departments issue guidance announcing that the functionality supporting these provisions has become available.
</P>
<P>(5) Paragraphs (c)(5)(ii) and (iii) of this section regarding payment determination and notification and considerations in payment determinations, and paragraph (c)(5)(vi)(B) of this section regarding written decisions are applicable for items or services furnished on or after October 25, 2022, are applicable for plan years (or in the individual market policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022. Paragraphs (c)(5)(i), (c)(5)(v) through (c)(5)(vi)(A), and (c)(5)(vii) through (ix) of this section regarding submission of offers, prohibition on consideration of certain factors, written decision, effects of determination, recordkeeping requirements, and payment are applicable for plan years (or in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022. Paragraphs (c)(5)(i) and (ii), and (c)(5)(vii)(B) and (C) of this section regarding the deadlines for the submission of offers, payment determination and notification, suspension of certain subsequent IDR requests, and subsequent submission of requests permitted are applicable to disputes with open negotiation periods beginning 90 calendar days after the Departments issue guidance announcing that the functionality supporting these provisions has become available.
</P>
<P>(6) Paragraph (d)(1) of this section regarding the certified IDR entity fee is applicable to disputes initiated on or after August 3, 2026. Paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section regarding the administrative fee is applicable to disputes initiated on or after June 11, 2026. Paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section regarding failure to pay the administrative fee is applicable beginning on August 3, 2026.
</P>
<P>(7) Paragraph (e) of this section is applicable for plan years (or in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022, except that the provisions regarding IDR entity certification at paragraphs (e)(1), (e)(2)(i) through (vi), (e)(2)(x) and (xi), and (e)(3) through (6) of this section are applicable beginning on October 7, 2021. Paragraph (e)(2)(ix) of this section regarding procedures to retain the certified IDR entity fee is applicable beginning on August 3, 2026.
</P>
<P>(8) Paragraph (f) of this section is applicable for plan years (or in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022, except that paragraph (f)(1)(v)(F) of this section regarding reporting of information relating to the Federal IDR process is applicable for items or services furnished on or after October 25, 2022, for plan years (or in the individual market policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>(9) Paragraph (g) of this section regarding the extension of time periods for extenuating circumstances is applicable for plan years (or in the individual market, policy years) beginning on or after January 1, 2022. Paragraph (g) of this section is applicable beginning on November 1, 2026.
</P>
<P>(10) Until the relevant applicability date for the requirements of this section, plans, issuers, providers, facilities, providers of air ambulance services and certified IDR entities are required to continue to comply with the corresponding requirements of § 149.510 in effect prior to June 4, 2026


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Severability.</I> (1) Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, will be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding is one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision will be severable from this section and will not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of paragraphs (b)(1), (c)(2)(ii), (c)(4), (d)(2), and (g)(1) of this section are intended to be severable from one another, from any grant of forbearance from removal resulting from this subpart, and from any provision referenced in those paragraphs. The provisions in this section are intended to be severable from the provisions in §§ 149.100, 149.140, and 149.530, from any grant of forbearance from removal resulting from this subpart, and from any provision referenced in §§ 149.100, 149.140, and 149.530.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 56124, Oct. 7, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52652, Aug. 26, 2022; 88 FR 88525, Dec. 21, 2023; 89 FR 4548, Jan. 24, 2024; 91 FR 34070, June 4, 2026; 91 FR 55468, Aug. 28, 2026]
















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.520" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.520   Independent dispute resolution process for air ambulance services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> Unless otherwise stated, the definitions in § 149.30 apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of out-of-network rates to be paid by health plans and health insurance issuers; independent dispute resolution process</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, in determining the out-of-network rate to be paid by group health plans and health insurance issuers offering group or individual health insurance coverage for out-of-network air ambulance services, plans and issuers must comply with the requirements of § 149.510, except that references in § 149.510 to the additional circumstances in § 149.510(c)(4)(iii)(B) shall be understood to refer to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Considerations for air ambulance services.</I> In determining which offer to select, in addition to considering the applicable qualifying payment amount(s), the certified IDR entity must consider information submitted by a party that relates to the following circumstances:


</P>
<P>(i) The quality and outcomes measurements of the provider that furnished the services.
</P>
<P>(ii) The acuity of the condition of the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee receiving the service, or the complexity of furnishing the service to the participant, beneficiary, or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(iii) The training, experience, and quality of the medical personnel that furnished the air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ambulance vehicle type, including the clinical capability level of the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(v) Population density of the point of pick-up (as defined in 42 CFR 414.605) for the air ambulance (such as urban, suburban, rural, or frontier).
</P>
<P>(vi) Demonstrations of good faith efforts (or lack thereof) made by the nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services or the plan or issuer to enter into network agreements with each other and, if applicable, contracted rates between the provider of air ambulance services and the plan or issuer, as applicable, during the previous 4 plan years.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Weighing considerations.</I> In weighing the considerations described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the certified IDR entity should evaluate whether the information is credible and relates to the offer submitted by either party for the payment amount for the qualified IDR service that is the subject of the payment determination. The certified IDR entity should not give weight to information to the extent it is not credible, it does not relate to either party's offer for the payment amount for the qualified IDR service, or it is already accounted for by the qualifying payment amount under § 149.510(c)(4)(iii)(A) or other credible information under § 149.510(c)(4)(iii)(B) through (D), except that the additional circumstances in § 149.510(c)(4)(iii)(B) shall be understood to refer to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.






</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reporting of information relating to the IDR process.</I> In applying the requirements of § 149.510(f), within 30 business days of the close of each month, for services furnished on or after January 1, 2022, the information the certified IDR entity must report, in a form and manner specified by the Secretary, with respect to the Federal IDR process involving air ambulance services is:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of notices of IDR initiation submitted under the Federal IDR process to the certified IDR entity that pertain to air ambulance services during the immediately preceding month;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of such notices of IDR initiation with respect to which a final determination was made under § 149.510(c)(4)(ii) (as applied by paragraph (b)(1) of this section);
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of times the payment amount determined (or agreed to) under this subsection has exceeded the qualifying payment amount, specified by services;
</P>
<P>(iv) With respect to each notice of IDR initiation under § 149.510(b)(2) of this part (as applied by paragraph (b)(1) of this section) for which a determination was made, the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of each air ambulance service included in such notification, including the relevant billing and service codes;
</P>
<P>(B) The point of pick-up (as defined in 42 CFR 414.605) for the services included in such notification;
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of the offers submitted under § 149.510(c)(4)(i) (as applied by paragraph (b)(1) of this section) by the group health plan or health insurance issuer (as applicable) and by the nonparticipating provider of air ambulance services, expressed as a dollar amount and as a percentage of the qualifying payment amount;
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the offer selected by the certified IDR entity under § 149.510(c)(4)(ii) (as applied by paragraph (b)(1) of this section) to be the payment amount applied was the offer submitted by the plan or issuer (as applicable) or by the provider of air ambulance services;
</P>
<P>(E) The amount of the selected offer expressed as a dollar amount and as a percentage of the qualifying payment amount;




</P>
<P>(F) The rationale for the certified IDR entity's decision, including the extent to which the decision relied on the criteria in paragraph (b)(2) of this section and § 149.510(c)(4)(iii)(C) and (D);








</P>
<P>(G) Air ambulance vehicle type, including the clinical capability level of such vehicle (to the extent this information has been provided to the certified IDR entity);
</P>
<P>(H) The identity for each plan or issuer and provider of air ambulance services, with respect to the notification. Specifically, each certified IDR entity must provide each party's name and address, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(I) For each determination, the number of business days elapsed between selection of the certified IDR entity and the selection of the payment amount by the certified IDR entity.
</P>
<P>(v) The total amount of certified IDR entity fees paid to the certified IDR entity under paragraph § 149.510(d)(1) (as applied by paragraph (b)(1) of this section) during the month for determinations involving air ambulance services.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable with respect to plan years, or in the individual market, policy years, beginning on or after January 1, 2022, except that paragraphs (b)(1), (2), and (3) and (b)(4)(iv)(F) of this section regarding payment determinations are applicable with respect to services provided or furnished on or after October 25, 2022, for plan years or in the individual market policy years beginning on or after January 1, 2022.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 56124, Oct. 7, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 52654, Aug. 26, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.530" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.530   Federal independent dispute resolution registry of group health plans, health insurance issuers, and Federal Employees Health Benefits Program Carriers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment of Federal independent dispute resolution registry.</I> The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, will establish a Federal independent dispute resolution (IDR) registry consisting of the information described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and will assign a registration number for each self-insured group health plan, self- or fully-insured non-Federal governmental plan, health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, and contract held by a Federal Employees Health Benefits (FEHB) Program carrier. The information contained in the registry will be made available to parties seeking to initiate an open negotiation or a dispute through the Federal IDR portal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal IDR registration</I>—(1) <I>Registration requirement.</I> Each self-insured group health plan, each FEHB Program carrier, and each health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage subject to the Federal IDR process must register with the Federal IDR registry as specified by the Departments in guidance. Initial registration must be completed by the later of the date that is 90 business days after the Departments issue guidance announcing that the functionality supporting the registry has become available, or the date the plan sponsor or health insurance issuer begins offering a group health plan or health insurance coverage or FEHB Program carrier begins offering an FEHB plan subject to the Federal IDR process.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required data elements.</I> Self-insured group health plans, FEHB Program carriers, and health insurance issuers offering group or individual health insurance coverage subject to the registration requirement must include the following information with their registration:
</P>
<P>(i) The legal business name (if any) of the self-insured group health plan, FEHB Program carrier, or issuer and, if applicable, the legal business name of the self-insured group health plan sponsor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the registrant is a self-insured group health plan subject to ERISA, an FEHB Program carrier, an issuer offering individual or group market insurance coverage, a self-insured non-Federal governmental plan, or a self-insured church plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) For issuers offering individual or group market insurance coverage and for self-insured non-Federal governmental plans, the State(s) in which the plan is offered or the coverage is licensed;
</P>
<P>(iv) For self-insured group health plans not otherwise subject to State law, including self-insured church plans and self-insured non-Federal governmental plans, any State(s) in which the group health plan has properly effectuated an election to opt in to a specified State law as defined in § 149.30, or an All-Payer Model Agreement under section 1115A of the Social Security Act, if the terms of that agreement allow a plan not otherwise subject to the agreement to opt in; and for FEHB Program plans that adopt a specified State law or All-Payer Model Agreement under their FEHB Program carrier's contract terms, any State(s) in which they have made such an adoption;
</P>
<P>(v) Contact information, including a telephone number and email address, for the appropriate office or person to initiate open negotiation for purposes of determining an amount of payment (including cost sharing) for such item or service; and contact information, including a telephone number and email address, for the appropriate office or person to initiate the Federal IDR process;
</P>
<P>(vi) The 5-digit Health Insurance Oversight System (HIOS) identifier, if available; and, for self-insured group health plans, the plan's or the plan sponsor's Employer Identification Number (EIN) and the plan's plan number (PN), if a PN is available, and for FEHB Program carriers, the applicable contract number(s) and plan code(s);
</P>
<P>(vii) Additional information needed to identify the plan or issuer and the applicable Federal and State requirements for determining appropriate out-of-network payment rates for items or services to which the protections against balance billing in this part apply, as specified by the Secretary in guidance, or such additional information needed for FEHB Program carriers as specified by OPM in guidance; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Additional information needed for purposes of administrative or certified IDR entity fee collection, as specified by the Secretary in guidance, or such additional information needed for FEHB Program carriers as specified by OPM in guidance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Updating disclosures.</I> A plan or issuer must timely report to the Secretary changes to the information required under this section within 30 calendar days after the information changes. A plan or issuer must confirm the accuracy of its registration annually in the fourth quarter of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Third party authority.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section may be performed by a third party administrator or service provider with authority to act on behalf of the self-insured group health plan, health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage, or FEHB carrier offering an FEHB plan subject to the Federal IDR process. If the registration requirements are performed by such third party administrator or service provider, the group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage must require that such third party administrator or service provider clearly delineate each group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group health insurance coverage for which it has authority to act. If such third party administrator or service provider fails to provide the information in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, the plan or issuer will be in violation of the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Severability.</I> (1) Any provision of this section held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, will be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding is one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision will be severable from this section and will not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions in this section are intended to be severable from the provisions in §§ 149.100, 149.140, and 149.510, from any grant of forbearance from removal resulting from this subpart, and from any provision referenced in §§ 149.100, 149.140, and 149.510.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 34080, June 4, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Protection of Uninsured or Self-Pay Individuals</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 56134, Oct. 7, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 149.610" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.610   Requirements for provision of good faith estimates of expected charges for uninsured (or self-pay) individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth requirements for health care providers and health care facilities related to the issuance of good faith estimates of expected charges for uninsured (or self-pay) individuals (or their authorized representatives), upon request or upon scheduling an item or service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Authorized representative</I> means an individual authorized under State law to provide consent on behalf of the uninsured (or self-pay) individual, provided that the individual is not a provider affiliated with a facility or an employee of a provider or facility represented in the good faith estimate, unless such provider or employee is a family member of the uninsured (or self-pay) individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Convening health care provider or convening health care facility (convening provider or convening facility)</I> means the provider or facility who receives the initial request for a good faith estimate from an uninsured (or self-pay) individual and who is or, in the case of a request, would be responsible for scheduling the primary item or service.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Co-health care provider or co-health care facility (co-provider or co-facility)</I> means a provider or facility other than a convening provider or a convening facility that furnishes items or services that are customarily provided in conjunction with a primary item or service.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Diagnosis code</I> means the code that describes an individual's disease, disorder, injury, or other related health conditions using the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) code set.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Expected charge</I> means, for an item or service, the cash pay rate or rate established by a provider or facility for an uninsured (or self-pay) individual, reflecting any discounts for such individuals, where the good faith estimate is being provided to an uninsured (or self-pay) individual; or the amount the provider or facility would expect to charge if the provider or facility intended to bill a plan or issuer directly for such item or service when the good faith estimate is being furnished to a plan or issuer.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Good faith estimate</I> means a notification of expected charges for a scheduled or requested item or service, including items or services that are reasonably expected to be provided in conjunction with such scheduled or requested item or service, provided by a convening provider, convening facility, co-provider, or co-facility.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Health care facility (facility)</I> means an institution (such as a hospital or hospital outpatient department, critical access hospital, ambulatory surgical center, rural health center, federally qualified health center, laboratory, or imaging center) in any State in which State or applicable local law provides for the licensing of such an institution, that is licensed as such an institution pursuant to such law or is approved by the agency of such State or locality responsible for licensing such institution as meeting the standards established for such licensing.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Health care provider (provider)</I> means a physician or other health care provider who is acting within the scope of practice of that provider's license or certification under applicable State law, including a provider of air ambulance services.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Items or services</I> has the meaning given in 45 CFR 147.210(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Period of care</I> means the day or multiple days during which the good faith estimate for a scheduled or requested item or service (or set of scheduled or requested items or services) are furnished or are anticipated to be furnished, regardless of whether the convening provider, convening facility, co-providers, or co-facilities are furnishing such items or services, including the period of time during which any facility equipment and devices, telemedicine services, imaging services, laboratory services, and preoperative and postoperative services that would not be scheduled separately by the individual, are furnished.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Primary item or service</I> means the item or service to be furnished by the convening provider or convening facility that is the initial reason for the visit.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Service code</I> means the code that identifies and describes an item or service using the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT), Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS), Diagnosis-Related Group (DRG) or National Drug Codes (NDC) code sets.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Uninsured (or self-pay) individual</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) An individual who does not have benefits for an item or service under a group health plan, group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, Federal health care program (as defined in section 1128B(f) of the Social Security Act), or a health benefits plan under chapter 89 of title 5, United States Code; or
</P>
<P>(B) An individual who has benefits for such item or service under a group health plan, or individual or group health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, or a health benefits plan under chapter 89 of title 5, United States Code but who does not seek to have a claim for such item or service submitted to such plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements of providers and facilities</I>—(1) <I>Requirements for convening providers and convening facilities.</I> A convening provider or convening facility must determine if an individual is an uninsured (or self-pay) individual by:
</P>
<P>(i) Inquiring if an individual is enrolled in a group health plan, group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer, Federal health care program (as defined in section 1128B(f) of the Social Security Act), or a health benefits plan under chapter 89 of title 5, United States Code;
</P>
<P>(ii) Inquiring whether an individual who is enrolled in a group health plan, or group or individual health insurance coverage offered by a health insurance issuer or a health benefits plan under chapter 89 of title 5, United States Code is seeking to have a claim submitted for the primary item or service with such plan or coverage; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Informing all uninsured (or self-pay) individuals of the availability of a good faith estimate of expected charges upon scheduling an item or service or upon request; information regarding the availability of good faith estimates for uninsured (or self-pay) individuals must be:
</P>
<P>(A) Written in a clear and understandable manner, prominently displayed (and easily searchable from a public search engine) on the convening provider's or convening facility's website, in the office, and on-site where scheduling or questions about the cost of items or services occur;
</P>
<P>(B) Orally provided when scheduling an item or service or when questions about the cost of items or services occur; and
</P>
<P>(C) Made available in accessible formats, and in the language(s) spoken by individual(s) considering or scheduling items or services with such convening provider or convening facility.
</P>
<P>(iv) Convening providers and convening facilities shall consider any discussion or inquiry regarding the potential costs of items or services under consideration as a request for a good faith estimate;
</P>
<P>(v) Upon the request for a good faith estimate from an uninsured (or self-pay) individual or upon scheduling a primary item or service to be furnished for such an individual, the convening provider or convening facility must contact, no later than 1 business day of such scheduling or such request, all co-providers and co-facilities who are reasonably expected to provide items or services in conjunction with and in support of the primary item or service and request that the co-providers or co-facilities submit good faith estimate information (as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (c)(2) of this section) to the convening provider or facility; the request must also include the date that good faith estimate information must be received by the convening provider or facility;
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide a good faith estimate (as specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) to uninsured (or self-pay) individuals within the following timeframes:
</P>
<P>(A) When a primary item or service is scheduled at least 3 business days before the date the item or service is scheduled to be furnished: Not later than 1 business day after the date of scheduling;
</P>
<P>(B) When a primary item or service is scheduled at least 10 business days before such item or service is scheduled to be furnished: Not later than 3 business days after the date of scheduling; or
</P>
<P>(C) When a good faith estimate is requested by an uninsured (or self-pay) individual: Not later than 3 business days after the date of the request.
</P>
<P>(vii) A convening provider or convening facility must provide an uninsured (or self-pay) individual who has scheduled an item or service with a new good faith estimate if a convening provider, convening facility, co-provider, or co-facility anticipates or is notified of any changes to the scope of a good faith estimate (such as anticipated changes to the expected charges, items, services, frequency, recurrences, duration, providers, or facilities) previously furnished at the time of scheduling; a new good faith estimate must be issued to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual no later than 1 business day before the items or services are scheduled to be furnished.
</P>
<P>(viii) If any changes in expected providers or facilities represented in a good faith estimate occur less than 1 business day before the item or service is scheduled to be furnished, the replacement provider or facility must accept as its good faith estimate of expected charges the good faith estimate for the relevant items or services included in the good faith estimate for the items or services being furnished that was provided by the replaced provider or facility.
</P>
<P>(ix) For good faith estimates provided upon request of an uninsured (or self-pay) individual, upon scheduling of the requested item or service, the convening provider or convening facility must provide the uninsured (or self-pay) individual with a new good faith estimate for the scheduled item or service within the timeframes specified in paragraphs (b)(1)(vi)(A) and (B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(x) A convening provider or convening facility may issue a single good faith estimate for recurring primary items or services if the following requirements are met, in addition to the requirements under this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The good faith estimate for recurring items or services must include, in a clear and understandable manner, the expected scope of the recurring primary items or services (such as timeframes, frequency, and total number of recurring items or services); and
</P>
<P>(B) The scope of a good faith estimate for recurring primary items or services must not exceed 12 months. If additional recurrences of furnishing such items or services are expected beyond 12 months (or as specified under paragraph (b)(vii) of this section), a convening provider or convening facility must provide an uninsured (or self-pay) individual with a new good faith estimate, and communicate such changes (such as timeframes, frequency, and total number of recurring items or services) upon delivery of the new good faith estimate to help patients understand what has changed between the initial good faith estimate and the new good faith estimate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements for co-providers and co-facilities.</I> (i) Co-providers and co-facilities must submit good faith estimate information (as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section) upon the request of the convening provider or convening facility. The co-provider or co-facility must provide, and the convening provider or convening facility must receive, the good faith estimate information no later than 1 business day after the co-provider or co-facility receives the request from the convening provider or convening facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) Co-providers and co-facilities must notify and provide new good faith estimate information to a convening provider or convening facility if the co-provider or co-facility anticipates any changes to the scope of good faith estimate information previously submitted to a convening provider or convening facility (such as anticipated changes to the expected charges, items, services, frequency, recurrences, duration, providers, or facilities).
</P>
<P>(iii) If any changes in the expected co-providers or co-facilities represented in a good faith estimate occur less than 1 business day before that the item or service is scheduled to be furnished, the replacement co-provider or co-facility must accept as its good faith estimate of expected charges the good faith estimate for the relevant items or services included in the good faith estimate for the item or service being furnished that was provided by the replaced provider or facility.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the event that an uninsured (or self-pay) individual separately schedules or requests a good faith estimate from a provider or facility that would otherwise be a co-provider or co-facility, that provider or facility is considered a convening provider or convening facility for such item or service and must meet all requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (c)(1) of this section for issuing a good faith estimate to an uninsured (or self-pay) individual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content requirements of a good faith estimate issued to an uninsured (or self-pay) individual.</I> (1) A good faith estimate issued to an uninsured (or self-pay) individual must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Patient name and date of birth;
</P>
<P>(ii) Description of the primary item or service in clear and understandable language (and if applicable, the date the primary item or service is scheduled);
</P>
<P>(iii) Itemized list of items or services, grouped by each provider or facility, reasonably expected to be furnished for the primary item or service, and items or services reasonably expected to be furnished in conjunction with the primary item or service, for that period of care including:
</P>
<P>(A) Items or services reasonably expected to be furnished by the convening provider or convening facility for the period of care; and
</P>
<P>(B) Items or services reasonably expected to be furnished by co-providers or co-facilities (as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (c)(2) of this section);
</P>
<P>(iv) Applicable diagnosis codes, expected service codes, and expected charges associated with each listed item or service;
</P>
<P>(v) Name, National Provider Identifier, and Tax Identification Number of each provider or facility represented in the good faith estimate, and the State(s) and office or facility location(s) where the items or services are expected to be furnished by such provider or facility;
</P>
<P>(vi) List of items or services that the convening provider or convening facility anticipates will require separate scheduling and that are expected to occur before or following the expected period of care for the primary item or service. The good faith estimate must include a disclaimer directly above this list that includes the following information: Separate good faith estimates will be issued to an uninsured (or self-pay) individual upon scheduling or upon request of the listed items or services; notification that for items or services included in this list, information such as diagnosis codes, service codes, expected charges and provider or facility identifiers do not need to be included as that information will be provided in separate good faith estimates upon scheduling or upon request of such items or services; and include instructions for how an uninsured (or self-pay) individual can obtain good faith estimates for such items or services;
</P>
<P>(vii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(viii) A disclaimer that informs the uninsured (or self-pay) individual that there may be additional items or services the convening provider or convening facility recommends as part of the course of care that must be scheduled or requested separately and are not reflected in the good faith estimate;
</P>
<P>(ix) A disclaimer that informs the uninsured (or self-pay) individual that the information provided in the good faith estimate is only an estimate regarding items or services reasonably expected to be furnished at the time the good faith estimate is issued to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual and that actual items, services, or charges may differ from the good faith estimate; and
</P>
<P>(x) A disclaimer that informs the uninsured (or self-pay) individual of the uninsured (or self-pay) individual's right to initiate the patient-provider dispute resolution process if the actual billed charges are substantially in excess of the expected charges included in the good faith estimate, as specified in § 149.620; this disclaimer must include instructions for where an uninsured (or self-pay) individual can find information about how to initiate the patient-provider dispute resolution process and state that the initiation of the patient-provider dispute resolution process will not adversely affect the quality of health care services furnished to an uninsured (or self-pay) individual by a provider or facility; and
</P>
<P>(xi) A disclaimer that the good faith estimate is not a contract and does not require the uninsured (or self-pay) individual to obtain the items or services from any of the providers or facilities identified in the good faith estimate.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content Requirements for Good Faith Estimate Information Submitted by Co-Providers or Co-Facilities to Convening Providers or Convening Facilities.</I> (1) Good faith estimate information submitted to convening providers or convening facilities by co-providers or co-facilities for inclusion in the good faith estimate (described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Patient name and date of birth;
</P>
<P>(ii) Itemized list of items or services expected to be provided by the co-provider or co-facility that are reasonably expected to be furnished in conjunction with the primary item or service as part of the period of care;
</P>
<P>(iii) Applicable diagnosis codes, expected service codes, and expected charges associated with each listed item or service;
</P>
<P>(iv) Name, National Provider Identifiers, and Tax Identification Numbers of the co-provider or co-facility, and the State(s) and office or facility location(s) where the items or services are expected to be furnished by the co-provider or co-facility; and
</P>
<P>(v) A disclaimer that the good faith estimate is not a contract and does not require the uninsured (or self-pay) individual to obtain the items or services from any of the co-providers or co-facilities identified in the good faith estimate.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Required Methods for Providing Good Faith Estimates for Uninsured (or Self-Pay) Individuals.</I> (1) A good faith estimate must be provided in written form either on paper or electronically, pursuant to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual's requested method of delivery, and within the timeframes described in paragraph (b) of this section. Good faith estimates provided electronically must be provided in a manner that the uninsured (or self-pay) individual can both save and print. A good faith estimate must be provided and written using clear and understandable language and in a manner calculated to be understood by the average uninsured (or self-pay) individual.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that an uninsured (or self-pay) individual requests a good faith estimate in a method other than paper or electronically (for example, by phone or orally in person), the convening provider may orally inform the uninsured (or self-pay) individual of information contained in the good faith estimate using the method requested by the uninsured (or self-pay) individual; however, in order for a convening provider or convening facility to meet the requirements of this section, the convening provider or convening facility must issue the good faith estimate to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual in written form as specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional compliance provisions.</I> (1) A good faith estimate issued to uninsured (or self-pay) individual under this section is considered part of the patient's medical record and must be maintained in the same manner as a patient's medical record. Convening providers and convening facilities must provide a copy of any previously issued good faith estimate furnished within the last 6 years to an uninsured (or self-pay) individual upon the request of the uninsured (or self-pay) individual.
</P>
<P>(2) Providers or facilities that issue good faith estimates issued under State processes that do not meet the requirements set forth in this section fail to comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A provider or facility will not fail to comply with this section solely because, despite acting in good faith and with reasonable due diligence, the provider or facility makes an error or omission in a good faith estimate required under this section, provided that the provider or facility corrects the information as soon as practicable. If items or services are furnished before an error in a good faith estimate is addressed, the provider or facility may be subject to patient-provider dispute resolution if the actual billed charges are substantially in excess of the good faith estimate (as described in § 149.620).
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent compliance with this section requires a provider or facility to obtain information from any other entity or individual, the provider or facility will not fail to comply with this section if it relied in good faith on the information from the other entity, unless the provider or facility knows, or reasonably should have known, that the information is incomplete or inaccurate. If the provider or facility learns that the information is incomplete or inaccurate, the provider or facility must provide corrected information to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual as soon as practicable. If items or services are furnished before an error in a good faith estimate is addressed, the provider or facility may be subject to patient-provider dispute resolution if the actual billed charges are substantially in excess of the good faith estimate (as described in § 149.620).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability</I>—(1) <I>Applicability date.</I> The requirements of this section are applicable for good faith estimates requested on or after January 1, 2022 or for good faith estimates required to be provided in connection with items or services scheduled on or after January 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability with other laws.</I> Nothing in this section alters or otherwise affects a provider's or facility's requirement to comply with other applicable State or Federal laws, including those governing the accessibility, privacy, or security of information required to be disclosed under this section, or those governing the ability of properly authorized representatives to access uninsured (or self-pay) individuals' information held by providers or facilities, except to the extent a state law prevents the application of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.620" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.620   Requirements for the patient-provider dispute resolution process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth requirements for the patient-provider dispute resolution process, under which an uninsured (or self-pay) individual, with respect to eligible items or services under paragraph (b) of this section, may submit notification under paragraph (c) of this section to initiate the patient-provider dispute resolution process. This section sets forth in paragraph (d) of this section the certification requirements for a dispute resolution entity to become a Selected Dispute Resolution (SDR) entity contracted to resolve the patient-provider dispute, and the process for HHS to select SDR entities for patient-provider disputes under paragraph (e) of this section. This section sets forth in paragraph (f) the process and requirements regarding how SDR entities will determine the amount to be paid by an uninsured (or self-pay) individual to a provider or facility. This section also sets forth requirements for an administrative fee under paragraph (g) of this section and minimum requirements under paragraph (h) of this section for states that wish to establish processes for performing patient-provider dispute resolution in place of the Federal process.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> Unless otherwise stated, the definitions in § 149.610(a)(2) apply to this section. Definitions related to confidentiality set forth in § 149.510(a)(2), including the definitions for <I>breach, individually identifiable health information (IIHI),</I> and <I>unsecured IIHI</I> also apply to this section. Additionally, for purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Billed charge(s)</I> means the amount billed by a provider or facility for an item or service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Substantially in excess</I> means, with respect to the total billed charges by a provider or facility, an amount that is at least $400 more than the total amount of expected charges listed on the good faith estimate for the provider or facility.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Total billed charge(s)</I> means the total of billed charges, by a provider or-facility, for all primary items or services and all other items or services furnished in conjunction with the primary items or services to an uninsured (or self-pay) individual, regardless of whether such items or services were included in the good faith estimate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility for patient-provider dispute resolution</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In general, an item or service provided by a convening provider, convening facility, co-provider, or co-facility is eligible for the patient-provider dispute resolution process if the total billed charges (by the particular convening provider, convening facility, or co-provider or co-facility listed in the good faith estimate), are substantially in excess of the total expected charges for that specific provider or facility listed on the good faith estimate, as required under § 149.610.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule for co-provider or co-facility substitution.</I> If a co-provider or co-facility that provided an estimate of the expected charge for an item or service in the good faith estimate is substituted for a different co-provider or co-facility, an item or service billed by the replacement co-provider or co-facility is eligible for dispute resolution if the billed charge is substantially in excess of the total expected charges included in the good faith estimate for the original co-provider or co-facility. If the replacement provider or facility provides the uninsured (or self-pay) individual with a new good faith estimate in accordance with § 149.610(b)(2), then the determination of whether an item or service billed by the replacement co-provider or co-facility is eligible for dispute resolution is based on whether the total billed charge for the replacement co-provider or co-facility is substantially in excess of the total expected charges included in the good faith estimate provided by the replacement co-provider or co-facility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initiation of the Patient Provider dispute resolution process</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> With respect to an item or service that meets the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, an uninsured (or self-pay) individual (or their authorized representative, excluding any providers directly represented in the good faith estimate, providers associated with these providers, non-clinical staff associated with these providers, or individuals employed or associated with a facility that had included services in the good faith estimate) may initiate the patient-provider dispute resolution process by submitting a notification (initiation notice) to HHS as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section postmarked within 120 calendar days of receiving the initial bill containing charges for the item or service that is substantially in excess of the expected charges in the good faith estimate. In addition, the uninsured (or self-pay) individual must submit an administrative fee as described in paragraph (g) of this section to the SDR entity in an amount and in a manner that will be clarified in guidance by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initiation notice</I>—(i) <I>Content.</I> The notice to initiate the patient-provider dispute resolution process must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Information sufficient to identify the item or service under dispute, including the date the item or service was provided, and a description of the item or service;
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the provider or facility bill for the item and service under dispute (the copy can be a photocopy or an electronic image so long as the document is readable);
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the good faith estimate for the item or service under dispute (the copy can be a photocopy or an electronic image so long as the document is readable);
</P>
<P>(D) If not included on the good faith estimate, contact information of the provider or facility involved, including, if available, name, email address, phone number, and mailing address;
</P>
<P>(E) The State where the items or services in dispute were furnished; and
</P>
<P>(F) The uninsured (or self-pay) individual's communication preference, through the Federal IDR portal, or electronic or paper mail.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Manner.</I> The uninsured (or self-pay) individual or their authorized representative must submit the initiation notice, to the Secretary by submitting the notice via the Federal IDR portal, electronically, or on paper, in the form and manner specified by the Secretary. The date of initiation of the patient-provider dispute resolution process will be the date the Secretary receives such initiation notice. In addition, the uninsured (or self-pay) individual must submit an administrative fee as described in paragraph (g) of this section to the SDR entity in an amount and in a manner that will be clarified in guidance by HHS.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification of SDR entity receipt.</I> Upon receipt of the initiation notice described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, HHS will select an SDR entity according to the process described in paragraph (e) of this section. Upon selection, the SDR entity will, through the Federal IDR portal, or electronic or paper mail, notify the uninsured (or self-pay) individual, and the provider or facility that a patient-provider dispute resolution request has been received and is under review. Such notice shall also include:
</P>
<P>(i) Sufficient information to identify the item or service under dispute;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the initiation notice was received;
</P>
<P>(iii) Notice of the additional requirements for providers or facilities specified in paragraphs (c)(5) and (6) of this section while the patient-provider dispute resolution process is pending; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual about the availability of consumer assistance resources that can assist the individual with the dispute.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Validation of initiation notice.</I> After the selection of the SDR entity, as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the SDR entity shall review the initiation notice to ensure the items or services in dispute meet the eligibility criteria described in paragraph (b) of this section and the initiation notice contains the required information described in paragraph (c)(2). The SDR entity will notify the uninsured (or self-pay) individual of the outcome of the review, including, if applicable, providing the individual with 21 calendar days to submit supplemental information when the initiation notice is determined to be incomplete or the items or services are determined ineligible for dispute resolution.
</P>
<P>(i) If the SDR entity determines that the item or service meets the eligibility criteria, and the initiation notice contains the required information, the SDR entity will notify the uninsured (or self-pay) individual and the provider or facility that the that the item or service has been determined eligible for dispute resolution. The SDR entity shall request the provider or facility provide the information described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section within 10 business days.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the SDR entity determines that the item or service does not meet the eligibility criteria or that the initiation notice does not contain the required information, the SDR entity will provide an insufficiency notice to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual of the determination and the reasons for the determination and will notify the uninsured (or self-pay) individual that the individual may submit supplemental information, postmarked within 21 calendar days, to resolve any deficiencies identified. If the insufficiency notice is not made available to an individual in a format that is accessible to individuals with disabilities or with low-English proficiency within 14 calendar days of such a request from the individual, a 14-calendar-day extension will be granted so that the individual will have a total of 35 calendar days to submit supplemental information.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prohibitions on collections.</I> While the patient-provider dispute resolution process is pending, the provider or facility must not move the bill for the disputed item or service into collection or threaten to do so, or if the bill has already moved into collection, the provider or facility should cease collection efforts. The provider or facility must also suspend the accrual of any late fees on unpaid bill amounts until after the dispute resolution process has concluded.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Prohibitions on retributive action.</I> The provider or facility must not take or threaten to take any retributive action against an uninsured (or self-pay) individual for utilizing the patient-provider dispute resolution process to seek resolution for a disputed item or service.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification of SDR entities</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Secretary shall contract with and certify only that number of SDR entities the Secretary believes will be necessary to timely resolve the volume of patient-provider disputes. As part of the contract process with HHS, a potential SDR entity must satisfy the Federal IDR entity certification criteria specified in § 149.510(e), subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraphs (d)(2) of this section. In addition, the SDR entity must also meet the conflict-of-interest mitigation policy requirements specified in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. Through this contract process, HHS will assess the dispute resolution entity for compliance with all applicable SDR entity certification requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception for SDR entity certification.</I> With respect to certified IDR entity requirements that do not apply to an SDR entity, potential SDR entities are not required to make the following submissions:
</P>
<P>(i) Information regarding the service area(s) for which the entity will arbitrate cases, however, a potential SDR entity will need to submit information on their ability to operate nationwide through the contract process;
</P>
<P>(ii) Fee schedule for batched and non-batched claims;
</P>
<P>(iii) Policies and procedures to hold dispute resolution entity fees in a trust or escrow account, however, a potential SDR entity must submit policies and procedures to hold administrative fees, as described in paragraph (g) of this section, and remit them to HHS in a manner specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conflict of interest mitigation policies.</I> A potential SDR entity must also provide additional information on the SDR entity's conflict-of-interest policies and procedures, including outlining a mitigation plan in the event of an entity-level conflict of interest, under which no dispute resolution personnel affiliated with the SDR entity can fairly and impartially adjudicate a case, in compliance with the standards in Federal Acquisition Regulation-subpart 9.5 (48 CFR subpart 9.5). Such conflict of interest mitigation plan could include utilizing a subcontractor without a conflict of interest that meets SDR entity requirements to conduct the patient-provider dispute resolution for the case.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Selection of an SDR entity.</I> (1) After the Secretary has received the initiation notice as described in paragraph (c) of this section, the Secretary will assign an SDR entity that is certified and contracted under paragraph (d) of this section to conduct the dispute resolution process for the item or service. Upon receiving an assignment from the Secretary to make a determination for an item or service as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the SDR entity shall ensure that no conflict of interest exists, and in such case, shall notify the uninsured (or self-pay) individual and the provider or facility of the selection of the SDR entity.
</P>
<P>(2) Should a conflict of interest exist, the SDR entity must submit notice to the Secretary of such conflict no later than 3 business days following selection by the Secretary. The Secretary will then automatically select a new SDR entity to conduct the patient-provider dispute resolution process for the item or service. In the event that no SDR entities are available to resolve the dispute, the initially-selected SDR entity will be required to initiate their entity-level conflict of interest mitigation plan as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. If no other contracted SDR entity, and no subcontracted entity, is able to provide the patient-provider dispute resolution services due to conflicts of interest that cannot be sufficiently mitigated or any other reason, HHS may seek to contract with an additional SDR entity as needed. In the event that HHS needs to contract with an additional SDR entity, the time periods specified in this section may be extended at HHS' discretion to allow for HHS to contract with that SDR entity.
</P>
<P>(3) Conflict of interest means, with respect to a party to a payment determination, or SDR entity, a material relationship, status, or condition of the party, or SDR entity that impacts the ability of the SDR entity to make an unbiased and impartial payment determination. For purposes of this section, a conflict of interest exists when an SDR entity is:
</P>
<P>(i) A provider or a facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) An affiliate or a subsidiary of a provider or facility;
</P>
<P>(iii) An affiliate or subsidiary of a professional or trade association representing a provider or facility; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An SDR entity, or any personnel assigned to a determination has a material familial, financial, or professional relationship with a party to the payment determination being disputed, or with any officer, director, or management employee of the provider, the provider's group or practice association, or the facility that is a party to the dispute.
</P>
<P>(4) Either party to the dispute resolution process (the uninsured (or self-pay) individual, or the provider or facility) may attest that a conflict of interest exists in relation to the SDR entity assigned to a payment dispute, in which case the SDR entity must notify the Secretary of HHS no later than 3 business days receiving the attestation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Payment determination for Patient-Provider dispute resolution</I>—(1) <I>Determination of payment amount through settlement</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If the parties to a dispute resolution process agree on a payment amount (through either an offer of financial assistance or an offer of a lower amount, or an agreement by the uninsured (or self-pay) individual to pay the billed charges in full) after the dispute resolution process has been initiated but before the date on which a determination is made under paragraph (f)(3) of this section, the provider or facility will notify the SDR entity through the Federal IDR Portal, electronically, or in paper form as soon as possible, but no later than 3 business days after the date of the agreement. The settlement notification must contain at a minimum, the settlement amount, the date of such settlement, and documentation demonstrating that the provider or facility and uninsured (or self-pay) individual have agreed to the settlement. The settlement notice must also document that the provider or facility has applied a reduction to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual's settlement amount equal to at least half the amount of the administrative fee paid as set forth in paragraph (g) of this section. Once the SDR entity receives the settlement notice, the SDR entity shall close the dispute resolution case as settled and the agreed upon payment amount will apply for the items or services.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Treatment of payments made prior to determination.</I> Payment of the billed charges (or a portion of the billed charges) by the uninsured (or self-pay) individual (or by another party on behalf of the uninsured (or self-pay) individual) prior to a determination under paragraph (f)(3) of this section does not demonstrate agreement by the uninsured (or self-pay) individual to settle at that amount or any other amount.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of payment amount through the patient-provider dispute resolution process</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> With respect to an item or service to which an agreement described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply, not later than 10 business days after the receipt of the selection notice from the SDR entity described in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, the provider or facility must submit to the SDR entity:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the good faith estimate provided to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual for the item or service under dispute (the copy can be a photocopy or an electronic image so long as the document is readable);
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of the billed charges provided to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual for the item or service under dispute (the copy can be a photocopy or an electronic image so long as the document is readable); and
</P>
<P>(C) If available, documentation demonstrating that the difference between the billed charge and the expected charges in the good faith estimate reflects the cost of a medically necessary item or service and is based on unforeseen circumstances that could not have reasonably been anticipated by the provider or facility when the good faith estimate was provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timeframe for SDR entity determination.</I> Not later than 30 business days after receipt of the information described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, the SDR entity must make a determination regarding the amount to be paid by such uninsured (or self-pay) individual, taking into account the requirements in paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Payment determination by an SDR entity</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The SDR entity must review any documentation submitted by the uninsured (or self-pay) individual, and the provider or the facility, and make a separate determination for each unique item or service charged as to whether the provider or facility has provided credible information to demonstrate that the difference between the billed charge and the expected charge for the item or service in the good faith estimate reflects the costs of a medically necessary item or service and is based on unforeseen circumstances that could not have reasonably been anticipated by the provider or facility when the good faith estimate was provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Definition of credible information.</I> Credible information means information that upon critical analysis is worthy of belief and is trustworthy.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Payment determination process.</I> (A) For an item or service that appears on the good faith estimate:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the billed charge is equal to or less than the expected charge for the item or service in the good faith estimate, the SDR entity must determine the amount to be paid for the item or service as the billed charge.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the billed charge for the item or service is greater than the expected charge in the good faith estimate, and the SDR entity determines that information submitted by the provider or facility does not provide credible information that the difference between the billed charge and the expected charge-for the item or service in the good faith estimate reflects the costs of a medically necessary item or service and is based on unforeseen circumstances that could not have reasonably been anticipated by the provider or facility when the good faith estimate was provided, the SDR entity must determine the amount to be paid for the item or service to be equal to the expected charge for the item or service in the good faith estimate.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the billed charge for the item or service is greater than the expected charge in the good faith estimate, and the SDR entity determines that information submitted by the provider or facility provides credible information that the difference between the billed charge and the expected charge for the item or service in the good faith estimate reflects the costs of a medically necessary item or service and is based on unforeseen circumstances that could not have reasonably been anticipated by the provider or facility when the good faith estimate was provided, the SDR entity must determine as the amount to be paid for the item or service, the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The billed charge; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The median payment amount paid by a plan or issuer for the same or similar service, by a same or similar provider in the geographic area as defined in § 149.140(a)(7) where the services were provided, that is reflected in an independent database as defined in § 149.140(a)(3) using the methodology described in § 149.140(c)(3), except that in cases where the amount determined by an independent database is determined to be less than the expected charge for the item or service listed on the good faith estimate, the amount to be paid will equal to the expected charge for the item or service listed on the good faith estimate. When comparing the billed charge with the amount contained in an independent database, the SDR entity should account for any discounts offered by the provider or facility.
</P>
<P>(B) For an item or service that does not appear on the good faith estimate (new item or service):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the SDR entity determines that the information submitted by the provider or facility does not provide credible information that the billed charge for the new item or service reflects the costs of a medically necessary item or service and is based on unforeseen circumstances that could not have reasonably been anticipated by the provider or facility when the good faith estimate was provided, then the SDR entity must determine that amount to be paid for the new item or service to be equal to $0.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the SDR entity determines that the information submitted by the provider or facility provides credible information that the billed charge for the new item or service reflects the costs of a medically necessary item or service and is based on unforeseen circumstances that could not have reasonably been anticipated by the provider or facility when the good faith estimate was provided, the SDR entity must select as the amount to be paid for the new item or service, the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The billed charge; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The median payment amount paid by a plan or issuer for the same or similar service, by a same or similar provider in the geographic area as defined in § 149.140(a)(7) where the services were provided, that is reflected in an independent database as defined in § 149.140(a)(3) using the methodology described in § 149.140(c)(3). When comparing the billed charge with the amounts contained in an independent database, the SDR entity should account for any discounts offered by the provider or facility.
</P>
<P>(C) To calculate the final payment determination amount, the SDR entity must add together the amounts to be paid for all items or services subject to the determination. In cases where the final amount determined by the SDR entity is lower than the billed charges, the SDR entity must reduce the total amount determined by the amount paid by the individual for the administrative fee described in paragraph (g) of this section to calculate the final payment determination amount to be paid by the individual for the items or services. Once the final payment determination amount has been calculated, the SDR entity will inform the uninsured (or self-pay) individual and the provider or facility, through the Federal IDR portal, or by electronic or paper mail, of such determination, the determination amount and the SDR entity's justification for making the determination. After such notification is made, the SDR entity will close the case.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effects of determination.</I> A determination made by an SDR entity under this paragraph (f) will be binding upon the parties involved, in the absence of a fraud or evidence of misrepresentation of facts presented to the selected SDR entity regarding the claim, except that the provider or facility may provide financial assistance or agree to an offer for a lower payment amount than the SDR entity's determination, the uninsured (or self-pay) individual may agree to pay the billed charges in full, or the uninsured (or self-pay) individual and the provider or facility may agree to a different payment amount.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Costs of patient-provider dispute resolution process</I>—(1) <I>Administrative fee to participate in the patient-provider dispute resolution process.</I> (i) The uninsured (or self-pay) individual shall pay to the SDR entity the administrative fee amount described in section (g)(2) of this section at the initiation of the patient-provider dispute resolution process described in paragraph (c) of this section. The SDR entity shall remit all administrative fees collected to the Secretary upon receiving an invoice from HHS.
</P>
<P>(ii) In cases where the SDR entity issues a determination and the provider or facility is the non-prevailing party as described in section (g)(1)(iv) of this section, the provider or facility must pay an amount equal to the administrative fee to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual in the form of a reduction in the payment amount that is applied by the SDR entity to the final payment determination amount as described in paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the SDR entity issues a determination and the provider or facility is the prevailing party as described in paragraph (g)(1)(iv) of this section, the provider or facility is not required to pay an amount equal to the administrative fee to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual in the form of a reduction in the payment amount that is applied by the SDR entity to the final payment determination amount as described in paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of paragraphs (g)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, the prevailing party is the provider or facility in cases where the SDR entity determines the amount to be paid as equal to the billed charges; and the prevailing party is the uninsured (or self-pay) individual in cases where the SDR entity determines the-amount to be paid as less than the billed charges.
</P>
<P>(v) Allocation of administrative fee in the case of settlement. In case of a settlement described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the provider or facility must pay an amount equal to half of the administrative fee to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual in the form of a reduction in the payment amount that is applied to the final settlement amount. The provider or facility will document in the settlement notice described in paragraph (f)(1) that it has applied a payment reduction of at least half of the administrative fee amount to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual's settlement amount.
</P>
<P>(2) Establishment of the administrative fee. The amount of the administrative fee described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section will be specified by the Secretary through guidance.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Deferral to State patient-provider dispute resolution processes</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the Secretary determines that a-state law provides a process to determine the amount to be paid by an uninsured (or self-pay) individual to a provider or facility, and that such process meets or exceeds the requirements in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, the Secretary shall defer to the State process and direct any patient-provider dispute resolution requests received from uninsured (or self-pay) individuals in such state to the State process to adjudicate the dispute resolution initiation request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum Federal requirements.</I> A State process described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section shall at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Be binding, unless the provider or facility offer for the uninsured (or self-pay) individual to pay a lower payment amount than the determination amount;
</P>
<P>(ii) Take into consideration a good faith estimate, that meets the minimum standards established in § 149.160, provided by the provider or facility to the uninsured (or self-pay) individual;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the State has a fee charged to uninsured (or self-pay) individuals to participate in the patient-provider dispute resolution process, the fee must be equal to or less than the Federal administrative fee-established in paragraph (g) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Have in place conflict-of-interest standards that at a minimum meets the requirements set forth in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>HHS determination of State process.</I> HHS will review the State process to determine whether it meets or exceeds the minimum Federal requirements set forth in paragraph (h)(2) of this section—HHS will communicate with the state and determine whether such process meets or exceeds such requirements. HHS will notify the state in writing of such determination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>HHS review of State process.</I> HHS will review changes to the State process on an annual basis (or at other times if HHS receives information from the state that would indicate the state process no longer meets the minimum Federal requirements) to ensure the state process continues to meet or exceed the minimum Federal standards set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>State process termination.</I> In the event that the State process is terminated, or HHS determines that the State process no longer meets the minimum Federal requirements described in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, HHS will make the Federal process available to uninsured (or self-pay) individuals in that State to ensure that the state's residents have access to a patient-provider dispute resolution process that meets the minimum Federal requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Extension of time periods for extenuating circumstances</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The time periods specified in this section (other than the time for payment of the administrative fees under paragraph (d)(2) of this section) may be extended in extenuating circumstances at the Secretary's discretion if:
</P>
<P>(i) An extension is necessary to address delays due to matters beyond the control of the parties or for good cause; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The parties attest that prompt action will be taken to ensure that the determination under this section is made as soon as administratively practicable under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Process to request an extension.</I> The time periods specified in this section may be extended in the case of extenuating circumstances at HHS' discretion. The parties may request an extension by submitting a request for extension due to extenuating circumstances through the Federal IDR portal, or electronic or paper mail if the extension is necessary to address delays due to matters beyond the control of the parties or for good cause.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable to uninsured (or self-pay) individuals; providers (including providers of air ambulance services) and facilities; and SDR entities, generally beginning on or after January 1, 2022. The provisions regarding SDR entity certification in paragraphs (a) and (d) of this section, are applicable beginning on October 7, 2021.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Prescription Drug and Health Care Spending</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 66702, Nov. 23, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 149.710" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.710   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply in addition to the definitions in § 149.30:
</P>
<P><I>Brand prescription drug</I> means a drug for which an application is approved under section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355(c)), or under section 351 of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 262), and that is generally marketed under a proprietary, trademark-protected name. The term “brand prescription drug” includes a drug with Emergency Use Authorization issued pursuant to section 564 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360bbb-3), and that is generally marketed under a proprietary, trademark-protected name. The term “brand prescription drug” includes drugs that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration determines to be interchangeable biosimilar products under sections 351(i)(3) and 351(k)(4) of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 262).
</P>
<P><I>Dosage unit</I> means the smallest form in which a pharmaceutical product is administered or dispensed, such as a pill, tablet, capsule, ampule, or measurement of grams or milliliters.
</P>
<P><I>Enrollee</I> means an individual who is enrolled, within the meaning of § 144.103 of this subchapter, in group health insurance coverage, or an individual who is covered by individual health insurance coverage, at any time during the reference year, and includes dependents.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Employees Health Benefits (FEHB) line of business</I> refers to all health benefit plans that are offered to eligible enrollees pursuant to a contract between the Office of Personnel Management and Federal Employees Health Benefits (FEHB) Program carriers. Such plans are Federal governmental plans offered pursuant to 5 U.S.C. chapter 89.
</P>
<P><I>Life-years</I> means the total number of months of coverage for participants and beneficiaries, or for enrollees, as applicable, divided by 12.
</P>
<P><I>Market segment</I> means one of the following: The individual market (excluding the student market), the student market, the fully-insured small group market, the fully-insured large group market (excluding the FEHB line of business), self-funded plans offered by small employers, self-funded plans offered by large employers, and the FEHB line of business.
</P>
<P><I>Premium amount</I> means, with respect to individual health insurance coverage and fully-insured group health plans, earned premium as that term is defined in § 158.130 of this subchapter, excluding the adjustments specified in § 158.130(b)(5). Premium amount means, with respect to self-funded group health plans and other arrangements that do not rely exclusively or primarily on payments of premiums as defined in § 158.130 of this subchapter, the premium equivalent amount representing the total cost of providing and maintaining coverage, including claims costs, administrative costs, and stop-loss premiums, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Prescription drug (drug)</I> means a set of pharmaceutical products that have been assigned a National Drug Code (NDC) by the Food and Drug Administration and are grouped by name and ingredient in the manner specified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration</I> means all remuneration received by or on behalf of a plan or issuer, its administrator or service provider, including remuneration received by and on behalf of entities providing pharmacy benefit management services to the plan or issuer, with respect to prescription drugs prescribed to participants, beneficiaries, or enrollees in the plan or coverage, as applicable, regardless of the source of the remuneration (for example, pharmaceutical manufacturer, wholesaler, retail pharmacy, or vendor). Prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration also include, for example, discounts, chargebacks or rebates, cash discounts, free goods contingent on a purchase agreement, up-front payments, coupons, goods in kind, free or reduced-price services, grants, or other price concessions or similar benefits. Prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration include bona fide service fees. Bona fide service fees mean fees paid by a drug manufacturer to an entity providing pharmacy benefit management services to the plan or issuer that represent fair market value for a bona fide, itemized service actually performed on behalf of the manufacturer that the manufacturer would otherwise perform (or contract for) in the absence of the service arrangement, and that are not passed on in whole or in part to a client or customer of the entity, whether or not the entity takes title to the drug.
</P>
<P><I>Reference year</I> means the calendar year immediately preceding the calendar year in which data submissions under this section are required.
</P>
<P><I>Reporting entity</I> means an entity that submits some or all of the information required under this subpart with respect to a plan or issuer, and that may be different from the plan or issuer that is subject to the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Student market</I> has the meaning given in § 158.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Therapeutic class</I> means a group of pharmaceutical products that have similar mechanisms of action or treat the same types of conditions, grouped in the manner specified by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, in guidance. The Secretary may require plans and issuers to classify drugs according to a commonly available public or commercial therapeutic classification system, a therapeutic classification system provided by the Secretary, or a combination thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Total annual spending</I> means incurred claims, as that term is defined in § 158.140 of this subchapter, excluding the adjustments specified in § 158.140(b)(1)(i), (b)(2)(iv), and (b)(4), and including cost sharing. With respect to prescription drugs, total annual spending is net of prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.720" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.720   Reporting requirements related to prescription drug and health care spending.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A group health plan or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage must submit an annual report to the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury, and the Secretary of Labor, on prescription drug and health care spending, premiums, and enrollment under the plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing and form of report.</I> The report for the 2020 reference year must be submitted to the Secretary by December 27, 2021. Beginning with the 2021 reference year, the report for each reference year is due by June 1 of the year following the reference year. The report must be submitted in the form and manner prescribed by the Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transfer of business.</I> Issuers that acquire a line or block of business from another issuer during a reference year are responsible for submitting the information and report required by this section for the acquired business for that reference year, including for the part of the reference year that was prior to the acquisition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reporting entities and special rules to prevent unnecessary duplication</I>—(1) <I>Special rule for insured group health plans.</I> To the extent coverage under a group health plan consists of group health insurance coverage, the plan may satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if the plan requires the health insurance issuer offering the coverage to report the information required by this section in compliance with this subpart pursuant to a written agreement. Accordingly, if a health insurance issuer and a group health plan sponsor enter into a written agreement under which the issuer agrees to provide the information required under paragraph (a) of this section in compliance with this section, and the issuer fails to do so, then the issuer, but not the plan, violates the reporting requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with respect to the relevant information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other contractual arrangements.</I> A group health plan or health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage may satisfy the requirements under paragraph (a) of this section by entering into a written agreement under which one or more other parties (such as health insurance issuers, pharmacy benefit managers, third-party administrators, or other third parties) report some or all of the information required under paragraph (a) of this section in compliance with this section. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, if a group health plan or health insurance issuer chooses to enter into such an agreement and the party with which it contracts fails to provide the information in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the plan or issuer violates the reporting requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable beginning December 27, 2021.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.730" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.730   Aggregate reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A group health plan or a health insurance issuer offering group or individual health insurance coverage must submit, or arrange to be submitted, the information required in § 149.740(b) separately for each State in which group health coverage or group or individual health insurance coverage was provided in connection with the group health plan or by the health insurance issuer. The report must include the experience of all plans and policies in the State during the reference year covered by the report, and must include the experience separately for each market segment as defined in § 149.710.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aggregation by reporting entity</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If a reporting entity submits data on behalf of more than one group health plan in a State and market segment, the reporting entity may aggregate the data required in § 149.740(b) for the group health plans for each market segment in the State.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple reporting entities.</I> (i) If multiple reporting entities submit the required data related to one or more plans or issuers in a State and market segment, the data submitted by each of these reporting entities must not be aggregated at a less granular level than the aggregation level used by the reporting entity that submits the data on total annual spending on health care services, as required by § 149.740(b)(4), on behalf of these plans or issuers.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Secretary, jointly with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, may specify in guidance alternative or additional aggregation methods for data submitted by multiple reporting entities, to ensure a balance between compliance burdens and a data aggregation level that facilitates the development of the biannual public report required under section 2799A-10(b) of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Group health insurance coverage with dual contracts.</I> If a group health plan involves health insurance coverage obtained from two affiliated issuers, one providing in-network coverage only and the second providing out-of-network coverage only, the plan's out-of-network experience may be treated as if it were all related to the contract provided by the in-network issuer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregation by State.</I> (1) Experience with respect to each fully-insured policy must be included on the report for the State where the contract was issued, except as specified in paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Experience with respect to each self-funded group health plan must be included on the report for the State where the plan sponsor has its principal place of business.
</P>
<P>(3) For individual market business sold through an association, experience must be attributed to the issue State of the certificate of coverage.
</P>
<P>(4) For health coverage provided to plans through a group trust or multiple employer welfare arrangement, the experience must be included in the report for the State where the employer (if the plan is sponsored at the individual employer level) or the association (if the association qualifies as an employer under ERISA section 3(5)) has its principal place of business or the State where the association is incorporated, in the case of an association with no principal place of business.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable beginning December 27, 2021.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 149.740" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.7.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 149.740   Required information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information for each plan or coverage.</I> The report required under § 149.720 must include the following information for each plan or coverage, at the plan or coverage level:
</P>
<P>(1) The identifying information for plans, issuers, plan sponsors, and any other reporting entities.
</P>
<P>(2) The beginning and end dates of the plan year that ended on or before the last day of the reference year.
</P>
<P>(3) The number of participants, beneficiaries, and enrollees, as applicable, covered on the last day of the reference year.
</P>
<P>(4) Each State in which the plan or coverage is offered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information for each state and market segment.</I> The report required under § 149.720 must include the following information with respect to plans or coverage for each State and market segment for the reference year, unless otherwise specified:
</P>
<P>(1) The 50 brand prescription drugs most frequently dispensed by pharmacies, and for each such drug, the data elements listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. The most frequently dispensed drugs must be determined according to total number of paid claims for prescriptions filled during the reference year for each drug.
</P>
<P>(2) The 50 most costly prescription drugs and for each such drug, the data elements listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. The most costly drugs must be determined according to total annual spending on each drug.
</P>
<P>(3) The 50 prescription drugs with the greatest increase in expenditures between the year immediately preceding the reference year and the reference year, and for each such drug: The data elements listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section for the year immediately preceding the reference year, and the data elements listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section for the reference year. The drugs with the greatest increase in expenditures must be determined based on the increase in total annual spending from the year immediately preceding the reference year to the reference year. A drug must be approved for marketing or issued an Emergency Use Authorization by the Food and Drug Administration for the entirety of the year immediately preceding the reference year and for the entirety of the reference year to be included in the data submission as one of the drugs with the greatest increase in expenditures.
</P>
<P>(4) Total annual spending on health care services by the plan or coverage and by participants, beneficiaries, and enrollees, as applicable, broken down by the type of costs, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Hospital costs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Health care provider and clinical service costs, for primary care and specialty care separately;
</P>
<P>(iii) Costs for prescription drugs, separately for drugs covered by the plan's or issuer's pharmacy benefit and drugs covered by the plan's or issuer's hospital or medical benefit; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other medical costs, including wellness services.
</P>
<P>(5) Prescription drug spending and utilization, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Total annual spending by the plan or coverage;
</P>
<P>(ii) Total annual spending by the participants, beneficiaries, and enrollees, as applicable, enrolled in the plan or coverage, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of participants, beneficiaries, and enrollees, as applicable, with a paid prescription drug claim;
</P>
<P>(iv) Total dosage units dispensed; and
</P>
<P>(v) The number of paid claims.
</P>
<P>(6) Premium amounts, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Average monthly premium amount paid by employers and other plan sponsors on behalf of participants, beneficiaries, and enrollees, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) Average monthly premium amount paid by participants, beneficiaries, and enrollees, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Total annual premium amount and the total number of life-years.
</P>
<P>(7) Prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Total prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration, and the difference between total amounts that the plan or issuer pays the entity providing pharmacy benefit management services to the plan or issuer and total amounts that such entity pays to pharmacies.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration, excluding bona fide service fees, broken down by the amounts passed through to the plan or issuer, the amounts passed through to participants, beneficiaries, and enrollees, as applicable, and the amounts retained by the entity providing pharmacy benefit management services to the plan or issuer; and the data elements listed in paragraph (b)(5) of this section—
</P>
<P>(A) For each therapeutic class; and
</P>
<P>(B) For each of the 25 prescription drugs with the greatest amount of total prescription drug rebates and other price concessions for the reference year.
</P>
<P>(8) The method used to allocate prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(9) The impact of prescription drug rebates, fees, and other remuneration on premium and cost sharing amounts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section are applicable beginning December 27, 2021.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="150" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 150—CMS ENFORCEMENT IN GROUP AND INDIVIDUAL INSURANCE MARKETS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 300gg through 300gg-63, 300gg-91, and 300gg-92, as amended.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.101" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.101   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> CMS's enforcement authority under sections 2723 and 2761 of the PHS Act and its rulemaking authority under section 2792 of the PHS Act provide the basis for issuing regulations under this part 150.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Enforcement with respect to group heath plans.</I> The provisions of title XXVII of the PHS Act that apply to group health plans that are non-Federal governmental plans are enforced by CMS using the procedures described in § 150.301 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Enforcement with respect to health insurance issuers.</I> The states have primary enforcement authority with respect to the requirements of title XXVII of the PHS Act that apply to health insurance issuers offering coverage in the group or individual health insurance market. If CMS determines under subpart B of this part that a state is not substantially enforcing title XXVII of the PHS Act, including the implementing regulations in parts 146, 147, and 148 of this subchapter, CMS enforces them under subpart C of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13439, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.103" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions that appear in part 144 of this subchapter apply to this part 150, unless stated otherwise. As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Amendment, endorsement,</I> or <I>rider</I> means a document that modifies or changes the terms or benefits of an individual policy, group policy, or certificate of insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means a signed statement of facts by a potential insured that an issuer uses as a basis for its decision whether, and on what basis to insure an individual, or to issue a certificate of insurance, or that a non-Federal governmental health plan uses as a basis for a decision whether to enroll an individual under the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate of insurance</I> means the document issued to a person or entity covered under an insurance policy issued to a group health plan or an association or trust that summarizes the benefits and principal provisions of the policy.
</P>
<P><I>Complaint</I> means any expression, written or oral, indicating a potential denial of any right or protection contained in PHS Act requirements (whether ultimately justified or not) by an individual, a personal representative or other entity acting on behalf of an individual, or any entity that believes such a right is being or has been denied an individual.
</P>
<P><I>Group health insurance policy or group policy</I> means the legal document or contract issued by an issuer to a plan sponsor with respect to a group health plan (including a plan that is a non-Federal governmental plan) that contains the conditions and terms of the insurance that covers the group.
</P>
<P><I>Individual health insurance policy or individual policy</I> means the legal document or contract issued by the issuer to an individual that contains the conditions and terms of the insurance. Any association or trust arrangement that is not a group health plan as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter or does not provide coverage in connection with one or more group health plans is individual coverage subject to the requirements of parts 147 and 148 of this subchapter. The term “individual health insurance policy” includes a policy that is—
</P>
<P>(1) Issued to an association that makes coverage available to individuals other than in connection with one or more group health plans; or
</P>
<P>(2) Administered, or placed in a trust, and is not sold in connection with a group health plan subject to the provisions of parts 146 and 147 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>PHS Act requirements</I> means the requirements of title XXVII of the PHS Act and its implementing regulations in parts 146, 147, and 148 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Plan document</I> means the legal document that provides the terms of the plan to individuals covered under a group health plan, such as a non-Federal governmental health plan.
</P>
<P><I>State law</I> means all laws, decisions, rules, regulations, or other State action having the effect of law, of any State as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter. A law of the United States applicable to the District of Columbia is treated as a State law rather than a law of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13439, Feb. 27, 2013; 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—CMS Enforcement Processes for Determining Whether States Are Failing To Substantially Enforce PHS Act Requirement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.201" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.201   State enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in subpart C of this part, each State enforces PHS Act requirements with respect to health insurance issuers that issue, sell, renew, or offer health insurance coverage in the State.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.203" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.203   Circumstances requiring CMS enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>CMS enforces PHS Act requirement to the extent warranted (as determined by CMS) in any of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notification by State.</I> A State notifies CMS that it has not enacted legislation to enforce or that it is not otherwise enforcing PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination by CMS.</I> If CMS receives or obtains information that a State may not be substantially enforcing PHS Act requirements, it may initiate the process described in this subchapter to determine whether the State is failing to substantially enforce these requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rule for guaranteed availability in the individual market.</I> If a State has notified CMS that it is implementing an acceptable alternative mechanism in accordance with § 148.128 of this subchapter instead of complying with the guaranteed availability requirements of § 148.120, CMS's determination focuses on the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the State's mechanism meets the requirements for an acceptable alternative mechanism.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the State is implementing the acceptable alternative mechanism.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consequence of a State not implementing an alternative mechanism.</I> If a State is not implementing an acceptable alternative mechanism, CMS determines whether the State is substantially enforcing the requirements of §§ 148.101 through 148.126 and § 148.170 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.205" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.205   Sources of information triggering an investigation of State enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Information that may trigger an investigation of State enforcement includes, but is not limited to, any of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A complaint received by CMS.
</P>
<P>(b) Information learned during informal contact between CMS and State officials.
</P>
<P>(c) A report in the news media.
</P>
<P>(d) Information from the governors and commissioners of insurance of the various States regarding the status of their enforcement of PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) Information obtained during periodic review of State health care legislation. CMS may review State health care and insurance legislation and regulations to determine whether they are:
</P>
<P>(1) Consistent with PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Not pre-empted as provided in § 146.143 (relating to group market provisions) and § 148.120 (relating to individual market requirements) on the basis that they prevent the application of a PHS Act requirement.
</P>
<P>(f) Any other information that indicates a possible failure to substantially enforce.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013; 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.207" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.207   Procedure for determining that a State fails to substantially enforce PHS Act requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 150.209 through 150.219 describe the procedures CMS follows to determine whether a State is substantially enforcing PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.209" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.209   Verification of exhaustion of remedies and contact with State officials.</HEAD>
<P>If CMS receives a complaint or other information indicating that a State is failing to enforce PHS Act requirements, CMS assesses whether the affected individual or entity has made reasonable efforts to exhaust available State remedies. As part of its assessment, CMS may contact State officials regarding the questions raised.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.211" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.211   Notice to the State.</HEAD>
<P>If CMS is satisfied that there is a reasonable question whether there has been a failure to substantially enforce PHS Act requirements, CMS sends, in writing, the notice described in § 150.213 of this part, to the following State officials:
</P>
<P>(a) The governor or chief executive officer of the State.
</P>
<P>(b) The insurance commissioner or chief insurance regulatory official.
</P>
<P>(c) If the alleged failure involves HMOs, the official responsible for regulating HMOs if different from the official listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.213" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.213   Form and content of notice.</HEAD>
<P>The notice provided to the State is in writing and does the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Identifies the PHS Act requirement or requirements that have allegedly not been substantially enforced.
</P>
<P>(b) Describes the factual basis for the allegation of a failure or failures to enforce PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) Explains that the consequence of a State's failure to substantially enforce PHS Act requirements is that CMS enforces them.
</P>
<P>(d) Advises the State that it has 30 days from the date of the notice to respond, unless the time for response is extended as described in § 150.215 of this subpart. The State's response should include any information that the State wishes CMS to consider in making the preliminary determination described in § 150.217.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013; 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.215" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.215   Extension for good cause.</HEAD>
<P>CMS may extend, for good cause, the time the State has for responding to the notice described in § 150.213 of this subpart. Examples of good cause include an agreement between CMS and the State that there should be a public hearing on the State's enforcement, or evidence that the State is undertaking expedited enforcement activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.217" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.217   Preliminary determination.</HEAD>
<P>If, at the end of the 30-day period (and any extension), the State has not established to CMS's satisfaction that it is substantially enforcing the PHS Act requirements described in the notice, CMS takes the following actions:
</P>
<P>(a) Consults with the appropriate State officials identified in § 150.211 (or their designees).
</P>
<P>(b) Notifies the State of CMS's preliminary determination that the State has failed to substantially enforce the requirements and that the failure is continuing.
</P>
<P>(c) Permits the State a reasonable opportunity to show evidence of substantial enforcement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.219" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.219   Final determination.</HEAD>
<P>If, after providing notice and a reasonable opportunity for the State to show that it has corrected any failure to substantially enforce, CMS finds that the failure to substantially enforce has not been corrected, it will send the State a written notice of its final determination. The notice includes the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Identification of the PHS Act requirements that CMS is enforcing.
</P>
<P>(b) The effective date of CMS's enforcement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.221" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.221   Transition to State enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If CMS determines that a State for which it has assumed enforcement authority has enacted and implemented legislation to enforce PHS Act requirements and also determines that it is appropriate to return enforcement authority to the State, CMS will enter into discussions with State officials to ensure that a transition is effected with respect to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Consumer complaints and inquiries.
</P>
<P>(2) Instructions to issuers.
</P>
<P>(3) Any other pertinent aspect of operations.
</P>
<P>(b) CMS may also negotiate a process to ensure that, to the extent practicable, and as permitted by law, its records documenting issuer compliance and other relevant areas of CMS's enforcement operations are made available for incorporation into the records of the State regulatory authority that will assume enforcement responsibility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—CMS Enforcement With Respect to Issuers and Non-Federal Governmental Plans—Civil Money Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.301" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.301   General rule regarding the imposition of civil money penalties.</HEAD>
<P>If any health insurance issuer that is subject to CMS's enforcement authority under § 150.101(b)(2), or any non-Federal governmental plan (or employer that sponsors a non-Federal governmental plan) that is subject to CMS's enforcement authority under § 150.101(b)(1), fails to comply with PHS Act requirements, it may be subject to a civil money penalty as described in this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.303" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.303   Basis for initiating an investigation of a potential violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information.</I> Any information that indicates that any issuer may be failing to meet the PHS Act requirements or that any non-Federal governmental plan that is a group health plan as defined in section 2791(a)(1) of the PHS Act and 45 CFR § 144.103 may be failing to meet an applicable PHS Act requirement, may warrant an investigation. CMS may consider, but is not limited to, the following sources or types of information:
</P>
<P>(1) Complaints.
</P>
<P>(2) Reports from State insurance departments, the National Association of Insurance Commissioners, and other Federal and State agencies.
</P>
<P>(3) Any other information that indicates potential noncompliance with PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may file a complaint.</I> Any entity or individual, or any entity or personal representative acting on that individual's behalf, may file a complaint with CMS if he or she believes that a right to which the aggrieved person is entitled under PHS Act requirements is being, or has been, denied or abridged as a result of any action or failure to act on the part of an issuer or other responsible entity as defined in § 150.305.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where a complaint should be directed.</I> A complaint may be directed to any CMS regional office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013; 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.305" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.305   Determination of entity liable for civil money penalty.</HEAD>
<P>If a failure to comply is established under this part, the responsible entity, as determined under this section, is liable for any civil money penalty imposed.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Health insurance issuer is responsible entity</I>—(1) <I>Group health insurance policy.</I> To the extent a group health insurance policy issued, sold, renewed, or offered to a private plan sponsor or a non-Federal governmental plan sponsor is subject to applicable PHS Act requirements, a health insurance issuer is subject to a civil money penalty, irrespective of whether a civil money penalty is imposed under paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section, if the policy itself or the manner in which the policy is marketed or administered fails to comply with an applicable PHS Act requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Individual health insurance policy.</I> To the extent an individual health insurance policy is subject to an applicable PHS Act requirement, a health insurance issuer is subject to a civil money penalty if the policy itself, or the manner in which the policy is marketed or administered, violates any applicable PHS Act requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-Federal governmental plan is responsible entity</I>—(1) <I>Basic rule.</I> If a non-Federal governmental plan is sponsored by two or more employers and fails to comply with an applicable PHS Act requirement, the plan is subject to a civil money penalty, irrespective of whether a civil money penalty is imposed under paragraph (a) of this section. The plan is the responsible entity irrespective of whether the plan is administered by a health insurance issuer, an employer sponsoring the plan, or a third-party administrator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> In the case of a non-Federal governmental plan that is not provided through health insurance coverage, this paragraph (b) does not apply to the extent that the non-Federal governmental employers have elected under § 146.180 to exempt the plan from applicable PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employer is responsible entity</I>—(1) <I>Basic rule.</I> If a non-Federal governmental plan is sponsored by a single employer and fails to comply with an applicable PHS Act requirement, the employer is subject to a civil money penalty, irrespective of whether a civil money penalty is imposed under paragraph (a) of this section. The employer is the responsible entity irrespective of whether the plan is administered by a health insurance issuer, the employer, or a third-party administrator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> In the case of a non-Federal governmental plan that is not provided through health insurance coverage, this paragraph (c) does not apply to the extent the non-Federal governmental employer has elected under § 146.180 to exempt the plan from applicable PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Actions or inactions of agent.</I> A principal is liable for penalties assessed for the actions or inactions of its agent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013; 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.307" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.307   Notice to responsible entities.</HEAD>
<P>If an investigation under § 150.303 indicates a potential violation, CMS provides written notice to the responsible entity or entities identified under § 150.305. The notice does the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Describes the substance of any complaint or other information. 
</P>
<P>(b) Provides 30 days from the date of the notice for the responsible entity or entities to respond with additional information, including documentation of compliance as described in § 150.311.
</P>
<P>(c) States that a civil money penalty may be assessed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 71023, Nov. 25, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.309" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.309   Request for extension.</HEAD>
<P>In circumstances in which an entity cannot prepare a response to CMS within the 30 days provided in the notice, the entity may make a written request for an extension from CMS detailing the reason for the extension request and showing good cause. If CMS grants the extension, the responsible entity must respond to the notice within the time frame specified in CMS's letter granting the extension of time. Failure to respond within 30 days, or within the extended time frame, may result in CMS's imposition of a civil money penalty based upon the complaint or other information alleging or indicating a violation of PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.311" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.311   Responses to allegations of noncompliance.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether to impose a civil money penalty, CMS reviews and considers documentation provided in any complaint or other information, as well as any additional information provided by the responsible entity to demonstrate that it has complied with PHS Act requirements. The following are examples of documentation that a potential responsible entity may submit for CMS's consideration in determining whether a civil money penalty should be assessed and the amount of any civil money penalty:
</P>
<P>(a) Any individual policy, group policy, certificate of insurance, application, rider, amendment, endorsement, certificate of creditable coverage, advertising material, or any other documents if those documents form the basis of a complaint or allegation of noncompliance, or the basis for the responsible entity to refute the complaint or allegation.
</P>
<P>(b) Any other evidence that refutes an alleged noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(c) Evidence that the entity did not know, and exercising due diligence could not have known, of the violation.
</P>
<P>(d) Documentation that the policies, certificates of insurance, or non-Federal governmental plan documents have been amended to comply with PHS Act requirements either by revision of the contracts or by the development of riders, amendments, or endorsements.
</P>
<P>(e) Documentation of the entity's issuance of conforming policies, certificates of insurance, plan documents, or amendments to policyholders or certificate holders before the issuance of the notice to the responsible entity or entities described in § 150.307.
</P>
<P>(f) Evidence documenting the development and implementation of internal policies and procedures by an issuer, or non-Federal governmental health plan or employer, to ensure compliance with PHS Act requirements. Those policies and procedures may include or consist of a voluntary compliance program. Any such program should do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Effectively articulate and demonstrate the fundamental mission of compliance and the issuer's, or non-Federal governmental health plan's or employer's, commitment to the compliance process.
</P>
<P>(2) Include the name of the individual in the organization responsible for compliance.
</P>
<P>(3) Include an effective monitoring system to identify practices that do not comply with PHS Act requirements and to provide reasonable assurance that fraud, abuse, and systemic errors are detected in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(4) Address procedures to improve internal policies when noncompliant practices are identified.
</P>
<P>(g) Evidence documenting the entity's record of previous compliance with PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 71023, Nov. 25, 2005; 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013; 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.313" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.313   Market conduct examinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> A market conduct examination means the examination of health insurance operations of an issuer, or the operation of a non-Federal governmental plan, involving the review of one or more (or a combination) of a responsible entity's business or operational affairs, or both, to verify compliance with PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> If, based on the information described in § 150.303, CMS finds evidence that a specific entity may be in violation of a PHS Act requirement, CMS may initiate a market conduct examination to determine whether the entity is out of compliance. CMS may conduct the examinations either at the site of the issuer or other responsible entity or a site CMS selects. When CMS selects a site, it may direct the issuer or other responsible entity to forward any documentation CMS considers relevant for purposes of the examination to that site.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appointment of examiners.</I> When CMS identifies an issue that warrants investigation, CMS will appoint one or more examiners to perform the examination and instruct them as to the scope of the examination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appointment of professionals and specialists.</I> When conducting an examination under this part, CMS may retain attorneys, independent actuaries, independent market conduct examiners, or other professionals and specialists as examiners.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Report of market conduct examination</I>—(1) <I>CMS review.</I> When CMS receives a report, it will review the report, together with the examination work papers and any other relevant information, and prepare a final report. The final examination report will be provided to the issuer or other responsible entity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response from issuer or other responsible entity.</I> With respect to each examination issue identified in the report, the issuer or other responsible entity may:
</P>
<P>(i) Concur with CMS's position(s) as outlined in the report, explaining the plan of correction to be implemented.
</P>
<P>(ii) Dispute CMS's position(s), clearly outlining the basis for its dispute and submitting illustrative examples where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>CMS's reply to a response from an issuer or other responsible entity.</I> Upon receipt of a response from the issuer or other responsible entity, CMS will provide a letter containing its reply to each examination issue. CMS's reply will consist of one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Concurrence with the issuer's or non-Federal governmental plan's position.
</P>
<P>(ii) Approval of the issuer's or non-Federal governmental plan's proposed plan of correction.
</P>
<P>(iii) Conditional approval of the issuer's or non-Federal governmental plan's proposed plan of correction, which will include any modifications CMS requires.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notice to the issuer or non-Federal governmental plan that there exists a potential violation of PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013; 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.315" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.315   Amount of penalty—General.</HEAD>
<P>A civil money penalty for each violation of 42 U.S.C. 300gg <I>et seq.</I> may not exceed $100 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 for each day, for each responsible entity, for each individual affected by the violation. Penalties imposed under this part are in addition to any other penalties prescribed or allowed by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 81 FR 61581, Sept. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.317" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.317   Factors CMS uses to determine the amount of penalty.</HEAD>
<P>In determining the amount of any civil money penalty, CMS will identify the lawful purpose or purposes of the penalty, and take into account the following factors as appropriate to the circumstances of the case:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>The entity's previous record of compliance.</I> This may include any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any history of prior violations by the responsible entity, including whether, at any time before determination of the current violation or violations, CMS or any State found the responsible entity liable for civil or administrative sanctions in connection with a violation of PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation that the responsible entity has submitted its policy forms to CMS for compliance review.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that the responsible entity has never had a complaint for noncompliance with PHS Act requirements filed with a State or CMS.
</P>
<P>(4) Such other factors as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The gravity of the violation.</I> This may include any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The frequency of the violation, taking into consideration whether any violation is an isolated occurrence, represents a pattern, or is widespread.
</P>
<P>(2) The level of financial and other impacts on affected individuals.
</P>
<P>(3) Other factors as justice may require.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013; 91 FR 29864, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.319" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.319   Determining the amount of the penalty—mitigating circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>For every violation subject to a civil money penalty, if there are substantial or several mitigating circumstances, the aggregate amount of the penalty is set at an amount sufficiently below the maximum permitted by § 150.315 to reflect that fact. As guidelines for taking into account the factors listed in § 150.317, CMS considers the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Record of prior compliance.</I> It should be considered a mitigating circumstance if the responsible entity has done any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Before receipt of the notice issued under § 150.307, implemented and followed a compliance plan as described in § 150.311(f).
</P>
<P>(2) Had no previous complaints against it for noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Gravity of the violation(s).</I> It should be considered a mitigating circumstance if the responsible entity has done any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Made adjustments to its business practices to come into compliance with PHS Act requirements so that the following occur:
</P>
<P>(i) All employers, employees, individuals and non-Federal governmental entities are identified that are or were issued any policy, certificate of insurance or plan document, or any form used in connection therewith that failed to comply.
</P>
<P>(ii) All employers, employees, individuals, and non-Federal governmental plans are identified that were denied coverage or were denied a right provided under PHS Act requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each employer, employee, individual, or non-Federal governmental plan adversely affected by the violation has been, for example, offered coverage or provided a certificate of creditable coverage in a manner that complies with PHS Act requirements that were violated so that, to the extent practicable, that employer, employee, individual, or non-Federal governmental entity is in the same position that he, she, or it would have been in had the violation not occurred.
</P>
<P>(iv) The adjustments are completed in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(2) Discovered areas of noncompliance without notice from CMS and voluntarily reported that noncompliance, provided that the responsible entity submits the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Documentation verifying that the rights and protections of all individuals adversely affected by the noncompliance have been restored; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A plan of correction to prevent future similar violations.
</P>
<P>(3) Demonstrated that the violation is an isolated occurrence.
</P>
<P>(4) Demonstrated that the financial and other impacts on affected individuals is negligible or nonexistent.
</P>
<P>(5) Demonstrated that the noncompliance is correctable and that a high percentage of the violations were corrected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.321" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.321   Determining the amount of penalty—aggravating circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>For every violation subject to a civil money penalty, if there are substantial or several aggravating circumstances, CMS sets the aggregate amount of the penalty at an amount sufficiently close to or at the maximum permitted by § 150.315 to reflect that fact. CMS considers the following circumstances to be aggravating circumstances:
</P>
<P>(a) The frequency of violation indicates a pattern of widespread occurrence.
</P>
<P>(b) The violation(s) resulted in significant financial and other impacts on the average affected individual.
</P>
<P>(c) The entity does not provide documentation showing that substantially all of the violations were corrected.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.323" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.323   Determining the amount of penalty—other matters as justice may require.</HEAD>
<P>CMS may take into account other circumstances of an aggravating or mitigating nature if, in the interests of justice, they require either a reduction or an increase of the penalty in order to assure the achievement of the purposes of this part, and if those circumstances relate to the entity's previous record of compliance or the gravity of the violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.325" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.325   Settlement authority.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in §§ 150.315 through 150.323 limits the authority of CMS to settle any issue or case described in the notice furnished in accordance with § 150.307 or to compromise on any penalty provided for in §§ 150.315 through 150.323.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.341" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.341   Limitations on penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Circumstances under which a civil money penalty is not imposed.</I> CMS does not impose any civil money penalty on any failure for the period of time during which none of the responsible entities knew, or exercising reasonable diligence would have known, of the failure. CMS also does not impose a civil money penalty for the period of time after any of the responsible entities knew, or exercising reasonable diligence would have known of the failure, if the failure was due to reasonable cause and not due to willful neglect and the failure was corrected within 30 days of the first day that any of the entities against whom the penalty would be imposed knew, or exercising reasonable diligence would have known, that the failure existed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Burden of establishing knowledge.</I> The burden is on the responsible entity or entities to establish to CMS's satisfaction that no responsible entity knew, or exercising reasonable diligence would have known, that the failure existed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.343" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.343   Notice of proposed penalty.</HEAD>
<P>If CMS proposes to assess a penalty in accordance with this part, it delivers to the responsible entity, or sends to that entity by certified mail, return receipt requested, written notice of its intent to assess a penalty. The notice includes the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A description of the PHS Act requirements that CMS has determined that the responsible entity violated.
</P>
<P>(b) A description of any complaint or other information upon which CMS based its determination, including the basis for determining the number of affected individuals and the number of days for which the violations occurred.
</P>
<P>(c) The amount of the proposed penalty as of the date of the notice.
</P>
<P>(d) Any circumstances described in §§ 150.317 through 150.323 that were considered when determining the amount of the proposed penalty.
</P>
<P>(e) A specific statement of the responsible entity's right to a hearing.
</P>
<P>(f) A statement that failure to request a hearing within 30 days permits the assessment of the proposed penalty without right of appeal in accordance with § 150.347.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.345" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.345   Appeal of proposed penalty.</HEAD>
<P>Any entity against which CMS has assessed a penalty may appeal that penalty in accordance with § 150.401 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.347" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.347   Failure to request a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If the responsible entity does not request a hearing within 30 days of the issuance of the notice described in § 150.343, CMS may assess the proposed civil money penalty, a less severe penalty, or a more severe penalty. CMS notifies the responsible entity in writing of any penalty that has been assessed and of the means by which the responsible entity may satisfy the judgment. The responsible entity has no right to appeal a penalty with respect to which it has not requested a hearing in accordance with § 150.405 unless the responsible entity can show good cause, as determined under § 150.405(b), for failing to timely exercise its right to a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Administrative Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.401" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.401   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this subpart, unless the context indicates otherwise:
</P>
<P><I>ALJ</I> means administrative law judge of the Departmental Appeals Board of the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Filing date</I> means the date filed electronically.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing</I> includes a hearing on a written record as well as an in-person, telephone, or video teleconference hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means CMS or the respondent.
</P>
<P><I>Receipt date</I> means five days after the date of a document, unless there is a showing that it was in fact received later.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means an entity that received a notice of proposed assessment of a civil money penalty issued pursuant to § 150.343.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.403" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.403   Scope of ALJ's authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ has the authority, including all of the authority conferred by the Administrative Procedure Act, to adopt whatever procedures may be necessary or proper to carry out in an efficient and effective manner the ALJ's duty to provide a fair and impartial hearing on the record and to issue an initial decision concerning the imposition of a civil money penalty.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ's authority includes the authority to modify, consistent with the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), any hearing procedures set out in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ does not have the authority to find invalid or refuse to follow Federal statutes or regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.405" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.405   Filing of request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A respondent has a right to a hearing before an ALJ if it files a request for hearing that complies with § 150.407(a), within 30 days after the date of issuance of either CMS's notice of proposed assessment under § 150.343 or notice that an alternative dispute resolution process has terminated. The request for hearing should be addressed as instructed in the notice of proposed determination. “Date of issuance” is five (5) days after the filing date, unless there is a showing that the document was received earlier.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ may extend the time for filing a request for hearing only if the ALJ finds that the respondent was prevented by events or circumstances beyond its control from filing its request within the time specified above. Any request for an extension of time must be made promptly by written motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.407" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.407   Form and content of request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The request for hearing must do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify any factual or legal bases for the assessment with which the respondent disagrees.
</P>
<P>(2) Describe with reasonable specificity the basis for the disagreement, including any affirmative facts or legal arguments on which the respondent is relying.
</P>
<P>(b) The request for hearing must identify the relevant notice of assessment by date and attach a copy of the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.409" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.409   Amendment of notice of assessment or request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The ALJ may permit CMS to amend its notice of assessment, or permit the respondent to amend a request for hearing that complies with § 150.407(a), if the ALJ finds that no undue prejudice to either party will result.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.411" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.411   Dismissal of request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>An ALJ will order a request for hearing dismissed if the ALJ determines that:
</P>
<P>(a) The request for hearing was not filed within 30 days as specified by § 150.405(a) or any extension of time granted by the ALJ pursuant to § 150.405(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The request for hearing fails to meet the requirements of § 150.407.
</P>
<P>(c) The entity that filed the request for hearing is not a respondent under § 150.401.
</P>
<P>(d) The respondent has abandoned its request.
</P>
<P>(e) The respondent withdraws its request for hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.413" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.413   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>CMS has exclusive authority to settle any issue or any case, without the consent of the administrative law judge at any time before or after the administrative law judge's decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.415" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.415   Intervention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may grant the request of an entity, other than the respondent, to intervene if all of the following occur:
</P>
<P>(1) The entity has a significant interest relating to the subject matter of the case.
</P>
<P>(2) Disposition of the case will, as a practical matter, likely impair or impede the entity's ability to protect that interest.
</P>
<P>(3) The entity's interest is not adequately represented by the existing parties.
</P>
<P>(4) The intervention will not unduly delay or prejudice the adjudication of the rights of the existing parties.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for intervention must specify the grounds for intervention and the manner in which the entity seeks to participate in the proceedings. Any participation by an intervenor must be in the manner and by any deadline set by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department of Labor or the IRS may intervene without regard to paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.417" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.417   Issues to be heard and decided by ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ has the authority to hear and decide the following issues:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether a basis exists to assess a civil money penalty against the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the amount of the assessed civil money penalty is reasonable.
</P>
<P>(b) In deciding whether the amount of a civil money penalty is reasonable, the ALJ—
</P>
<P>(1) Applies the factors that are identified in § 150.317.
</P>
<P>(2) May consider evidence of record relating to any factor that CMS did not apply in making its initial determination, so long as that factor is identified in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) If the ALJ finds that a basis exists to assess a civil money penalty, the ALJ may sustain, reduce, or increase the penalty that CMS assessed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.419" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.419   Forms of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All hearings before an ALJ are on the record. The ALJ may receive argument or testimony in writing, in person, by telephone, or by video teleconference. The ALJ may receive testimony by telephone only if the ALJ determines that doing so is in the interest of justice and economy and that no party will be unduly prejudiced. The ALJ may require submission of a witness' direct testimony in writing only if the witness is available for cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ may decide a case based solely on the written record where there is no disputed issue of material fact the resolution of which requires the receipt of oral testimony.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.421" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.421   Appearance of counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Any attorney who is to appear on behalf of a party must promptly file, with the ALJ, a notice of appearance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.423" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.423   Communications with the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>No party or person (except employees of the ALJ's office) may communicate in any way with the ALJ on any matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for both parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a party or person from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.425" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.425   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any request to the ALJ for an order or ruling must be by motion, stating the relief sought, the authority relied upon, and the facts alleged. All motions must be in writing, with a copy served on the opposing party, except in either of the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) The motion is presented during an oral proceeding before an ALJ at which both parties have the opportunity to be present.
</P>
<P>(2) An extension of time is being requested by agreement of the parties or with waiver of objections by the opposing party.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specified in this subpart, any response or opposition to a motion must be filed within 20 days of the party's receipt of the motion. The ALJ does not rule on a motion before the time for filing a response to the motion has expired except where the response is filed at an earlier date, where the opposing party consents to the motion being granted, or where the ALJ determines that the motion should be denied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.427" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.427   Form and service of submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every submission filed with the ALJ must be filed electronically and include:
</P>
<P>(1) A caption on the first page, setting forth the title of the case, the docket number (if known), and a description of the submission (such as “Motion for Discovery”).
</P>
<P>(2) The signatory's name, address, and telephone number.
</P>
<P>(3) A signed certificate of service, specifying each address to which a copy of the submission is sent, the date on which it is sent, and the method of service.
</P>
<P>(b) A party filing a submission with the ALJ must, at the time of filing, serve a copy of such submission on the opposing party. An intervenor filing a submission with the ALJ must, at the time of filing, serve a copy of the submission on all parties. If a party is represented by an attorney, service must be made on the attorney. An electronically filed submission is considered served on all parties using the electronic filing system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.429" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.429   Computation of time and extensions of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this subpart, in computing any period of time, the time begins with the day following the act, event, or default and includes the last day of the period unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday observed by the Federal government, in which event it includes the next business day. When the period of time allowed is less than seven days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays observed by the Federal government are excluded from the computation.
</P>
<P>(b) The period of time for filing any responsive pleading or papers is determined by the date of receipt (as defined in § 150.401) of the submission to which a response is being made.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ may grant extensions of the filing deadlines specified in these regulations or set by the ALJ for good cause shown (except that requests for extensions of time to file a request for hearing may be granted only on the grounds specified in section § 150.405(b)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.431" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.431   Acknowledgment of request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>After receipt of the request for hearing, the ALJ assigned to the case or someone acting on behalf of the ALJ will send a written notice to the parties that acknowledges receipt of the request for hearing, identifies the docket number assigned to the case, and provides instructions for filing submissions and other general information concerning procedures. The ALJ will set out the next steps in the case either as part of the acknowledgement or on a later date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.435" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.435   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parties must identify any need for discovery from the opposing party as soon as possible, but no later than the time for the reply specified in § 150.437(c). Upon request of a party, the ALJ may stay proceedings for a reasonable period pending completion of discovery if the ALJ determines that a party would not be able to make the submissions required by § 150.437 without discovery. The parties should attempt to resolve any discovery issues informally before seeking an order from the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) Discovery devices may include requests for production of documents, requests for admission, interrogatories, depositions, and stipulations. The ALJ orders interrogatories or depositions only if these are the only means to develop the record adequately on an issue that the ALJ must resolve to decide the case.
</P>
<P>(c) Each discovery request must be responded to within 30 days of receipt, unless that period of time is extended for good cause by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(d) A party to whom a discovery request is directed may object in writing for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(1) Compliance with the request is unduly burdensome or expensive.
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance with the request will unduly delay the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(3) The request seeks information that is wholly outside of any matter in dispute.
</P>
<P>(4) The request seeks privileged information. Any party asserting a claim of privilege must sufficiently describe the information or document being withheld to show that the privilege applies. If an asserted privilege applies to only part of a document, a party withholding the entire document must state why the nonprivileged part is not segregable.
</P>
<P>(e) Any motion to compel discovery must be filed within 10 days after receipt of objections to the party's discovery request, within 10 days after the time for response to the discovery request has elapsed if no response is received, or within 10 days after receipt of an incomplete response to the discovery request. The motion must be reasonably specific as to the information or document sought and must state its relevance to the issues in the case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.437" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.437   Submission of briefs and proposed hearing exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days of its receipt of the acknowledgment provided for in § 150.431, the respondent must file the following with the ALJ:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of its arguments concerning CMS's notice of assessment (respondent's brief), including citations to the respondent's hearing exhibits provided in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The brief may not address factual or legal bases for the assessment that the respondent did not identify as disputed in its request for hearing or in an amendment to that request permitted by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(2) All documents (including any affidavits) supporting its arguments, tabbed and organized chronologically and accompanied by an indexed list identifying each document (respondent's proposed hearing exhibits).
</P>
<P>(3) A statement regarding whether there is a need for an in-person hearing and, if so, a list of proposed witnesses and a summary of their expected testimony that refers to any factual dispute to which the testimony will relate.
</P>
<P>(4) Any stipulations or admissions.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 30 days of its receipt of the respondent's submission required by paragraph (a) of this section, CMS will file the following with the ALJ:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement responding to the respondent's brief, including the respondent's proposed hearing exhibits, if appropriate. The statement may include citations to CMS's proposed hearing exhibits submitted in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any documents supporting CMS's response not already submitted as part of the respondent's proposed hearing exhibits, organized and indexed as indicated in paragraph (a)(2) of this section (CMS's proposed hearing exhibits).
</P>
<P>(3) A statement regarding whether there is a need for an in-person hearing and, if so, a list of proposed witnesses and a summary of their expected testimony that refers to any factual dispute to which the testimony will relate.
</P>
<P>(4) Any admissions or stipulations.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 15 days of its receipt of CMS's submission required by paragraph (b) of this section, the respondent may file with the ALJ a reply to CMS's submission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.439" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.439   Effect of submission of proposed hearing exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any proposed hearing exhibit submitted by a party in accordance with § 150.437 is deemed part of the record unless the opposing party raises an objection to that exhibit and the ALJ rules to exclude it from the record. An objection must be raised either in writing prior to the prehearing conference provided for in § 150.441 or at the prehearing conference. The ALJ may require a party to submit the original hearing exhibit on his or her own motion or in response to a challenge to the authenticity of a proposed hearing exhibit.
</P>
<P>(b) A party may introduce a proposed hearing exhibit following the times for submission specified in § 150.437 only if the party establishes to the satisfaction of the ALJ that it could not have produced the exhibit earlier and that the opposing party will not be prejudiced.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.441" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.441   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>An ALJ may schedule one or more prehearing conferences (generally conducted by telephone) on the ALJ's own motion or at the request of either party for the purpose of any of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Hearing argument on any outstanding discovery request.
</P>
<P>(b) Establishing a schedule for any supplements to the submissions required by § 150.437 because of information obtained through discovery.
</P>
<P>(c) Hearing argument on a motion.
</P>
<P>(d) Discussing whether the parties can agree to submission of the case on a stipulated record.
</P>
<P>(e) Establishing a schedule for an in-person, telephone, or video teleconference hearing, including setting deadlines for the submission of written direct testimony or for the written reports of experts.
</P>
<P>(f) Discussing whether the issues for a hearing can be simplified or narrowed.
</P>
<P>(g) Discussing potential settlement of the case.
</P>
<P>(h) Discussing any other procedural or substantive issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.443" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.443   Standard of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In all cases before an ALJ—
</P>
<P>(1) CMS has the burden of coming forward with evidence sufficient to establish a prima facie case;
</P>
<P>(2) The respondent has the burden of coming forward with evidence in response, once CMS has established a prima facie case; and
</P>
<P>(3) CMS has the burden of persuasion regarding facts material to the assessment; and
</P>
<P>(4) The respondent has the burden of persuasion regarding facts relating to an affirmative defense.
</P>
<P>(b) The preponderance of the evidence standard applies to all cases before the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.445" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.445   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will determine the admissibility of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in this part, the ALJ will not be bound by the Federal Rules of Evidence. However, the ALJ may apply the Federal Rules of Evidence where appropriate; for example, to exclude unreliable evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ excludes irrelevant or immaterial evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or by considerations of undue delay or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.
</P>
<P>(e) Although relevant, evidence is excluded if it is privileged under Federal law.
</P>
<P>(f) Evidence concerning offers of compromise or settlement made in this action will be inadmissible to the extent provided in the Federal Rules of Evidence.
</P>
<P>(g) Evidence of acts other than those at issue in the instant case is admissible in determining the amount of any civil money penalty if those acts are used under §§ 150.317 and 150.323 of this part to consider the entity's prior record of compliance, or to show motive, opportunity, intent, knowledge, preparation, identity, or lack of mistake. This evidence is admissible regardless of whether the acts occurred during the statute of limitations period applicable to the acts that constitute the basis for liability in the case and regardless of whether CMS's notice sent in accordance with §§ 150.307 and 150.343 referred to them.
</P>
<P>(h) The ALJ will permit the parties to introduce rebuttal witnesses and evidence.
</P>
<P>(i) All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record will be open to examination by all parties, unless the ALJ orders otherwise for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(j) The ALJ may not consider evidence regarding the willingness and ability to enter into and successfully complete a corrective action plan when that evidence pertains to matters occurring after CMS's notice under § 150.307.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.447" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.447   The record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any testimony that is taken in-person by telephone, or by video teleconference is recorded and transcribed. The ALJ may order that other proceedings in a case, such as a prehearing conference or oral argument of a motion, be recorded and transcribed.
</P>
<P>(b) The transcript of any testimony, exhibits and other evidence that is admitted, and all pleadings and other documents that are filed in the case constitute the record for purposes of an ALJ decision.
</P>
<P>(c) For good cause, the ALJ may order appropriate redactions made to the record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.449" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.449   Cost of transcripts.</HEAD>
<P>Generally, each party is responsible for 50 percent of the transcript cost. Where there is an intervenor, the ALJ determines what percentage of the transcript cost is to be paid for by the intervenor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.451" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.451   Posthearing briefs.</HEAD>
<P>Each party is entitled to file proposed findings and conclusions, and supporting reasons, in a posthearing brief. The ALJ will establish the schedule by which such briefs must be filed. The ALJ may direct the parties to brief specific questions in a case and may impose page limits on posthearing briefs. Additionally, the ALJ may allow the parties to file posthearing reply briefs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.453" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.453   ALJ decision.</HEAD>
<P>The ALJ will issue an initial agency decision based only on the record and on applicable law; the decision will contain findings of fact and conclusions of law. The ALJ's decision is final and appealable after 30 days unless it is modified or vacated under § 150.457.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.455" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.455   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may sanction a party or an attorney for failing to comply with an order or other directive or with a requirement of a regulation, for abandonment of a case, or for other actions that interfere with the speedy, orderly or fair conduct of the hearing. Any sanction that is imposed will relate reasonably to the severity and nature of the failure or action.
</P>
<P>(b) A sanction may include any of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of failure or refusal to provide or permit discovery, drawing negative fact inferences or treating such failure or refusal as an admission by deeming the matter, or certain facts, to be established.
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibiting a party from introducing certain evidence or otherwise advocating a particular claim or defense.
</P>
<P>(3) Striking pleadings, in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(4) Staying the case.
</P>
<P>(5) Dismissing the case.
</P>
<P>(6) Entering a decision by default.
</P>
<P>(7) Refusing to consider any motion or other document that is not filed in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(8) Taking other appropriate action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.457" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.457   Review by Administrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator of CMS (which for purposes of this subsection may include his or her delegate), at his or her discretion, may review in whole or in part any initial agency decision issued under § 150.453.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator may decide to review an initial agency decision if it appears from a preliminary review of the decision (or from a preliminary review of the record on which the initial agency decision was based, if available at the time) that:
</P>
<P>(1) The ALJ made an erroneous interpretation of law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) The initial agency decision is not supported by substantial evidence.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ has incorrectly assumed or denied jurisdiction or extended his or her authority to a degree not provided for by statute or regulation.
</P>
<P>(4) The ALJ decision requires clarification, amplification, or an alternative legal basis for the decision.
</P>
<P>(5) The ALJ decision otherwise requires modification, reversal, or remand.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 days of the date of the initial agency decision, the Administrator will mail a notice advising the respondent of any intent to review the decision in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 30 days of receipt of a notice that the Administrator intends to review an initial agency decision, the respondent may submit, in writing, to the Administrator any arguments in support of, or exceptions to, the initial agency decision.
</P>
<P>(e) This submission of the information indicated in paragraph (d) of this section must be limited to issues the Administrator has identified in his or her notice of intent to review, if the Administrator has given notice of an intent to review the initial agency decision only in part. A copy of this submission must be sent to the other party.
</P>
<P>(f) After receipt of any submissions made pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section and any additional submissions for which the Administrator may provide, the Administrator will affirm, reverse, modify, or remand the initial agency decision. The Administrator will mail a copy of his or her decision to the respondent.
</P>
<P>(g) The Administrator's decision will be based on the record on which the initial agency decision was based (as forwarded by the ALJ to the Administrator) and any materials submitted pursuant to paragraphs (b), (d), and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) The Administrator's decision may rely on decisions of any courts and other applicable law, whether or not cited in the initial agency decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.459" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.459   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of an action for review.</I> Any responsible entity against whom a final order imposing a civil money penalty is entered may obtain review in the United States District Court for any district in which the entity is located or in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia by doing the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Filing a notice of appeal in that court within 30 days from the date of a final order.
</P>
<P>(2) Simultaneously sending a copy of the notice of appeal by registered mail to CMS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification of administrative record.</I> CMS promptly certifies and files with the court the record upon which the penalty was assessed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standard of review.</I> The findings of CMS and the ALJ may not be set aside unless they are found to be unsupported by substantial evidence, as provided by 5 U.S.C. 706(2)(E).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.461" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.461   Failure to pay assessment.</HEAD>
<P>If any entity fails to pay an assessment after it becomes a final order, or after the court has entered final judgment in favor of CMS, CMS refers the matter to the Attorney General, who brings an action against the entity in the appropriate United States district court to recover the amount assessed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.463" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.463   Final order not subject to review.</HEAD>
<P>In an action brought under § 150.461, the validity and appropriateness of the final order described in § 150.459 is not subject to review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.465" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.8.4.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.465   Collection and use of penalty funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any funds collected under § 150.461 are paid to CMS.
</P>
<P>(b) The funds are available without appropriation until expended.
</P>
<P>(c) The funds may be used only for the purpose of enforcing the PHS Act requirements for which the penalty was assessed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 45795, Aug. 20, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="151" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 151 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="152" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 152—PRE-EXISTING CONDITION INSURANCE PLAN PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 1101 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Pub. L. 111-148).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 45029, July 30, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.1" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.1   Statutory basis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This part establishes provisions needed to implement section 1101 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 (Affordable Care Act), which requires the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services to establish a temporary high risk health insurance pool program to provide health insurance coverage for individuals described in § 152.14 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part establishes standards and sets forth the requirements, limitations, and procedures for the temporary high risk health insurance pool program, hereafter referred to as the “Pre-Existing Condition Insurance Plan” (PCIP) program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.2" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Creditable coverage</I> means coverage of an individual as defined in section 2701(c)(1) of the Public Health Service Act as of March 23, 2010 and 45 CFR 146.113(a)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Enrollee</I> means an individual receiving coverage from a PCIP established under this section.


</P>
<P><I>Lawfully present</I> has the meaning given the term at 45 CFR 155.20.




</P>
<P><I>Out-of-pocket costs</I> means the sum of the annual deductible and the other annual out-of-pocket expenses, other than for premiums, required to be paid under the program.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-Existing condition exclusion</I> has the meaning given such term in 45 CFR 144.103.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-Existing Condition Insurance Plan (PCIP)</I> means the temporary high risk health insurance pool plan (sometimes referred to as a “qualified high risk pool”) that provides coverage in a State, or combination of States, in accordance with the requirements of section 1101 of the Affordable Care Act and this part. The term “PCIP program” is generally used to describe the national program the Secretary is charged with carrying out, under which States or non-profit entities operate individual PCIPs.
</P>
<P><I>Resident</I> means an individual who has been legally domiciled in a State.
</P>
<P><I>Service Area</I> refers to the geographic area encompassing an entire State or States in which PCIP furnishes benefits.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> refers each of the 50 States and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 45029, July 30, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 52616, Aug. 30, 2012; 89 FR 39436, May 8, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—PCIP Program Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.6" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.6   Program administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Section 1101(b)(1) of the Affordable Care Act requires that HHS carry out the Pre-Existing Condition Insurance Plan program directly or through contracts with eligible entities, which are States or nonprofit private entities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administration by State.</I> A State (or its designated non-profit private entity) may submit a proposal to enter into a contract with HHS to establish and administer a PCIP in accordance with section 1101 of the Affordable Care Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(1) At the Secretary's discretion, a State may designate a nonprofit entity or entities to contract with HHS to administer a PCIP.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of its administrative approach, a State or designated entity may subcontract with either a for-profit or nonprofit entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administration by HHS.</I> If a State or its designated entity notifies HHS that it will not establish or continue to administer a PCIP, or does not submit an acceptable or timely proposal to do so, HHS will contract with a nonprofit private entity or entities to administer a PCIP in that State.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition in administration.</I> The Secretary may consider a request from a State to transition from administration by HHS to administration by a State or from administration by a State to administration by HHS. Such transitions shall be approved only if the Secretary determines that the transition is in the best interests of the PCIP enrollees and potential PCIP enrollees in that state, consistent with § 152.7(b) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.7" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.7   PCIP proposal process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A proposal from a State or nonprofit private entity to contract with HHS shall demonstrate that the eligible entity has the capacity and technical capability to perform all functions necessary for the design and operation of a PCIP, and that its proposed PCIP is in full compliance with all of the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rules for transitions in administration.</I> (1) Transitions from HHS administration of a PCIP to State administration must take effect on January 1 of a given year.
</P>
<P>(2) A State's proposal to administer a PCIP must meet all the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Transitions from State administration to HHS administration must comply with the termination procedures of the PCIP contract in effect with the State or its designated entity.
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary may establish other requirements needed to ensure a seamless transition of coverage for all existing enrollees.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Eligibility and Enrollment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.14" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.14   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An individual is eligible to enroll in a PCIP if he or she:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a citizen or national of the United States or lawfully present in the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraph (b) of this section, has not been covered under creditable coverage for a continuous 6-month period of time prior to the date on which such individual is applying for PCIP;
</P>
<P>(3) Has a pre-existing condition as established under paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is a resident of one of the 50 States or the District of Columbia which constitutes or is within the service area of the PCIP. A PCIP may not establish any standards with regard to the duration of residency in the PCIP service area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Satisfaction of 6-month creditable coverage requirement when an enrollee leaves the PCIP service area.</I> An individual who becomes ineligible for a PCIP on the basis of no longer residing in the PCIP's service area as described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section is deemed to have satisfied the requirement in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for purposes of applying to enroll in a PCIP in the new service area.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pre-existing condition requirement.</I> For purposes of establishing a process for determining eligibility, and subject to HHS approval, a PCIP may elect to apply any one or more of the following criteria in determining whether an individual has a pre-existing condition for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Refusal of coverage.</I> Documented evidence that an insurer has refused, or a clear indication that the insurer would refuse, to issue coverage to an individual on grounds related to the individual's health.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusion of coverage.</I> Documented evidence that such individual has been offered coverage but only with a rider that excludes coverage of benefits associated with an individuals' identified pre-existing condition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Medical or health condition.</I> Documented evidence of the existence or history of certain medical or health condition, as approved or specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other.</I> Other criteria, as defined by a PCIP and approved by HHS.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.15" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.15   Enrollment and disenrollment process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enrollment process.</I> (1) A PCIP must establish a process for verifying eligibility and enrolling an individual that is approved by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) A PCIP must allow an individual to remain enrolled in the PCIP unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual is disenrolled under paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual obtains other creditable coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) The PCIP program terminates, or is terminated; or
</P>
<P>(iv) As specified by the PCIP program and approved by HHS.
</P>
<P>(3) A PCIP must verify that an individual is a United States citizen or national or lawfully present in the United States by:
</P>
<P>(i) Verifying the individual's citizenship, nationality, or lawful presence with the Commissioner of Security or Secretary of Homeland Security as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By requiring the individual to provide documentation which establishes the individual's citizenship, nationality, or lawful presence.
</P>
<P>(iii) The PCIP must provide an individual who is applying to enroll in the PCIP with a disclosure specifying if the information will be shared with the Department of Health and Human Services, Social Security Administration, and if necessary, Department of Homeland Security for purposes of establishing eligibility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disenrollment process.</I> (1) A PCIP must establish a disenrollment process that is approved by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) A PCIP may disenroll an individual if the monthly premium is not paid on a timely basis, following notice and a reasonable grace period, not to exceed 61 days from when payment is due, as defined by the PCIP and approved by HHS.
</P>
<P>(3) A PCIP must disenroll an individual in any of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual no longer resides in the PCIP service area.
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual obtains other creditable coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Death of the individual.
</P>
<P>(iv) Other exceptional circumstances established by HHS.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective dates.</I> A PCIP must establish rules governing the effective date of enrollment and disenrollment that are approved by HHS. A complete enrollment request submitted by an eligible individual by the 15th day of a month, where the individual is determined to be eligible for enrollment, must take effect by the 1st day of the following month, except in exceptional circumstances that are subject to HHS approval.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Funding limitation.</I> A PCIP may stop taking applications for enrollment to comply with funding limitations established by the HHS under section 1101(g) of Public Law 111-148 and § 152.35 of this part. Accordingly, a PCIP may employ strategies to manage enrollment over the course of the program that may include enrollment capacity limits, phased-in (delayed) enrollment, and other measures, as defined by the PCIP and approved by HHS, including measures specified under § 152.35(b).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Benefits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.19" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.19   Covered benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required benefits.</I> Each benefit plan offered by a PCIP shall cover at least the following categories and the items and services:
</P>
<P>(1) Hospital inpatient services
</P>
<P>(2) Hospital outpatient services
</P>
<P>(3) Mental health and substance abuse services
</P>
<P>(4) Professional services for the diagnosis or treatment of injury, illness, or condition
</P>
<P>(5) Non-custodial skilled nursing services
</P>
<P>(6) Home health services
</P>
<P>(7) Durable medical equipment and supplies
</P>
<P>(8) Diagnostic x-rays and laboratory tests
</P>
<P>(9) Physical therapy services (occupational therapy, physical therapy, speech therapy)
</P>
<P>(10) Hospice
</P>
<P>(11) Emergency services, consistent with § 152.22(b), and ambulance services
</P>
<P>(12) Prescription drugs
</P>
<P>(13) Preventive care
</P>
<P>(14) Maternity care
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Excluded services.</I> Benefit plans offered by a PCIP shall not cover the following services:
</P>
<P>(1) Cosmetic surgery or other treatment for cosmetic purposes except to restore bodily function or correct deformity resulting from disease.
</P>
<P>(2) Custodial care except for hospice care associated with the palliation of terminal illness.
</P>
<P>(3) In vitro fertilization, artificial insemination or any other artificial means used to cause pregnancy.
</P>
<P>(4) Abortion services except when the life of the woman would be endangered or when the pregnancy is the result of an act of rape or incest.
</P>
<P>(5) Experimental care except as part of an FDA-approved clinical trial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.20" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.20   Prohibitions on pre-existing condition exclusions and waiting periods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-existing condition exclusions.</I> A PCIP must provide all enrollees with health coverage that does not impose any pre-existing condition exclusions (as defined in § 152.2) with respect to such coverage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiting periods.</I> A PCIP may not impose a waiting period with respect to the coverage of services after the effective date of enrollment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.21" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.21   Premiums and cost-sharing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitation on enrollee premiums.</I> (1) The premiums charged under the PCIP may not exceed 100 percent of the premium for the applicable standard risk rate that would apply to the coverage offered in the State or States. The PCIP shall determine a standard risk rate by considering the premium rates charged for similar benefits and cost-sharing by other insurers offering health insurance coverage to individuals in the applicable State or States. The standard risk rate shall be established using reasonable actuarial techniques, that are approved by the Secretary, and that reflect anticipated experience and expenses. A PCIP may not use other methods of determining the standard rate, except with the approval of the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) Premiums charged to enrollees in the PCIP may vary on the basis of age by a factor not greater than 4 to 1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation on enrollee costs.</I> (1) The PCIP's average share of the total allowed costs of the PCIP benefits must be at least 65 percent of such costs.
</P>
<P>(2) The out-of-pocket limit of coverage for cost-sharing for covered services under the PCIP may not be greater than the applicable amount described in section 223(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue code of 1986 for the year involved. If the plan uses a network of providers, this limit may be applied only for in-network providers, consistent with the terms of PCIP benefit package.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition on balance billing in the PCIP administered by HHS.</I> A facility or provider that accepts payment under § 152.35(c)(2) for a covered service furnished to an enrollee may not bill the enrollee for an amount greater than the cost-sharing amount for the covered service calculated by the PCIP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 45029, July 30, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 30226, May 22, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.22" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.22   Access to services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A PCIP may specify the networks of providers from whom enrollees may obtain plan services. The PCIP must demonstrate to HHS that it has a sufficient number and range of providers to ensure that all covered services are reasonably available and accessible to its enrollees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency services.</I> In the case of emergency services, such services must be covered out of network if:
</P>
<P>(1) The enrollee had a reasonable concern that failure to obtain immediate treatment could present a serious risk to his or her life or health; and
</P>
<P>(2) The services were required to assess whether a condition requiring immediate treatment exists, or to provide such immediate treatment where warranted.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Oversight</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.26" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.26   Appeals procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A PCIP shall establish and maintain procedures for individuals to appeal eligibility and coverage determinations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum requirements.</I> The appeals procedure must, at a minimum, provide:
</P>
<P>(1) A potential enrollee with the right to a timely redetermination by the PCIP or its designee of a determination regarding PCIP eligibility, including a determination of whether the individual is a citizen or national of the United States, or is lawfully present in the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) An enrollee with the right to a timely redetermination by the PCIP or its designee of a determination regarding the coverage of a service or the amount paid by the PCIP for a service.
</P>
<P>(3) An enrollee with the right to a timely reconsideration of a redetermination made under paragraph (b)(2) of this section by an entity independent of the PCIP.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.27" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.27   Fraud, waste, and abuse.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures.</I> The PCIP shall develop, implement, and execute operating procedures to prevent, detect, recover (when applicable or allowable), and promptly report to HHS incidences of waste, fraud, and abuse, and to appropriate law enforcement authorities instances of fraud. Such procedures shall include identifying situations in which enrollees or potential enrollees (or their family members) are employed, and may have, or have had, access to other coverage such as group health coverage, but were discouraged from enrolling.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cooperation.</I> The PCIP shall cooperate with Federal law enforcement and oversight authorities in cases involving waste, fraud and abuse, and shall report to appropriate authorities situations in which enrollment in other coverage may have been discouraged.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.28" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.28   Preventing insurer dumping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> If it is determined based on the procedures and criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section that a health insurance issuer or group health plan has discouraged an individual from remaining enrolled in coverage offered by such issuer or health plan based on the individual's health status, if the individual subsequently enrolls in a PCIP under this part, the issuer or health plan will be responsible for any medical expenses incurred by the PCIP with respect to the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures and criteria for a determination of dumping.</I> A PCIP shall establish procedures to identify and report to HHS instances in which health insurance issuers or employer-based group health plans are discouraging high-risk individuals from remaining enrolled in their current coverage in instances in which such individuals subsequently are eligible to enroll in the qualified high risk pool. Such procedures shall include methods to identify the following circumstances, either through the PCIP enrollment application form or other vehicles:
</P>
<P>(1) Situations where an enrollee or potential enrollee had prior coverage obtained through a group health plan or issuer, and the individual was provided financial consideration or other rewards for disenrolling from their coverage, or disincentives for remaining enrolled.
</P>
<P>(2) Situations where enrollees or potential enrollees had prior coverage obtained directly from an issuer or a group health plan and either of the following occurred:
</P>
<P>(i) The premium for the prior coverage was increased to an amount that exceeded the premium required by the PCIP (adjusted based on the age factors applied to the prior coverage), and this increase was not otherwise explained;
</P>
<P>(ii) The health plan, issuer or employer otherwise provided money or other financial consideration to disenroll from coverage, or disincentive to remain enrolled in such coverage. Such considerations include payment of the PCIP premium for an enrollee or potential enrollee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Remedies.</I> If the Secretary determines, based on the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section, that the rule in paragraph (a) of this section applies, an issuer or a group health plan will be billed for the medical expenses incurred by the PCIP. The issuer or group health plan also will be referred to appropriate Federal and State authorities for other enforcement actions that may be warranted based on the behavior at issue.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other.</I> Nothing in this section may be construed as constituting exclusive remedies for violations of this section or as preventing States from applying or enforcing this section or other provisions of law with respect to health insurance issuers.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Funding</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.32" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.32   Use of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitation on use of funding.</I> All funds awarded through the contracts established under this program must be used exclusively to pay allowable claims and administrative costs incurred in the development and operation of the PCIP that are in excess of the amounts of premiums collected from individuals enrolled in the program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation on administrative expenses.</I> No more than 10 percent of available funds shall be used for administrative expenses over the life of the contract with the PCIP, absent approval from HHS.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.33" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.33   Initial allocation of funds.</HEAD>
<P>HHS will establish an initial ceiling for the amount of the $5 billion in Federal funds allocated for PCIPs in each State using a methodology consistent with that used to established allocations under the Children's Health Insurance Program, as set forth under 42 CFR part 457, subpart F, Payment to States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.34" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.34   Reallocation of funds.</HEAD>
<P>If HHS determines, based on actual and projected enrollment and claims experience, that the PCIP in a given State will not make use of the total estimated funding allocated to that State, HHS may reallocate unused funds to other States, as needed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.35" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.35   Insufficient funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adjustments by a PCIP to eliminate a deficit.</I> In the event that a PCIP determines, based on actual and projected enrollment and claims data, that its allocated funds are insufficient to cover projected PCIP expenses, the PCIP shall report such insufficiency to HHS, and identify and implement necessary adjustments to eliminate such deficit, subject to HHS approval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjustment by the Secretary.</I> If the Secretary estimates that aggregate amounts available for PCIP expenses will be less than the actual amount of expenses, HHS reserves the right to make such adjustments as are necessary to eliminate such deficit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment rates for covered services furnished beginning June 15, 2013 to enrollees in the PCIP administered by HHS.</I> (1) Covered services furnished under the prescription drug, organ/tissue transplant, dialysis and durable medical equipment benefits will be paid at the payment rates that are in effect on June 15, 2013.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to all other covered services, the payment rates will be—
</P>
<P>(i) 100 percent of Medicare payment rates; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Where Medicare payment rates cannot be implemented by the federally-administered PCIP, 50 percent of billed charges or a rate using a relative value scale pricing methodology.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 45029, July 30, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 30226, May 22, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Relationship to Existing Laws and Programs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.39" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.39   Maintenance of effort.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A State that enters into a contract with HHS under this part must demonstrate, subject to approval by HHS, that it will continue to provide funding of any existing high risk pool in the State at a level that is not reduced from the amount provided for in the year prior to the year in which the contract is entered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to maintain efforts.</I> In situations where a State enters into a contract with HHS under this part, HHS shall take appropriate action, such as terminating the PCIP contract, against any State that fails to maintain funding levels for existing State high risk pools as required, and approved by HHS, under paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.40" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.40   Relation to State laws.</HEAD>
<P>The standards established under this section shall supersede any State law or regulation, other than State licensing laws or State laws relating to plan solvency, with respect to PCIPs which are established in accordance with this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Transition to Exchanges</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.44" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.44   End of PCIP program coverage.</HEAD>
<P>Effective January 1, 2014, coverage under the PCIP program (45 CFR part 152) will end.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 152.45" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.10.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 152.45   Transition to the exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to termination of the PCIP program, HHS will develop procedures to transition PCIP enrollees to the Exchanges, established under sections 1311 or 1321 of the Affordable Care Act, to ensure that there are no lapses in health coverage for those individuals.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="153" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 153—STANDARDS RELATED TO REINSURANCE, RISK CORRIDORS, AND HHS RISK ADJUSTMENT UNDER THE AFFORDABLE CARE ACT


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 18031, 18041, and 18061 through 18063.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 17245, Mar. 23, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.10" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.10   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This part is based on the following sections of title I of the Affordable Care Act (Pub. L. 111-148, 24 Stat. 119):
</P>
<P>(1) Section 1321. State flexibility in operation and enforcement of Exchanges and related requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 1341. Transitional reinsurance program for individual market in each State.
</P>
<P>(3) Section 1342. Establishment of risk corridors for plans in individual and small group markets.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 1343. Risk adjustment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part establishes standards for the establishment and operation of a transitional reinsurance program, temporary risk corridors program, and a permanent risk adjustment program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.20" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part, unless the context indicates otherwise:
</P>
<P><I>Alternate risk adjustment methodology</I> means a risk adjustment methodology proposed by a State for use instead of a Federally certified risk adjustment methodology that has not yet been certified by HHS.
</P>
<P><I>Applicable reinsurance entity</I> means a not-for-profit organization that is exempt from taxation under Chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 that carries out reinsurance functions under this part on behalf of the State. An entity is not an applicable reinsurance entity to the extent it is carrying out reinsurance functions under subpart C of this part on behalf of HHS.
</P>
<P><I>Attachment point</I> means the threshold dollar amount for claims costs incurred by a health insurance issuer for an enrolled individual's covered benefits in a benefit year, after which threshold the claims costs for such benefits are eligible for reinsurance payments.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit year</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Calculation of payments and charges</I> means the methodology applied to plan average actuarial risk to determine risk adjustment payments and charges for a risk adjustment covered plan.
</P>
<P><I>Calculation of plan average actuarial risk</I> means the specific procedures used to determine plan average actuarial risk from individual risk scores for a risk adjustment covered plan, including adjustments for variable rating and the specification of the risk pool from which average actuarial risk is to be calculated.
</P>
<P><I>Coinsurance rate</I> means the rate at which the applicable reinsurance entity will reimburse the health insurance issuer for claims costs incurred for an enrolled individual's covered benefits in a benefit year after the attachment point and before the reinsurance cap.
</P>
<P><I>Contributing entity</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) A health insurance issuer; or
</P>
<P>(2) For the 2014 benefit year, a self-insured group health plan (including a group health plan that is partially self-insured and partially insured, where the health insurance coverage does not constitute major medical coverage), whether or not it uses a third party administrator; and for the 2015 and 2016 benefit years, a self-insured group health plan (including a group health plan that is partially self-insured and partially insured, where the health insurance coverage does not constitute major medical coverage) that uses a third party administrator in connection with claims processing or adjudication (including the management of internal appeals) or plan enrollment for services other than for pharmacy benefits or excepted benefits within the meaning of section 2791(c) of the PHS Act. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a self-insured group health plan that uses an unrelated third party to obtain provider network and related claim repricing services, or uses an unrelated third party for up to 5 percent of claims processing or adjudication or plan enrollment, will not be deemed to use a third party administrator, based on either the number of transactions processed by the third party, or the value of the claims processing and adjudication and plan enrollment services provided by the third party. A self-insured group health plan that is a contributing entity is responsible for the reinsurance contributions, although it may elect to use a third party administrator or administrative services-only contractor for transfer of the reinsurance contributions.
</P>
<P><I>Contribution rate</I> means, with respect to a benefit year, the per capita amount each contributing entity must pay for a reinsurance program established under this part with respect to each reinsurance contribution enrollee who resides in that State.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Federally certified risk adjustment methodology</I> means a risk adjustment methodology that either has been developed and promulgated by HHS, or has been certified by HHS.
</P>
<P><I>Grandfathered health plan</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 147.140(a) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Group health plan</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance coverage</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance issuer</I> or <I>issuer</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Health plan</I> has the meaning given to the term in section 1301(b)(1) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Individual market</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Individual risk score</I> means a relative measure of predicted health care costs for a particular enrollee that is the result of a risk adjustment model.
</P>
<P><I>Major medical coverage</I> means, for purposes only of the requirements related to reinsurance contributions under section 1341 of the Affordable Care Act, a catastrophic plan, an individual or a small group market plan subject to the actuarial value requirements under § 156.140 of this subchapter, or health coverage for a broad range of services and treatments provided in various settings that provides minimum value as defined in § 156.145 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified employer</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Reinsurance cap</I> means the threshold dollar amount for claims costs incurred by a health insurance issuer for an enrolled individual's covered benefits, after which threshold, the claims costs for such benefits are no longer eligible for reinsurance payments.
</P>
<P><I>Reinsurance contribution enrollee</I> means an individual covered by a plan for which reinsurance contributions must be made pursuant to § 153.400.
</P>
<P><I>Reinsurance-eligible plan</I> means, for the purpose of the reinsurance program, any health insurance coverage offered in the individual market, except for grandfathered plans and health insurance coverage not required to submit reinsurance contributions under § 153.400(a).
</P>
<P><I>Risk adjustment covered plan</I> means, for the purpose of the risk adjustment program, any health insurance coverage offered in the individual or small group market with the exception of grandfathered health plans, group health insurance coverage described in § 146.145(b) of this subchapter, individual health insurance coverage described in § 148.220 of this subchapter, and any plan determined not to be a risk adjustment covered plan in the applicable Federally certified risk adjustment methodology.
</P>
<P><I>Risk adjustment data</I> means all data that are used in a risk adjustment model, the calculation of plan average actuarial risk, or the calculation of payments and charges, or that are used for validation or audit of such data.
</P>
<P><I>Risk adjustment data collection approach</I> means the specific procedures by which risk adjustment data is to be stored, collected, accessed, transmitted, and validated and the applicable timeframes, data formats, and privacy and security standards.
</P>
<P><I>Risk adjustment methodology</I> means the risk adjustment model, the calculation of plan average actuarial risk, the calculation of payments and charges, the risk adjustment data collection approach, and the schedule for the risk adjustment program.
</P>
<P><I>Risk adjustment model</I> means an actuarial tool used to predict health care costs based on the relative actuarial risk of enrollees in risk adjustment covered plans.
</P>
<P><I>Risk pool</I> means the State-wide population across which risk is distributed.
</P>
<P><I>Small group market</I> has the meaning given to the term in section 1304(a)(3) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17245, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15525, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 54133, Aug. 30, 2013; 78 FR 65093, Oct. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13834, Mar. 11, 2014; 79 FR 36432, June 27, 2014; 81 FR 94174, Dec. 22, 2016; 84 FR 17561, Apr. 25, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—State Notice of Benefit and Payment Parameters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.100" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.100   State notice of benefit and payment parameters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement for reinsurance.</I> A State establishing a reinsurance program must issue an annual notice of benefit and payment parameters specific to that State if that State elects to:
</P>
<P>(1) Modify the data requirements for health insurance issuers to receive reinsurance payments from those specified in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year;
</P>
<P>(2) Collect additional reinsurance contributions under § 153.220(d)(1) or use additional funds for reinsurance payments under § 153.220(d)(2); or
</P>
<P>(3) Use more than one applicable reinsurance entity; or
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk adjustment requirements.</I> A State operating a risk adjustment program must issue an annual notice of benefit and payment parameters specific to that State setting forth the risk adjustment methodology and data validation standards it will use.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State notice deadlines.</I> If a State is required to publish an annual State notice of benefit and payment parameters for a particular benefit year, it must do so by the later of March 1 of the calendar year prior to the applicable benefit year, or by the 30th day following the publication of the final HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for that benefit year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State failure to publish notice.</I> Any State establishing a reinsurance program or operating a risk adjustment program that fails to publish a State notice of benefit and payment parameters within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section must—
</P>
<P>(1) Adhere to the data requirements for health insurance issuers to receive reinsurance payments that are specified in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year;
</P>
<P>(2) Forgo the collection of additional reinsurance contributions under § 153.220(d)(1) and the use of additional funds for reinsurance payments under § 153.220(d)(2);
</P>
<P>(3) Forgo the use of more than one applicable reinsurance entity;
</P>
<P>(4) Adhere to the risk adjustment methodology and data validation standards published in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for use by HHS when operating risk adjustment on behalf of a State.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17245, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15525, Mar. 11, 2013; 80 FR 10862, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.110" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.110   Standards for the State notice of benefit and payment parameters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Data requirements.</I> If a State that establishes a reinsurance program elects to modify the data requirements for health insurance issuers to receive reinsurance payments from those specified in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year, the State notice of benefit and payment parameters must specify those modifications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional collections.</I> If a State that establishes a reinsurance program elects to collect additional funds under § 153.220(d)(1) or use additional funds for reinsurance payments under § 153.220(d)(2), the State must publish in the State notice of benefit and payment parameters the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the purpose of the additional collection, including whether it will be used to cover reinsurance payments made under § 153.232, administrative costs, or both;
</P>
<P>(2) The additional contribution rate at which the funds will be collected; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the purpose of the additional collection includes reinsurance payments (or if the State is using additional funds for reinsurance payments under § 153.220(d)(2)), the State supplemental reinsurance payment parameters required under § 153.232.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple reinsurance entities.</I> If a State plans to use more than one applicable reinsurance entity, the State must publish in the State notice of benefit and payment parameters, for each applicable reinsurance entity—
</P>
<P>(1) The geographic boundaries for that entity;
</P>
<P>(2) An estimate of the number of enrollees in the individual market within those boundaries;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the amount of reinsurance payments that will be made to issuers with respect to enrollees within those boundaries.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Risk adjustment content.</I> A State operating a risk adjustment program must provide the information set forth in § 153.330(a) and the data validation standards set forth pursuant to § 153.350 in the State notice of benefit and payment parameters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17245, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15525, Mar. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—State Standards Related to the Reinsurance Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.200" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.200   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.210" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.210   State establishment of a reinsurance program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Each State is eligible to establish a reinsurance program for the years 2014 through 2016.
</P>
<P>(1) If a State establishes a reinsurance program, the State must enter into a contract with one or more applicable reinsurance entities to carry out the provisions of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) If a State contracts with or establishes more than one applicable reinsurance entity, the State must ensure that each applicable reinsurance entity operates in a distinct geographic area with no overlap of jurisdiction with any other applicable reinsurance entity.
</P>
<P>(3) A State may permit an applicable reinsurance entity to subcontract specific administrative functions required under this subpart and subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) A State must review and approve subcontracting arrangements to ensure efficient and appropriate expenditures of administrative funds collected under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) A State must ensure that the applicable reinsurance entity completes all reinsurance-related activities for benefit years 2014 through 2016 and any activities required to be undertaken in subsequent periods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multi-State reinsurance arrangements.</I> Multiple States may contract with a single entity to serve as an applicable reinsurance entity for each State. In such a case, the reinsurance programs for those States must be operated as separate programs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-electing States.</I> HHS will establish a reinsurance program for each State that does not elect to establish its own reinsurance program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Oversight.</I> Each State that establishes a reinsurance program must ensure that the applicable reinsurance entity complies with all provisions of this subpart and subpart E of this part throughout the duration of its contract.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting to HHS.</I> Each State that establishes a reinsurance program must ensure that each applicable reinsurance entity provides information regarding requests for reinsurance payments under the national contribution rate made under § 153.410 for all reinsurance-eligible plans for each quarter during the applicable benefit year in a manner and timeframe established by HHS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17245, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15525, Mar. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.220" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.220   Collection of reinsurance contribution funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collections.</I> If a State establishes a reinsurance program, HHS will collect all reinsurance contributions from all contributing entities for that State under the national contribution rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contribution funding.</I> Reinsurance contributions collected must fund the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Reinsurance payments that will total, on a national basis, $10 billion in 2014, $6 billion in 2015, and $4 billion in 2016;
</P>
<P>(2) U.S. Treasury contributions that will total, on a national basis, $2 billion in 2014, $2 billion in 2015, and $1 billion in 2016; and
</P>
<P>(3) Administrative expenses of the applicable reinsurance entity or HHS when performing reinsurance functions under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>National</I> <I>contribution rate.</I> HHS will set in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year the national contribution rate and the proportion of contributions collected under the national contribution rate to be allocated to:
</P>
<P>(1) Reinsurance payments;
</P>
<P>(2) Payments to the U.S. Treasury as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) Administrative expenses of the applicable reinsurance entity or HHS when performing reinsurance functions under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional State collections.</I> If a State establishes a reinsurance program:
</P>
<P>(1) The State may elect to collect more than the amounts that would be collected based on the national contribution rate set forth in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year to provide:
</P>
<P>(i) Funding for administrative expenses of the applicable reinsurance entity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Additional funds for reinsurance payments.
</P>
<P>(2) A State may use additional funds which were not collected as additional reinsurance contributions under this part for reinsurance payments under the State supplemental payment parameters under § 153.232.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17245, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 29236, May 17, 2012, 78 FR 15525, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 66655, Nov. 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.230" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.230   Calculation of reinsurance payments made under the national contribution rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility for reinsurance payments under the national reinsurance parameters.</I> A health insurance issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan becomes eligible for reinsurance payments from contributions collected under the national contribution rate when its claims costs for an individual enrollee's covered benefits in a benefit year exceed the national attachment point.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>National reinsurance payment parameters.</I> The national reinsurance payment parameters for each benefit year commencing in 2014 and ending in 2016 set forth in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for each applicable benefit year will apply with respect to reinsurance payments made from contributions received under the national contribution rate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>National reinsurance payments.</I> Each reinsurance payment made from contributions received under the national contribution rate will be calculated as the product of the national coinsurance rate multiplied by the health insurance issuer's claims costs for an individual enrollee's covered benefits that the health insurance issuer incurs in the applicable benefit year between the national attachment point and the national reinsurance cap.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Uniform adjustment to national reinsurance payments.</I> If HHS determines that all reinsurance payments requested under the national payment parameters from all reinsurance-eligible plans in all States for a benefit year will not be equal to the amount of all reinsurance contributions collected for reinsurance payments under the national contribution rate in all States for an applicable benefit year, HHS will determine a uniform pro rata adjustment to be applied to all such requests for reinsurance payments for all States. Each applicable reinsurance entity, or HHS on behalf of a State, must reduce or increase the reinsurance payment amounts for the applicable benefit year by any adjustment required under this paragraph (d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15526, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 66655, Nov. 6, 2013; 79 FR 13835, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.232" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.232   Calculation of reinsurance payments made under a State additional contribution rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>State supplemental reinsurance payment parameters.</I> (1) If a State establishes a reinsurance program and elects to collect additional contributions under § 153.220(d)(1)(ii) or use additional funds for reinsurance payments under § 153.220(d)(2), the State must set supplemental reinsurance payment parameters using one or more of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) Decreasing the national attachment point;
</P>
<P>(ii) Increasing the national reinsurance cap; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Increasing the national coinsurance rate.
</P>
<P>(2) The State must ensure that additional reinsurance contributions and funds projected to be received under § 153.220(d)(1)(ii) and § 153.220(d)(2), as applicable, for any applicable benefit year are reasonably calculated to cover additional reinsurance payments that are projected to be made only under the State supplemental reinsurance payment parameters (that will not be paid under the national payment parameters) for the given benefit year.
</P>
<P>(3) All applicable reinsurance entities in a State collecting additional reinsurance contributions must apply the State supplemental reinsurance payment parameters established under paragraph (a)(1) of this section when calculating reinsurance payments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirement for payments under State supplemental reinsurance parameters.</I> Contributions collected under § 153.220(d)(1)(ii) or funds under § 153.220(d)(2), as applicable, must be applied towards requests for reinsurance payments made under the State supplemental reinsurance payments parameters for each benefit year commencing in 2014 and ending in 2016.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligibility for reinsurance payments under State supplemental reinsurance parameters.</I> If a State establishes State supplemental reinsurance payment parameters under § 153.232(a)(1), a reinsurance-eligible plan becomes eligible for reinsurance payments from contributions under § 153.220(d)(1)(ii) or funds under § 153.220(d)(2), as applicable, if its incurred claims costs for an individual enrollee's covered benefits in the applicable benefit year:
</P>
<P>(1) Exceed the State supplemental attachment point set forth in the State notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year if a State has established such a supplemental attachment point under § 153.232(a)(1)(i);
</P>
<P>(2) Exceed the national reinsurance cap set forth in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year if a State has established a State supplemental reinsurance cap under § 153.232(a)(1)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(3) Exceed the national attachment point set forth in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year if a State has established a supplemental coinsurance rate under § 153.232(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payments under State supplemental reinsurance parameters.</I> Each reinsurance payment made from contributions received under § 153.220(d)(1)(ii) or funds under § 153.220(d)(2), as applicable, will be calculated with respect to an issuer's incurred claims costs for an individual enrollee's covered benefits in the applicable benefit year as the sum of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the State has established a State supplemental attachment point, to the extent the issuer's incurred claims costs for such benefits in the applicable benefit year exceed the State supplemental attachment point but do not exceed the national attachment point, the product of such claims costs between the State supplemental attachment point and the national attachment point multiplied by the national coinsurance rate (or, if the State has established a State supplemental coinsurance rate, the State supplemental coinsurance rate);
</P>
<P>(2) If the State has established a State supplemental reinsurance cap, to the extent the issuer's incurred claims costs for such benefits in the applicable benefit year exceed the national reinsurance cap but do not exceed the State supplemental reinsurance cap, the product of such claims costs between the national reinsurance cap and the State supplemental reinsurance cap multiplied by the national coinsurance rate (or, if the State has established a State supplemental coinsurance rate, the State supplemental coinsurance rate); and
</P>
<P>(3) If the State has established a State supplemental coinsurance rate, the product of the issuer's incurred claims costs for such benefits in the applicable benefit year between the national attachment point and the national reinsurance cap multiplied by the difference between the State supplemental coinsurance rate and the national coinsurance rate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Uniform adjustment to payments under State supplemental reinsurance payment parameters.</I> If all requested reinsurance payments under the State supplemental reinsurance parameters calculated in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section from all reinsurance-eligible plans in a State for a benefit year will exceed all reinsurance contributions collected under § 153.220(d)(1)(ii) or funds under § 153.220(d)(2) for the applicable benefit year, the State must determine a uniform pro rata adjustment to be applied to all such requests for reinsurance payments. Each applicable reinsurance entity in the State must reduce all such requests for reinsurance payments for the applicable benefit year by that adjustment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations on payments under State supplemental reinsurance parameters.</I> A State must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The payments made to issuers must not exceed the issuer's total paid amount for the reinsurance-eligible claim(s); and
</P>
<P>(2) Any remaining additional funds for reinsurance payments collected under § 153.220(d)(1)(ii) must be used for reinsurance payments under the State supplemental reinsurance payment parameters in subsequent benefit years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15526, Mar. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.234" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.234   Eligibility under health insurance market rules.</HEAD>
<P>A reinsurance-eligible plan's covered claims costs for an enrollee incurred prior to the application of the following provisions do not count towards either the national reinsurance payment parameters or the State supplemental reinsurance payment parameters: 45 CFR 147.102, 147.104 (subject to 147.145), 147.106 (subject to 147.145), 156.80, and subpart B of part 156.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15527, Mar. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.235" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.235   Allocation and distribution of reinsurance contributions</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Allocation of reinsurance contributions.</I> HHS will allocate and disburse to each State operating reinsurance (and will distribute directly to issuers if HHS is operating reinsurance on behalf of a State), reinsurance contributions collected from contributing entities under the national contribution rate for reinsurance payments. The disbursed funds would be based on the total requests for reinsurance payments made under the national reinsurance payment parameters in all States and submitted under § 153.410, net of any adjustment under § 153.230(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Excess reinsurance contributions.</I> Any reinsurance contributions collected from contributing entities under the national contribution rate for reinsurance payments for any benefit year but unused for the applicable benefit year will be used for reinsurance payments under the national reinsurance payment parameters for subsequent benefit years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15527, Mar. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.240" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.240   Disbursement of reinsurance payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Data collection.</I> If a State establishes a reinsurance program, the State must ensure that the applicable reinsurance entity:
</P>
<P>(1) Collects data required to determine reinsurance payments as described in §§ 153.230 and 153.232, as applicable, from an issuer of reinsurance-eligible plans or is provided access to such data, according to the data requirements specified by the State in the State notice of benefit and payment parameters described in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Makes reinsurance payments to the issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan after receiving a valid claim for payment from that health insurance issuer in accordance with the requirements of § 153.410.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides a process through which an issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan that does not generate individual enrollee claims in the normal course of business may use estimated claims costs to make a request for payment (or to submit data to be considered for reinsurance payments) in accordance with the requirements of § 153.410. The State must ensure that such requests for reinsurance payment (or a subset of such requests) are subject to validation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of reinsurance payments.</I> For each applicable benefit year,
</P>
<P>(1) A State, or HHS on behalf of the State, must notify issuers annually of:
</P>
<P>(i) Reinsurance payments under the national payment parameters, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reinsurance payments under the State supplemental payment parameters if applicable, to be made for the applicable benefit year no later than June 30 of the year following the applicable benefit year.
</P>
<P>(2) A State must provide to each issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan the calculation of total reinsurance payment requests, on a quarterly basis during the applicable benefit year in a timeframe and manner specified by HHS, made under:
</P>
<P>(i) The national reinsurance payment parameters, and
</P>
<P>(ii) State supplemental reinsurance payments parameters if applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance of records.</I> If a State establishes a reinsurance program, the State must maintain documents and records relating to the reinsurance program, whether paper, electronic, or in other media, for each benefit year for at least 10 years, and make them available upon request from HHS, the OIG, the Comptroller General, or their designees, to any such entity. The documents and records must be sufficient to enable the evaluation of the State-operated reinsurance program's compliance with Federal standards. The State must also ensure that its contractors, subcontractors, and agents similarly maintain and make relevant documents and records available upon request from HHS, the OIG, the Comptroller General, or their designees, to any such entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Privacy and security.</I> (1) If a State establishes a reinsurance program, the State must ensure that the applicable reinsurance entity's collection of personally identifiable information is limited to information reasonably necessary for use in the calculation of reinsurance payments, and that use and disclosure of personally identifiable information is limited to those purposes for which the personally identifiable information was collected (including for purposes of data validation).
</P>
<P>(2) If a State establishes a reinsurance program, the State must ensure that the applicable reinsurance entity implements security standards that provide administrative, physical, and technical safeguards for the personally identifiable information consistent with the security standards described at 45 CFR 164.308, 164.310, and 164.312.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17247, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15527, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 65093, Oct. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.250" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.250   Coordination with high-risk pools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> The State must eliminate or modify any State high-risk pool to the extent necessary to carry out the reinsurance program established under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coordination with high-risk pools.</I> The State may coordinate the State high-risk pool with the reinsurance program to the extent that the State high-risk pool conforms to the provisions of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.260" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.260   General oversight requirements for State-operated reinsurance programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accounting requirements.</I> A State that establishes a reinsurance program must ensure that its applicable reinsurance entity keeps an accounting for each benefit year of:
</P>
<P>(1) All reinsurance contributions received from HHS for reinsurance payments and for administrative expenses;
</P>
<P>(2) All claims for reinsurance payments received from issuers of reinsurance-eligible plans;
</P>
<P>(3) All reinsurance payments made to issuers of reinsurance-eligible plans; and
</P>
<P>(4) All administrative expenses incurred for the reinsurance program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>State summary report.</I> A State that establishes a reinsurance program must submit to HHS and make public a report on its reinsurance program operations for each benefit year in the manner and timeframe specified by HHS. The report must summarize the accounting for the benefit year kept pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent external audit.</I> A State that establishes a reinsurance program must engage an independent qualified auditing entity to perform a financial and programmatic audit for each benefit year of its State-operated reinsurance program in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS). The State must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide to HHS the results of the audit, in the manner and timeframe to be specified by HHS;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the audit addresses the prohibitions set forth in § 153.265;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify to HHS any material weakness or significant deficiency identified in the audit, and address in writing to HHS how the State intends to correct any such material weakness or significant deficiency; and
</P>
<P>(4) Make public a summary of the results of the audit, including any material weakness or significant deficiency and how the State intends to correct the material weakness or significant deficiency, in the manner and timeframe to be specified by HHS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65093, Oct. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.265" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.265   Restrictions on use of reinsurance funds for administrative expenses.</HEAD>
<P>A State that establishes a reinsurance program must ensure that its applicable reinsurance entity does not use any funds for the support of reinsurance operations, including any reinsurance contributions provided under the national contribution rate for administrative expenses, for any of the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(a) Staff retreats;
</P>
<P>(b) Promotional giveaways;
</P>
<P>(c) Excessive executive compensation; or
</P>
<P>(d) Promotion of Federal or State legislative or regulatory modifications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65093, Oct. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.270" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.270   HHS audits of State-operated reinsurance programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Audits.</I> HHS or its designee may conduct a financial and programmatic audit of a State-operated reinsurance program to assess compliance with the requirements of this subpart or subpart B of this part. A State that establishes a reinsurance program must ensure that its applicable reinsurance entity and any relevant contractors, subcontractors, or agents cooperate with any audit under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action on audit findings.</I> If an audit results in a finding of material weakness or significant deficiency with respect to compliance with any requirement of this subpart or subpart B, the State must ensure that the applicable reinsurance entity:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 60 calendar days of the issuance of the final audit report, provides a written corrective action plan to HHS for approval;
</P>
<P>(2) Implements that plan; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provides to HHS written documentation of the corrective actions once taken.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 13835, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—State Standards Related to the Risk Adjustment Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.300" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.300   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.310" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.310   Risk adjustment administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>State eligibility to establish a risk adjustment program.</I> (1) A State that elects to operate an Exchange is eligible to establish a risk adjustment program.
</P>
<P>(2) Any State that does not elect to operate an Exchange, or that HHS has not approved to operate an Exchange, will forgo implementation of all State functions in this subpart, and HHS will carry out all of the provisions of this subpart on behalf of the State.
</P>
<P>(3) Any State that elects to operate an Exchange but does not elect to administer risk adjustment will forgo implementation of all State functions in this subpart, and HHS will carry out all of the provisions of this subpart on behalf of the State.
</P>
<P>(4) Beginning in 2015, any State that is approved to operate an Exchange and elects to operate risk adjustment but has not been approved by HHS to operate risk adjustment prior to publication of its State notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year, will forgo implementation of all State functions in this subpart, and HHS will carry out all of the provisions of this subpart on behalf of the State.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Entities eligible to carry out risk adjustment activities.</I> If a State is operating a risk adjustment program, the State may elect to have an entity other than the Exchange perform the State functions of this subpart, provided that the entity meets the standards promulgated by HHS to be an entity eligible to carry out Exchange functions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State responsibility for risk adjustment.</I> (1) A State operating a risk adjustment program for a benefit year must administer the applicable Federally certified risk adjustment methodology through an entity that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is operationally ready to implement the applicable Federally certified risk adjustment methodology and process the resulting payments and charges; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Has experience relevant to operating the risk adjustment program.
</P>
<P>(2) The State must ensure that the risk adjustment entity complies with all applicable provisions of subpart D of this part in the administration of the applicable Federally certified risk adjustment methodology.
</P>
<P>(3) The State must conduct oversight and monitoring of its risk adjustment program.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Maintenance of records.</I> A State operating a risk adjustment program must maintain documents and records relating to the risk adjustment program, whether paper, electronic, or in other media, for each benefit year for at least 10 years, and make them available upon request from HHS, the OIG, the Comptroller General, or their designees, to any such entity. The documents and records must be sufficient to enable the evaluation of the State-operated risk adjustment program's compliance with Federal standards. A State operating a risk adjustment program must also ensure that its contractors, subcontractors, and agents similarly maintain and make relevant documents and records available upon request from HHS, the OIG, the Comptroller General, or their designees, to any such entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Approval for a State to operate risk adjustment.</I> (1) To be approved by HHS to operate risk adjustment under a particular Federally certified risk adjustment methodology for a benefit year, a State must establish that it and its risk adjustment entity meet the standards set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) To obtain such approval, the State must submit to HHS, in a form and manner specified by HHS, evidence that its risk adjustment entity meets these standards.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to requirements set forth in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section, to obtain re-approval from HHS to operate risk adjustment for a third benefit year, the State must, in the first benefit year for which it operates risk adjustment, provide to HHS an interim report, in a manner specified by HHS, including a detailed summary of its risk adjustment activities in the first 10 months of the benefit year, no later than December 31 of the applicable benefit year.
</P>
<P>(4) To obtain re-approval from HHS to operate risk adjustment for each benefit year after the third benefit year, each State operating a risk adjustment program must submit to HHS and make public a detailed summary of its risk adjustment program operations for the most recent benefit year for which risk adjustment operations have been completed, in the manner and timeframe specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(i) The summary must include the results of a programmatic and financial audit for each benefit year of the State-operated risk adjustment program conducted by an independent qualified auditing entity in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS).
</P>
<P>(ii) The summary must identify any material weakness or significant deficiency identified in the audit and address how the State intends to correct any such material weakness or significant deficiency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timeframes.</I> A State, or HHS on behalf of the State, must implement risk adjustment for the 2014 benefit year and every benefit year thereafter. For each benefit year, a State, or HHS on behalf of the State, must notify issuers of risk adjustment payments due or charges owed annually by June 30 of the year following the benefit year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17247, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15527, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 65093, Oct. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.320" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.320   Federally certified risk adjustment methodology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Any risk adjustment methodology used by a State, or HHS on behalf of the State, must be a Federally certified risk adjustment methodology. A risk adjustment methodology may become Federally certified by one of the following processes:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk adjustment methodology is developed by HHS and published in advance of the benefit year in rulemaking; or
</P>
<P>(2) An alternate risk adjustment methodology is submitted by a State in accordance with § 153.330, reviewed and certified by HHS, and published in the applicable annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publication of methodology in notices.</I> The publication of a risk adjustment methodology by HHS in an annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters or by a State in an annual State notice of benefit and payment parameters described in subpart B of this part must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A complete description of the risk adjustment model, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Draft factors to be employed in the model, including but not limited to, demographic factors, diagnostic factors, and utilization factors, if any, the dataset(s) to be used to calculate final coefficients, and the date by which final coefficients will be released in guidance;
</P>
<P>(ii) The qualifying criteria for establishing that an individual is eligible for a specific factor;
</P>
<P>(iii) Weights assigned to each factor; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The schedule for the calculation of individual risk scores.
</P>
<P>(2) A complete description of the calculation of plan average actuarial risk.
</P>
<P>(3) A complete description of the calculation of payments and charges.
</P>
<P>(4) A complete description of the risk adjustment data collection approach.
</P>
<P>(5) The schedule for the risk adjustment program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use of methodology for States that do not operate a risk adjustment program.</I> HHS will specify in notice-and-comment rulemaking by HHS in advance of the applicable benefit year, the Federally certified risk adjustment methodology that will apply in States that do not operate a risk adjustment program.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>State flexibility to request reductions to transfers.</I> For the 2020 through 2023 benefit years, States can request to reduce risk adjustment transfers in the State's individual catastrophic, individual non-catastrophic, small group, or merged market risk pool by up to 50 percent in States where HHS operates the risk adjustment program. For the 2024 benefit year only, only prior participants, as defined in paragraph (d)(5) of this section, may request to reduce risk adjustment transfers in the State's individual catastrophic, individual non-catastrophic, small group, or merged market risk pool by up to 50 percent in States where HHS operates the risk adjustment program.






</P>
<P>(1) <I>State requests.</I> State requests for a reduction to transfers must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Supporting evidence and analysis demonstrating the State-specific factors that warrant an adjustment to more precisely account for the differences in actuarial risk in the State market risk pool;
</P>
<P>(ii) The adjustment percentage of up to 50 percent requested for the State individual catastrophic, individual non-catastrophic, small group, or merged market risk pool; and


</P>
<P>(iii) For the 2020 through 2023 benefit years, a justification for the reduction requested demonstrating the State-specific factors that warrant an adjustment to more precisely account for relative risk differences in the State individual catastrophic, individual non-catastrophic, small group, or merged market risk pool, or demonstrating the requested reduction would have <I>de minimis</I> impact on the necessary premium increase to cover the transfers for issuers that would receive reduced transfer payments; or




</P>
<P>(iv) For the 2024 benefit year only, a justification for the requested reduction demonstrating the requested reduction would have <I>de minimis</I> impact on the necessary premium increase to cover the transfers for issuers that would receive reduced transfer payments.




</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timeframe to submit reduction requests.</I> States must submit requests for a reduction to transfers in the individual catastrophic, individual non-catastrophic, small group, or merged market risk pool by August 1 of the benefit year that is 2 calendar years prior to the applicable benefit year, in the form and manner specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Publication of reduction requests.</I> HHS will publish State reduction requests in the applicable benefit year's HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters rule and make the supporting evidence available to the public for comment, except to the extent the State requests HHS not publish certain supporting evidence because it contains trade secrets or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in HHS' Freedom of Information regulations under 45 CFR 5.31(d). HHS will publish any approved or denied State reduction requests in the applicable benefit year's HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters final rule.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>HHS approval.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section, HHS will approve State reduction requests if HHS determines, based on the review of the information submitted as part of the State's request, along with other relevant factors, including the premium impact of the transfer reduction for the State market risk pool, and relevant public comments:


</P>
<P>(A) For the 2020 through 2023 benefit years, that State-specific rules or other relevant factors warrant an adjustment to more precisely account for relative risk differences in the State's individual catastrophic, individual non-catastrophic, small group, or merged market risk pool and support the percentage reduction to risk adjustment transfers requested; or State-specific rules or other relevant factors warrant an adjustment to more precisely account for relative risk differences in the State's individual catastrophic, individual non-catastrophic, small group, or merged market risk pool and the requested reduction would have <I>de minimis</I> impact on the necessary premium increase to cover the transfers for issuers that would receive reduced transfer payments.




</P>
<P>(B) For the 2024 benefit year only, that the requested reduction would have <I>de minimis</I> impact on the necessary premium increase to cover the transfers for issuers that would receive reduced transfer payments.




</P>
<P>(ii) HHS may approve a reduction amount that is lower than the amount requested by the State if the supporting evidence and analysis do not fully support the requested reduction amount. HHS will assess other relevant factors, including the premium impact of the transfer reduction for the applicable State market risk pool.


</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exception for prior participants.</I> As used in paragraph (d) of this section, prior participants mean States that submitted a State reduction request in the State's individual catastrophic, individual non-catastrophic, small group, or merged market risk pool in the 2020, 2021, 2022, or 2023 benefit year.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17247, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15528, Mar. 11, 2013; 81 FR 94174, Dec. 22, 2016; 83 FR 17059, Apr. 17, 2018; 84 FR 17561, Apr. 25, 2019; 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021; 87 FR 27387, May 6, 2022; 88 FR 25916, Apr. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.330" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.330   State alternate risk adjustment methodology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>State request for alternate methodology certification.</I> (1) A State request to HHS for the certification of an alternate risk adjustment methodology must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The elements specified in § 153.320(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) The calibration methodology and frequency of calibration; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The statistical performance metrics specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) The request must include the extent to which the methodology:
</P>
<P>(i) Accurately explains the variation in health care costs of a given population;
</P>
<P>(ii) Links risk factors to daily clinical practice and is clinically meaningful to providers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Encourages favorable behavior among providers and health plans and discourages unfavorable behavior;
</P>
<P>(iv) Uses data that is complete, high in quality, and available in a timely fashion;
</P>
<P>(v) Is easy for stakeholders to understand and implement;
</P>
<P>(vi) Provides stable risk scores over time and across plans; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Minimizes administrative costs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation criteria for alternate risk adjustment methodology.</I> An alternate risk adjustment methodology will be certified by HHS as a Federally certified risk adjustment methodology based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The criteria listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the methodology complies with the requirements of this subpart D;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the methodology accounts for risk selection across metal levels; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whether each of the elements of the methodology are aligned.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State renewal of alternate methodology.</I> If a State is operating a risk adjustment program, the State may not implement a recalibrated risk adjustment model or otherwise alter its risk adjustment methodology without first obtaining HHS certification.
</P>
<P>(1) Recalibration of the risk adjustment model must be performed at least as frequently as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) A State request to implement a recalibrated risk adjustment model or otherwise alter its risk adjustment methodology must include any changes to the parameters described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17248, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15528, Mar. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.340" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.340   Data collection under risk adjustment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Data collection requirements.</I> If a State is operating a risk adjustment program, the State must collect risk adjustment data.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum standards.</I> (1) If a State is operating a risk adjustment program, the State may vary the amount and type of data collected, but the State must collect or calculate individual risk scores generated by the risk adjustment model in the applicable Federally certified risk adjustment methodology;
</P>
<P>(2) If a State is operating a risk adjustment program, the State must require that issuers offering risk adjustment covered plans in the State comply with data privacy and security standards set forth in the applicable risk adjustment data collection approach; and
</P>
<P>(3) If a State is operating a risk adjustment program, the State must ensure that any collection of personally identifiable information is limited to information reasonably necessary for use in the applicable risk adjustment model, calculation of plan average actuarial risk, or calculation of payments and charges. Except for purposes of data validation, the State may not collect or store any personally identifiable information for use as a unique identifier for an enrollee's data, unless such information is masked or encrypted by the issuer, with the key to that masking or encryption withheld from the State. Use and disclosure of personally identifiable information is limited to those purposes for which the personally identifiable information was collected (including for purposes of data validation).
</P>
<P>(4) If a State is operating a risk adjustment program, the State must implement security standards that provide administrative, physical, and technical safeguards for the individually identifiable information consistent with the security standards described at 45 CFR 164.308, 164.310, and 164.312.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17248, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15528, Mar. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.350" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.350   Risk adjustment data validation standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> The State, or HHS on behalf of the State, must ensure proper implementation of any risk adjustment software and ensure proper validation of a statistically valid sample of risk adjustment data from each issuer that offers at least one risk adjustment covered plan in that State.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjustment to plan average actuarial risk.</I> The State, or HHS on behalf of the State, may adjust the plan average actuarial risk for a risk adjustment covered plan based on errors discovered with respect to implementation of risk adjustment software or as a result of data validation conducted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjustment to charges and payments.</I> The State, or HHS on behalf of the State, may adjust charges and payments to all risk adjustment covered plan issuers based on the adjustments calculated in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeals.</I> The State, or HHS on behalf of the State, must provide an administrative process to appeal findings with respect to the implementation of risk adjustment software or data validation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.360" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.360   Application of risk adjustment to the small group market.</HEAD>
<P>Enrollees in a risk adjustment covered plan must be assigned to the applicable risk pool in the State in which the employer's policy was filed and approved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15528, Mar. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.365" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.365   General oversight requirements for State-operated risk adjustment programs.</HEAD>
<P>If a State is operating a risk adjustment program, it must keep an accounting of all receipts and expenditures related to risk adjustment payments and charges and the administration of risk adjustment-related functions and activities for each benefit year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65094, Oct. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Health Insurance Issuer and Group Health Plan Standards Related to the Reinsurance Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.400" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.400   Reinsurance contribution funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Each contributing entity must make reinsurance contributions annually: at the national contribution rate for all reinsurance contribution enrollees, in a manner specified by HHS; and at the additional State supplemental contribution rate if the State has elected to collect additional contributions under § 153.220(d)(1), in a manner specified by the State.
</P>
<P>(1) In general, reinsurance contributions are required for major medical coverage that is considered to be part of a commercial book of business, but are not required to be paid more than once with respect to the same covered life. In order to effectuate that principle, a contributing entity must make reinsurance contributions for lives covered by its self-insured group health plans and health insurance coverage except to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(i) Such plan or coverage is not major medical coverage, subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of health insurance coverage, such coverage is not considered to be part of an issuer's commercial book of business;
</P>
<P>(iii) Such plan or coverage is expatriate health coverage, as defined by the Secretary, or for the 2015 and 2016 benefit years only, is a self-insured group health plan with respect to which enrollment is limited to participants who reside outside of their home country for at least 6 months of the plan year, and any covered dependents; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of employer-provided health coverage, such coverage applies to individuals with respect to which benefits under Title XVIII of the Act (Medicare) are primary under the Medicare Secondary Payor rules under section 1862(b) of the Act and the regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(v) Such plan or coverage applies to individuals with primary residence in a territory that does not operate a reinsurance program.
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of employer-provided group health coverage:
</P>
<P>(A) Such coverage applies to individuals with individual market health insurance coverage for which reinsurance contributions are required; or
</P>
<P>(B) Such coverage is supplemental or secondary to group health coverage for which reinsurance contributions must be made for the same covered lives.
</P>
<P>(2) Accordingly, as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a contributing entity is not required to make contributions on behalf of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A self-insured group health plan or health insurance coverage that consists solely of excepted benefits as defined by section 2791(c) of the PHS Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Coverage offered by an issuer under contract to provide benefits under any of the following titles of the Act:
</P>
<P>(A) Title XVIII (Medicare);
</P>
<P>(B) Title XIX (Medicaid); or
</P>
<P>(C) Title XXI (Children's Health Insurance Program);
</P>
<P>(iii) A Federal or State high-risk pool, including the Pre-Existing Condition Insurance Plan Program;
</P>
<P>(iv) Basic health plan coverage offered by issuers under contract with a State as described in section 1331 of the Affordable Care Act;
</P>
<P>(v) A health reimbursement arrangement within the meaning of IRS Notice 2002-45 (2002-2 CB 93) or any subsequent applicable guidance, that is integrated with a self-insured group health plan or health insurance coverage;
</P>
<P>(vi) A health savings account within the meaning of section 223(d) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(vii) A health flexible spending arrangement within the meaning of section 125 of the Code;
</P>
<P>(viii) An employee assistance plan, disease management program, or wellness program that does not provide major medical coverage;
</P>
<P>(ix) A stop-loss policy or an indemnity reinsurance policy;
</P>
<P>(x) TRICARE and other military health benefits for active and retired uniformed services personnel and their dependents;
</P>
<P>(xi) A plan or coverage provided by an Indian Tribe to Tribal members and their spouses and dependents (and other persons of Indian descent closely affiliated with the Tribe), in the capacity of the Tribal members as Tribal members (and not in their capacity as current or former employees of the Tribe or their dependents);
</P>
<P>(xii) Health programs operated under the authority of the Indian Health Service; or
</P>
<P>(xiii) A self-insured group health plan or health insurance coverage that consists solely of benefits for prescription drugs.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, a health insurance issuer must make reinsurance contributions for lives covered by its group health insurance coverage whether or not the insurance coverage constitutes major medical coverage, if—
</P>
<P>(i) The group health plan provides health insurance coverage for those covered lives through more than one insurance policy that in combination constitute major medical coverage;
</P>
<P>(ii) The lives are not covered by self-insured coverage of the group health plan (except for self-insured coverage limited to excepted benefits); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The health insurance coverage under the policy offered by the health insurance issuer constitutes the greatest portion of inpatient hospitalization benefits under the group health plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Data requirements.</I> Each contributing entity must submit to HHS data required to substantiate the contribution amounts for the contributing entity, in the manner and timeframe specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of a debt.</I> Any amount owed to the Federal government by a self-insured group health plan (including a group health plan that is partially self-insured and partially insured, where the health insurance coverage does not constitute major medical coverage) and its affiliates for reinsurance is a determination of a debt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15528, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 65094, Oct. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13835, Mar. 11, 2014; 80 FR 10862, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.405" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.405   Calculation of reinsurance contributions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The reinsurance contribution required from a contributing entity for its reinsurance contribution enrollees during a benefit year is calculated by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of covered lives of reinsurance contribution enrollees during the applicable benefit year for all plans and coverage described in § 153.400(a)(1) of the contributing entity; by
</P>
<P>(2) The contribution rate for the applicable benefit year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual enrollment count.</I> No later than November 15 of benefit year 2014, 2015, or 2016, as applicable, or, if such date is not a business day, the next business day, a contributing entity must submit an annual enrollment count of the number of covered lives of reinsurance contribution enrollees for the applicable benefit year to HHS. The count must be determined as specified in paragraphs (d) through (g) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification and payment.</I> (1) Following submission of the annual enrollment count described in paragraph (b) of this section, HHS will notify the contributing entity of the reinsurance contribution amount allocated to reinsurance payments, administrative expenses, and the U.S. Treasury to be paid for the applicable benefit year.
</P>
<P>(2) A contributing entity must remit reinsurance contributions to HHS no later than January 15, 2015, 2016, or 2017, as applicable, or, if such date is not a business day, the next business day, if making a combined contribution or the first payment of the bifurcated contribution, and no later than November 15, 2015, 2016, or 2017, as applicable, or, if such date is not a business day, the next business day, if making the second payment of the bifurcated contribution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for counting covered lives for health insurance issuers.</I> A health insurance issuer must use the same method in a benefit year for all of its health insurance plans in the State (including both the individual and group markets) for which reinsurance contributions are required. To determine the number of covered lives of reinsurance contribution enrollees under all health insurance plans in a State for a benefit year, a health insurance issuer must use one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) Adding the total number of lives covered for each day of the first nine months of the benefit year and dividing that total by the number of days in the first nine months;
</P>
<P>(2) Adding the total number of lives covered on any date (or more dates, if an equal number of dates are used for each quarter) during the same corresponding month in each of the first three quarters of the benefit year, and dividing that total by the number of dates on which a count was made. For this purpose, the same months must be used for each quarter (for example January, April and July) and the date used for the second and third quarter must fall within the same week of the quarter as the corresponding date used for the first quarter; or
</P>
<P>(3) Multiplying the average number of policies in effect for the first nine months of the benefit year by the ratio of covered lives per policy in effect, calculated using the prior National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) Supplemental Health Care Exhibit (or a form filed with the issuer's State of domicile for the most recent time period).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for counting covered lives for self-insured group health plans.</I> To determine the number of covered lives of reinsurance contribution enrollees under a self-insured group health plan for a benefit year, a plan must use one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) One of the methods specified in either paragraph (d)(1) or paragraph (d)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Adding the total number of lives covered on any date (or more dates, if an equal number of dates are used for each quarter) during the same corresponding month in each of the first three quarters of the benefit year (provided that the date used for the second and third quarters must fall within the same week of the quarter as the corresponding date used for the first quarter), and dividing that total by the number of dates on which a count was made, except that the number of lives covered on a date is calculated by adding the number of participants with self-only coverage on the date to the product of the number of participants with coverage other than self-only coverage on the date and a factor of 2.35. For this purpose, the same months must be used for each quarter (for example, January, April, and July); or
</P>
<P>(3) Using the number of lives covered for the most current plan year calculated based upon the “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan” filed with the Department of Labor (Form 5500) for the last applicable time period. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(3), the number of lives covered for the plan year for a plan offering only self-only coverage equals the sum of the total participants covered at the beginning and end of the plan year, as reported on the Form 5500, divided by 2, and the number of lives covered for the plan year for a plan offering self-only coverage and coverage other than self-only coverage equals the sum of the total participants covered at the beginning and the end of the plan year, as reported on the Form 5500.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures for counting covered lives for group health plans with a self-insured coverage option and an insured coverage option.</I> (1) To determine the number of covered lives of reinsurance contribution enrollees under a group health plan with a self-insured coverage option and an insured coverage option for a benefit year, a plan must use one of the methods specified in either paragraph (d)(1) or paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1), a plan with multiple coverage options may use any of the counting methods specified for self-insured coverage or insured coverage, as applicable to each option, if it determines the number of covered lives under each option separately as if each coverage option provided major medical coverage (not including any coverage option that consists solely of excepted benefits as defined by section 2791(c) of the PHS Act, that only provides benefits related to prescription drugs, or that is a health reimbursement arrangement, health savings account, or health flexible spending arrangement).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Multiple group health plans maintained by the same plan sponsor</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> If a plan sponsor maintains two or more group health plans (including one or more group health plans that provide health insurance coverage) that collectively provide major medical coverage for the same covered lives simultaneously, then those multiple plans must be treated as a single group health plan for purposes of calculating any reinsurance contribution amount due under this section. However, a plan sponsor may treat the multiple plans as separate group health plans for purposes of calculating any reinsurance contribution due under this section if it determines the number of covered lives under each separate group health plan as if the separate group health plan provided major medical coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plan sponsor.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g), the term “plan sponsor” means:
</P>
<P>(i) The employer, in the case of a plan established or maintained by a single employer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee organization, in the case of a plan established or maintained by an employee organization;
</P>
<P>(iii) The joint board of trustees, in the case of a multiemployer plan (as defined in section 414(f) of the Code);
</P>
<P>(iv) The committee, in the case of a multiple employer welfare arrangement;
</P>
<P>(v) The cooperative or association that establishes or maintains a plan established or maintained by a rural electric cooperative or rural cooperative association (as such terms are defined in section 3(40)(B) of ERISA);
</P>
<P>(vi) The trustee, in the case of a plan established or maintained by a voluntary employees' beneficiary association (meaning that the association is not merely serving as a funding vehicle for a plan that is established or maintained by an employer or other person);
</P>
<P>(vii) In the case of a plan, the sponsor of which is not described in paragraph (g)(2)(i) through (g)(2)(vi) of this section, the person identified by the terms of the document under which the plan is operated as the plan sponsor, or the person designated by the terms of the document under which the plan is operated as the plan sponsor, provided that designation is made, and that person has consented to the designation, by no later than the date by which the count of covered lives for that benefit year is required to be provided, after which date that designation for that benefit year may not be changed or revoked, and provided further that a person may be designated as the plan sponsor only if the person is one of the persons maintaining the plan (for example, one of the employers that is maintaining the plan with one or more other employers or employee organizations); or
</P>
<P>(viii) In the case of a plan, the sponsor of which is not described in paragraph (g)(2)(i) through (g)(2)(vi) of this section, and for which no identification or designation of a plan sponsor has been made under paragraph (g)(2)(i)(vii) of this section, each employer that maintains the plan (with respect to employees of that employer), each employee organization that maintains the plan (with respect to members of that employee organization), and each board of trustees, cooperative or association that maintains the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception.</I> A plan sponsor is not required to include as part of a single group health plan as determined under paragraph (g)(1) of this section any group health plan that consists solely of excepted benefits as defined by section 2791(c) of the PHS Act, that only provides benefits related to prescription drugs, or that is a health reimbursement arrangement, health savings account, or health flexible spending arrangement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Procedures for counting covered lives for multiple group health plans treated as a single group health plan.</I> The rules in this paragraph (g)(4) govern the determination of the average number of covered lives in a benefit year for any set of multiple self-insured group health plans or health insurance plans (or a combination of one or more self-insured group health plans and one or more health insurance plans) that are treated as a single group health plan under paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Multiple group health plans including an insured plan.</I> If at least one of the multiple plans is an insured plan, the average number of covered lives of reinsurance contribution enrollees must be calculated using one of the methods specified in either paragraph (d)(1) or (2) of this section, applied across the multiple plans as a whole. The following information must be determined by the plan sponsor:
</P>
<P>(A) The average number of covered lives calculated;
</P>
<P>(B) The counting method used; and
</P>
<P>(C) The names of the multiple plans being treated as a single group health plan as determined by the plan sponsor and reported to HHS.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Multiple group health plans not including an insured plan.</I> If each of the multiple plans is a self-insured group health plan, the average number of covered lives of reinsurance contribution enrollees must be calculated using one of the methods specified either in paragraph (e)(1) or (2) of this section, applied across the multiple plans as a whole. The following information must be determined by the plan sponsor:
</P>
<P>(A) The average number of covered lives calculated;
</P>
<P>(B) The counting method used; and
</P>
<P>(C) The names of the multiple plans being treated as a single group health plan as determined by the plan sponsor.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Maintenance of records.</I> A contributing entity must maintain documents and records, whether paper, electronic, or in other media, sufficient to substantiate the enrollment count submitted pursuant to this section for a period of at least 10 years, and must make those documents and records available upon request from HHS, the OIG, the Comptroller General, or their designees, to any such entity, for purposes of verification, investigation, audit, or other review of reinsurance contribution amounts.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Audits.</I> HHS or its designee may audit a contributing entity to assess its compliance with the requirements of this subpart. A contributing entity that uses a third party administrator, administrative services-only contractor, or other third party to assist with its obligations under this subpart must ensure that the third party administrator, administrative services-only contractor, or other third party cooperates with any audit under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15528, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 66655, Nov. 6, 2013; 78 FR 65094, Oct. 30, 2013; 78 FR 66655, Nov. 6, 2014; 79 FR 13835, Mar. 11, 2014; 80 FR 10862, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12334, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.410" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.410   Requests for reinsurance payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> An issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan may make a request for payment when that issuer's claims costs for an enrollee of that reinsurance-eligible plan has met the criteria for reinsurance payment set forth in subpart B of this part and the HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters and State notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of request.</I> An issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan must make requests for payment in accordance with the requirements of the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year or the State notice of benefit and payment parameters described in subpart B of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance of records.</I> An issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan must maintain documents and records, whether paper, electronic, or in other media, sufficient to substantiate the requests for reinsurance payments made pursuant to this section for a period of at least 10 years, and must make those documents and records available upon request from HHS, the OIG, the Comptroller General, or their designees, or, in a State where the State is operating reinsurance, the State or its designee, to any such entity, for purposes of verification, investigation, audit, or other review of reinsurance payment requests.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Audits and compliance reviews.</I> HHS or its designee may audit or conduct a compliance review of an issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan to assess its compliance with the applicable requirements of this subpart and subpart H of this part. Compliance reviews conducted under this section will follow the standards set forth in § 156.715 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice of audit.</I> HHS will provide at least 30 calendar days advance notice of its intent to conduct an audit of an issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conferences.</I> All audits will include an entrance conference at which the scope of the audit will be presented and an exit conference at which the initial audit findings will be discussed.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance with audit activities.</I> To comply with an audit under this section, the issuer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that its relevant employees, agents, contractors, subcontractors, downstream entities, and delegated entities cooperate with any audit or compliance review under this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit complete and accurate data to HHS or its designees that is necessary to complete the audit, in the format and manner specified by HHS, no later than 30 calendar days after the initial audit response deadline established by HHS at the entrance conference described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section for the applicable benefit year;
</P>
<P>(iii) Respond to all audit notices, letters, and inquiries, including requests for supplemental or supporting information, as requested by HHS, no later than 15 calendar days after the date of the notice, letter, request, or inquiry; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In circumstances in which an issuer cannot provide the requested data or response to HHS within the timeframes under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section, as applicable, the issuer may make a written request for an extension to HHS. The extension request must be submitted within the timeframe established under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section, as applicable, and must detail the reason for the extension request and the good cause in support of the request. If the extension is granted, the issuer must respond within the timeframe specified in HHS's notice granting the extension of time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Preliminary audit findings.</I> HHS will share its preliminary audit findings with the issuer, who will then have 30 calendar days to respond to such findings in the format and manner specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(i) If the issuer does not dispute or otherwise respond to the preliminary findings, the audit findings will become final.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the issuer responds and disputes the preliminary findings, HHS will review and consider such response and finalize the audit findings after such review.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Final audit findings.</I> If an audit results in the inclusion of a finding in the final audit report, the issuer must comply with the actions set forth in the final audit report in the manner and timeframe established by HHS, and the issuer must complete all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 45 calendar days of the issuance of the final audit report, provide a written corrective action plan to HHS for approval.
</P>
<P>(ii) Implement that plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide to HHS written documentation of the corrective actions once taken.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Failure to comply with audit activities.</I> If an issuer fails to comply with the audit activities set forth in this subsection in the manner and timeframes specified by HHS:
</P>
<P>(i) HHS will notify the issuer of reinsurance payments received that the issuer has not adequately substantiated; and
</P>
<P>(ii) HHS will notify the issuer that HHS may recoup any payments identified in paragraph (5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17248, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15530, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 65094, Oct. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13835, Mar. 11, 2014; 86 FR 24286, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.420" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.420   Data collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Data requirement.</I> To be eligible for reinsurance payments, an issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan must submit or make accessible all required reinsurance data in accordance with the reinsurance data collection approach established by the State, or by HHS on behalf of the State.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deadline for submission of data.</I> An issuer of a reinsurance-eligible plan must submit or make accessible data to be considered for reinsurance payments for the applicable benefit year by April 30 of the year following the end of the applicable benefit year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15530, Mar. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Health Insurance Issuer Standards Related to the Risk Corridors Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.500" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.500   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Adjustment percentage</I> means, with respect to a QHP:
</P>
<P>(1) For benefit year 2014—
</P>
<P>(i) For a QHP offered by a health insurance issuer with allowable costs of at least 80 percent of after-tax premium in a transitional State, the percentage specified by HHS for such QHPs in the transitional State; and otherwise
</P>
<P>(ii) Zero percent.
</P>
<P>(2) For benefit year 2015, for a QHP offered by a health insurance issuer in any State, 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) For benefit year 2016—
</P>
<P>(i) For a QHP offered by a health insurance issuer with allowable costs of at least 80 percent of after-tax premium, the percentage specified by HHS; and otherwise
</P>
<P>(ii) Zero percent.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative costs</I> mean, with respect to a QHP, total non-claims costs incurred by the QHP issuer for the QHP, including taxes and regulatory fees.
</P>
<P><I>After-tax premiums earned</I> mean, with respect to a QHP, premiums earned with respect to the QHP minus taxes and regulatory fees.
</P>
<P><I>Allowable administrative costs</I> mean, with respect to a QHP, the sum of administrative costs of the QHP, other than taxes and regulatory fees, plus profits earned by the QHP, which sum is limited to the sum of 20 percent and the adjustment percentage of after-tax premiums earned with respect to the QHP (including any premium tax credit under any governmental program), plus taxes and regulatory fees.
</P>
<P><I>Allowable costs</I> means, with respect to a QHP, an amount equal to the pro rata portion of the sum of incurred claims within the meaning of § 158.140 of this subchapter (including adjustments for any direct and indirect remuneration), expenditures by the QHP issuer for the QHP for activities that improve health care quality as set forth in § 158.150 of this subchapter, expenditures by the QHP issuer for the QHP related to health information technology and meaningful use requirements as set forth in § 158.151 of this subchapter, and the adjustments set forth in § 153.530(b); in each case for all of the QHP issuer's non-grandfathered health plans in a market within a State, allocated to the QHP based on premiums earned.
</P>
<P><I>Charge</I> means the flow of funds from QHP issuers to HHS.
</P>
<P><I>Direct and indirect remuneration</I> means prescription drug rebates received by a QHP issuer within the meaning of § 158.140(b)(1)(i) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Payment</I> means the flow of funds from HHS to QHP issuers.
</P>
<P><I>Premiums earned</I> mean, with respect to a QHP, all monies paid by or for enrollees with respect to that plan as a condition of receiving coverage, including any fees or other contributions paid by or for enrollees, within the meaning of § 158.130 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Profits</I> mean, with respect to a QHP, the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of three percent and the adjustment percentage of after-tax premiums earned; and
</P>
<P>(2) Premiums earned of the QHP minus the sum of allowable costs and administrative costs of the QHP.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified health plan</I> or <I>QHP</I> means, with respect to the risk corridors program only —
</P>
<P>(1) A qualified health plan, as defined at § 155.20 of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(2) A health plan offered outside the Exchange by an issuer that is the same plan as a qualified health plan, as defined at § 155.20 of this subchapter, offered through the Exchange by the issuer. To be the same plan as a qualified health plan (as defined at § 155.20 of this subchapter) means that the health plan offered outside the Exchange has identical benefits, premium, cost-sharing structure, provider network, and service area as the qualified health plan (as defined at § 155.20 of this subchapter); or
</P>
<P>(3) A health plan offered outside the Exchange that is substantially the same as a qualified health plan, as defined at § 155.20 of this subchapter, offered through the Exchange by the issuer. To be substantially the same as a qualified health plan (as defined at § 155.20 of this subchapter) means that the health plan meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (2) of this definition with respect to the qualified health plan, except that its benefits, premium, cost-sharing structure, and provider network may differ from those of the qualified health plan (as defined at § 155.20 of this subchapter) provided that such differences are tied directly and exclusively to Federal or State requirements or prohibitions on the coverage of benefits that apply differently to plans depending on whether they are offered through or outside an Exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Risk corridors</I> means any payment adjustment system based on the ratio of allowable costs of a plan to the plan's target amount.
</P>
<P><I>Target amount</I> means, with respect to a QHP, an amount equal to the total premiums earned with respect to a QHP, including any premium tax credit under any governmental program, reduced by the allowable administrative costs of the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Taxes and regulatory fees</I> mean, with respect to a QHP, Federal and State licensing and regulatory fees paid with respect to the QHP as described in § 158.161(a) of this subchapter, and Federal and State taxes and assessments paid with respect to the QHP as described in § 158.162(a)(1) and (b)(1) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Transitional State</I> means a State that does not enforce compliance with § 147.102, § 147.104, § 147.106, § 147.150, § 156.80, or subpart B of part 156 of this subchapter for individual market and small group health plans that renew for a policy year starting between January 1, 2014, and October 1, 2014, in accordance with the transitional policy outlined in the CMS letter dated November 14, 2013.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17248, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15530, 15550, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 54133, Aug. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13835, Mar. 11, 2014; 79 FR 30341, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10863, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.510" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.510   Risk corridors establishment and payment methodology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A QHP issuer must adhere to the requirements set by HHS in this subpart and in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for the establishment and administration of a program of risk corridors for calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>HHS payments to health insurance issuers.</I> QHP issuers will receive payment from HHS in the following amounts, under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) When a QHP's allowable costs for any benefit year are more than 103 percent but not more than 108 percent of the target amount, HHS will pay the QHP issuer an amount equal to 50 percent of the allowable costs in excess of 103 percent of the target amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) When a QHP's allowable costs for any benefit year are more than 108 percent of the target amount, HHS will pay to the QHP issuer an amount equal to the sum of 2.5 percent of the target amount plus 80 percent of allowable costs in excess of 108 percent of the target amount.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Health insurance issuers' remittance of charges.</I> QHP issuers must remit charges to HHS in the following amounts, under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) If a QHP's allowable costs for any benefit year are less than 97 percent but not less than 92 percent of the target amount, the QHP issuer must remit charges to HHS in an amount equal to 50 percent of the difference between 97 percent of the target amount and the allowable costs; and
</P>
<P>(2) When a QHP's allowable costs for any benefit year are less than 92 percent of the target amount, the QHP issuer must remit charges to HHS in an amount equal to the sum of 2.5 percent of the target amount plus 80 percent of the difference between 92 percent of the target amount and the allowable costs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charge submission deadline.</I> A QHP issuer must remit charges to HHS within 30 days after notification of such charges.
</P>
<P>(e) A QHP issuer is not subject to the provisions of this subpart with respect to a stand-alone dental plan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Eligibility under health insurance market rules.</I> The provisions of this subpart apply only for plans offered by a QHP issuer in the SHOP or the individual or small group market, as determined according to the employee counting method applicable under State law, that are subject to the following provisions: §§ 147.102, 147.104, 147.106, 147.150, 156.80, and subpart B of part 156 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Adjustment to risk corridors payments and charges.</I> If an issuer reported a certified estimate of 2014 cost-sharing reductions on its 2014 MLR and Risk Corridors Annual Reporting Form that is lower than the actual value of cost-sharing reductions calculated under § 156.430(c) of this subchapter for the 2014 benefit year, HHS will make an adjustment to the amount of the issuer's 2015 benefit year risk corridors payment or charge measured by the full difference between the certified estimate of 2014 cost-sharing reductions reported and the actual value of cost-sharing reductions provided as calculated under § 156.430(c) for the 2014 benefit year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17248, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15530, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 65094, Oct. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13836, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 12334, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.520" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.520   Attribution and allocation of revenue and expense items.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Attribution to plans.</I> Each item of expense in the target amount with respect to a QHP must be reasonably attributable to the operation of the QHP issuer's non-grandfathered health plans in a market within a State, with the attribution based on a generally accepted accounting method, consistently applied. To the extent that a QHP issuer utilizes a specific method for allocating expenses for purposes of § 158.170 of this subchapter, the method used for purposes of this paragraph must be consistent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allocation across plans.</I> Each item of expense in the target amount must reflect an amount equal to the pro rata portion of the aggregate amount of such expense across all of the QHP issuer's non-grandfathered health plans in a market within a State, allocated to the QHP based on premiums earned.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure of attribution and</I> <I>allocation methods.</I> A QHP issuer must submit to HHS a report, in the manner and timeframe specified in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters, with a detailed description of the methods and specific bases used to perform the attributions and allocations set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Attribution of reinsurance and risk adjustment to benefit year.</I> A QHP issuer must attribute reinsurance payments and risk adjustment payments and charges to allowable costs for the benefit year with respect to which the reinsurance payments or risk adjustment calculations apply.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Maintenance of records.</I> A QHP issuer must maintain documents and records, whether paper, electronic, or in other media, sufficient to enable the evaluation of the issuer's compliance with applicable risk corridors standards, for each benefit year for at least 10 years, and must make those documents and records available upon request from HHS, the OIG, the Comptroller General, or their designees, to any such entity, for purposes of verification, investigation, audit or other review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17248, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15530, 15550, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 65094, Oct. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.530" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.530   Risk corridors data requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Premium data.</I> A QHP issuer must submit to HHS data on the premiums earned with respect to each QHP that the issuer offers in a manner specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allowable costs.</I> A QHP issuer must submit to HHS data on the allowable costs incurred with respect to the QHP issuer's non-grandfathered health plans in a market within a State in a manner specified by HHS. For purposes of this subpart, allowable costs must be —
</P>
<P>(1) Increased by any risk adjustment charges paid by the issuer for the non-grandfathered health plans under the risk adjustment program established under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Reduced by —
</P>
<P>(i) Any risk adjustment payments received by the issuer for the non-grandfathered health plans under the risk adjustment program established pursuant to subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any reinsurance payments received by the issuer for the non-grandfathered health plans under the transitional reinsurance program established under subpart C of this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) A cost-sharing reduction amount equal to the amount of cost-sharing reductions for the benefit year as calculated under § 156.430(c) of this subchapter, to the extent not reimbursed to the provider furnishing the item or service.
</P>
<P>(iv) For the 2015 and 2016 benefit years, any difference between—
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of unpaid claims reserves and claims incurred but not reported, as set forth in §§ 158.103 and 158.140(a)(2) and (3) of this subchapter, that were reported on the MLR and Risk Corridors Annual Reporting Form for the year preceding the benefit year; and
</P>
<P>(B) The actual claims incurred during the year preceding the benefit year and paid between March 31 of the benefit year and March 31 of the year following the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Allowable administrative costs.</I> A QHP issuer must submit to HHS data on the allowable administrative costs incurred with respect to the QHP issuer's non-grandfathered health plans in a market within a State in a manner specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timeframes.</I> For each benefit year, a QHP issuer must submit all information required under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section by July 31 of the year following the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requirement to submit enrollment data for risk corridors adjustment.</I> A health insurance issuer in the individual or small group market of a transitional State must submit, in a manner and timeframe specified by HHS, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A count of its total enrollment in the individual market and small group market; and
</P>
<P>(2) A count of its total enrollment in individual market and small group market policies that meet the criteria for transitional policies outlined in the CMS letter dated November 14, 2013.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17248, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15531, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 65094, Oct. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13836, Mar. 11, 2014; 79 FR 37662, July 2, 2014; 81 FR 12334, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.540" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.540   Compliance with risk corridors standards.</HEAD>
<P>HHS or its designee may audit a QHP issuer to assess its compliance with the requirements of this subpart. HHS will conduct an audit in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 158.402(a) through (e) of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 13836, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Health Insurance Issuer Standards Related to the Risk Adjustment Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.600" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.600   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.610" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.610   Risk adjustment issuer requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Data requirements.</I> An issuer that offers risk adjustment covered plans must submit or make accessible all required risk adjustment data for those risk adjustment covered plans in accordance with the risk adjustment data collection approach established by the State, or by HHS on behalf of the State.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk adjustment data storage.</I> An issuer that offers risk adjustment covered plans must store all required risk adjustment data in accordance with the risk adjustment data collection approach established by the State, or by HHS on behalf of the State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Issuer contracts.</I> An issuer that offers risk adjustment covered plans may include in its contract with a provider, supplier, physician, or other practitioner, provisions that require such contractor's submission of complete and accurate risk adjustment data in the manner and timeframe established by the State, or HHS on behalf of the State. These provisions may include financial penalties for failure to submit complete, timely, or accurate data.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assessment of charges.</I> An issuer that offers risk adjustment covered plans that has a net balance of risk adjustment charges payable, including adjustments made pursuant to § 153.350(c), will be notified by the State, or by HHS on behalf of the State, of those net charges, and must remit those risk adjustment charges to the State, or to HHS on behalf of the State, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Charge submission deadline.</I> An issuer must remit net charges to the State, or HHS on behalf of the State, within 30 days of notification of net charges payable by the State, or HHS on behalf of the State.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Assessment and collection of user fees for HHS risk adjustment operations.</I> Where HHS is operating risk adjustment on behalf of a State, an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan (other than a student health plan or a plan not subject to 45 CFR 147.102, 147.104, 147.106, 156.80, and subpart B of part 156) must, for each benefit year—
</P>
<P>(1) Submit or make accessible to HHS its monthly enrollment for the risk adjustment covered plan for the benefit year through the risk adjustment data collection approach established at § 153.610(a), in a manner and timeframe specified by HHS; and
</P>
<P>(2) Remit to HHS an amount equal to the product of its monthly billable enrollment in the risk adjustment covered plan multiplied by the per-enrollee-per-month risk adjustment user fee specified in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for the applicable benefit year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17248, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15531, Mar. 11, 2013; 81 FR 94174, Dec. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.620" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.620   Compliance with HHS risk adjustment standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuer support of data validation.</I> An issuer that offers risk adjustment covered plans must comply with any data validation requests by the State or HHS on behalf of the State.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuer records maintenance requirements.</I> An issuer that offers risk adjustment covered plans must also maintain documents and records, whether paper, electronic, or in other media, sufficient to enable the evaluation of the issuer's compliance with applicable risk adjustment standards, for each benefit year for at least 10 years, and must make those documents and records available upon request to HHS, the OIG, the Comptroller General, or their designees, or in a State where the State is operating risk adjustment, the State or its designee to any such entity, for purposes of verification, investigation, audit or other review.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Audits and compliance reviews.</I> HHS or its designee may audit or conduct a compliance review of an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan to assess its compliance with respect to the applicable requirements in this subpart and subpart H of this part. Compliance reviews conducted under this section will follow the standards set forth in § 156.715 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice of audit.</I> HHS will provide at least 30 calendar days advance notice of its intent to conduct an audit of an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conferences.</I> All audits will include an entrance conference at which the scope of the audit will be presented and an exit conference at which the initial audit findings will be discussed.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance with audit activities.</I> To comply with an audit under this section, the issuer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that its relevant employees, agents, contractors, subcontractors, downstream entities, and delegated entities cooperate with any audit or compliance review under this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit complete and accurate data to HHS or its designees that is necessary to complete the audit, in the format and manner specified by HHS, no later than 30 calendar days after the initial audit response deadline established by HHS at the audit entrance conference described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section for the applicable benefit year;
</P>
<P>(iii) Respond to all audit notices, letters, and inquiries, including requests for supplemental or supporting information, as requested by HHS, no later than 15 calendar days after the date of the notice, letter, request, or inquiry; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In circumstances in which an issuer cannot provide the requested data or response to HHS within the timeframes under paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section, as applicable, the issuer may make a written request for an extension to HHS. The extension request must be submitted within the timeframe established under paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section, as applicable, and must detail the reason for the extension request and the good cause in support of the request. If the extension is granted, the issuer must respond within the timeframe specified in HHS's notice granting the extension of time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Preliminary audit findings.</I> HHS will share its preliminary audit findings with the issuer, who will then have 30 calendar days to respond to such findings in the format and manner specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(i) If the issuer does not dispute or otherwise respond to the preliminary findings, the audit findings will become final.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the issuer responds and disputes the preliminary findings, HHS will review and consider such response and finalize the audit findings after such review.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Final audit findings.</I> If an audit results in the inclusion of a finding or observation in the final audit report, the issuer must comply with the actions set forth in the final audit report in the manner and timeframe established by HHS, and the issuer must complete all of the following, if required by HHS:


</P>
<P>(i) Within 45 calendar days of the issuance of the final audit report, provide a written corrective action plan to HHS for approval.
</P>
<P>(ii) Implement that plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide to HHS written documentation of the corrective actions once taken.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Failure to comply with audit activities.</I> If an issuer fails to comply with the audit activities set forth in this subsection in the manner and timeframes specified by HHS:
</P>
<P>(i) HHS will notify the issuer of the risk adjustment (including high-cost risk pool) payments that the issuer has not adequately substantiated; and
</P>
<P>(ii) HHS will notify the issuer that HHS may recoup any risk adjustment (including high-cost risk pool) payments identified in paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 17245, Mar. 23, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 65095, Oct. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13836, Mar. 11, 2014; 86 FR 24287, May 5, 2021; 89 FR 26419, Apr. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.630" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.630   Data validation requirements when HHS operates risk adjustment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> An issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan in a State where HHS is operating risk adjustment on behalf of the State for the applicable benefit year must have an initial and second validation audit performed on its risk adjustment data as described in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial validation audit.</I> (1) An issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan must engage one or more independent auditors to perform an initial validation audit of a sample of its risk adjustment data selected by HHS. The issuer must provide HHS with the identity of the initial validation auditor, and must attest to the absence of conflicts of interest between the initial validation auditor (or the members of its audit team, owners, directors, officers, or employees) and the issuer (or its owners, directors, officers, or employees), to its knowledge, following reasonable investigation, and must attest that it has obtained an equivalent representation from the initial validation auditor, in a timeframe and manner to be specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) The issuer must ensure that the initial validation auditors are reasonably capable of performing an initial data validation audit according to the standards established by HHS for such audit, and must ensure that the audit is so performed.
</P>
<P>(3) The issuer must ensure that each initial validation auditor is reasonably free of conflicts of interest, such that it is able to conduct the initial validation audit in an impartial manner and its impartiality is not reasonably open to question.
</P>
<P>(4) The issuer must ensure validation of the accuracy of risk adjustment data for a sample of enrollees selected by HHS. The issuer must ensure that the initial validation audit findings are submitted to HHS in a manner and timeframe specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(5) An initial validation audit must be conducted by medical coders certified as such and in good standing by a nationally recognized accrediting agency.
</P>
<P>(6) An issuer must provide the initial validation auditor and the second validation auditor with all relevant source enrollment documentation, all claims and encounter data, and medical record documentation from providers of services to each enrollee in the applicable sample without unreasonable delay and in a manner that reasonably assures confidentiality and security in transmission. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a qualified provider that is licensed to diagnose mental illness by the State and that is prohibited from furnishing a complete medical record by applicable State privacy laws concerning any enrollee's treatment for one or more mental or behavioral health conditions may furnish a signed mental or behavioral health assessment that, to the extent permissible under applicable Federal and State privacy laws, should contain: The enrollee's name; sex; date of birth; current status of all mental or behavioral health diagnoses; and dates of service. The mental or behavioral health assessment should be signed by the provider and submitted with an attestation that the provider is prohibited from furnishing a complete medical record by applicable State privacy laws.
</P>
<P>(7) The risk score of each enrollee in the sample must be validated by—
</P>
<P>(i) Validating the enrollee's enrollment data and demographic data in a manner to be determined by HHS.
</P>
<P>(ii) Validating enrollee health status through review of all relevant medical record documentation. Medical record documentation must originate from the provider of the services and align with dates of service for the medical diagnoses, and reflect permitted providers and services. For purposes of this section, “medical record documentation” means clinical documentation of hospital inpatient or outpatient treatment or professional medical treatment from which enrollee health status is documented and related to accepted risk adjustment services that occurred during a specified period of time. Medical record documentation must be generated under a face-to-face or telehealth visit documented and authenticated by a permitted provider of services;
</P>
<P>(iii) Beginning in the 2018 benefit year, validating enrollee health status through review of all relevant paid pharmacy claims;
</P>
<P>(iv) Validating medical records according to industry standards for coding and reporting; and
</P>
<P>(v) Having a senior reviewer confirm any enrollee risk adjustment error discovered during the initial validation audit. For purposes of this section, a “senior reviewer” is a reviewer certified as a medical coder by a nationally recognized accrediting agency who possesses at least 5 years of experience in medical coding. However, for validation of risk adjustment data for the 2014 and 2015 benefit years, a senior reviewer may possess 3 or more years of experience.
</P>
<P>(8) The initial validation auditor must measure and report to the issuer and HHS, in a manner and timeframe specified by HHS, its inter-rater reliability rates among its reviewers. The initial validation auditor must achieve a consistency measure of at least 95 percent for his or her review outcomes, except that for validation of risk adjustment data for the 2015 and 2016 benefit years, the initial validation auditor may meet an inter-rater reliability standard of 85 percent for review outcomes.
</P>
<P>(9) HHS may impose civil money penalties in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 156.805(b) through (e) of this subchapter if an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan—
</P>
<P>(i) Fails to engage an initial validation auditor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Fails to submit the results of an initial validation audit to HHS;
</P>
<P>(iii) Engages in misconduct or substantial non-compliance with the risk adjustment data validation standards and requirements applicable to issuers of risk adjustment covered plans; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Intentionally or recklessly misrepresents or falsifies information that it furnishes to HHS.
</P>
<P>(10) If an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan fails to engage an initial validation auditor or to submit the results of an initial validation audit to HHS, HHS will impose a default data validation charge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Second validation audit.</I> HHS will select a subsample of the risk adjustment data validated by the initial validation audit for a second validation audit. The issuer must comply with, and must ensure the initial validation auditor complies with, standards for such audit established by HHS, and must cooperate with, and must ensure that the initial validation auditor cooperates with, HHS and the second validation auditor in connection with such audit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Risk adjustment data validation disputes and appeals.</I> (1) Within 15 calendar days of notification of the initial validation audit sample determined by HHS, in the manner set forth by HHS, an issuer must confirm the sample or file a discrepancy report to dispute the initial validation audit sample determined by HHS.


</P>
<P>(2) Within 15 calendar days of the notification of the findings of a second validation audit (if applicable) by HHS, in the manner set forth by HHS, an issuer must confirm the findings of the second validation audit (if applicable), or file a discrepancy report to dispute the findings of a second validation audit (if applicable).


</P>
<P>(3) Within 30 calendar days of the notification by HHS of the calculation of a risk score error rate, in the manner set forth by HHS, an issuer must confirm the calculation of the risk score error rate as a result of risk adjustment data validation, or file a discrepancy report to dispute the calculation of a risk score error rate as a result of risk adjustment data validation.




</P>
<P>(4) An issuer may appeal the findings of a second validation audit (if applicable) or the calculation of a risk score error rate as result of risk adjustment data validation, under the process set forth in § 156.1220 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adjustment of payments and charges.</I> HHS may adjust payments and charges for issuers that do not comply with audit requirements and standards, as specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Data security and transmission.</I> (1) An issuer must submit the risk adjustment data and source documentation for the initial and second validation audits specified by HHS to HHS or its designee in the manner and timeframe specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer must ensure that it and its initial validation auditor comply with the security standards described at 45 CFR 164.308, 164.310, and 164.312 in connection with the initial validation audit, the second validation audit, and any appeal.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemptions.</I> An issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan will be exempted by HHS from the data validation requirement set forth in paragraph (b) of this section for a given benefit year if:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuer has 500 or fewer billable member months of enrollment in the individual, small group and merged markets (as applicable) for the applicable benefit year, calculated on a Statewide basis;
</P>
<P>(2) The issuer is at or below the materiality threshold as defined by HHS and is not selected by HHS to participate in the data validation requirements in an applicable benefit year under random and targeted sampling conducted approximately every 3 years (barring any risk-based triggers based on experience that will warrant more frequent audits); or
</P>
<P>(3) The issuer is in liquidation, or will enter liquidation no later than April 30th of the benefit year that is 2 benefit years after the benefit year being audited, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuer provides to HHS, in the manner and timeframe specified by HHS, an attestation that the issuer is in liquidation or will enter liquidation no later than April 30th of the benefit year that is 2 benefit years after the benefit year being audited that is signed by an individual with the authority to legally and financially bind the issuer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuer is not a positive error rate outlier under the error estimation methodology in risk adjustment data validation for the prior benefit year of risk adjustment data validation.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (g)(3), liquidation means that a State court has issued an order of liquidation for the issuer that fixes the rights and liabilities of the issuer and its creditors, policyholders, shareholders, members, and all other persons of interest.
</P>
<P>(4) The issuer only offered small group market carryover coverage during the benefit year that is being audited.
</P>
<P>(5) The issuer was the sole issuer in the state market risk pool during the benefit year that is being audited and did not participate in any other market risk pools in the State during the benefit year that is being audited.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15531, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 13836, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 94174, Dec. 22, 2016; 83 FR 17059, Apr. 17, 2018; 84 FR 17562, Apr. 25, 2019; 86 FR 24287, May 5, 2021; 88 FR 25916, Apr. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Distributed Data Collection for HHS-Operated Programs</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 15531, Mar. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 153.700" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.700   Distributed data environment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Dedicated distributed data environments.</I> For each benefit year in which HHS operates the risk adjustment or reinsurance program on behalf of a State, an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan or a reinsurance-eligible plan in the State, as applicable, must establish a dedicated data environment and provide data access to HHS, in a manner and timeframe specified by HHS, for any HHS-operated risk adjustment and reinsurance program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timeline.</I> An issuer must establish the dedicated data environment (and confirm proper establishment through successfully testing the environment to conform with applicable HHS standards for such testing) three months prior to the first date of full operation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.710" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.710   Data requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enrollment, claims, and encounter data.</I> An issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan or a reinsurance-eligible plan in a State in which HHS is operating the risk adjustment or reinsurance program, as applicable, must provide to HHS, through the dedicated data environment, access to enrollee-level plan enrollment data, enrollee claims data, and enrollee encounter data as specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims data.</I> All claims data submitted by an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan or a reinsurance-eligible plan in a State in which HHS is operating the risk adjustment or reinsurance program, as applicable, must have resulted in payment by the issuer (or payment of cost sharing by the enrollee).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claims data from capitated plans.</I> An issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan or a reinsurance-eligible plan in a State in which HHS is operating the risk adjustment or reinsurance program, as applicable, that does not generate individual enrollee claims in the normal course of business must derive the costs of all applicable provider encounters using its principal internal methodology for pricing those encounters. If the issuer does not have such a methodology, or has an incomplete methodology, it must supplement the methodology in a manner that yields derived claims that are reasonable in light of the specific service and insurance market that the plan is serving.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final dedicated distributed data environment report.</I> Within 15 calendar days of the date of the final dedicated distributed data environment report from HHS, the issuer must, in a format specified by HHS, either:
</P>
<P>(1) Confirm to HHS that the information in the final report accurately reflects the data to which the issuer has provided access to HHS through its dedicated distributed data environment in accordance with § 153.700(a) for the benefit year specified in the report; or
</P>
<P>(2) Describe to HHS any discrepancy it identifies in the final dedicated distributed data environment report.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Materiality threshold.</I> HHS will consider a discrepancy reported under paragraph (d)(2) of this section to be material if the amount in dispute is equal to or exceeds $100,000 or 1 percent of the total estimated transfer amount in the applicable State market risk pool, whichever is less.




</P>
<P>(f) <I>Unresolved discrepancies.</I> If a discrepancy first identified in a final dedicated distributed data environment report in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section remains unresolved after the issuance of the notification of risk adjustment payments and charges or reinsurance payments under § 153.310(e) or § 153.240(b)(1)(ii), respectively, an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan or reinsurance-eligible plan may make a request for reconsideration regarding such discrepancy under the process set forth in § 156.1220(a) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Evaluation of dedicated distributed data.</I> If an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan fails to provide sufficient required data, such that HHS cannot apply the applicable methodology to calculate the risk adjustment payment transfer amount for the risk adjustment covered plan in a timely or appropriate fashion, then HHS will assess a default risk adjustment charge under § 153.740(b). If an issuer of a reinsurance eligible plan fails to provide data sufficient for HHS to calculate reinsurance payments, the issuer will forfeit reinsurance payments for claims it fails to submit.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Data quantity.</I> An issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan or a reinsurance-eligible plan must provide, in a format and on a timeline specified by HHS, data on its total enrollment and claims counts by market, which HHS may use in evaluating whether the issuer provided access in the dedicated distributed data environment to a sufficient quantity of data to meet reinsurance and risk adjustment data requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Data quality.</I> If, following the deadline for submission of data specified in § 153.730, HHS identifies an outlier that would cause the data that a risk adjustment covered plan or a reinsurance-eligible plan made available through a dedicated distributed data environment to fail HHS's data quality thresholds, the issuer may, within 10 calendar days of receiving notification of the outlier, submit an explanation of the outlier for HHS to consider in determining whether the issuer met the reinsurance and risk adjustment data requirements.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Risk corridors and MLR reporting.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (h)(3) of this section:




</P>
<P>(1) Notwithstanding any discrepancy report made under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, any discrepancy filed under § 153.630(d)(2) or (3), or any request for reconsideration under § 156.1220(a) of this subchapter with respect to any risk adjustment payment or charge, including an assessment of risk adjustment user fees and risk adjustment data validation adjustments; reinsurance payment; cost-sharing reduction payment or charge; or risk corridors payment or charge, unless the dispute has been resolved, an issuer must report, for purposes of the risk corridors and medical loss ratio (MLR) programs:




</P>
<P>(i) The risk adjustment payment to be made or charge assessed, including an assessment of risk adjustment user fees, by HHS in the notification provided under § 153.310(e);
</P>
<P>(ii) The reinsurance payment to be made by HHS in the notification provided under § 153.240(b)(1)(ii);




</P>
<P>(iii) A cost-sharing reduction amount equal to the actual amount of cost-sharing reductions for the benefit year as calculated under § 156.430(c) of this subchapter, to the extent not reimbursed to the provider furnishing the item or service;


</P>
<P>(iv) For medical loss ratio reporting only, the risk corridors payment to be made or charge assessed by HHS under § 153.510; and


</P>
<P>(v) The risk adjustment data validation adjustment calculated by HHS in the applicable benefit year's Summary Report of Benefit Year Risk Adjustment Data Validation Adjustments to Risk Adjustment Transfers.








</P>
<P>(2) An issuer must report during the current MLR and risk corridors reporting year any adjustment made or approved by HHS for any risk adjustment payment or charge, including an assessment of risk adjustment user fees and risk adjustment data validation adjustments; any reinsurance payment; any cost-sharing reduction payment or charge; or any risk corridors payment or charge before August 15, or the next applicable business day, of the current MLR and risk corridors reporting year unless instructed otherwise by HHS. An issuer must report any adjustment made or approved by HHS for any risk adjustment payment or charge, including an assessment of risk adjustment user fees and risk adjustment data validation adjustments; any reinsurance payment; any cost-sharing reduction payment or charge; or any risk corridors payment or charge where such adjustment has not been accounted for in a prior MLR and Risk Corridors Annual Reporting Form, in the MLR and Risk Corridors Annual Reporting Form for the following reporting year.


</P>
<P>(3) In cases where HHS reasonably determines that the reporting instructions in paragraph (h)(1) or (2) of this section would lead to unfair or misleading financial reporting, issuers must correct their data submissions in a form and manner to be specified by HHS.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15531, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 13837, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 12335, Mar. 8, 2016; 86 FR 24288, May 5, 2021; 87 FR 27387, May 6, 2022; 88 FR 25916, Apr. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.720" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.720   Establishment and usage of masked enrollee identification numbers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enrollee identification numbers.</I> An issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan or a reinsurance-eligible plan in a State in which HHS is operating the risk adjustment or reinsurance program, as applicable, must—
</P>
<P>(1) Establish a unique masked enrollee identification number for each enrollee; and
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain the same masked enrollee identification number for an enrollee across enrollments or plans within the issuer, within the State, during a benefit year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on personally identifiable information.</I> An issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan or a reinsurance-eligible plan in a State in which HHS is operating the risk adjustment or reinsurance program on behalf of the State, as applicable, may not—
</P>
<P>(1) Include enrollee's personally identifiable information in the masked enrollee identification number; or
</P>
<P>(2) Use the same masked enrollee identification number for different enrollees enrolled with the issuer.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.730" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.730   Deadline for submission of data.</HEAD>
<P>A risk adjustment covered plan or a reinsurance-eligible plan in a State in which HHS is operating the risk adjustment or reinsurance program, as applicable, must submit data to be considered for risk adjustment payments and charges and reinsurance payments for the applicable benefit year by April 30 of the year following the applicable benefit year or, if such date is not a business day, the next applicable business day.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 27387, May 6, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 153.740" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.11.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 153.740   Failure to comply with HHS-operated risk adjustment and reinsurance data requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement actions.</I> If an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan or reinsurance-eligible plan fails to establish a dedicated distributed data environment in a manner and timeframe specified by HHS; fails to provide HHS with access to the required data in such environment in accordance with § 153.700(a) or otherwise fails to comply with the requirements of §§ 153.700 through 153.730; fails to adhere to the reinsurance data submission requirements set forth in § 153.420; or fails to adhere to the risk adjustment data submission and data storage requirements set forth in §§ 153.610 through 153.630, HHS may impose civil money penalties in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 156.805 of this subchapter. Civil monetary penalties will not be imposed for non-compliance with these requirements during the 2014 or 2015 calendar years under this paragraph if the issuer has made good faith efforts to comply with these requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Default risk adjustment charge.</I> If an issuer of a risk adjustment covered plan fails to establish a dedicated distributed data environment or fails to provide HHS with access to the required data in such environment in accordance with § 153.610(a), § 153.700, § 153.710, or § 153.730 such that HHS cannot apply the applicable Federally certified risk adjustment methodology to calculate the risk adjustment payment transfer amount for the risk adjustment covered plan in a timely fashion, HHS will assess a default risk adjustment charge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information sharing.</I> HHS may consult with and share information about issuers of risk adjustment covered plans and reinsurance-eligible plans with other Federal and State regulatory and enforcement entities to the extent the consultation or information is necessary for purposes of Federal or State oversight and enforcement activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65095, Oct. 30, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10863, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="154" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 154—HEALTH INSURANCE ISSUER RATE INCREASES: DISCLOSURE AND REVIEW REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 2794 of the Public Health Service Act (42 USC 300gg-94).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 29985, May 23, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.101" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.101   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This part implements section 2794 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part establishes the requirements for health insurance issuers offering health insurance coverage in the small group or individual markets to report information concerning unreasonable rate increases to the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS). This part further establishes the process by which it will be determined whether the rate increases are unreasonable rate increases as defined in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.102" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>CMS</I> means the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services.
</P>
<P><I>Effective Rate Review Program</I> means a State program that CMS has determined meets the requirements set forth in § 154.301(a) and (b) for the relevant market segment in the State.
</P>
<P><I>Federal medical loss ratio standard</I> means the applicable medical loss ratio standard for the State and market segment involved, determined under subpart B of 45 CFR part 158.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance coverage</I> has the meaning given the term in section 2791(b)(1) of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance issuer</I> has the meaning given the term in section 2791(b)(2) of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P><I>Individual market</I> has the meaning given the term in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Plan</I> has the meaning given the term in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Product</I> means a package of health insurance coverage benefits with a discrete set of rating and pricing methodologies offered in a State. The term product includes any product that is discontinued and newly filed within a 12-month period when the changes to the product meet the standards of § 147.106(e)(2) or (3) of this subchapter (relating to uniform modification of coverage).
</P>
<P><I>Rate increase</I> means, with respect to rates filed—
</P>
<P>(1) For coverage effective prior to January 1, 2017, any increase of the rates for a specific product offered in the individual or small group market.
</P>
<P>(2) For coverage effective on or after January 1, 2017, any increase of the rates for a specific product or plan within a product offered in the individual or small group market.
</P>
<P><I>Rate increase subject to review</I> means a rate increase that meets the criteria set forth in § 154.200.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services.
</P>
<P><I>Small group market</I> has the meaning given the term in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means each of the 50 States and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Unreasonable rate increase</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) When CMS is conducting the review required by this part, a rate increase that CMS determines under § 154.205 is:
</P>
<P>(i) An excessive rate increase;
</P>
<P>(ii) An unjustified rate increase; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An unfairly discriminatory rate increase.
</P>
<P>(2) When CMS adopts the determination of a State that has an Effective Rate Review Program, a rate increase that the State determines is excessive, unjustified, unfairly discriminatory, or otherwise unreasonable as provided under applicable State law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 29985, May 23, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 54976, Sept. 6, 2011; 79 FR 30342, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10863, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 94175, Dec. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.103" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.103   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The requirements of this part apply to health insurance issuers offering health insurance coverage in the individual market and small group market.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirements of this part do not apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) Grandfathered health plan coverage as defined in § 147.140 of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Excepted benefits as described in section 2791(c) of the PHS Act; and
</P>
<P>(3) For coverage effective on or after July 1, 2018, student health insurance coverage as defined in § 147.145 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 29985, May 23, 2011, as amended at 83 FR 17060, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Disclosure and Review Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.200" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.200   Rate increases subject to review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A rate increase filed in a State, or effective in a State that does not require a rate increase to be filed, is subject to review if:
</P>
<P>(1) The rate increase is 15 percent or more applicable to a 12-month period that begins on January 1, as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The rate increase meets or exceeds a State-specific threshold applicable to a 12-month period that begins on January 1, as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section, determined by the Secretary. A State-specific threshold shall be based on factors impacting rate increases in a State to the extent that the data relating to such State-specific factors are available by August 1 of the preceding year. States interested in proposing a State-specific threshold greater than the Federal default stated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are required to submit a proposal for approval of such threshold to the Secretary by August 1 of the preceding year, in the form and manner specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) A rate increase meets or exceeds the applicable threshold set forth in paragraph (a) of this section if the average increase, including premium rating factors described in § 147.102 of this subchapter, for all enrollees weighted by premium volume for any plan within the product meets or exceeds the applicable threshold.
</P>
<P>(c) If a rate increase that does not otherwise meet or exceed the threshold under paragraph (b) of this section meets or exceeds the threshold when combined with a previous increase or increases during the 12-month period preceding the date on which the rate increase would become effective, then the rate increase must be considered to meet or exceed the threshold and is subject to review under § 154.210, and such review shall include a review of the aggregate rate increases during the applicable 12-month period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17060, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.205" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.205   Unreasonable rate increases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When CMS reviews a rate increase subject to review under § 154.210(a), CMS will determine that the rate increase is an unreasonable rate increase if the increase is an excessive rate increase, an unjustified rate increase, or an unfairly discriminatory rate increase.
</P>
<P>(b) The rate increase is an excessive rate increase if the increase causes the premium charged for the health insurance coverage to be unreasonably high in relation to the benefits provided under the coverage. In determining whether the rate increase causes the premium charged to be unreasonably high in relationship to the benefits provided, CMS will consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the rate increase results in a projected medical loss ratio below the Federal medical loss ratio standard in the applicable market to which the rate increase applies, after accounting for any adjustments allowable under Federal law;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether one or more of the assumptions on which the rate increase is based is not supported by substantial evidence; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the choice of assumptions or combination of assumptions on which the rate increase is based is unreasonable.
</P>
<P>(c) The rate increase is an unjustified rate increase if the health insurance issuer provides data or documentation to CMS in connection with the increase that is incomplete, inadequate or otherwise does not provide a basis upon which the reasonableness of an increase may be determined.
</P>
<P>(d) The rate increase is an unfairly discriminatory rate increase if the increase results in premium differences between insureds within similar risk categories that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are not permissible under applicable State law; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the absence of an applicable State law, do not reasonably correspond to differences in expected costs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.210" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.210   Review of rate increases subject to review by CMS or by a State.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, CMS will review a rate increase subject to review to determine whether it is unreasonable, as required by this part.
</P>
<P>(b) CMS will adopt a State's determination of whether a rate increase is an unreasonable rate increase, if the State:
</P>
<P>(1) Has an Effective Rate Review Program as described in § 154.301; and
</P>
<P>(2) The State provides to CMS, on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Secretary, its final determination of whether a rate increase is unreasonable, which must include a brief explanation of how its analysis of the relevant factors set forth in § 154.301(a)(3) caused it to arrive at that determination, within five business days following the State's final determination.
</P>
<P>(c) CMS will post and maintain on its Web site a list of the States with market segments that meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.215" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.215   Submission of rate filing justification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A health insurance issuer must submit to CMS and to the applicable State (if the State accepts such submissions) the information specified below on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(1) For all single risk pool products, including new and discontinuing products, the Unified Rate Review Template, as described in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) For each single risk pool product that includes a plan that is subject to a rate increase, regardless of the size of the increase, the unified rate review template and actuarial memorandum, as described in paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) For each single risk pool product that includes a plan with a rate increase that is subject to review under § 154.210, all parts of the Rate Filing Justification, as described in paragraph (b) of this section
</P>
<P>(b) A Rate Filing Justification includes one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Unified rate review template (Part I), as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Written description justifying the rate increase (Part II), as described in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Rating filing documentation (Part III), as described in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) Content of unified rate review template (Part I): The unified rate review template must include the following as determined appropriate by the Secretary:
</P>
<P>(1) Historical and projected claims experience.
</P>
<P>(2) Trend projections related to utilization, and service or unit cost.
</P>
<P>(3) Any claims assumptions related to benefit changes.
</P>
<P>(4) Allocation of the overall rate increase to claims and non-claims costs.
</P>
<P>(5) Per enrollee per month allocation of current and projected premium.
</P>
<P>(6) Three year history of rate increases for the product associated with the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(e) Content of written description justifying the rate increase (Part II): The written description of the rate increase must include a simple and brief narrative describing the data and assumptions that were used to develop the rate increase and including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Explanation of the most significant factors causing the rate increase, including a brief description of the relevant claims and non-claims expense increases reported in the rate increase summary.
</P>
<P>(2) Brief description of the overall experience of the policy, including historical and projected expenses, and loss ratios.
</P>
<P>(f) Content of rate filing documentation (Part III): The rate filing documentation must include an actuarial memorandum that contains the reasoning and assumptions supporting the data contained in Part I of the Rate Filing Justification. Parts I and III must be sufficient to conduct an examination satisfying the requirements of § 154.301(a)(3) and (4) and determine whether the rate increase is an unreasonable increase. Instructions concerning the requirements for the rate filing documentation will be provided in guidance issued by CMS.
</P>
<P>(g) If the level of detail provided by the issuer for the information under paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section does not provide sufficient basis for CMS to determine whether the rate increase is an unreasonable rate increase when CMS reviews a rate increase subject to review under § 154.210(a), CMS will request the additional information necessary to make its determination. The health insurance issuer must provide the requested information to CMS within 10 business days following its receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(h) Posting of the disclosure on the CMS Web site:
</P>
<P>(1) CMS promptly will make available to the public on its Web site the information contained in Part II of each Rate Filing Justification.
</P>
<P>(2) CMS will make available to the public on its website the information contained in Parts I and III of each Rate Filing Justification that is not a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information as defined in HHS's Freedom of Information Act regulations, 45 CFR 5.31(d).
</P>
<P>(3) CMS will include a disclaimer on its Web site with the information made available to the public that explains the purpose and role of the Rate Filing Justification.
</P>
<P>(4) CMS will include information on its Web site concerning how the public can submit comments on the proposed rate increases that CMS reviews.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13440, Feb. 27, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10864, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12335, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17060, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.220" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.220   Timing of providing the rate filing justification.</HEAD>
<P>A health insurance issuer must submit applicable sections of the Rate Filing Justification for all single risk pool coverage in the individual or small group market, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) For rate increases for coverage effective prior to January 1, 2016:
</P>
<P>(1) If a State requires that a proposed rate increase be filed with the State prior to the implementation of the rate, the health insurance issuer must submit to CMS and the applicable State the Rate Filing Justification on the date on which the health insurance issuer submits the proposed rate increase to the State.
</P>
<P>(2) For all other States, the health insurance issuer must submit to CMS and the State the Rate Filing Justification prior to the implementation of the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(b) For coverage effective on or after January 1, 2017, by the earlier of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The date by which the State requires submission of a rate filing; or
</P>
<P>(2) The date specified in guidance by the Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 10864, Feb. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 12336, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.225" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.225   Determination by CMS or a State of an unreasonable rate increase.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When CMS receives a Rate Filing Justification for a rate increase subject to review and CMS reviews the rate increase under § 154.210(a), CMS will make a timely determination whether the rate increase is an unreasonable rate increase.
</P>
<P>(1) CMS will post on its Web site its final determination and a brief explanation of its analysis, consistent with the form and manner prescribed by the Secretary under § 154.210(b)(2), within five business days following its final determination.
</P>
<P>(2) If CMS determines that the rate increase is an unreasonable rate increase, CMS will also provide its final determination and brief explanation to the health insurance issuer within five business days following its final determination.
</P>
<P>(b) If a State conducts a review under § 154.210(b), CMS will adopt the State's determination of whether a rate increase is unreasonable and post on the CMS Web site the State's final determination described in § 154.210(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) If a State determines that the rate increase is an unreasonable rate increase and the health insurance issuer is legally permitted to implement the unreasonable rate increase under applicable State law, CMS will provide the State's final determination and brief explanation to the health insurance issuer within five business days following CMS's receipt thereof.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 29985, May 23, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 13441, Feb. 27, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.230" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.230   Submission and posting of Final Justifications for unreasonable rate increases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a health insurance issuer receives from CMS a final determination by CMS or a State that a rate increase is an unreasonable rate increase, and the health insurance issuer declines to implement the rate increase or chooses to implement a lower increase, the health insurance issuer must submit to CMS timely notice that it will not implement the rate increase or that it will implement a lower increase on a form and in the manner prescribed by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) If a health insurance issuer implements a lower increase as described in paragraph (a) of this section and the lower increase does not meet or exceed the applicable threshold under § 154.200, such lower increase is not subject to this part. If the lower increase meets or exceeds the applicable threshold, the health insurance issuer must submit a new Rate Filing Justification under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) If a health insurance issuer implements a rate increase determined by CMS or a State to be unreasonable, within the later of 10 business days after the implementation of such increase or the health insurance issuer's receipt of CMS's final determination that a rate increase is an unreasonable rate increase, the health insurance issuer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit to CMS a Final Justification in response to CMS's or the State's final determination, as applicable. The information in the Final Justification must be consistent with the information submitted in the Rate Filing Justification supporting the rate increase; and
</P>
<P>(2) Prominently post on its Web site the following information on a form and in the manner prescribed by the Secretary:
</P>
<P>(i) The information made available to the public by CMS and described in § 154.215(h).
</P>
<P>(ii) CMS's or the State's final determination and brief explanation described in §§ 154.225(a) and 154.210(b)(2), as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The health insurance issuer's Final Justification for implementing an increase that has been determined to be unreasonable by CMS or the State, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) The health insurance issuer must continue to make this information available to the public on its Web site for at least three years.
</P>
<P>(d) CMS will post all Final Justifications on the CMS Web site. This information will remain available to the public on the CMS Web site for three years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 29985, May 23, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 13441, Feb. 27, 2013; 81 FR 12336, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Effective Rate Review Programs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 154.301" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.12.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 154.301   CMS's determinations of Effective Rate Review Programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective Rate Review Program.</I> In evaluating whether a State has an Effective Rate Review Program, CMS will apply the following criteria for the review of rates for the small group market and the individual market, and also, as applicable depending on State law, the review of rates for different types of products within those markets:
</P>
<P>(1) The State receives from issuers data and documentation in connection with rate increases that are sufficient to conduct the examination described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The State conducts an effective and timely review of the data and documentation submitted by a health insurance issuer in support of a proposed rate increase.
</P>
<P>(3) The State's rate review process includes an examination of:
</P>
<P>(i) The reasonableness of the assumptions used by the health insurance issuer to develop the proposed rate increase and the validity of the historical data underlying the assumptions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The health insurance issuer's data related to past projections and actual experience.
</P>
<P>(iii) The reasonableness of assumptions used by the health insurance issuer to estimate the rate impact of the reinsurance and risk adjustment programs under sections 1341 and 1343 of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(iv) The health insurance issuer's data related to implementation and ongoing utilization of a market-wide single risk pool, essential health benefits, actuarial values and other market reform rules as required by the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(4) The examination must take into consideration the following factors to the extent applicable to the filing under review:
</P>
<P>(i) The impact of medical trend changes by major service categories.
</P>
<P>(ii) The impact of utilization changes by major service categories.
</P>
<P>(iii) The impact of cost-sharing changes by major service categories, including actuarial values.
</P>
<P>(iv) The impact of benefit changes, including essential health benefits and non-essential health benefits.
</P>
<P>(v) The impact of changes in enrollee risk profile and pricing, including rating limitations for age and tobacco use under section 2701 of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(vi) The impact of any overestimate or underestimate of medical trend for prior year periods related to the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(vii) The impact of changes in reserve needs;
</P>
<P>(viii) The impact of changes in administrative costs related to programs that improve health care quality;
</P>
<P>(ix) The impact of changes in other administrative costs;
</P>
<P>(x) The impact of changes in applicable taxes, licensing or regulatory fees.
</P>
<P>(xi) Medical loss ratio.
</P>
<P>(xii) The health insurance issuer's capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The impacts of geographic factors and variations.
</P>
<P>(xiv) The impact of changes within a single risk pool to all products or plans within the risk pool.
</P>
<P>(xv) The impact of reinsurance and risk adjustment payments and charges under sections 1341 and 1343 of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(5) The State's determination of whether a rate increase is unreasonable is made under a standard that is set forth in State statute or regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public disclosure and input.</I> (1) In addition to satisfying the provisions in paragraph (a) of this section, a State with an Effective Rate Review Program must provide:
</P>
<P>(i) For proposed rate increases subject to review, access from its Web site to at least the information contained in Parts I, II, and III of the Rate Filing Justification that CMS makes available on its Web site (or provide CMS's Web address for such information), and have a mechanism for receiving public comments on those proposed rate increases, no later than the date specified in guidance by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning with rates filed for coverage effective on or after January 1, 2016, for all final rate increases (including those not subject to review), access from its Web site to at least the information contained in Parts I, II, and III of the Rate Filing Justification (as applicable) that CMS makes available on its Web site (or provide CMS's Web address for such information), no later than the first day of the annual open enrollment period in the individual market for the applicable calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) If a State intends to make the information in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section available to the public prior to the date specified by the Secretary, or if it intends to make the information in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section available to the public prior to the first day of the annual open enrollment period in the individual market for the applicable calendar year, the State must notify CMS in writing, no later than five (5) business days prior to the date it intends to make the information public, of its intent to do so and the date it intends to make the information public.
</P>
<P>(3) A State with an Effective Rate Review Program must ensure the information in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section is made available to the public at a uniform time for all proposed and final rate increases, as applicable, in the relevant market segment and without regard to whether coverage is offered through or outside an Exchange.
</P>
<P>(c) CMS will determine whether a State has an Effective Rate Review Program for each market based on information available to CMS that a rate review program meets the criteria described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) CMS reserves the right to evaluate from time to time whether, and to what extent, a State's circumstances have changed such that it has begun to or has ceased to satisfy the criteria set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 29985, May 23, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 13441, Feb. 27, 2013; 80 FR 10864, Feb. 27, 2015; 83 FR 17060, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="155" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 155—EXCHANGE ESTABLISHMENT STANDARDS AND OTHER RELATED STANDARDS UNDER THE AFFORDABLE CARE ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 18021-18024, 18031-18033, 18041-18042, 18051, 18054, 18071, and 18081-18083.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 11718, Feb. 27, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions.</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.10" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.10   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This part is based on the following sections of title I of the Affordable Care Act:
</P>
<P>(1) 1301. Qualified health plan defined
</P>
<P>(2) 1302. Essential health benefits requirements
</P>
<P>(3) 1303. Special rules
</P>
<P>(4) 1304. Related definitions
</P>
<P>(5) 1311. Affordable choices of health benefit plans.
</P>
<P>(6) 1312. Consumer choice
</P>
<P>(7) 1313. Financial integrity.
</P>
<P>(8) 1321. State flexibility in operation and enforcement of Exchanges and related requirements.
</P>
<P>(9) 1322. Federal program to assist establishment and operation of nonprofit, member-run health insurance issuers.
</P>
<P>(10) 1331. State flexibility to establish Basic Health Programs for low-income individuals not eligible for Medicaid.
</P>
<P>(11) 1334. Multi-State plans.
</P>
<P>(12) 1402. Reduced cost-sharing for individuals enrolling in QHPs.
</P>
<P>(13) 1411. Procedures for determining eligibility for Exchange participation, advance premium tax credits and reduced cost sharing, and individual responsibility exemptions.
</P>
<P>(14) 1412. Advance determination and payment of premium tax credits and cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(15) 1413. Streamlining of procedures for enrollment through an exchange and State Medicaid, CHIP, and health subsidy programs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part establishes minimum standards for the establishment of an Exchange, minimum Exchange functions, eligibility determinations, enrollment periods, minimum SHOP functions, certification of QHPs, and health plan quality improvement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.20" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Advance payments of the premium tax credit</I> means payment of the tax credit authorized by 26 U.S.C. 36B and its implementing regulations, which are provided on an advance basis to an eligible individual enrolled in a QHP through an Exchange in accordance with section 1412 of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Affordable Care Act</I> means the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-148), as amended by the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-152).
</P>
<P><I>Agent or broker</I> means a person or entity licensed by the State as an agent, broker or insurance producer.
</P>
<P><I>Agent or broker direct enrollment technology provider</I> means a type of web-broker business entity that is not a licensed agent or broker under State law and has been engaged or created by, or is owned by an agent or broker, to provide technology services to facilitate participation in direct enrollment under §§ 155.220(c)(3) and 155.221.
</P>
<P><I>Annual open enrollment period</I> means the period each year during which a qualified individual may enroll or change coverage in a QHP through the Exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual who is seeking eligibility for him or herself through an application submitted to the Exchange, excluding those individuals seeking eligibility for an exemption from the individual shared responsibility payment pursuant to subpart G of this part, or transmitted to the Exchange by an agency administering an insurance affordability program for at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Medicaid, CHIP, and the BHP, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) For SHOP:
</P>
<P>(i) An employer seeking eligibility to purchase coverage through the SHOP; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An employer, employee, or a former employee seeking eligibility for enrollment in a QHP through the SHOP for himself or herself and, if the qualified employer offers dependent coverage through the SHOP, seeking eligibility to enroll his or her dependents in a QHP through the SHOP.
</P>
<P><I>Application filer</I> means an applicant, an adult who is in the applicant's household, as defined in 42 CFR 435.603(f), or family, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(d), an authorized representative of an applicant, or if the applicant is a minor or incapacitated, someone acting responsibly for an applicant, excluding those individuals seeking eligibility for an exemption from the individual shared responsibility payment pursuant to subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit year</I> means a calendar year for which a health plan provides coverage for health benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Catastrophic plan</I> means a health plan described in section 1302(e) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Code</I> means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
</P>
<P><I>Cost sharing</I> means any expenditure required by or on behalf of an enrollee with respect to essential health benefits; such term includes deductibles, coinsurance, copayments, or similar charges, but excludes premiums, balance billing amounts for non-network providers, and spending for non-covered services.
</P>
<P><I>Cost-sharing reductions</I> means reductions in cost sharing for an eligible individual enrolled in a silver level plan in the Exchange or for an individual who is an Indian enrolled in a QHP in the Exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Direct enrollment entity</I> means an entity that an Exchange permits to assist consumers with direct enrollment in qualified health plans offered through the Exchange in a manner considered to be through the Exchange as authorized by § 155.220(c)(3), § 155.221, or § 156.1230 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Direct enrollment entity application assister</I> means an employee, contractor, or agent of a direct enrollment entity who is not licensed as an agent, broker, or producer under State law and who assists individuals in the individual market with applying for a determination or redetermination of eligibility for coverage through the Exchange or for insurance affordability programs.
</P>
<P><I>Educated health care consumer</I> has the meaning given the term in section 1304(e) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible employer-sponsored plan</I> has the meaning given the term in section 5000A(f)(2) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible noncitizen</I> means an “eligible alien,” as defined in 26 U.S.C. 36B(e)(2)(B).
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> has the meaning given to the term in section 2791 of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P><I>Employer</I> has the meaning given to the term in section 2791 of the PHS Act, except that such term includes employers with one or more employees. All persons treated as a single employer under subsection (b), (c), (m), or (o) of section 414 of the Code are treated as one employer.
</P>
<P><I>Employer contributions</I> means any financial contributions towards an employer sponsored health plan, or other eligible employer-sponsored benefit made by the employer including those made by salary reduction agreement that is excluded from gross income.
</P>
<P><I>Enrollee</I> means a qualified individual or qualified employee enrolled in a QHP. Enrollee also means the dependent of a qualified employee enrolled in a QHP through the SHOP, and any other person who is enrolled in a QHP through the SHOP, consistent with applicable law and the terms of the group health plan. Provided that at least one employee enrolls in a QHP through the SHOP, enrollee also means a business owner enrolled in a QHP through the SHOP, or the dependent of a business owner enrolled in a QHP through the SHOP.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange</I> means a governmental agency or non-profit entity that meets the applicable standards of this part and makes QHPs available to qualified individuals and/or qualified employers. Unless otherwise identified, this term includes an Exchange serving the individual market for qualified individuals and a SHOP serving the small group market for qualified employers, regardless of whether the Exchange is established and operated by a State (including a regional Exchange or subsidiary Exchange) or by HHS.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange Blueprint</I> means information submitted by a State, an Exchange, or a regional Exchange that sets forth how an Exchange established by a State or a regional Exchange meets the Exchange approval standards established in § 155.105(b) and demonstrates operational readiness of an Exchange as described in § 155.105(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Exchange service area</I> means the area in which the Exchange is certified to operate, in accordance with the standards specified in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Federal platform agreement</I> means an agreement between a State Exchange and HHS under which a State Exchange agrees to rely on the Federal platform to carry out select Exchange functions.
</P>
<P><I>Federally-facilitated Exchange</I> means an Exchange established and operated within a State by the Secretary under section 1321(c)(1) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Federally-facilitated SHOP</I> means a Small Business Health Options Program established and operated within a State by the Secretary under section 1321(c)(1) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Full-time employee</I> has the meaning given in section 4980H (c)(4) of the Code effective for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2016, except for operations of a Federally-facilitated SHOP for which it is effective for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014 and in connection with open enrollment activities beginning October 1, 2013.
</P>
<P><I>Grandfathered health plan</I> has the meaning given the term in § 147.140.
</P>
<P><I>Group health plan</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 144.103.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance issuer</I> or <I>issuer</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 144.103.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance coverage</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 144.103.
</P>
<P><I>Health plan</I> has the meaning given to the term in section 1301(b)(1) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Individual market</I> has the meaning given the term in section 1304(a)(2) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Initial open enrollment period</I> means the period during which a qualified individual may enroll in coverage through the Exchange for coverage during the 2014 benefit year.
</P>
<P><I>Issuer application assister</I> means an employee, contractor, or agent of a QHP issuer who is not licensed as an agent, broker, or producer under State law and who assists individuals in the individual market with applying for a determination or redetermination of eligibility for coverage through the Exchange or for insurance affordability programs.
</P>
<P><I>Large employer</I> means, in connection with a group health plan with respect to a calendar year and a plan year, an employer who employed an average of at least 51 employees on business days during the preceding calendar year and who employs at least 1 employee on the first day of the plan year. In the case of an employer that was not in existence throughout the preceding calendar year, the determination of whether the employer is a large employer is based on the average number of employees that it is reasonably expected the employer will employ on business days in the current calendar year. A State may elect to define large employer by substituting “101 employees” for “51 employees.” The number of employees must be determined using the method set forth in section 4980H(c)(2) of the Code.


</P>
<P><I>Lawfully present</I> means a noncitizen who—
</P>
<P>(1) Is a qualified noncitizen as defined at 42 CFR 435.4;
</P>
<P>(2) Is in a valid nonimmigrant status, as defined in 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15) or otherwise under the immigration laws (as defined in 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(17));
</P>
<P>(3) Is paroled into the United States in accordance with 8 U.S.C. 1182(d)(5) for less than 1 year, except for a noncitizen paroled for prosecution, for deferred inspection or pending removal proceedings;
</P>
<P>(4) Is granted temporary resident status in accordance with 8 U.S.C. 1160 or 1255a;
</P>
<P>(5) Is granted Temporary Protected Status (TPS) in accordance with 8 U.S.C. 1254a;
</P>
<P>(6) Is granted employment authorization under 8 CFR 274a.12(c);
</P>
<P>(7) Is a Family Unity beneficiary in accordance with section 301 of Pub. L. 101-649 as amended; or section 1504 of the LIFE Act Amendments of 2000, title XV of H.R. 5666, enacted by reference in Pub. L. 106-554 (see section 1504 of App. D to Pub. L. 106-554);
</P>
<P>(8) Is covered by Deferred Enforced Departure (DED) in accordance with a decision made by the President;
</P>
<P>(9) Is granted deferred action;
</P>
<P>(10) Has a pending application for adjustment of status;
</P>
<P>(11)(i) Has a pending application for asylum under 8 U.S.C. 1158, for withholding of removal under 8 U.S.C. 1231(b)(3)(A), or for protection under the regulations implementing the Convention Against Torture; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is under the age of 14;
</P>
<P>(12) Has been granted withholding of removal under the regulations implementing the Convention Against Torture; or
</P>
<P>(13) Has a pending or approved petition for Special Immigrant Juvenile classification as described in 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(27)(J).
</P>
<P>(14) An individual with deferred action under the Department of Homeland Security's Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals process, as described at 8 CFR 236.22, shall not be considered to be lawfully present as described in any of the above categories in paragraphs (1) through (13) of this definition.


</P>
<P><I>Minimum essential coverage</I> has the meaning given in section 5000A(f) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Navigator</I> means a private or public entity or individual that is qualified, and licensed, if appropriate, to engage in the activities and meet the standards described in § 155.210.
</P>
<P><I>Plan year</I> means a consecutive 12 month period during which a health plan provides coverage for health benefits. A plan year may be a calendar year or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Plain language</I> has the meaning given to the term in section 1311(e)(3)(B) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Preponderance of the evidence</I> means proof by evidence that, compared with evidence opposing it, leads to the conclusion that the fact at issue is more likely true than not.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified employee</I> means any employee or former employee of a qualified employer who has been offered health insurance coverage by such qualified employer through the SHOP for himself or herself and, if the qualified employer offers dependent coverage through the SHOP, for his or her dependents.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified employer</I> means a small employer that elects to make, at a minimum, all full-time employees of such employer eligible for one or more QHPs in the small group market offered through a SHOP. Beginning in 2017, if a State allows large employers to purchase coverage through the SHOP, the term “qualified employer” shall include a large employer that elects to make all full-time employees of such employer eligible for one or more QHPs in the large group market offered through the SHOP.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified health plan</I> or <I>QHP</I> means a health plan that has in effect a certification that it meets the standards described in subpart C of part 156 issued or recognized by each Exchange through which such plan is offered in accordance with the process described in subpart K of part 155.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified health plan issuer</I> or <I>QHP issuer</I> means a health insurance issuer that offers a QHP in accordance with a certification from an Exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified health plan issuer direct enrollment technology provider</I> means a business entity that provides technology services or provides access to an information technology platform to QHP issuers to facilitate participation in direct enrollment under § 155.221 or § 156.1230, including a web-broker that provides services as a direct enrollment technology provider to QHP issuers. A QHP issuer direct enrollment technology provider that provides technology services or provides access to an information technology platform to a QHP issuer will be a downstream or delegated entity of the QHP issuer that participates or applies to participate as a direct enrollment entity.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual</I> means, with respect to an Exchange, an individual who has been determined eligible to enroll through the Exchange in a QHP in the individual market.
</P>
<P><I>SHOP</I> means a Small Business Health Options Program operated by an Exchange through which a qualified employer can provide its employees and their dependents with access to one or more QHPs.
</P>
<P><I>Small employer</I> means, in connection with a group health plan with respect to a calendar year and a plan year, an employer who employed an average of at least one but not more than 50 employees on business days during the preceding calendar year and who employs at least one employee on the first day of the plan year. In the case of an employer that was not in existence throughout the preceding calendar year, the determination of whether the employer is a small employer is based on the average number of employees that it is reasonably expected the employer will employ on business days in the current calendar year. A State may elect to define small employer by substituting “100 employees” for “50 employees.” The number of employees must be determined using the method set forth in section 4980H(c)(2) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Small group market</I> has the meaning given to the term in section 1304(a)(3) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Special enrollment period</I> means a period during which a qualified individual or enrollee who experiences certain qualifying events may enroll in, or change enrollment in, a QHP through the Exchange outside of the initial and annual open enrollment periods.






</P>
<P><I>State</I> means each of the 50 States and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Web-broker</I> means an individual agent or broker, group of agents or brokers, or business entity registered with an Exchange under § 155.220(d)(1) that develops and hosts a non-Exchange website that interfaces with an Exchange to assist consumers with direct enrollment in QHPs offered through the Exchange as described in § 155.220(c)(3) or § 155.221. The term also includes an agent or broker direct enrollment technology provider.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15532, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 39523, July 1, 2013; 78 FR 42313, July 15, 2013; 78 FR 54134, Aug. 30, 2013; 80 FR 10864, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12336, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94175, Dec. 22, 2016; 84 FR 17562, Apr. 25, 2019; 86 FR 24288, May 5, 2021; 89 FR 39436, May 8, 2024; 90 FR 27220, June 25, 2025; 91 FR 29864, May 20, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.30" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.30   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any part of the definition of “lawfully present” in § 155.20 held to be invalid or unenforceable, including as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision as permitted by law, along with other provisions not found invalid or unenforceable, including as applied to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances, unless such holding is that the provision of this subpart is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which event the provision shall be severable from the remainder of this subpart and shall not affect the remainder thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions in § 155.20 with respect to the definition of “lawfully present” are intended to be severable from one another.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 39436, May 8, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Standards Related to the Establishment of an Exchange</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.100" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.100   Establishment of a State Exchange.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Each State may elect to establish:
</P>
<P>(1) An Exchange that facilitates the purchase of health insurance coverage in QHPs in the individual market and that provides for the establishment of a SHOP; or
</P>
<P>(2) An Exchange that provides only for the establishment of a SHOP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> For plan years beginning before January 1, 2015, only States that provide reasonable assurances to CMS that they will be in a position to establish and operate only a SHOP for 2014 may elect to establish an Exchange that provides only for the establishment of a SHOP, pursuant to the process in § 155.105(c), (d), and/or (e), whichever is applicable. For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, any State may elect to establish an Exchange that provides only for the establishment of a SHOP, pursuant to the process in § 155.106(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible Exchange entities.</I> The Exchange must be a governmental agency or non-profit entity established by a State, consistent with § 155.110.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 54134, Aug. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.105" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.105   Approval of a State Exchange.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>State Exchange approval requirement.</I> Each State Exchange must be approved by HHS by no later than January 1, 2013 to offer QHPs on January 1, 2014, and thereafter required in accordance with § 155.106. HHS may consult with other Federal Government agencies in determining whether to approve an Exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>State Exchange approval standards.</I> HHS will approve the operation of an Exchange established by a State provided that it meets the following standards:
</P>
<P>(1) The Exchange is able to carry out the required functions of an Exchange consistent with subparts C, D, E, F, G, H, and K of this part unless the State is approved to operate only a SHOP by HHS pursuant to § 155.100(a)(2), in which case the Exchange must perform the minimum functions described in subpart H and all applicable provisions of other subparts referenced therein;
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange is capable of carrying out the information reporting requirements in accordance with section 36B of the Code, unless the State is approved to operate only a SHOP by HHS pursuant to § 155.100(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(3) The entire geographic area of the State is in the service area of an Exchange, or multiple Exchanges consistent with § 155.140(b); and




</P>
<P>(c) <I>State Exchange approval process.</I> In order to have its Exchange approved, a State must:
</P>
<P>(1) Elect to establish an Exchange by submitting, in a form and manner specified by HHS, an Exchange Blueprint that sets forth how the Exchange meets the standards outlined in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrate operational readiness to execute its Exchange Blueprint through a readiness assessment conducted by HHS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State Exchange approval.</I> Each Exchange must receive written approval or conditional approval of its Exchange Blueprint and its performance under the operational readiness assessment consistent with paragraph (c) of this section in order to be considered an approved Exchange.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Significant changes to Exchange Blueprint.</I> The State must notify HHS in writing before making a significant change to its Exchange Blueprint; no significant change to an Exchange Blueprint may be effective until it is approved by HHS in writing or 60 days after HHS receipt of a completed request. For good cause, HHS may extend the review period by an additional 30 days to a total of 90 days. HHS may deny a request for a significant change to an Exchange Blueprint within the review period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>HHS operation of an Exchange.</I> (1) If a State does not elect to operate an Exchange under § 155.100(a)(1) or an electing State does not have an approved or conditionally approved Exchange pursuant to § 155.100(a)(1) by January 1, 2013, HHS must (directly or through agreement with a not-for-profit entity) establish and operate such Exchange within the State. In this case, the requirements in §§ 155.120(c), 155.130 and subparts C, D, E, F, G, H, and K of this part will apply.
</P>
<P>(2) If an electing State has an approved or conditionally approved Exchange pursuant to § 155.100(a)(2) by January 1, 2013, HHS must (directly or through agreement with a not-for-profit entity) establish and operate an Exchange that facilitates the purchase of health insurance coverage in QHPs in the individual market and operate such Exchange within the State. In this case, the requirements in §§ 155.120(c), 155.130 and subparts C, D, E, F, G, and K of this part will apply to the Exchange operated by HHS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42313, July 15, 2013; 78 FR 54134, Aug. 30, 2013; 89 FR 26419, Apr. 15, 2024; 91 FR 29864, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.106" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.106   Election to operate an Exchange after 2014.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Election to operate an Exchange.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a State electing to seek approval of its Exchange must:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with the State Exchange approval requirements and process set forth in § 155.105;
</P>
<P>(2) Submit an Exchange Blueprint application for HHS approval at least 15 months prior to the date on which the Exchange proposes to begin open enrollment as a State Exchange.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Public notice.</I> Upon submission of an Exchange Blueprint application to operate a State Exchange, the State shall issue a public notice of its Exchange Blueprint application submission through its website and include a copy of the Exchange Blueprint application, a description of the Plan Year for which the State seeks to transition to a State Exchange, language indicating that the State is seeking approval from HHS to transition to a State Exchange, and information about when and where the State will conduct public engagements regarding the State's Exchange Blueprint application, as described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Public engagements.</I> After a State issues its public notice as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and until HHS approves, or conditionally approves, the State's Exchange Blueprint application, a State must conduct at least one public engagement (such as a townhall meeting or public hearing) either in-person or virtually, regarding the State's Exchange Blueprint application progress, in a timeline and manner considered effective by the State and with HHS' concurrence. A State shall provide public notice of the public engagement. Such public engagement shall also provide interested parties the opportunity to learn about the State's progress in transitioning to a State Exchange and offer input on that transition. Following the initial public engagement described in this paragraph and until HHS approves or conditionally approves the State Exchange Blueprint application, a State shall conduct periodic public engagements, either in-person or virtually, in a timeframe and manner considered effective by the State.


</P>
<P>(3) Have in effect an approved, or conditionally approved, Exchange Blueprint and operational readiness assessment prior to the date on which the Exchange would begin open enrollment as a State Exchange;
</P>
<P>(4) Develop a plan jointly with HHS to facilitate the transition to a State Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(5) If the open enrollment period for the year the State intends to begin operating an SBE has not been established, this deadline must be calculated based on the date open enrollment began or will begin in the year in which the State is submitting the Blueprint application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition process for State Exchanges that cease operations.</I> If a State intends to cease operation of its Exchange, HHS will operate the Exchange on behalf of the State. Therefore, a State that intends to cease operations of its Exchange must:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify HHS that it will no longer operate an Exchange at least 12 months prior to ceasing operations; and
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinate with HHS on a transition plan to be developed jointly between HHS and the State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Process for State Exchanges that seek to utilize the Federal platform for select functions.</I> States may seek approval to operate a State Exchange utilizing the Federal platform for only the individual market. A State seeking approval to operate a State Exchange utilizing the Federal platform for the individual market to support select functions through a Federal platform agreement under § 155.200(f) must:
</P>
<P>(1) If the State Exchange does not have a conditionally approved Exchange Blueprint application, submit one for HHS approval at least 3 months prior to the date on which the Exchange proposes to begin open enrollment as an SBE-FP;
</P>
<P>(2) If the State Exchange has a conditionally approved Exchange Blueprint application, submit any significant changes to that application for HHS approval, in accordance with § 155.105(e), at least 3 months prior to the date on which the Exchange proposes to begin open enrollment as an SBE-FP;


</P>
<P>(3) Have in effect an approved, or conditionally approved, Exchange Blueprint and operational readiness assessment prior to the date on which the Exchange proposes to begin open enrollment as a State-based Exchanges on the Federal platform (SBE-FP), in accordance with HHS rules in this chapter, as a State Exchange utilizing the Federal platform;




</P>
<P>(4) Prior to approval, or conditional approval, of the Exchange Blueprint, execute a Federal platform agreement for utilizing the Federal platform for select functions; and
</P>
<P>(5) Coordinate with HHS on a transition plan to be developed jointly between HHS and the State.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 13837, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 12336, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17060, Apr. 17, 2018; 88 FR 25917, Apr. 27, 2023; 89 FR 26419, Apr. 15, 2024; 91 FR 29864, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.110" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.110   Entities eligible to carry out Exchange functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible contracting entities.</I> The State may elect to authorize an Exchange established by the State to enter into an agreement with an eligible entity to carry out one or more responsibilities of the Exchange. Eligible entities are:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Incorporated under, and subject to the laws of, one or more States;
</P>
<P>(ii) That has demonstrated experience on a State or regional basis in the individual and small group health insurance markets and in benefits coverage; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a health insurance issuer or treated as a health insurance issuer under subsection (a) or (b) of section 52 of the Code of 1986 as a member of the same controlled group of corporations (or under common control with) as a health insurance issuer; or
</P>
<P>(2) The State Medicaid agency, or any other State agency that meets the qualifications of paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibility.</I> To the extent that an Exchange establishes such agreements, the Exchange remains responsible for ensuring that all Federal requirements related to contracted functions are met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Governing board structure.</I> If the Exchange is an independent State agency or a non-profit entity established by the State, the State must ensure that the Exchange has in place a clearly-defined governing board that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is administered under a formal, publicly-adopted operating charter or by-laws;
</P>
<P>(2) Holds regular public governing board meetings that are announced in advance;
</P>
<P>(3) Represents consumer interests by ensuring that overall governing board membership:
</P>
<P>(i) Includes at least one voting member who is a consumer representative;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not made up of a majority of voting representatives with a conflict of interest, including representatives of health insurance issuers or agents or brokers, or any other individual licensed to sell health insurance; and
</P>
<P>(4) Ensures that a majority of the voting members on its governing board have relevant experience in health benefits administration, health care finance, health plan purchasing, health care delivery system administration, public health, or health policy issues related to the small group and individual markets and the uninsured.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Governance principles.</I> (1) The Exchange must have in place and make publicly available a set of guiding governance principles that include ethics, conflict of interest standards, accountability and transparency standards, and disclosure of financial interest.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must implement procedures for disclosure of financial interests by members of the Exchange board or governance structure.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>SHOP independent governance.</I> (1) A State may elect to create an independent governance and administrative structure for the SHOP, consistent with this section, if the State ensures that the SHOP coordinates and shares relevant information with the Exchange operating in the same service area.
</P>
<P>(2) If a State chooses to operate its Exchange and SHOP under a single governance or administrative structure, it must ensure that the Exchange has adequate resources to assist individuals and small employers in the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>HHS review.</I> HHS may periodically review the accountability structure and governance principles of a State Exchange.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.120" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.120   Non-interference with Federal law and non-discrimination standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-interference with Federal law.</I> An Exchange must not establish rules that conflict with or prevent the application of regulations promulgated by HHS under subtitle D of title I of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-interference with State law.</I> Nothing in parts 155, 156, or 157 of this subchapter shall be construed to preempt any State law that does not prevent the application of the provisions of title I of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-discrimination.</I> (1) In carrying out the requirements of this part, the State and the Exchange must:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with applicable non-discrimination statutes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Not discriminate based on race, color, national origin, disability, age, or sex (which includes discrimination on the basis of sex characteristics, including intersex traits; pregnancy or related conditions; sexual orientation; gender identity; and sex stereotypes).


</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, an organization that receives Federal funds to provide services to a defined population under the terms of Federal legal authorities that participates in the certified application counselor program under § 155.225 may limit its provision of certified application counselor services to the same defined population, but must comply with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section with respect to the provision of certified application counselor services to that defined population. If the organization limits its provision of certified application counselor services pursuant to this exception, but is approached for certified application counselor services by an individual who is not included in the defined population that the organization serves, the organization must refer the individual to other Exchange-approved resources that can provide assistance. If the organization does not limit its provision of certified application counselor services pursuant to this exception, the organization must comply with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 30342, May 27, 2014; 85 FR 37247, June 19, 2020; 89 FR 37703, May 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.130" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.130   Stakeholder consultation.</HEAD>
<P>The Exchange must regularly consult on an ongoing basis with the following stakeholders:
</P>
<P>(a) Educated health care consumers who are enrollees in QHPs;
</P>
<P>(b) Individuals and entities with experience in facilitating enrollment in health coverage;
</P>
<P>(c) Advocates for enrolling hard to reach populations, which include individuals with mental health or substance abuse disorders;
</P>
<P>(d) Small businesses and self-employed individuals;
</P>
<P>(e) State Medicaid and CHIP agencies;
</P>
<P>(f) Federally-recognized Tribes, as defined in the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994, 25 U.S.C. 479a, that are located within such Exchange's geographic area;
</P>
<P>(g) Public health experts;
</P>
<P>(h) Health care providers;
</P>
<P>(i) Large employers;
</P>
<P>(j) Health insurance issuers; and
</P>
<P>(k) Agents and brokers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.140" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.140   Establishment of a regional Exchange or subsidiary Exchange.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regional Exchange.</I> A State may participate in a regional Exchange if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Exchange spans two or more States, regardless of whether the States are contiguous; and
</P>
<P>(2) The regional Exchange submits a single Exchange Blueprint and is approved to operate consistent with § 155.105(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subsidiary Exchange.</I> A State may establish one or more subsidiary Exchanges within the State if:
</P>
<P>(1) Each such Exchange serves a geographically distinct area; and
</P>
<P>(2) The area served by each subsidiary Exchange is at least as large as a rating area described in section 2701(a) of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exchange standards.</I> Each regional or subsidiary Exchange must:
</P>
<P>(1) Otherwise meet the requirements of an Exchange consistent with this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Meet the following standards for SHOP:
</P>
<P>(i) Perform the functions of a SHOP for its service area in accordance with subpart H of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Encompass the same geographic area for its regional or subsidiary SHOP and its regional or subsidiary Exchange except:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a regional Exchange established pursuant to § 155.100(a)(2), the regional SHOP must encompass a geographic area that matches the combined geographic areas of the individual market Exchanges established to serve the same set of States establishing the regional SHOP; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a subsidiary Exchange established pursuant to § 155.100(a)(2), the combined geographic area of all subsidiary SHOPs established in the State must encompass the geographic area of the individual market Exchange established to serve the State.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 54134, Aug. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.150" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.150   Transition process for existing State health insurance exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Presumption.</I> Unless an exchange is determined to be non-compliant through the process in paragraph (b) of this section, HHS will otherwise presume that an existing State exchange meets the standards under this part if:
</P>
<P>(1) The exchange was in operation prior to January 1, 2010; and
</P>
<P>(2) The State has insured a percentage of its population not less than the percentage of the population projected to be covered nationally after the implementation of the Affordable Care Act, according to the Congressional Budget Office estimates for projected coverage in 2016 that were published on March 30, 2011.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Process for determining non-compliance.</I> Any State described in paragraph (a) of this section must work with HHS to identify areas of non-compliance with the standards under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.160" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.160   Financial support for continued operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, participating issuers has the meaning provided in § 156.50.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Funding for ongoing operations.</I> A State must ensure that its Exchange has sufficient funding in order to support its ongoing operations beginning January 1, 2015, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) States may generate funding, such as through user fees on participating issuers, for Exchange operations; and
</P>
<P>(2) No Federal grants under section 1311 of the Affordable Care Act will be awarded for State Exchange establishment after January 1, 2015.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.170" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.170   Additional required benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Additional required benefits.</I> (1) A State may require a QHP to offer benefits in addition to the essential health benefits. For plan years beginning before January 1, 2028, a benefit required by State action taking place on or before December 31, 2011, a benefit required by State action for purposes of compliance with Federal requirements, or a benefit covered in the State's EHB-benchmark plan is considered an EHB. A benefit required by State action taking place on or after January 1, 2012, other than for purposes of compliance with Federal requirements, that is not a benefit covered in the State's EHB-benchmark plan is considered in addition to the essential health benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2028, a State may require a QHP to cover benefits in addition to the essential health benefits, which are any State-required benefits that are:
</P>
<P>(i) Required by a State action taking place after December 31, 2011;
</P>
<P>(ii) Applicable to the small group and/or individual markets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specific to required care, treatment, or services; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Not required by State action for purposes of compliance with Federal requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) A State must make payments in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section to defray the cost of any State-required benefits in addition to the EHB.


</P>
<P>(4) The State will identify which State-required benefits are in addition to the EHB.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payments.</I> The State must make payments to defray the cost of additional required benefits specified in paragraph (a) of this section to one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) To an enrollee, as defined in § 155.20 of this subchapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) Directly to the QHP issuer on behalf of the individual described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cost of additional required benefits.</I> (1) Each QHP issuer in the State shall quantify cost attributable to each additional required benefit specified in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A QHP issuer's calculation shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on an analysis performed in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and methodologies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Conducted by a member of the American Academy of Actuaries; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reported to the State.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12865, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 12337, Mar. 8, 2016; 89 FR 26419, Apr. 15, 2024; 91 FR 29864, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—General Functions of an Exchange</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.200" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.200   Functions of an Exchange.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> An Exchange must perform the functions described in this subpart and in subparts D, E, F, G, H, K, M, and O of this part unless the State is approved to operate only a SHOP by HHS under § 155.100(a)(2), in which case the Exchange operated by the State must perform the functions described in subpart H of this part and all applicable provisions of other subparts referenced in that subpart. In a State that is approved to operate only a SHOP, the individual market Exchange operated by HHS in that State will perform the functions described in this subpart and in subparts D, E, F, G, K, M, and O of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certificates of exemption.</I> The Exchange must issue certificates of exemption consistent with sections 1311(d)(4)(H) and 1411 of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Oversight and financial integrity.</I> The Exchange must perform required functions and cooperate with activities related to oversight and financial integrity requirements in accordance with section 1313 of the Affordable Care Act and as required under this part, including overseeing its Exchange programs and non-Exchange entities as defined in § 155.260(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quality activities.</I> The Exchange must evaluate quality improvement strategies and oversee implementation of enrollee satisfaction surveys, assessment and ratings of health care quality and outcomes, information disclosures, and data reporting in accordance with sections 1311(c)(1), 1311(c)(3), and 1311(c)(4) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Clarification.</I> In carrying out its responsibilities under this subpart, an Exchange is not operating on behalf of a QHP.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requirements for State Exchanges on the Federal platform.</I> (1) A State that receives approval or conditional approval to operate a State Exchange on the Federal platform under § 155.106(c) may meet its obligations under paragraph (a) of this section by relying on Federal services that the Federal government agrees to provide under a Federal platform agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) A State Exchange on the Federal platform must establish and oversee requirements for its issuers that are no less strict than the following requirements that are applied to Federally-facilitated Exchange issuers:
</P>
<P>(i) Data submission requirements under § 156.122(d)(2) of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(ii)—(iv) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(v) Changes of ownership of issuers requirements under § 156.330 of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(vi) QHP issuer compliance and compliance of delegated or downstream entities requirements under § 156.340(a)(4) of this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Casework requirements under § 156.1010 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(3) If a State is not substantially enforcing any requirement listed under § 155.200(f)(2) with respect to a QHP issuer or plan in a State-based Exchange on the Federal platform, HHS may enforce that requirement directly against the issuer or plan by means of plan suppression under § 156.815 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(4) A State Exchange on the Federal platform that utilizes the Federal platform for SHOP functions, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, must require its QHP issuers to make any changes to rates in accordance with the timeline applicable in a Federally-facilitated SHOP under § 155.706(b)(6)(i)(A). A State Exchange on the Federal platform that utilizes the Federal platform for SHOP functions, as set forth in paragraphs (f)(4)(i) through (vii) of this section, for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018, must—
</P>
<P>(i) If utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP eligibility, enrollment, or premium aggregation functions, establish standard processes for premium calculation, premium payment, and premium collection that are consistent with the requirements applicable in a Federally-facilitated SHOP under § 155.705(b)(4);
</P>
<P>(ii) If utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP enrollment or premium aggregation functions, require its QHP issuers to make any changes to rates in accordance with the timeline applicable in a Federally-facilitated SHOP under § 155.705(b)(6)(i)(A);
</P>
<P>(iii) If utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP enrollment functions, establish minimum participation rate requirements and calculation methodologies that are consistent with those applicable in a Federally-facilitated SHOP under § 155.705(b)(10);
</P>
<P>(iv) If utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP enrollment or premium aggregation functions, establish employer contribution methodologies that are consistent with the methodologies applicable in a Federally-facilitated SHOP under § 155.705(b)(11)(ii);
</P>
<P>(v) If utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP enrollment functions, establish annual employee open enrollment period requirements that are consistent with § 155.725(e)(2);
</P>
<P>(vi) If utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP enrollment functions, establish effective dates of coverage for an initial group enrollment or a group renewal that are consistent with the effective dates of coverage applicable in a Federally-facilitated SHOP under § 155.725(h)(2); and
</P>
<P>(vii) If utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP eligibility, enrollment, or premium aggregation functions, establish policies for the termination of SHOP coverage or enrollment that are consistent with the requirements applicable in a Federally-facilitated SHOP under § 155.735.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 39523, July 1, 2013; 78 FR 54134, Aug. 30, 2013; 81 FR 12337, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94175, Dec. 22, 2016; 83 FR 17060, Apr. 17, 2018; 84 FR 71710, Dec. 27, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.205" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.205   Consumer assistance tools and programs of an Exchange.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Call center.</I> If the Exchange is not an Exchange described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, the Exchange must provide for operation of a toll-free call center that addresses the needs of consumers requesting assistance and meets the requirements outlined in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2)(i), and (c)(3) of this section and at § 155.405(c)(2)(ii). At a minimum, the Exchange call center must provide consumers with access to a live call center representative during an Exchange's published hours of operation and a live call center representative who must be able to assist consumers with filing their Exchange application, including providing consumers with information on their eligibility for advance premium tax credits and cost-sharing reductions, facilitating a consumer's comparison of QHPs, and helping consumers complete their Exchange applications for submission to the Exchange. If the Exchange is an Exchange described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, the Exchange must provide at a minimum a toll-free telephone hotline that includes the capability to provide information to consumers about eligibility and enrollment processes, and to appropriately direct consumers to the applicable Exchange website and other applicable resources.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Internet Web site.</I> The Exchange must maintain an up-to-date Internet Web site that meets the requirements outlined in paragraph (c) of this section and:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides standardized comparative information on each available QHP and at a minimum includes:


</P>
<P>(i) Premium and cost-sharing information;
</P>
<P>(ii) The summary of benefits and coverage established under section 2715 of the PHS Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of whether the QHP is a bronze, silver, gold, or platinum level plan as defined by section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act, or a catastrophic plan as defined by section 1302(e) of the Affordable Care Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) The results of the enrollee satisfaction survey, as described in section 1311(c)(4) of the Affordable Care Act;
</P>
<P>(v) Quality ratings assigned in accordance with section 1311(c)(3) of the Affordable Care Act;
</P>
<P>(vi) Medical loss ratio information as reported to HHS in accordance with 45 CFR part 158;
</P>
<P>(vii) Transparency of coverage measures reported to the Exchange during certification in accordance with § 155.1040; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The provider directory made available to the Exchange in accordance with § 156.230.
</P>
<P>(2) Publishes the following financial information:
</P>
<P>(i) The average costs of licensing required by the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any regulatory fees required by the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any payments required by the Exchange in addition to fees under paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Administrative costs of such Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(v) Monies lost to waste, fraud, and abuse.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides applicants with information about Navigators as described in § 155.210 and other consumer assistance services, including the toll-free telephone number of the Exchange call center required in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Allows for an individual to submit a single streamlined eligibility application to the Exchange in accordance with § 155.405 and for the Exchange to make all determinations of eligibility for enrollment in a QHP and insurance affordability programs, in accordance with subpart D of this part, through the operation of a centralized eligibility and enrollment platform on the Exchange's website; or, if the Exchange is a State-based Exchange on the Federal platform, through the Federal eligibility and enrollment platform.




</P>
<P>(5) Allows a qualified individual to select a QHP and allows the Exchange to maintain records of all QHP enrollments, in accordance with subpart E of this part, through the operation of a centralized eligibility and enrollment platform on the Exchange's website; or, if the Exchange is a State-based Exchange on the Federal platform, through the Federal eligibility and enrollment platform.


</P>
<P>(6) Makes available by electronic means a calculator to facilitate the comparison of available QHPs after the application of any advance payments of the premium tax credit and any cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(7) A State-based Exchange on the Federal platform must at a minimum maintain an informational Internet Web site that includes the capability to direct consumers to Federal platform services to apply for, and enroll in, Exchange coverage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accessibility.</I> Information must be provided to applicants and enrollees in plain language and in a manner that is accessible and timely to—
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals living with disabilities including accessible Web sites and the provision of auxiliary aids and services at no cost to the individual in accordance with the Americans with Disabilities Act and section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals who are limited English proficient through the provision of language services at no cost to the individual, including
</P>
<P>(i) For all entities subject to this standard, oral interpretation.
</P>
<P>(A) For Exchanges and QHP issuers, this standard also includes telephonic interpreter services in at least 150 languages.
</P>
<P>(B) For a web-broker, beginning November 1, 2015, or when such entity has been registered with the Exchange for at least 1 year, whichever is later, this standard also includes telephonic interpreter services in at least 150 languages.
</P>
<P>(ii) Written translations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For all entities subject to this standard, taglines in non-English languages indicating the availability of language services.
</P>
<P>(A) For Exchanges and QHP issuers, this standard also includes taglines on Web site content and any document that is critical for obtaining health insurance coverage or access to health care services through a QHP for qualified individuals, applicants, qualified employers, qualified employees, or enrollees. A document is deemed to be critical for obtaining health insurance coverage or access to health care services through a QHP if it is required to be provided by law or regulation to a qualified individual, applicant, qualified employer, qualified employee, or enrollee. Such taglines must indicate the availability of language services in at least the top 15 languages spoken by the limited English proficient population of the relevant State or States, as determined in guidance published by the Secretary. If an Exchange is operated by an entity that operates multiple Exchanges, or if an Exchange relies on an entity to conduct its eligibility or enrollment functions and that entity conducts such functions for multiple Exchanges, the Exchange may aggregate the limited English proficient populations across all the States served by the entity that operates the Exchange or conducts its eligibility or enrollment functions to determine the top 15 languages required for taglines. A QHP issuer may aggregate the limited English proficient populations across all States served by the health insurance issuers within the issuer's controlled group (defined for purposes of this section as a group of two or more persons that is treated as a single employer under sections 52(a), 52(b), 414(m), or 414(o) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended), whether or not those health insurance issuers offer plans through the Exchange in each of those States, to determine the top 15 languages required for taglines. Exchanges and QHP issuers may satisfy tagline requirements with respect to Web site content if they post a Web link prominently on their home page that directs individuals to the full text of the taglines indicating how individuals may obtain language assistance services, and if they also include taglines on any critical stand-alone document linked to or embedded in the Web site. Exchanges, and QHP issuers that are also subject to § 92.8 of this subtitle, will be deemed in compliance with paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section if they are in compliance with § 92.8 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(B) For a web-broker, beginning when such entity has been registered with the Exchange for at least 1 year, this standard also includes taglines on website content and any document that is critical for obtaining health insurance coverage or access to health care services through a QHP for qualified individuals, applicants, qualified employers, qualified employees, or enrollees. Website content or documents are deemed to be critical for obtaining health insurance coverage or access to health care services through a QHP if they are required to be provided by law or regulation to a qualified individual, applicant, qualified employer, qualified employee, or enrollee. Such taglines must indicate the availability of language services in at least the top 15 languages spoken by the limited English proficient population of the relevant State or States, as determined in guidance published by the Secretary. A web-broker that is licensed in and serving multiple States may aggregate the limited English populations in the States it serves to determine the top 15 languages required for taglines. A web-broker may satisfy tagline requirements with respect to website content if it posts a Web link prominently on its home page that directs individuals to the full text of the taglines indicating how individuals may obtain language assistance services, and if it also includes taglines on any critical stand-alone document linked to or embedded in the website.
</P>
<P>(iv) For Exchanges, QHP issuers, and web-brokers, website translations.
</P>
<P>(A) For an Exchange, beginning no later than the first day of the individual market open enrollment period for the 2017 benefit year, content that is intended for qualified individuals, applicants, qualified employers, qualified employees, or enrollees on a Web site that is maintained by the Exchange must be translated into any non-English language that is spoken by a limited English proficient population that reaches 10 percent or more of the population of the relevant State, as determined in guidance published by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(B) For a QHP issuer, beginning no later than the first day of the individual market open enrollment period for the 2017 benefit year, if the content of a Web site maintained by the QHP issuer is critical for obtaining health insurance coverage or access to health care services through a QHP, within the meaning of § 156.250 of this subchapter, it must be translated into any non-English language that is spoken by a limited English proficient population that reaches 10 percent or more of the population of the relevant State, as determined in guidance published by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(C) For a web-broker, beginning on the first day of the individual market open enrollment period for the 2017 benefit year, or when such entity has been registered with the Exchange for at least 1 year, whichever is later, content that is intended for qualified individuals, applicants, qualified employers, qualified employees, or enrollees on a website that is maintained by the web-broker must be translated into any non-English language that is spoken by a limited English proficient population that comprises 10 percent or more of the population of the relevant State, as determined in guidance published by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) Inform individuals of the availability of the services described in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section and how to access such services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer assistance.</I> (1) The Exchange must have a consumer assistance function that meets the standards in paragraph (c) of this section, including the Navigator program described in § 155.210. Any individual providing such consumer assistance must be trained regarding QHP options, insurance affordability programs, eligibility, and benefits rules and regulations governing all insurance affordability programs operated in the State, as implemented in the State, prior to providing such assistance or the outreach and education activities specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must provide referrals to any applicable office of health insurance consumer assistance or health insurance ombudsman established under section 2793 of the Public Health Service Act, or any other appropriate State agency or agencies, for any enrollee with a grievance, complaint, or question regarding their health plan, coverage, or a determination under such plan or coverage.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Outreach and education.</I> The Exchange must conduct outreach and education activities that meet the standards in paragraph (c) of this section to educate consumers about the Exchange and insurance affordability programs to encourage participation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42859, July 17, 2013; 80 FR 10864, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12337, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94175, Dec. 22, 2016; 84 FR 17563, Apr. 25, 2019; 86 FR 24288, May 5, 2021; 89 FR 26419, Apr. 15, 2024; 91 FR 29864, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.206" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.206   Civil money penalties for violations of applicable Exchange standards by consumer assistance entities in Federally-facilitated Exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement actions.</I> If an individual or entity specified in paragraph (b) of this section engages in activity specified in paragraph (c) of this section, the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) may impose the following sanctions:
</P>
<P>(1) Civil money penalties (CMPs), subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Corrective action plans. In the notice of assessment of CMPs specified in paragraph (l) of this section, HHS may provide an individual or entity specified in paragraph (b) of this section the opportunity to enter into a corrective action plan to correct the violation instead of paying the CMP, based on evaluation of the factors set forth in paragraph (h) of this section. In the event that the individual or entity does not follow such a corrective action plan, HHS could require payment of the CMP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consumer assistance entities.</I> CMPs may be assessed under this section against the following consumer assistance entities:
</P>
<P>(1) Individual Navigators and Navigator entities in a Federally-facilitated Exchange, including grantees, sub-grantees, and all personnel carrying out Navigator duties on behalf of a grantee or sub-grantee;
</P>
<P>(2) Non-Navigator assistance personnel authorized under § 155.205(d) and (e) and non-Navigator assistance personnel entities in a Federally-facilitated Exchange, including but not limited to individuals and entities under contract with HHS to facilitate consumer enrollment in QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(3) Organizations that a Federally-facilitated Exchange has designated as certified application counselor organizations and individual certified application counselors carrying out certified application counselor duties in a Federally-facilitated Exchange.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Grounds for assessing CMPs.</I> HHS may assess CMPs against a consumer assistance entity if, based on the outcome of the investigative process outlined in paragraphs (d) through (i) of this section, HHS has reasonably determined that the consumer assistance entity has failed to comply with the Federal regulatory requirements applicable to the consumer assistance entity that have been implemented pursuant to section 1321(a)(1) of the Affordable Care Act, including provisions of any agreements, contracts, and grant terms and conditions between HHS and the consumer assistance entity that interpret those Federal regulatory requirements or establish procedures for compliance with them, unless a CMP has been assessed for the same conduct under 45 CFR 155.285.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Basis for initiating an investigation of a potential violation</I>—(1) <I>Information.</I> Any information received or learned by HHS that indicates that a consumer assistance entity may have engaged or may be engaging in activity specified in paragraph (c) of this section may warrant an investigation. Information that might trigger an investigation includes, but is not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Complaints from the general public;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reports from State regulatory agencies, and other Federal and State agencies; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information that indicates that a consumer assistance entity may have engaged or may be engaging in activity specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Who may file a complaint.</I> Any entity or individual, or the legally authorized representative of an entity or individual, may file a complaint with HHS alleging that a consumer assistance entity has engaged or is engaging in an activity specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of investigation.</I> When HHS performs an investigation under this section, it must provide a written notice to the consumer assistance entity of its investigation. This notice must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Description of the activity that is being investigated.
</P>
<P>(2) Explanation that the consumer assistance entity has 30 days from the date of the notice to respond with additional information or documentation, including information or documentation to refute an alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(3) State that a CMP might be assessed if the allegations are not, as determined by HHS, refuted within 30 days from the date of the notice.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request for extension.</I> In circumstances in which a consumer assistance entity cannot prepare a response to HHS within the 30 days provided in the notice of investigation described in paragraph (e) of this section, the entity may make a written request for an extension from HHS detailing the reason for the extension request and showing good cause. If HHS grants the extension, the consumer assistance entity must respond to the notice within the time frame specified in HHS's letter granting the extension of time. Failure to respond within 30 days, or, if applicable, within an extended time frame, may result in HHS's imposition of a CMP depending upon the outcome of HHS's investigation of the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Responses to allegations of noncompliance.</I> In determining whether to impose a CMP, HHS may review and consider documents or information received or collected in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section, as well as additional documents or information provided by the consumer assistance entity in response to receiving a notice of investigation in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section. HHS may also conduct an independent investigation into the alleged violation, which may include site visits and interviews, if applicable, and may consider the results of this investigation in its determination.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Factors in determining noncompliance and amount of CMPs, if any.</I> In determining whether there has been noncompliance by the consumer assistance entity, and whether CMPs are appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) HHS must take into account the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer assistance entity's previous or ongoing record of compliance, including but not limited to compliance or noncompliance with any corrective action plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) The gravity of the violation, which may be determined in part by—
</P>
<P>(A) The frequency of the violation, taking into consideration whether any violation is an isolated occurrence, represents a pattern, or is widespread; and
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the violation caused, or could reasonably be expected to cause, financial or other adverse impacts on consumer(s), and the magnitude of those impacts;
</P>
<P>(2) HHS may take into account the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The degree of culpability of the consumer assistance entity, including but not limited to—
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the violation was beyond the direct control of the consumer assistance entity; and
</P>
<P>(B) The extent to which the consumer assistance entity received compensation—legal or otherwise—for the services associated with the violation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Aggravating or mitigating circumstances;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether other remedies or penalties have been assessed and/or imposed for the same conduct or occurrence; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Other such factors as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Maximum per-day penalty.</I> The maximum amount of penalty imposed for each violation is $100 for each day, as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102, for each consumer assistance entity for each individual directly affected by the consumer assistance entity's noncompliance; and where the number of individuals cannot be determined, HHS may reasonably estimate the number of individuals directly affected by the violation.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Settlement authority.</I> Nothing in § 155.206 limits the authority of HHS to settle any issue or case described in the notice furnished in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section or to compromise on any penalty provided for in this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Limitations on penalties</I>—(1) <I>Circumstances under which a CMP is not imposed.</I> HHS will not impose any CMP on:
</P>
<P>(i) Any violation for the period of time during which none of the consumer assistance entities knew, or exercising reasonable diligence would have known, of the violation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The period of time after any of the consumer assistance entities knew, or exercising reasonable diligence would have known, of the failure, if the violation was due to reasonable cause and not due to willful neglect and the violation was corrected within 30 days of the first day that any of the consumer assistance entities against whom the penalty would be imposed knew, or exercising reasonable diligence would have known, that the violation existed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Burden of establishing knowledge.</I> The burden is on the consumer assistance entity or entities to establish to HHS's satisfaction that the consumer assistance entity did not know, or exercising reasonable diligence would have known, that the violation existed, as well as the period of time during which that limitation applies; or that the violation was due to reasonable cause and not due to willful neglect and was corrected pursuant to the elements in paragraph (k)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Time limit for commencing action.</I> No action under this section will be entertained unless commenced, in accordance with § 155.206(l), within six years from the date on which the violation occurred.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Notice of assessment of CMP.</I> If HHS proposes to assess a CMP in accordance with this section, HHS will send a written notice of this decision to the consumer assistance entity against whom the sanction is being imposed, which notice must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the basis for the determination;
</P>
<P>(2) The basis for the CMP;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of the CMP, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(4) The date the CMP, if applicable, is due;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether HHS would permit the consumer assistance entity to enter into a corrective action plan in place of paying the CMP, and the terms of any such corrective action plan;
</P>
<P>(6) An explanation of the consumer assistance entity's right to a hearing under paragraph (m) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(7) Information about the process for filing a request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Appeal of proposed sanction.</I> Any consumer assistance entity against which HHS has assessed a sanction may appeal that penalty in accordance with the procedures set forth at 45 CFR part 150, subpart D.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Failure to request a hearing.</I> (1) If the consumer assistance entity does not request a hearing within 30 days of the issuance of the notice of assessment of CMP described in paragraph (l) of this section, HHS may require payment of the proposed CMP.
</P>
<P>(2) HHS will notify the consumer assistance entity in writing of any CMP that has been assessed and of the means by which the consumer assistance entity may pay the CMP.
</P>
<P>(3) The consumer assistance entity has no right to appeal a CMP with respect to which it has not requested a hearing in accordance with paragraph (m) of this section unless the consumer assistance entity can show good cause in accordance with § 150.405(b) of this subchapter for failing to timely exercise its right to a hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30342, May 27, 2014, as amended at 87 FR 27388, May 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.210" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.210   Navigator program standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The Exchange must establish a Navigator program consistent with this section through which it awards grants to eligible public or private entities or individuals described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards.</I> The Exchange must develop and publicly disseminate—
</P>
<P>(1) A set of standards, to be met by all entities and individuals to be awarded Navigator grants, designed to prevent, minimize and mitigate any conflicts of interest, financial or otherwise, that may exist for an entity or individuals to be awarded a Navigator grant and to ensure that all entities and individuals carrying out Navigator functions have appropriate integrity; and
</P>
<P>(2) A set of training standards, to be met by all entities and individuals carrying out Navigator functions under the terms of a Navigator grant, to ensure the entities and individuals are qualified to engage in Navigator activities, including training standards on the following topics:
</P>
<P>(i) The needs of underserved and vulnerable populations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligibility and enrollment rules and procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) The range of QHP options and insurance affordability programs; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The privacy and security standards applicable under § 155.260.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Entities and individuals eligible to be a Navigator.</I> (1) To receive a Navigator grant, an entity or individual must—
</P>
<P>(i) Be capable of carrying out at least those duties described in paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate to the Exchange that the entity has existing relationships, or could readily establish relationships, with employers and employees, consumers (including uninsured and underinsured consumers), or self-employed individuals likely to be eligible for enrollment in a QHP;
</P>
<P>(iii) Meet any licensing, certification or other standards prescribed by the State or Exchange, if applicable, so long as such standards do not prevent the application of the provisions of title I of the Affordable Care Act. Standards that would prevent the application of the provisions of title I of the Affordable Care Act include but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Except as otherwise provided under § 155.705(d), requirements that Navigators refer consumers to other entities not required to provide fair, accurate, and impartial information.
</P>
<P>(B) Except as otherwise provided under § 155.705(d), requirements that would prevent Navigators from providing services to all persons to whom they are required to provide assistance.
</P>
<P>(C) Requirements that would prevent Navigators from providing advice regarding substantive benefits or comparative benefits of different health plans.
</P>
<P>(D) Requiring that a Navigator hold an agent or broker license or imposing any requirement that, in effect, would require all Navigators in the Exchange to be licensed agents or brokers.
</P>
<P>(E) Imposing standards that would, as applied or as implemented in a State, prevent the application of Federal requirements applicable to Navigator entities or individuals or applicable to the Exchange's implementation of the Navigator program.
</P>
<P>(iv) Not have a conflict of interest during the term as Navigator; and,
</P>
<P>(v) Comply with the privacy and security standards adopted by the Exchange as required in accordance with § 155.260.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must include an entity from at least one of the following categories for receipt of a Navigator grant:
</P>
<P>(i) Community and consumer-focused nonprofit groups;
</P>
<P>(ii) Trade, industry, and professional associations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Commercial fishing industry organizations, ranching and farming organizations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Chambers of commerce;
</P>
<P>(v) Unions;
</P>
<P>(vi) Resource partners of the Small Business Administration;
</P>
<P>(vii) Licensed agents and brokers; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Other public or private entities or individuals that meet the requirements of this section. Other entities may include but are not limited to Indian tribes, tribal organizations, urban Indian organizations, and State or local human service agencies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition on Navigator conduct.</I> The Exchange must ensure that a Navigator must not—
</P>
<P>(1) Be a health insurance issuer or issuer of stop loss insurance;
</P>
<P>(2) Be a subsidiary of a health insurance issuer or issuer of stop loss insurance;
</P>
<P>(3) Be an association that includes members of, or lobbies on behalf of, the insurance industry; 
</P>
<P>(4) Receive any consideration directly or indirectly from any health insurance issuer or issuer of stop loss insurance in connection with the enrollment of any individuals or employees in a QHP or a non-QHP. Notwithstanding the requirements of this paragraph (d)(4), in a Federally-facilitated Exchange, no health care provider shall be ineligible to operate as a Navigator solely because it receives consideration from a health insurance issuer for health care services provided;
</P>
<P>(5) Charge any applicant or enrollee, or request or receive any form of remuneration from or on behalf of an individual applicant or enrollee, for application or other assistance related to Navigator duties;
</P>
<P>(6) Provide to an applicant or potential enrollee gifts of any value as an inducement for enrollment. The value of gifts provided to applicants and potential enrollees for purposes other than as an inducement for enrollment must not exceed nominal value, either individually or in the aggregate, when provided to that individual during a single encounter. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(6), the term gifts includes gift items, gift cards, cash cards, cash, and promotional items that market or promote the products or services of a third party, but does not include the reimbursement of legitimate expenses incurred by a consumer in an effort to receive Exchange application assistance, such as travel or postage expenses;
</P>
<P>(7) Use Exchange funds to purchase gifts or gift cards, or promotional items that market or promote the products or services of a third party, that would be provided to any applicant or potential enrollee; or
</P>
<P>(8) [Reserved]</P>
<P>(9) Initiate any telephone call to a consumer using an automatic telephone dialing system or an artificial or prerecorded voice, except in cases where the individual Navigator or Navigator entity has a relationship with the consumer and so long as other applicable State and Federal laws are otherwise complied with.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Duties of a Navigator.</I> An entity that serves as a Navigator must carry out at least the following duties:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain expertise in eligibility, enrollment, and program specifications and conduct public education activities to raise awareness about the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide information and services in a fair, accurate, and impartial manner, which includes: providing information that assists consumers with submitting the eligibility application; clarifying the distinctions among health coverage options, including QHPs; and helping consumers make informed decisions during the health coverage selection process. Such information must acknowledge other health programs;
</P>
<P>(3) Facilitate selection of a QHP;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide referrals to any applicable office of health insurance consumer assistance or health insurance ombudsman established under section 2793 of the PHS Act, or any other appropriate State agency or agencies, for any enrollee with a grievance, complaint, or question regarding their health plan, coverage, or a determination under such plan or coverage;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide information in a manner that is culturally and linguistically appropriate to the needs of the population being served by the Exchange, including individuals with limited English proficiency, and ensure accessibility and usability of Navigator tools and functions for individuals with disabilities in accordance with the Americans with Disabilities Act and section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act;
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that applicants—
</P>
<P>(i) Are informed, prior to receiving assistance, of the functions and responsibilities of Navigators, including that Navigators are not acting as tax advisers or attorneys when providing assistance as Navigators and cannot provide tax or legal advice within their capacity as Navigators;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide authorization in a form and manner as determined by the Exchange prior to a Navigator's obtaining access to an applicant's personally identifiable information, and that the Navigator maintains a record of the authorization provided in a form and manner as determined by the Exchange. The Exchange must establish a reasonable retention period for maintaining these records. In Federally-facilitated Exchanges, this period is no less than six years, unless a different and longer retention period has already been provided under other applicable Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(iii) May revoke at any time the authorization provided the Navigator pursuant to paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(7) In a Federally-facilitated Exchange, no individual or entity shall be ineligible to operate as a Navigator solely because its principal place of business is outside of the Exchange service area;
</P>
<P>(8) Provide targeted assistance to serve underserved or vulnerable populations, as identified by the Exchange, within the Exchange service area.
</P>
<P>(i) In a Federally-facilitated Exchange, this paragraph (e)(8) will apply beginning with the Navigator grant application process for Navigator grants awarded in 2018. The Federally-facilitated Exchange will identify populations as vulnerable or underserved that are disproportionately without access to coverage or care, or that are at a greater risk for poor health outcomes, in the funding opportunity announcement for its Navigator grants, and applicants for those grants will have an opportunity to propose additional vulnerable or underserved populations in their applications for the Federally-facilitated Exchange's approval.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(9) The Exchange may require or authorize Navigators to provide information and assistance with any of the following topics. In federally-facilitated Exchanges, FY 2021 Navigator grantees will be required to perform these duties beginning with the Navigator grant funding awarded in FY 2022 for the second 12-month budget period of the 36-month period of performance. Beginning with Navigator grants awarded in 2022, including non-competing continuation awards, Navigators are required to provide information and assistance with all of the following topics:
</P>
<P>(i) Understanding the process of filing Exchange eligibility appeals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Understanding and applying for exemptions from the requirement to maintain minimum essential coverage granted through the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Exchange-related components of the premium tax credit reconciliation process, and understanding the availability of IRS resources on this process;
</P>
<P>(iv) Understanding basic concepts and rights related to health coverage and how to use it; and
</P>
<P>(v) Referrals to licensed tax advisers, tax preparers, or other resources for assistance with tax preparation and tax advice related to consumer questions about the Exchange application and enrollment process, and premium tax credit reconciliations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Funding for Navigator grants.</I> Funding for Navigator grants may not be from Federal funds received by the State to establish the Exchange.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42859, July 17, 2013; 79 FR 30344, May 27, 2014; 79 FR 42986, July 24, 2014; 81 FR 12337, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17061, Apr. 17, 2018; 84 FR 17563, Apr. 25, 2019; 86 FR 53503, Sept. 27, 2021; 88 FR 25917, Apr. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.215" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.215   Standards applicable to Navigators and Non-Navigator Assistance Personnel carrying out consumer assistance functions under §§ 155.205(d) and (e) and 155.210 in a Federally-facilitated Exchange and to Non-Navigator Assistance Personnel funded through an Exchange Establishment Grant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict-of-interest standards.</I> The following conflict-of-interest standards apply in an Exchange operated by HHS during the exercise of its authority under § 155.105(f) and to non-Navigator assistance personnel funded through an Exchange Establishment Grant under section 1311(a) of the Affordable Care Act:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conflict-of-interest standards for Navigators.</I> (i) All Navigator entities, including Navigator grant applicants, must submit to the Exchange a written attestation that the Navigator, including the Navigator's staff:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not a health insurance issuer or issuer of stop loss insurance;
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a subsidiary of a health insurance issuer or issuer of stop loss insurance;
</P>
<P>(C) Is not an association that includes members of, or lobbies on behalf of, the insurance industry; and
</P>
<P>(D) Will not receive any consideration directly or indirectly from any health insurance issuer or issuer of stop loss insurance in connection with the enrollment of any individuals or employees in a QHP or non-QHP.
</P>
<P>(ii) All Navigator entities must submit to the Exchange a written plan to remain free of conflicts of interest during the term as a Navigator.
</P>
<P>(iii) All Navigator entities, including the Navigator's staff, must provide information to consumers about the full range of QHP options and insurance affordability programs for which they are eligible.
</P>
<P>(iv) All Navigator entities, including the Navigator's staff, must disclose to the Exchange and, in plain language, to each consumer who receives application assistance from the Navigator:
</P>
<P>(A) Any lines of insurance business, not covered by the restrictions on participation and prohibitions on conduct in § 155.210(d), which the Navigator intends to sell while carrying out the consumer assistance functions;
</P>
<P>(B) Any existing employment relationships, or any former employment relationships within the last 5 years, with any health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance, or subsidiaries of health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance, including any existing employment relationships between a spouse or domestic partner and any health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance, or subsidiaries of health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any existing or anticipated financial, business, or contractual relationships with one or more health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance, or subsidiaries of health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conflict-of-interest standards for Non-Navigator assistance personnel carrying out consumer assistance functions under § 155.205(d) and (e).</I> All Non-Navigator entities or individuals authorized to carry out consumer assistance functions under § 155.205(d) and (e) must—
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with the prohibitions on Navigator conduct set forth at § 155.210(d) and the duties of a Navigator set forth at § 155.210(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit to the Exchange a written attestation that the entity or individual—
</P>
<P>(A) Is not a health insurance issuer or issuer of stop loss insurance;
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a subsidiary of a health insurance issuer or issuer of stop loss insurance;
</P>
<P>(C) Is not an association that includes members of, or lobbies on behalf of, the insurance industry; and
</P>
<P>(D) Will not receive any consideration directly or indirectly from any health insurance issuer or issuer of stop loss insurance in connection with the enrollment of any individuals or employees in a QHP or non-QHP.
</P>
<P>(iii) Submit to the Exchange a written plan to remain free of conflicts of interest while carrying out consumer assistance functions under § 155.205(d) and (e).
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide information to consumers about the full range of QHP options and insurance affordability programs for which they are eligible.
</P>
<P>(v) Submit to the Exchange, and, in plain language, to each consumer who receives application assistance from the entity or individual:
</P>
<P>(A) Any lines of insurance business, not covered by the restrictions on participation and prohibitions on conduct in § 155.210(d), which the entity or individual intends to sell while carrying out the consumer assistance functions;
</P>
<P>(B) Any existing employment relationships, or any former employment relationships within the last five years, with any health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance, or subsidiaries of health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance, including any existing employment relationships between a spouse or domestic partner and any health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance, or subsidiaries of health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any existing or anticipated financial, business, or contractual relationships with one or more health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance, or subsidiaries of health insurance issuers or issuers of stop loss insurance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Training standards for Navigators and Non-Navigator assistance personnel carrying out consumer assistance functions under §§ 155.205(d) and (e) and 155.210.</I> The following training standards apply in an Exchange operated by HHS during the exercise of its authority under § 155.105(f), and to non-Navigator assistance personnel funded through an Exchange Establishment Grant under section 1311(a) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certification and recertification standards.</I> All individuals or entities who carry out consumer assistance functions under §§ 155.205(d) and (e) and 155.210, including Navigators, must meet the following certification and recertification requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain certification by the Exchange prior to carrying out any consumer assistance functions or outreach and education activities under § 155.205(d) and (e) or § 155.210;
</P>
<P>(ii) Register for and complete a HHS-approved training;
</P>
<P>(iii) Following completion of the HHS-approved training described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, complete and achieve a passing score on all approved certification examinations prior to carrying out any consumer assistance functions under § 155.205(d) and (e) or § 155.210;
</P>
<P>(iv) Obtain continuing education and be certified and/or recertified on at least an annual basis; and
</P>
<P>(v) Be prepared to serve both the individual Exchange and SHOP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Training module content standards.</I> All individuals who carry out the consumer assistance functions under §§ 155.205(d) and (e) and 155.210 must receive training consistent with standards established by the Exchange consistent with § 155.210(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Providing Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS Standards).</I> The following standards will apply in an Exchange operated by HHS during the exercise of its authority under § 155.105(f) and to non-Navigator assistance personnel funded through an Exchange Establishment Grant under section 1311(a) of the Affordable Care Act. To ensure that information provided as part of any consumer assistance functions under § 155.205(d) and (e) or § 155.210 is culturally and linguistically appropriate to the needs of the population being served, including individuals with limited English proficiency as required by §§ 155.205(c)(2) and 155.210(e)(5), any entity or individual carrying out these functions must:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop and maintain general knowledge about the racial, ethnic, and cultural groups in their service area, including each group's diverse cultural health beliefs and practices, preferred languages, health literacy, and other needs;
</P>
<P>(2) Collect and maintain updated information to help understand the composition of the communities in the service area, including the primary languages spoken;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide consumers with information and assistance in the consumer's preferred language, at no cost to the consumer, including the provision of oral interpretation of non-English languages and the translation of written documents in non-English languages when necessary or when requested by the consumer to ensure effective communication. Use of a consumer's family or friends as oral interpreters can satisfy the requirement to provide linguistically appropriate services only when requested by the consumer as the preferred alternative to an offer of other interpretive services;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide oral and written notice to consumers with limited English proficiency, in their preferred language, informing them of their right to receive language assistance services and how to obtain them;
</P>
<P>(5) Receive ongoing education and training in culturally and linguistically appropriate service delivery; and
</P>
<P>(6) Implement strategies to recruit, support, and promote a staff that is representative of the demographic characteristics, including primary languages spoken, of the communities in their service area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Standards ensuring access by persons with disabilities.</I> The following standards related to ensuring access by people with disabilities will apply in an Exchange operated by HHS during the exercise of its authority under § 155.105(f), and to non-Navigator assistance personnel funded through an Exchange Establishment Grant under section 1311(a) of the Affordable Care Act. Any entity or individual carrying out any consumer assistance functions under § 155.205(d) and (e) or § 155.210, and in accordance with § 155.205(c), must—
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that any consumer education materials, Web sites, or other tools utilized for consumer assistance purposes, are accessible to people with disabilities, including those with sensory impairments, such as visual or hearing impairments, and those with mental illness, addiction, and physical, intellectual, and developmental disabilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide auxiliary aids and services for individuals with disabilities, at no cost, when necessary or when requested by the consumer to ensure effective communication. Use of a consumer's family or friends as interpreters can satisfy the requirement to provide auxiliary aids and services only when requested by the consumer as the preferred alternative to an offer of other auxiliary aids and services;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide assistance to consumers in a location and in a manner that is physically and otherwise accessible to individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that authorized representatives are permitted to assist an individual with a disability to make informed decisions;
</P>
<P>(5) Acquire sufficient knowledge to refer people with disabilities to local, state, and federal long-term services and supports programs when appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(6) Be able to work with all individuals regardless of age, disability, or culture, and seek advice or experts when needed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Monitoring.</I> Any Exchange operated by HHS during the exercise of its authority under § 155.105(f) will monitor compliance with the standards in this section and the requirements of §§ 155.205(d) and (e) and 155.210.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>State or Exchange standards.</I> All non-Navigator entities or individuals carrying out consumer assistance functions under § 155.205(d) and (e) in an Exchange operated by HHS during the exercise of its authority under § 155.105(f) and all non-Navigator assistance personnel funded through an Exchange Establishment Grant under section 1311(a) of the Affordable Care Act must meet any licensing, certification, or other standards prescribed by the State or Exchange, if applicable, so long as such standards do not prevent the application of the provisions of title I of the Affordable Care Act. Standards that would prevent the application of the provisions of title I of the Affordable Care Act include but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements that non-Navigator entities or individuals refer consumers to other entities not required to provide fair, accurate, and impartial information.
</P>
<P>(2) Requirements that would prevent non-Navigator entities or individuals from providing services to all persons to whom they are required to provide assistance.
</P>
<P>(3) Requirements that would prevent non-Navigator entities or individuals from providing advice regarding substantive benefits or comparative benefits of different health plans.
</P>
<P>(4) Imposing standards that would, as applied or as implemented in a State, prevent the application of Federal requirements applicable to non-Navigator entities or individuals or applicable to the Exchange's implementation of the non-Navigator assistance personnel program.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consumer authorization.</I> All non-Navigator entities or individuals carrying out consumer assistance functions under § 155.205(d) and (e) in an Exchange operated by HHS during the exercise of its authority under § 155.105(f) and all non-Navigator assistance personnel funded through an Exchange Establishment Grant under section 1311(a) of the Affordable Care Act must establish procedures to ensure that applicants—
</P>
<P>(1) Are informed, prior to receiving assistance, of the functions and responsibilities of non-Navigator assistance personnel, including that non-Navigator assistance personnel are not acting as tax advisers or attorneys when providing assistance as non-Navigator assistance personnel and cannot provide tax or legal advice within their capacity as non-Navigator assistance personnel;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide authorization in a form and manner as determined by the Exchange prior to a non-Navigator assistance personnel's obtaining access to an applicant's personally identifiable information, and that the non-Navigator assistance personnel maintains a record of the authorization provided in a form and manner as determined by the Exchange. The Exchange must establish a reasonable retention period for maintaining these records. In Federally-facilitated Exchanges, this period is no less than six years, unless a different and longer retention period has already been provided under other applicable Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(3) May revoke at any time the authorization provided the non-Navigator assistance personnel pursuant to paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Physical presence.</I> In a Federally-facilitated Exchange, no individual or entity shall be ineligible to operate as a non-Navigator entity or as non-Navigator assistance personnel solely because its principal place of business is outside of the Exchange service area.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prohibition on compensation per enrollment.</I> Beginning November 15, 2014, Navigators and Non-Navigator assistance personnel carrying out consumer assistance functions under §§ 155.205(d) and (e) and 155.210, if operating in an Exchange operated by HHS during the exercise of its authority under § 155.105(f), are prohibited from providing compensation to individual Navigators or non-Navigator assistance personnel on a per-application, per-individual-assisted, or per-enrollment basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 42859, July 17, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30344, May 27, 2014; 81 FR 12338, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17061, Apr. 17, 2018; 84 FR 17563, Apr. 25, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.220" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.220   Ability of States to permit agents and brokers and web-brokers to assist qualified individuals, qualified employers, or qualified employees enrolling in QHPs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A State may permit agents, brokers, and web-brokers to—
</P>
<P>(1) Enroll individuals, employers or employees in any QHP in the individual or small group market as soon as the QHP is offered through an Exchange in the State;
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section, enroll qualified individuals in a QHP in a manner that constitutes enrollment through the Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, assist individuals in applying for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Web site disclosure.</I> The Exchange or SHOP may elect to provide information regarding licensed agents and brokers on its Web site for the convenience of consumers seeking insurance through that Exchange and may elect to limit the information to information regarding licensed agents and brokers who have completed any required Exchange or SHOP registration and training process.
</P>
<P>(2) A Federally-facilitated Exchange or SHOP will limit the information provided on its Web site regarding licensed agents and brokers to information regarding licensed agents and brokers who have completed registration and training.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enrollment through the Exchange.</I> A qualified individual may be enrolled in a QHP through the Exchange with the assistance of an agent, broker, or web-broker if—
</P>
<P>(1) The agent, broker, or web-broker ensures the applicant's completion of an eligibility verification and enrollment application through the Exchange internet website as described in § 155.405, or ensures that the eligibility application information is submitted for an eligibility determination through the Exchange-approved web service subject to meeting the requirements in paragraphs (c)(3)(ii) and (c)(4)(i)(F) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange transmits enrollment information to the QHP issuer as provided in § 155.400(a) to allow the issuer to effectuate enrollment of qualified individuals in the QHP.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) When an internet website of a web-broker is used to complete the QHP selection, at a minimum the internet website must:




</P>
<P>(A) Disclose and display the following QHP information provided by the Exchange or directly by QHP issuers consistent with the requirements of § 155.205(c), and to the extent that enrollment support for a QHP is not available using the web-broker's website, prominently display a standardized disclaimer provided by HHS stating that enrollment support for the QHP is available on the Exchange website, and provide a Web link to the Exchange website:


</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Premium and cost-sharing information;


</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The summary of benefits and coverage established under section 2715 of the PHS Act;


</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Identification of whether the QHP is a bronze, silver, gold, or platinum level plan as defined by section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act, or a catastrophic plan as defined by section 1302(e) of the Affordable Care Act;


</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The results of the enrollee satisfaction survey, as described in section 1311(c)(4) of the Affordable Care Act;


</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Quality ratings assigned in accordance with section 1311(c)(3) of the Affordable Care Act; and


</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The provider directory made available to the Exchange in accordance with § 156.230 of this subchapter.




</P>
<P>(B) Provide consumers the ability to view all QHPs offered through the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(C) Not provide financial incentives, such as rebates or giveaways;
</P>
<P>(D) Display all QHP data provided by the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(E) Maintain audit trails and records in an electronic format for a minimum of ten years and cooperate with any audit under this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Provide consumers with the ability to withdraw from the process and use the Exchange Web site described in § 155.205(b) instead at any time;
</P>
<P>(G) For the Federally-facilitated Exchange, prominently display a standardized disclaimer provided by HHS, and provide a Web link to the Exchange Web site; and


</P>
<P>(H) Prominently display information provided by HHS pertaining to a consumer's eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions;
</P>
<P>(I) Allow the consumer to select an amount for advance payments of the premium tax credit, if applicable, and make related attestations in accordance with § 155.310(d)(2);
</P>
<P>(J) Comply with the applicable requirements in § 155.221; and


</P>
<P>(K) Not display QHP advertisements or recommendations, or otherwise provide favored or preferred placement in the display of QHPs, based on compensation the agent, broker, or web-broker receives from QHP issuers; and


</P>
<P>(L) Prominently display a clear explanation of the rationale for QHP recommendations and the methodology for its default display of QHPs.






</P>
<P>(ii) When an internet website of a web-broker is used to complete the Exchange eligibility application, at a minimum the internet website must:
</P>
<P>(A) Comply with the requirements in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Use exactly the same eligibility application language as appears in the FFE Single Streamlined Application required in § 155.405, unless HHS approves a deviation;
</P>
<P>(C) Ensure that all necessary information for the consumer's applicable eligibility circumstances are submitted through the Exchange-approved web service; and
</P>
<P>(D) Ensure that the process used for consumers to complete the eligibility application complies with all applicable Exchange standards, including §§ 155.230 and 155.260(b).
</P>
<P>(4) When an agent or broker, through a contract or other arrangement, uses the internet website of a web-broker to help an applicant or enrollee complete a QHP selection or complete the Exchange eligibility application in the Federally-facilitated Exchange:
</P>
<P>(i) The web-broker who makes the website available must:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide HHS with a list of agents and brokers who enter into such a contract or other arrangement to use the web-broker's website, in a form and manner to be specified by HHS;
</P>
<P>(B) Verify that any agent or broker accessing or using the Web site pursuant to the arrangement is licensed in the State in which the consumer is selecting the QHP; and has completed training and registration and has signed all required agreements with the Federally-facilitated Exchange pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section and § 155.260(b);
</P>
<P>(C) Ensure that its name and any identifier required by HHS prominently appears on the Internet Web site and on written materials containing QHP information that can be printed from the Web site, even if the agent or broker that is accessing the Internet Web site is able to customize the appearance of the Web site;
</P>
<P>(D) Terminate the agent or broker's access to its Web site if HHS determines that the agent or broker is in violation of the provisions of this section and/or HHS terminates any required agreement with the agent or broker;
</P>
<P>(E) Report to HHS and applicable State departments of insurance any potential material breach of the standards in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, or the agreement entered into under § 155.260(b), by the agent or broker accessing the internet website, should it become aware of any such potential breach. A web-broker that provides access to its website to complete the QHP selection or the Exchange eligibility application or ability to transact information with HHS to another web-broker website is responsible for ensuring compliance with applicable requirements in paragraph (c)(3) of this section for any web pages of the other web-broker's website that assist consumers, applicants, qualified individuals, and enrollees in applying for APTC and CSRs for QHPs, or in completing enrollment in QHPs, offered in the Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(F) When an internet website of a web-broker is used to complete the Exchange eligibility application, obtain HHS approval verifying that all requirements in this section are met.
</P>
<P>(ii) HHS retains the right to temporarily suspend the ability of a web-broker making its website available to transact information with HHS, if HHS discovers a security and privacy incident or breach, for the period in which HHS begins to conduct an investigation and until the incident or breach is remedied to HHS' satisfaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) Web-brokers operating in State Exchanges that do not use the Federal platform that permit other agents and brokers, through a contract or other arrangement, to use their internet website to help an applicant or enrollee complete a QHP selection or complete the Exchange eligibility application must comply with the standards in paragraphs (c)(4)(i)(A), (B), (D) and (F) of this section, except that all references to “Federally-facilitated Exchange” or “HHS” in paragraphs (c)(4)(i)(A), (B), (D), and (F) will be understood to mean “the applicable State Exchange.”


</P>
<P>(5) HHS or its designee may periodically monitor and audit an agent, broker, or web-broker under this subpart to assess its compliance with the applicable requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) In addition to applicable requirements under § 155.221(b)(4), a web-broker must demonstrate operational readiness and compliance with applicable requirements prior to the web-broker's internet website being used to complete an Exchange eligibility application or a QHP selection, which may include submission or completion, in the form and manner specified by HHS, of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Operational data including licensure information, points of contact, and third-party relationships;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enrollment testing, prior to approval or renewal;
</P>
<P>(iii) Website reviews performed by HHS;
</P>
<P>(iv) Security and privacy assessment documentation, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Penetration testing results;
</P>
<P>(B) Security and privacy assessment reports;
</P>
<P>(C) Vulnerability scan results;
</P>
<P>(D) Plans of action and milestones; and
</P>
<P>(E) System security and privacy plans.
</P>
<P>(v) Agreements between the web-broker and HHS.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agreement.</I> An agent, broker, or web-broker that enrolls qualified individuals in a QHP in a manner that constitutes enrollment through the Exchange or assists individuals in applying for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs must comply with the terms of an agreement between the agent, broker, or web-broker and the Exchange under which the agent, broker, or web-broker at least:
</P>
<P>(1) Registers with the Exchange in advance of assisting qualified individuals enrolling in QHPs through the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(2) Receives training in the range of QHP options and insurance affordability programs, except that a licensed agent or broker entity that registers with the Federally-facilitated Exchange in its capacity as a business organized under the laws of a State, and not as an individual person, and direct enrollment technology providers are exempt from this requirement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Complies with the Exchange's privacy and security standards adopted consistent with § 155.260.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance with State law.</I> An agent, broker, or web-broker that enrolls qualified individuals in a QHP in a manner that constitutes enrollment through the Exchange or assists individuals in applying for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs must comply with applicable State law related to agents, brokers, or web-brokers including applicable State law related to confidentiality and conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Termination notice to HHS.</I> (1) An agent, broker, or web-broker may terminate its agreement with HHS by sending to HHS a written notice at least 30 days in advance of the date of intended termination.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice must include the intended date of termination, but if it does not specify a date of termination, or the date provided is not acceptable to HHS, HHS may set a different termination date that will be no less than 30 days from the date on the agent's, broker's, or web-broker's notice of termination.
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to the date of termination, an agent, broker, or web-broker should—
</P>
<P>(i) Notify applicants, qualified individuals, or enrollees that the agent, broker, or web-broker is assisting, of the agent's, broker's, or web-broker's intended date of termination;
</P>
<P>(ii) Continue to assist such individuals with Exchange-related eligibility and enrollment services up until the date of termination; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide such individuals with information about alternatives available for obtaining additional assistance, including but not limited to the Federally-facilitated Exchange Web site.
</P>
<P>(4) When the agreement between the agent, broker, or web-broker and the Exchange under paragraph (d) of this section is terminated under paragraph (f) of this section, the agent, broker, or web-broker will no longer be registered with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, or be permitted to assist with or facilitate enrollment of qualified individuals, qualified employers or qualified employees in coverage in a manner that constitutes enrollment through a Federally-facilitated Exchange, or be permitted to assist individuals in applying for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs. The agent's, broker's, or web-broker's agreement with the Exchange under § 155.260(b) will also be terminated through the termination without cause process set forth in that agreement. The agent, broker, or web-broker must continue to protect any personally identifiable information accessed during the term of either of these agreements with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Standards for termination for cause from the Federally-facilitated Exchange.</I> (1) If, in HHS' determination, a specific finding of noncompliance or pattern of noncompliance is sufficiently severe, HHS may terminate an agent's, broker's, or web-broker's agreement with the Federally-facilitated Exchange for cause.
</P>
<P>(2) An agent, broker, or web-broker may be determined noncompliant under paragraph (g)(1) of this section if HHS finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the agent, broker, or web-broker violated—
</P>
<P>(i) Any standard specified under this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any term or condition of the agreement with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges required under paragraph (d) of this section, or any term or condition of the agreement with the Federally-facilitated Exchange required under § 155.260(b);
</P>
<P>(iii) Any State law applicable to agents, brokers, or web-brokers, as required under paragraph (e) of this section, including but not limited to State laws related to confidentiality and conflicts of interest; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any Federal law applicable to agents, brokers, or web-brokers.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3)(ii) of this section, HHS will notify the agent, broker, or web-broker of the specific finding of noncompliance or pattern of noncompliance made under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and after 30 days from the date of the notice, may terminate the agreement for cause if the matter is not resolved to the satisfaction of HHS.
</P>
<P>(ii) HHS may immediately terminate the agreement for cause upon notice to the agent or broker without any further opportunity to resolve the matter if an agent or broker fails to maintain the appropriate license under State law as an agent, broker, or insurance producer in every State in which the agent or broker actively assists consumers with applying for advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions or with enrolling in QHPs through the Federally-facilitated Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(4) After the applicable period in paragraph (g)(3) of this section has elapsed and the agreement under paragraph (d) of this section is terminated, the agent, broker, or web-broker will no longer be registered with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, or be permitted to assist with or facilitate enrollment of a qualified individual, qualified employer, or qualified employee in coverage in a manner that constitutes enrollment through a Federally-facilitated Exchange, or be permitted to assist individuals in applying for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs. The agent's, broker's, or web-broker's agreement with the Exchange under § 155.260(b)(2) will also be terminated through the process set forth in that agreement. The agent, broker, or web-broker must continue to protect any personally identifiable information accessed during the term of either of these agreements with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(5) Fraud or abusive conduct—
</P>
<P>(i)(A) If HHS reasonably suspects that an agent, broker, or web-broker may have may have engaged in fraud, or in abusive conduct that may cause imminent or ongoing consumer harm using personally identifiable information of an Exchange enrollee or applicant or in connection with an Exchange enrollment or application, HHS may temporarily suspend the agent's, broker's, or web-broker's agreements required under paragraph (d) of this section and under § 155.260(b) for up to 90 calendar days. Suspension will be effective on the date of the notice that HHS sends to the agent, broker, or web-broker advising of the suspension of the agreements.


</P>
<P>(B) The agent, broker, or web-broker may submit evidence in a form and manner to be specified by HHS, to rebut the allegation during this 90-day period. If the agent, broker, or web-broker submits such evidence during the suspension period, HHS will review the evidence and make a determination whether to lift the suspension within 45 calendar days of receipt of such evidence. If the rebuttal evidence does not persuade HHS to lift the suspension, or if the agent, broker, or web-broker fails to submit rebuttal evidence during the suspension period, HHS may terminate the agent's, broker's, or web-broker's agreements required under paragraph (d) of this section and under § 155.260(b) for cause under paragraph (g)(5)(ii) of this section.




</P>
<P>(ii) If there is a finding or determination by a Federal or State entity that an agent, broker, or web-broker engaged in fraud, or abusive conduct that may result in imminent or ongoing consumer harm, using personally identifiable information of Exchange enrollees or applicants or in connection with an Exchange enrollment or application, HHS will terminate the agent's, broker's, or web-broker's agreements required under paragraph (d) of this section and under § 155.260(b) for cause. The termination will be effective starting on the date of the notice that HHS sends to the agent, broker, or web-broker advising of the termination of the agreements.
</P>
<P>(iii) During the suspension period under paragraph (g)(5)(i) of this section and following termination of the agreements under paragraph (g)(5)(i)(B) or (g)(5)(ii) of this section, the agent, broker, or web-broker will not be registered with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, or be permitted to assist with or facilitate enrollment of qualified individuals, qualified employers, or qualified employees in coverage in a manner that constitutes enrollment through a Federally-facilitated Exchange, or be permitted to assist individuals in applying for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs. The agent, broker, or web-broker must continue to protect any personally identifiable information accessed during the term of either of these agreements with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(6) The State department of insurance or equivalent State agent or broker licensing authority will be notified by HHS in cases of suspensions or terminations effectuated under this paragraph (g).


</P>
<P>(h) <I>Request for reconsideration of termination for cause from the Federally-facilitated Exchange</I>—(1) <I>Request for reconsideration.</I> An agent, broker, or web-broker whose agreement with the Federally-facilitated Exchange has been terminated may request reconsideration of such action in the manner and form established by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timeframe for request.</I> The agent, broker, or web-broker must submit a request for reconsideration to the CMS Administrator within 30 calendar days of the written notice from HHS.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of reconsideration decision.</I> The CMS Administrator will provide the agent, broker, or web-broker with a written notice of the reconsideration decision within 60 calendar days of the date the CMS Administrator receives the request for reconsideration. This decision will constitute HHS' final determination.


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Use of agents' and brokers' and web-brokers' internet websites for SHOP.</I> For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, in States that permit this activity under State law, a SHOP may permit agents, brokers, and web-brokers to use an internet website to assist qualified employers and facilitate enrollment of enrollees in a QHP through the Exchange, under paragraph (c)(3) of this section.


</P>
<P>(j) <I>Federally-facilitated Exchange standards of conduct.</I> (1) An agent, broker, or web-broker that assists with or facilitates enrollment of qualified individuals, qualified employers, or qualified employees, in coverage in a manner that constitutes enrollment through a Federally-facilitated Exchange, or assists individuals in applying for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs sold through a Federally-facilitated Exchange, must—
</P>
<P>(i) Have executed the required agreement under paragraph § 155.260(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) Be registered with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges under paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Comply with the standards of conduct in paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards of conduct.</I> An individual or entity described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section must—
</P>
<P>(i) Provide consumers with correct information, without omission of material fact, regarding the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, QHPs offered through the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, and insurance affordability programs, and refrain from conduct that is misleading (including by having a direct enrollment website that HHS determines could mislead a consumer into believing they are visiting <I>HealthCare.gov</I>), coercive, or discriminates based on race, color, national origin, disability, age, or sex;




</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the Federally-facilitated Exchanges with correct information, and document that eligibility application information has been reviewed by and confirmed to be accurate by the consumer, or the consumer's authorized representative designated in compliance with § 155.227, prior to the submission of information, under section 1411(b) of the Affordable Care Act, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Documenting that eligibility application information has been reviewed by and confirmed to be accurate by the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative must require the consumer or their authorized representative to take an action that produces a record that can be maintained by the individual or entity described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section and produced to confirm the consumer or their authorized representative has reviewed and confirmed the accuracy of the eligibility application information. For enrollments for plan years ending prior to January 1, 2028, non-exhaustive examples of acceptable documentation include obtaining the signature of the consumer or their authorized representative (electronically or otherwise), verbal confirmation by the consumer or their authorized representative that is captured in an audio recording, a written response (electronic or otherwise) from the consumer or their authorized representative to a communication sent by the agent, broker, or web-broker, or other similar means or methods specified by HHS in guidance.




</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The documentation required under paragraph (j)(2)(ii)(A) of this section must include the date the information was reviewed, the name of the consumer or their authorized representative, an explanation of the attestations at the end of the eligibility application, and the name of the assisting agent, broker, or web-broker.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For enrollments for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2028, including enrollments under § 155.335(j), all documentation required under paragraph (j)(2)(ii)(A) of this section must be collected by having the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative take an action to execute an HHS-approved and -created consumer consent form. The action the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative took to confirm the eligibility application information has been reviewed and confirmed to be accurate must be clear to HHS. This may include hand-written or electronic written signature or initials on the HHS-approved and -created consumer consent form, an email from the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative, or a recorded verbal conversation. A signature that is simply typed on the documentation or a filled-in check box does not clearly indicate the eligibility application information was reviewed and confirmed accurate by the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An individual or entity described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section must maintain the documentation described in paragraph (j)(2)(ii)(A) of this section for a minimum of ten years, and produce the documentation upon request in response to monitoring, audit, and enforcement activities conducted consistent with paragraphs (c)(5), (g), (h), and (k) of this section.


</P>
<P>(B) Entering only an email address on an application for Exchange coverage or an application for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs that belongs to the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative designated in compliance with § 155.227. A consumer's email address may only be entered with the consent of the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative. Properly entered email addresses must adhere to the following guidelines:


</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The email address must be accessible by the consumer, or the consumer's authorized representative designated in compliance with § 155.227, and may not be accessible by the agent, broker, or web-broker assisting the consumer; and


</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The email address may not have domains that belong to the agent, broker, or web-broker or their business or agency.


</P>
<P>(C) Entering only a telephone number on an application for Exchange coverage or an application for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs that belongs to the consumer or their authorized representative designated in compliance with § 155.227. Telephone numbers may not be the personal number or business number of the agent, broker, or web-broker assisting the consumer, or their business or agency, unless the telephone number is actually that of the consumer or their authorized representative.


</P>
<P>(D) Entering only a mailing address on an application for Exchange coverage or an application for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs that belongs to, or is primarily accessible by, the consumer or their authorized representative designated in compliance with § 155.227, is not for the exclusive or convenient use of the agent, broker, or web-broker, and is an actual residence or a secure location where the consumer or their authorized representative may receive correspondence, such as a P.O. Box or homeless shelter. Mailing addresses may not be that of the agent, broker, or web-broker assisting the consumer, or their business or agency, unless the address is the actual residence of the consumer or their authorized representative.


</P>
<P>(E) When submitting household income projections used by the Exchange to determine a tax filer's eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit in accordance with § 155.305(f) or cost-sharing reductions in accordance with § 155.305(g), entering only a consumer's household income projection that the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative designated in compliance with § 155.227 has knowingly authorized and confirmed as accurate. Household income projections must be calculated and attested to by the consumer. The agent, broker, or web-broker assisting the consumer may answer questions posed by the consumer related to household income projection, such as helping the consumer determine what qualifies as income.


</P>
<P>(iii) Obtain and document the receipt of consent of the consumer or their authorized representative designated in compliance with § 155.227, employer, or employee prior to assisting with or facilitating enrollment through a Federally-facilitated Exchange or assisting the individual in applying for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions for QHPs;
</P>
<P>(A) Obtaining and documenting the receipt of consent must require the consumer, or the consumer's authorized representative designated in compliance with § 155.227, to take an action that produces a record that can be maintained and produced by an individual or entity described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section to confirm the consumer's or their authorized representative's consent has been provided. For enrollments for plan years ending prior to January 1, 2028, non-exhaustive examples of acceptable documentation of consent include obtaining the signature of the consumer or their authorized representative (electronically or otherwise), verbal confirmation by the consumer or their authorized representative that is captured in an audio recording, a response from the consumer or their authorized representative to an electronic or other communication sent by the agent, broker, or web-broker, or other similar means or methods specified by HHS in guidance.




</P>
<P>(B) The documentation required under paragraph (j)(2)(iii)(A) of this section must include a description of the scope, purpose, and duration of the consent provided by the consumer or their authorized representative designated in compliance with § 155.227, the date consent was given, name of the consumer or their authorized representative, and the name of the agent, broker, web-broker, or agency being granted consent, as well as a process through which the consumer or their authorized representative may rescind the consent.
</P>
<P>(C) For enrollments for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2028, including enrollments under § 155.335(j), all documentation required under paragraph (j)(2)(iii)(A) of this section must be collected by having the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative take an action to execute an HHS-approved and -created consumer consent form. The action the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative took to provide consent must be clear to HHS. This may include hand-written or electronic written signature or initials on the HHS-approved and -created consumer consent form, an email from the consumer or the consumer's representative, or a recorded verbal conversation. A signature that is simply typed on the documentation or a filled-in check box does not properly indicate consent was provided by the consumer or the consumer's authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(D) An individual or entity described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section must maintain the documentation described in paragraph (j)(2)(iii)(A) of this section for a minimum of 10 years, and produce the documentation upon request in response to monitoring, audit, and enforcement activities conducted consistent with paragraphs (c)(5), (g), (h), and (k) of this section.






</P>
<P>(iv) Protect consumer personally identifiable information according to § 155.260(b)(3) and the agreement described in § 155.260(b)(2); 
</P>
<P>(v) Comply with all applicable Federal and State laws and regulations.


</P>
<P>(vi) Not engage in scripting and other automation of interactions with CMS Systems or the Direct Enrollment Pathways, unless approved in advance in writing by CMS.


</P>
<P>(vii) Only use an identity that belongs to the consumer when identity proofing the consumer's account on <I>HealthCare.gov</I>.


</P>
<P>(viii) When providing information to Federally-facilitated Exchanges that may result in a determination of eligibility for a special enrollment period in accordance with § 155.420, obtain authorization from the consumer to submit the request for a determination of eligibility for a special enrollment period and make the consumer aware of the specific triggering event and special enrollment period for which the agent, broker, or web-broker will be submitting an eligibility determination request on the consumer's behalf.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Marketing requirements.</I> An individual or entity described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section must additionally:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with the standards of conduct under paragraph (j)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide consumers with correct information, without omission of material fact, regarding the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, QHPs offered through the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, and insurance affordability programs, and refrain from marketing that is misleading, materially inaccurate, coercive, or discriminates based on race, color, national origin, disability, age, or sex.
</P>
<P>(iii) Examples of prohibited misleading marketing practices agents, brokers, and web-brokers may not include in their marketing of FFE plans include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Providing cash, monetary rebates, gift cards, travel vouchers, or cash equivalents as an inducement for enrollment or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(B) Offering gifts to consumers, unless the gifts are of nominal value, are offered to similarly situated consumers without regard to whether or not the consumers enroll, and are not in the form of cash or cash equivalents.
</P>
<P>(C) Falsely asserting or suggesting that consumers will always qualify for zero-dollar insurance/zero-dollar premiums.
</P>
<P>(D) Falsely using identical or facsimiles of government or other official logos and notations.
</P>
<P>(E) Miscommunicating enrollment timelines and deadlines.
</P>
<P>(F) Misconstruing legislation, regulations, or Executive Orders, including listing fake or incorrect references or citations.
</P>
<P>(G) Utilizing the image or likeness and/or utilize a quote from a notable figure, such as a celebrity or politician, in an advertisement claiming that figure has endorsed you or your agency when that endorsement is not truthful.
</P>
<P>(iv) An individual or entity described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section must produce any marketing material upon request, within the specified timeframe HHS mandates, in response to monitoring, audit, and enforcement activities conducted consistent with paragraphs (c)(5), (g), (h), and (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) An individual or entity described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section is responsible to ensure that all marketing-related materials created, written, released, or otherwise produced by the individual or entity or on their behalf adhere to the requirements of paragraphs (j)(3)(ii) and(iii) of this section, and to make all such marketing-related materials available upon request in accordance with paragraph (j)(3)(iv) of this section.




</P>
<P>(4) If an agent, broker, or web-broker fails to provide correct information, he, she, or it will nonetheless be deemed in compliance with paragraphs (j)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section if HHS determines that there was a reasonable cause for the failure to provide correct information and that the agent, broker, or web-broker acted in good faith.


</P>
<P>(k) <I>Penalties other than termination of the agreement with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges.</I> (1) If HHS determines that an agent, broker, or web-broker has failed to comply with the requirements of this section, in addition to any other available remedies, that agent, broker, or web-broker—
</P>
<P>(i) May be denied the right to enter into agreements with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges in future years; and
</P>
<P>(ii) May be subject to civil money penalties as described in § 155.285.
</P>
<P>(2) HHS will notify the agent, broker, or web-broker of the proposed imposition of penalties under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section as part of the termination notice issued under paragraph (g) of this section and, after 30 calendar days from the date of the notice, may impose the penalty if the agent, broker, or web-broker has not requested a reconsideration under paragraph (h) of this section. The proposed imposition of penalties under paragraph (k)(1)(ii) of this section will follow the process outlined under § 155.285.


</P>
<P>(3) HHS may immediately suspend the agent's or broker's ability to transact information with the Exchange if HHS discovers circumstances that pose unacceptable risk to the accuracy of the Exchange's eligibility determinations, Exchange operations, applicants, or enrollees, or Exchange information technology systems, including but not limited to risk related to noncompliance with the standards of conduct under paragraph (j)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section and the privacy and security standards under § 155.260, until the circumstances of the incident, breach, or noncompliance are remedied or sufficiently mitigated to HHS' satisfaction.


</P>
<P>(l) <I>Application to State Exchanges using a Federal platform.</I> An agent, broker, or web-broker who enrolls qualified individuals, qualified employers, or qualified employees in coverage in a manner that constitutes enrollment through a State Exchange using the Federal platform, or assists individual market consumers with submission of applications for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions through a State Exchange using the Federal platform must comply with all applicable Federally-facilitated Exchange standards in this section.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Web-broker agreement suspension, termination, and denial and information collection.</I> (1) A web-broker's agreement executed under paragraph (d) of this section, may be suspended or terminated under paragraph (g) of this section, and a web-broker may be denied the right to enter into agreements with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section, based on the actions of its officers, employees, contractors, or agents, whether or not the officer, employee, contractor, or agent is registered with the Exchange as an agent or broker.
</P>
<P>(2) A web-broker's agreement executed under paragraph (d) of this section may be suspended or terminated under paragraph (g) of this section, and a web-broker may be denied the right to enter into agreements with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section, if it is under the common ownership or control or is an affiliated business of another web-broker that had its agreement suspended or terminated under paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The Exchange may collect information from a web-broker during its registration with the Exchange under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, or at another time on an annual basis, in a form and manner to be specified by HHS, sufficient to establish the identities of the individuals who comprise its corporate ownership and leadership and to ascertain any corporate or business relationships it has with other entities that may seek to register with the Federally-facilitated Exchange as web-brokers.


</P>
<P>(n) <I>Application to State Exchanges that do not use the Federal platform.</I> A web-broker that assists or enrolls qualified individuals, qualified employers or qualified employees in coverage in a manner that constitutes enrollment through the State Exchange, or assists individual market consumers with submission of applications for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions through the State Exchange, must comply with the Federally-facilitated Exchange standards in paragraphs (c)(3)(i)(A), (G), (I), and (j)(2)(i) of this section, including any additional State-specific standards under paragraph (n)(1) of this section, and the State Exchange's operational readiness standards under paragraph (n)(2) of this section. For the purposes of paragraph (j)(2)(i) of this section, references to “HHS” and “the federally facilitated Exchanges” will be understood to mean “the applicable State Exchange, applied for web-brokers”, and the reference to “<I>HealthCare.gov”</I> will be understood to mean “the State Exchange website, applied for web-brokers.”
</P>
<P>(1) State Exchanges may add State-specific information to the standardized disclaimers and information under paragraphs (c)(3)(i)(A), (G), and (I) of this section that does not conflict with the HHS-provided language.
</P>
<P>(2) State Exchanges must establish the form and manner for their web-brokers to demonstrate operational readiness and compliance with applicable requirements in order for the web-broker's internet website being used to complete an Exchange eligibility application or a QHP selection, which may include submission or completion of the following items to the State Exchange, in the form and manner specified by the Exchange:
</P>
<P>(i) Operational data including licensure information, points of contact and third-party relationships;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enrollment testing, prior to approval or renewal;
</P>
<P>(iii) website reviews performed by the State Exchange;
</P>
<P>(iv) Security and privacy documentation, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Penetration testing results;
</P>
<P>(B) Security and privacy assessment reports;
</P>
<P>(C) Vulnerability scan results;
</P>
<P>(D) Plans of action and milestones; and
</P>
<P>(E) System security and privacy plans.
</P>
<P>(v) Agreements between the web-broker and the State Exchange.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Moratoria on registrations with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges for agents and brokers.</I> When HHS determines that agent and broker conduct poses an unacceptable risk to the accuracy of the Exchange's eligibility determinations, Exchange operations, applicants, enrollees, or Exchange information technology systems, including risk related to noncompliance with the standards of conduct under paragraph (j) of this section and the privacy and security standards under § 155.260, HHS may impose a temporary moratorium pausing agent and broker registrations with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges under paragraph (d)(1) of this section of agents and brokers that do not have a current Plan Year registration with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges at the time the moratorium is effective. A moratorium under this paragraph (o) does not prevent registration with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges for agents and brokers that do not have a current Plan Year registration with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges at the time a moratorium is effective due to a termination under paragraph (g) of this section or a denial of the right to enter into Exchange agreements with the Federally-facilitated Exchanges in future years under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section when such a termination or denial is subsequently reversed, or the agent's or broker's Exchange agreements are reinstated while the moratorium is in place. When imposing a moratorium on registrations for agents and brokers, HHS will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> indicating the date the moratorium will take effect, the reasons for imposing the moratorium, and the duration of the moratorium.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15533, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 54134, Aug. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13837, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 12338, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94176, Dec. 22, 2016; 84 FR 17563, Apr. 25, 2019; 85 FR 37248, June 19, 2020; 86 FR 24288, May 5, 2021; 87 FR 27388, May 6, 2022; 88 FR 25917, Apr. 27, 2023; 89 FR 26420, Apr. 15, 2024; 89 FR 37703, May 6, 2024; 90 FR 4539, Jan. 15, 2025; 90 FR 27220, June 25, 2025; 91 FR 29864, May 20, 2026; 91 FR 60334, Sept. 23, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.221" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.221   Standards for direct enrollment entities and for third-parties to perform audits of direct enrollment entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Direct enrollment entities.</I> All Exchanges may permit the following entities to assist consumers with direct enrollment in QHPs offered through the Exchange in a manner that is considered to be through the Exchange, to the extent permitted by applicable State law:


</P>
<P>(1) QHP issuers that meet the applicable requirements in this section and § 156.1230 of this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of applying the requirements of § 156.1230(b) of this subchapter to State Exchanges, all references to “Federally-facilitated Exchange” and “HHS”, and “HealthCare.gov” will be understood to mean “the applicable State Exchange”, “the applicable State Exchange”, and “the applicable State Exchange website”, respectively.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(2) Web-brokers that meet the applicable requirements in this section and § 155.220.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Direct enrollment entity requirements.</I> For the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, a direct enrollment entity must:
</P>
<P>(1) Display and market QHPs offered through the Exchange, individual health insurance coverage as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter offered outside the Exchange (including QHPs and non-QHPs other than excepted benefits), and any other products, such as excepted benefits, on at least three separate website pages on its non-Exchange website, except as permitted under paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Prominently display a standardized disclaimer in the form and manner provided by HHS;
</P>
<P>(3) Limit marketing of non-QHPs during the Exchange eligibility application and QHP selection process in a manner that minimizes the likelihood that consumers will be confused as to which products and plans are available through the Exchange and which products and plans are not, except as permitted under paragraph (c)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Demonstrate operational readiness and compliance with applicable requirements prior to the direct enrollment entity's internet website being used to complete an Exchange eligibility application or a QHP selection, which may include submission or completion, in the form and manner specified by HHS, of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Business audit documentation including:
</P>
<P>(A) Notices of intent to participate including auditor information;
</P>
<P>(B) Documentation packages including privacy questionnaires, privacy policy statements, and terms of service; and
</P>
<P>(C) Business audit reports including testing results.
</P>
<P>(ii) Security and privacy audit documentation including:
</P>
<P>(A) Interconnection security agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) Security and privacy controls assessment test plans;
</P>
<P>(C) Security and privacy assessment reports;
</P>
<P>(D) Plans of action and milestones;
</P>
<P>(E) Privacy impact assessments;
</P>
<P>(F) System security and privacy plans;
</P>
<P>(G) Incident response plans; and
</P>
<P>(H) Vulnerability scan results.
</P>
<P>(iii) Eligibility application audits performed by HHS;
</P>
<P>(iv) Online training modules offered by HHS; and
</P>
<P>(v) Agreements between the direct enrollment entity and HHS.
</P>
<P>(5) Comply with applicable Federal and State requirements.
</P>
<P>(6) Implement and prominently display website changes in a manner that is consistent with display changes made to the Federally-facilitated Exchange website by meeting standards communicated and defined by HHS within a time period set by HHS, unless HHS approves a deviation from those standards. Direct enrollment entities may request a deviation by submitting a proposed alternative <I>display and</I> accompanying rationale to HHS for review.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions to direct enrollment entity display and marketing requirement.</I> For the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, a direct enrollment entity may:
</P>
<P>(1) Display and market QHPs offered through the Exchange and individual health insurance coverage as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter offered outside the Exchange (including QHPs and non-QHPs other than excepted benefits) on the same website pages when assisting individuals who have communicated receipt of an offer of an individual coverage health reimbursement arrangement as described in § 146.123(c) of this subchapter, as a standalone benefit, or in addition to an offer of an arrangement under which the individual may pay the portion of the premium for individual health insurance coverage that is not covered by an individual coverage health reimbursement arrangement using a salary reduction arrangement pursuant to a cafeteria plan under section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code, but must clearly distinguish between the QHPs offered through the Exchange and individual health insurance coverage offered outside the Exchange (including QHPs and non-QHPs other than excepted benefits), and prominently communicate that advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions are available only for QHPs purchased through the Exchange, that advance payments of the premium tax credit are not available to individuals who accept an offer of an individual coverage health reimbursement arrangement or who opt out of an individual coverage health reimbursement arrangement that is considered affordable, and that a salary reduction arrangement under a cafeteria plan may only be used toward the cost of premiums for plans purchased outside the Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(2) Display and market Exchange-certified stand-alone dental plans offered outside the Exchange and non-certified stand-alone dental plans on the same website pages.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Direct enrollment entity application assister requirements.</I> For the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, to the extent permitted under state law, a direct enrollment entity may permit its direct enrollment entity application assisters, as defined at § 155.20, to assist individuals in the individual market with applying for a determination or redetermination of eligibility for coverage through the Exchange and for insurance affordability programs, provided that such direct enrollment entity ensures that each of its direct enrollment entity application assisters meets the requirements in § 155.415(b).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federally-facilitated Exchange direct enrollment entity suspension.</I> HHS may immediately suspend the direct enrollment entity's ability to transact information with the Exchange if HHS discovers circumstances that pose unacceptable risk to the accuracy of the Exchange's eligibility determinations, Exchange operations, or Exchange information technology systems until the incident or breach is remedied or sufficiently mitigated to HHS' satisfaction.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Third parties to perform audits of direct enrollment entities.</I> A direct enrollment entity must engage an independent, third-party entity to conduct an initial and annual review to demonstrate the direct enrollment entity's operational readiness and compliance with applicable direct enrollment entity requirements in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section prior to the direct enrollment entity's internet website being used to complete an Exchange eligibility application or a QHP selection. The third-party entity will be a downstream or delegated entity of the direct enrollment entity that participates or wishes to participate in direct enrollment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Third-party auditor standards.</I> A direct enrollment entity must satisfy the requirement to demonstrate operational readiness under paragraph (f) of this section by engaging a third-party entity that executes a written agreement with the direct enrollment entity under which the third-party entity agrees to comply with each of the following standards:
</P>
<P>(1) Has experience conducting audits or similar services, including experience with relevant privacy and security standards;
</P>
<P>(2) Adheres to HHS specifications for content, format, privacy, and security in the conduct of an operational readiness review, which includes ensuring that direct enrollment entities are in compliance with the applicable privacy and security standards and other applicable requirements;
</P>
<P>(3) Collects, stores, and shares with HHS all data related to the third-party entity's audit of direct enrollment entities in a manner, format, and frequency specified by HHS until 10 years from the date of creation, and complies with the privacy and security standards HHS adopts for direct enrollment entities as required in accordance with § 155.260;
</P>
<P>(4) Discloses to HHS any financial relationships between the entity and individuals who own or are employed by a direct enrollment entity for which it is conducting an operational readiness review;
</P>
<P>(5) Complies with all applicable Federal and State requirements;
</P>
<P>(6) Ensures, on an annual basis, that appropriate staff successfully complete operational readiness review training as established by HHS prior to conducting audits under paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(7) Permits access by the Secretary and the Office of the Inspector General or their designees in connection with their right to evaluate through audit, inspection, or other means, to the third-party entity's books, contracts, computers, or other electronic systems, relating to the third-party entity's audits of a direct enrollment entity's obligations in accordance with standards under paragraph (f) of this section until 10 years from the date of creation of a specific audit; and
</P>
<P>(8) Complies with other minimum business criteria as specified in guidance by HHS.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Multiple auditors.</I> A direct enrollment entity may engage multiple third-party entities to conduct the audit under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Application to State Exchanges using a Federal platform.</I> A direct enrollment entity that enrolls qualified individuals in coverage in a manner that constitutes enrollment through a State Exchange using the Federal platform, or assists individual market consumers with submission of applications for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions through a State Exchange using a Federal platform must comply with all applicable Federally-facilitated Exchange standards in this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Application to State</I> Exchanges <I>that do not use the Federal platform.</I> A direct enrollment entity that enrolls qualified individuals, qualified employers, or qualified employees in coverage in a manner that constitutes enrollment through the State Exchange, or assists consumers with submission of applications for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions through the State Exchange, must comply with the Federally-facilitated Exchange standards in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) and (d) of this section, including the exceptions in paragraph (c) of this section, where applicable; any additional State-specific standards under paragraph (j)(1) of this section; the State Exchange's operational readiness standards under paragraph (j)(2) of this section; and the State Exchange's website display change standards under paragraph (j)(3) of this section. References to §§ 155.415(b), and 155.415(b)(1) in paragraph (d) of this section will be understood to also apply to State Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(1) State Exchanges may add State-specific information to the standardized disclaimer under paragraph (b)(2) of this section that does not conflict with the HHS-provided language.
</P>
<P>(2) State Exchanges must establish the form and manner for their direct enrollment entities to demonstrate operational readiness and compliance with applicable requirements in order for the direct enrollment entity's internet website being used to complete an Exchange eligibility application or a QHP selection, which may include submission or completion of the following documentation to the State Exchange, in the form and manner specified by the Exchange:
</P>
<P>(i) Business audit documentation including:
</P>
<P>(A) Notices of intent to participate including auditor information;
</P>
<P>(B) Documentation packages including privacy questionnaires, privacy policy statements, and terms of service; and
</P>
<P>(C) Business audit reports including testing results.
</P>
<P>(ii) Security and privacy audit documentation including:
</P>
<P>(A) Interconnection security agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) Security and privacy controls assessment test plans;
</P>
<P>(C) Security and privacy assessment reports;
</P>
<P>(D) Plans of action and milestones;
</P>
<P>(E) Privacy impact assessments;
</P>
<P>(F) System security and privacy plans;
</P>
<P>(G) Incident response plans; and
</P>
<P>(H) Vulnerability scan results.
</P>
<P>(3) State Exchanges must require their direct enrollment entities to implement and prominently display website changes in a manner that is consistent with the display changes made by State Exchanges to the State Exchanges' websites, consistent with the process of defining and communicating standards and setting advance notice periods in paragraph (b)(6) of this section, except that all references in paragraph (b)(6) of this section to “Federally-Facilitated Exchange website” would be understood to mean “State Exchange website,” references to “HHS” would be understood to mean “State Exchange,” and the reference to “unless HHS approves a deviation from those standards” would be understood to mean “unless the State Exchange approves a deviation from those standards under the deviation request process it is required to establish should the State Exchange elect to permit deviation requests.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17061, Apr. 17, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 17566, Apr. 25, 2019; 86 FR 6176, Jan. 19, 2021; 86 FR 24289, May 5, 2021; 86 FR 53503, Sept. 27, 2021; 89 FR 26420, Apr. 15, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.225" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.225   Certified application counselors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Exchange must have a certified application counselor program that complies with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exchange designation of organizations.</I> (1) The Exchange may designate an organization, including an organization designated as a Medicaid certified application counselor organization by a state Medicaid or CHIP agency, to certify its staff members or volunteers to act as certified application counselors who perform the duties and meet the standards and requirements for certified application counselors in this section if the organization—
</P>
<P>(i) Enters into an agreement with the Exchange to comply with the standards and requirements of this section including the standards specified in paragraphs (d)(3) through (d)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains a registration process and method to track the performance of certified application counselors.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides data and information to the Exchange regarding the number and performance of its certified application counselors and regarding the consumer assistance provided by its certified application counselors, upon request, in the form and manner specified by the Exchange. Beginning for the third quarter of calendar year 2017, in a Federally-facilitated Exchange, organizations designated by the Exchange must submit quarterly reports that include, at a minimum, data regarding the number of individuals who have been certified by the organization; the total number of consumers who received application and enrollment assistance from the organization; and of that number, the number of consumers who received assistance in applying for and selecting a QHP, enrolling in a QHP, or applying for Medicaid or CHIP.
</P>
<P>(2) An Exchange may comply with paragraph (a) of this section either by—
</P>
<P>(i) Designating organizations to certify application counselors in compliance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Directly certifying individual staff members or volunteers of Exchange designated organizations to provide the duties specified in paragraph (c) of this section if the staff member or volunteer enters into an agreement with the Exchange to comply with the standards and requirements for certified application counselors in this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A combination of paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In a Federally-facilitated Exchange, no individual or entity shall be ineligible to operate as a certified application counselor or organization designated by the Exchange under paragraph (b) of this section solely because its principal place of business is outside of the Exchange service area.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duties.</I> Certified application counselors are certified to—
</P>
<P>(1) Provide information to individuals and employees about the full range of QHP options and insurance affordability programs for which they are eligible, which includes: providing fair, impartial, and accurate information that assists consumers with submitting the eligibility application; clarifying the distinctions among health coverage options, including QHPs; and helping consumers make informed decisions during the health coverage selection process;
</P>
<P>(2) Assist individuals and employees to apply for coverage in a QHP through the Exchange and for insurance affordability programs; and
</P>
<P>(3) Help to facilitate enrollment of eligible individuals in QHPs and insurance affordability programs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Standards of certification.</I> An organization designated by the Exchange to provide certified application counselor services, or an Exchange that chooses to certify individual staff members or volunteers directly under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, may certify a staff member or volunteer to perform the duties specified in paragraph (c) of this section only if the staff member or volunteer—
</P>
<P>(1) Completes Exchange approved training regarding QHP options, insurance affordability programs, eligibility, and benefits rules and regulations governing all insurance affordability programs operated in the state, as implemented in the state, and completes and achieves a passing score on all Exchange approved certification examinations, prior to functioning as a certified application counselor;
</P>
<P>(2) Discloses to the organization, or to the Exchange if directly certified by an Exchange, and potential applicants any relationships the certified application counselor or sponsoring agency has with QHPs or insurance affordability programs, or other potential conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(3) Complies with the Exchange's privacy and security standards adopted consistent with § 155.260, and applicable authentication and data security standards;
</P>
<P>(4) Agrees to act in the best interest of the applicants assisted;
</P>
<P>(5) Either directly or through an appropriate referral to a Navigator or non-Navigator assistance personnel authorized under § 155.205(d) and (e) or § 155.210, or to the Exchange call center authorized under § 155.205(a), provides information in a manner that is accessible to individuals with disabilities, as defined by the Americans with Disabilities Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 12101 et seq. and section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 794; 
</P>
<P>(6) Enters into an agreement with the organization regarding compliance with the standards specified in paragraphs (d), (f), and (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(7) Is recertified on at least an annual basis after successfully completing recertification training as required by the Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(8) Meets any licensing, certification, or other standards prescribed by the State or Exchange, if applicable, so long as such standards do not prevent the application of the provisions of title I of the Affordable Care Act. Standards that would prevent the application of the provisions of title I of the Affordable Care Act include but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Requirements that certified application counselors refer consumers to other entities not required to provide fair, accurate, and impartial information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Requirements that would prevent certified application counselors from providing services to all persons to whom they are required to provide assistance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Requirements that would prevent certified application counselors from providing advice regarding substantive benefits or comparative benefits of different health plans.
</P>
<P>(iv) Imposing standards that would, as applied or as implemented in a State, prevent the application of Federal requirements applicable to certified application counselors, to an organization designated by the Exchange under paragraph (b) of this section, or to the Exchange's implementation of the certified application counselor program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Withdrawal of designation and certification.</I> (1) The Exchange must establish procedures to withdraw designation from a particular organization it has designated under paragraph (b) of this section, when it finds noncompliance with the terms and conditions of the organization's agreement required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If an Exchange directly certifies organizations' individual certified application counselors, it must establish procedures to withdraw certification from individual certified application counselors when it finds noncompliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) An organization designated by the Exchange under paragraph (b) of this section must establish procedures to withdraw certification from individual certified application counselors when it finds noncompliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Availability of information; authorization.</I> An organization designated by the Exchange under paragraph (b) of this section, or, if applicable, an Exchange that certifies staff members or volunteers of organizations directly must establish procedures to ensure that applicants—
</P>
<P>(1) Are informed, prior to receiving assistance, of the functions and responsibilities of certified application counselors, including that certified application counselors are not acting as tax advisers or attorneys when providing assistance as certified application counselors and cannot provide tax or legal advice within their capacity as certified application counselors;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide authorization in a form and manner as determined by the Exchange prior to a certified application counselor obtaining access to an applicant's personally identifiable information, and that the organization or certified application counselor maintains a record of the authorization in a form and manner as determined by the Exchange. The Exchange must establish a reasonable retention period for maintaining these records. In Federally-facilitated Exchanges, this period is no less than six years, unless a different and longer retention period has already been provided under other applicable Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(3) May revoke at any time the authorization provided the certified application counselor, pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fees, consideration, solicitation, and marketing.</I> Organizations designated by the Exchange under paragraph (b) of this section and certified application counselors must not—
</P>
<P>(1) Impose any charge on applicants or enrollees for application or other assistance related to the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(2) Receive any consideration directly or indirectly from any health insurance issuer or issuer of stop-loss insurance in connection with the enrollment of any individuals in a QHP or a non-QHP. In a Federally-facilitated Exchange, no health care provider shall be ineligible to operate as a certified application counselor or organization designated by the Exchange under paragraph (b) of this section solely because it receives consideration from a health insurance issuer for health care services provided;
</P>
<P>(3) Beginning November 15, 2014, if operating in a Federally-facilitated Exchange, provide compensation to individual certified application counselors on a per-application, per-individual-assisted, or per-enrollment basis;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide to an applicant or potential enrollee gifts of any value as an inducement for enrollment. The value of gifts provided to applicants and potential enrollees for purposes other than as an inducement for enrollment must not exceed nominal value, either individually or in the aggregate, when provided to that individual during a single encounter. For purposes of this paragraph (g)(4), the term gifts includes gift items, gift cards, cash cards, cash, and promotional items that market or promote the products or services of a third party, but does not include the reimbursement of legitimate expenses incurred by a consumer in an effort to receive Exchange application assistance, such as travel or postage expenses; or
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved] </P>
<P>(6) Initiate any telephone call to a consumer using an automatic telephone dialing system or an artificial or prerecorded voice, except in cases where the individual certified application counselor or designated organization has a relationship with the consumer and so long as other applicable State and Federal laws are otherwise complied with.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 42861, July 17, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30345, May 27, 2014; 79 FR 42986, July 24, 2014; 81 FR 12341, Mar. 8, 2016; 88 FR 25918, Apr. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.227" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.227   Authorized representatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> (1) The Exchange must permit an applicant or enrollee in the individual or small group market, subject to applicable privacy and security requirements, to designate an individual person or organization to act on his or her behalf in applying for an eligibility determination or redetermination, under subpart D, G, or H of this part, and in carrying out other ongoing communications with the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(2) Designation of an authorized representative must be in a written document signed by the applicant or enrollee, or through another legally binding format subject to applicable authentication and data security standards. If submitted, legal documentation of authority to act on behalf of an applicant or enrollee under State law, such as a court order establishing legal guardianship or a power of attorney, shall serve in the place of the applicant's or enrollee's signature.
</P>
<P>(3) The Exchange must ensure that the authorized representative agrees to maintain, or be legally bound to maintain, the confidentiality of any information regarding the applicant or enrollee provided by the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(4) The Exchange must ensure that the authorized representative is responsible for fulfilling all responsibilities encompassed within the scope of the authorized representation, as described in this section, to the same extent as the applicant or enrollee he or she represents.
</P>
<P>(5) The Exchange must provide information both to the applicant or enrollee, and to the authorized representative, regarding the powers and duties of authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of designation.</I> The Exchange must permit an applicant or enrollee to designate an authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) At the time of application; and
</P>
<P>(2) At other times and through methods as described in § 155.405(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duties.</I> (1) The Exchange must permit an applicant or enrollee to authorize his or her representative to:
</P>
<P>(i) Sign an application on the applicant or enrollee's behalf;
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit an update or respond to a redetermination for the applicant or enrollee in accordance with § 155.330 or § 155.335;
</P>
<P>(iii) Receive copies of the applicant's or enrollee's notices and other communications from the Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Act on behalf of the applicant or enrollee in all other matters with the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange may permit an applicant or enrollee to authorize a representative to perform fewer than all of the activities described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, provided that the Exchange tracks the specific permissions for each authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duration.</I> The Exchange must consider the designation of an authorized representative valid until:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant or enrollee notifies the Exchange that the representative is no longer authorized to act on his or her behalf using one of the methods available for the submission of an application, as described in § 155.405(c). The Exchange must notify the authorized representative of such change; or
</P>
<P>(2) The authorized representative informs the Exchange and the applicant or enrollee that he or she no longer is acting in such capacity. An authorized representative must notify the Exchange and the applicant or enrollee on whose behalf he or she is acting when the authorized representative no longer has legal authority to act on behalf of the applicant or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance with State and Federal law.</I> The Exchange must require an authorized representative to comply with applicable state and federal laws concerning conflicts of interest and confidentiality of information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Signature.</I> For purposes of this section, designation of an authorized representative must be through a written document signed by the applicant or enrollee, or through another legally binding format, as described in § 155.227(a)(2), and must be accepted through all of the modalities described in § 155.405(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 42313, July 15, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.230" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.230   General standards for Exchange notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Any notice required to be sent by the Exchange to individuals or employers must be written and include:
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation of the action reflected in the notice, including the effective date of the action.
</P>
<P>(2) Any factual findings relevant to the action.
</P>
<P>(3) Citations to, or identification of, the relevant regulations supporting the action.
</P>
<P>(4) Contact information for available customer service resources.
</P>
<P>(5) An explanation of appeal rights, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accessibility and readability requirements.</I> All applications, forms, and notices, including the single, streamlined application described in § 155.405 and notice of annual redetermination described in § 155.335(c), must conform to the standards outlined in § 155.205(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Re-evaluation of appropriateness and usability.</I> The Exchange must re-evaluate the appropriateness and usability of applications, forms, and notices.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Electronic notices.</I> (1) The individual market Exchange must provide required notices either through standard mail, or if an individual or employer elects, electronically, provided that the requirements for electronic notices in 42 CFR 435.918 are met, except that the individual market Exchange is not required to implement the process specified in 42 CFR 435.918(b)(1) for eligibility determinations for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange and insurance affordability programs that are effective before January 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless otherwise required by Federal or State law, the SHOP must provide required notices electronically or, if an employer or employee elects, through standard mail. If notices are provided electronically, the SHOP must comply with the requirements for electronic notices in 42 CFR 435.918(b)(2) through (5) for the employer or employee.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event that an individual market Exchange or SHOP is unable to send select required notices electronically due to technical limitations, it may instead send these notices through standard mail, even if an election has been made to receive such notices electronically.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 11718, Feb. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42314, July 15, 2013; 81 FR 94177, Dec. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.240" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.240   Payment of premiums.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment by individuals.</I> The Exchange must allow a qualified individual to pay any applicable premium owed by such individual directly to the QHP issuer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment by tribes, tribal organizations, and urban Indian organizations.</I> The Exchange may permit Indian tribes, tribal organizations and urban Indian organizations to pay aggregated QHP premiums on behalf of qualified individuals, including aggregated payment, subject to terms and conditions determined by the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment facilitation.</I> The Exchange may establish a process to facilitate through electronic means the collection and payment of premiums to QHP issuers.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Required standards.</I> In conducting an electronic transaction with a QHP issuer that involves the payment of premiums or an electronic funds transfer, the Exchange must comply with the privacy and security standards adopted in accordance with § 155.260 and use the standards and operating rules referenced in § 155.270.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Premium calculation.</I> The Exchange may establish one or more standard processes for premium calculation.
</P>
<P>(1) For a Federally-facilitated Exchange, the premium for coverage lasting less than one month must equal the product of—
</P>
<P>(i) The premium for one month of coverage divided by the number of days in the month; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of days for which coverage is being provided in the month described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 30346, May 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.260" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.260   Privacy and security of personally identifiable information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Creation, collection, use and disclosure.</I> (1) Where the Exchange creates or collects personally identifiable information for the purposes of determining eligibility for enrollment in a qualified health plan; determining eligibility for other insurance affordability programs, as defined in § 155.300; or determining eligibility for exemptions from the individual shared responsibility provisions in section 5000A of the Code, the Exchange may only use or disclose such personally identifiable information to the extent such information is necessary:
</P>
<P>(i) For the Exchange to carry out the functions described in § 155.200;
</P>
<P>(ii) For the Exchange to carry out other functions not described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, which the Secretary determines to be in compliance with section 1411(g)(2)(A) of the Affordable Care Act and for which an individual provides consent for his or her information to be used or disclosed; or
</P>
<P>(iii) For the Exchange to carry out other functions not described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, for which an individual provides consent for his or her information to be used or disclosed, and which the Secretary determines are in compliance with section 1411(g)(2)(A) of the Affordable Care Act under the following substantive and procedural requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Substantive requirements.</I> The Secretary may approve other uses and disclosures of personally identifiable information created or collected as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that are not described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, provided that HHS determines that the information will be used only for the purposes of and to the extent necessary in ensuring the efficient operation of the Exchange consistent with section 1411(g)(2)(A) of the Affordable Care Act, and that the uses and disclosures are also permissible under relevant law and policy.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Procedural requirements for approval of a use or disclosure of personally identifiable information.</I> To seek approval for a use or disclosure of personally identifiable information created or collected as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that is not described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, the Exchange must submit the following information to HHS:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Identity of the Exchange and appropriate contact persons;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Detailed description of the proposed use or disclosure, which must include, but not necessarily be limited to, a listing or description of the specific information to be used or disclosed and an identification of the persons or entities that may access or receive the information;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Description of how the use or disclosure will ensure the efficient operation of the Exchange consistent with section 1411(g)(2)(A) of the Affordable Care Act; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Description of how the information to be used or disclosed will be protected in compliance with privacy and security standards that meet the requirements of this section or other relevant law, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange may not create, collect, use, or disclose personally identifiable information unless the creation, collection, use, or disclosure is consistent with this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The Exchange must establish and implement privacy and security standards that are consistent with the following principles:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Individual access.</I> Individuals should be provided with a simple and timely means to access and obtain their personally identifiable information in a readable form and format;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Correction.</I> Individuals should be provided with a timely means to dispute the accuracy or integrity of their personally identifiable information and to have erroneous information corrected or to have a dispute documented if their requests are denied;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Openness and transparency.</I> There should be openness and transparency about policies, procedures, and technologies that directly affect individuals and/or their personally identifiable information;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Individual choice.</I> Individuals should be provided a reasonable opportunity and capability to make informed decisions about the collection, use, and disclosure of their personally identifiable information;
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Collection, use, and disclosure limitations.</I> Personally identifiable information should be created, collected, used, and/or disclosed only to the extent necessary to accomplish a specified purpose(s) and never to discriminate inappropriately;
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Data quality and integrity.</I> Persons and entities should take reasonable steps to ensure that personally identifiable information is complete, accurate, and up-to-date to the extent necessary for the person's or entity's intended purposes and has not been altered or destroyed in an unauthorized manner;
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Safeguards.</I> Personally identifiable information should be protected with reasonable operational, administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability and to prevent unauthorized or inappropriate access, use, or disclosure; and,
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Accountability.</I> These principles should be implemented, and adherence assured, through appropriate monitoring and other means and methods should be in place to report and mitigate non-adherence and breaches.
</P>
<P>(4) For the purposes of implementing the principle described in paragraph (a)(3)(vii) of this section, the Exchange must establish and implement operational, technical, administrative and physical safeguards that are consistent with any applicable laws (including this section) to ensure—
</P>
<P>(i) The confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personally identifiable information created, collected, used, and/or disclosed by the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(ii) Personally identifiable information is only used by or disclosed to those authorized to receive or view it;
</P>
<P>(iii) Return information, as such term is defined by section 6103(b)(2) of the Code, is kept confidential under section 6103 of the Code;
</P>
<P>(iv) Personally identifiable information is protected against any reasonably anticipated threats or hazards to the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of such information;
</P>
<P>(v) Personally identifiable information is protected against any reasonably anticipated uses or disclosures of such information that are not permitted or required by law; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Personally identifiable information is securely destroyed or disposed of in an appropriate and reasonable manner and in accordance with retention schedules;
</P>
<P>(5) The Exchange must monitor, periodically assess, and update the security controls and related system risks to ensure the continued effectiveness of those controls.
</P>
<P>(6) The Exchange must develop and utilize secure electronic interfaces when sharing personally identifiable information electronically.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application to non-Exchange entities</I>—(1) <I>Non-Exchange entities.</I> A non-Exchange entity is any individual or entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Gains access to personally identifiable information submitted to an Exchange; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Collects, uses, or discloses personally identifiable information gathered directly from applicants, qualified individuals, or enrollees while that individual or entity is performing functions agreed to with the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to any person or entity becoming a non-Exchange entity, Exchanges must execute with the person or entity a contract or agreement that includes:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the functions to be performed by the non-Exchange entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A provision(s) binding the non-Exchange entity to comply with the privacy and security standards and obligations adopted in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and specifically listing or incorporating those privacy and security standards and obligations;
</P>
<P>(iii) A provision requiring the non-Exchange entity to monitor, periodically assess, and update its security controls and related system risks to ensure the continued effectiveness of those controls in accordance with paragraph (a)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) A provision requiring the non-Exchange entity to inform the Exchange of any change in its administrative, technical, or operational environments defined as material within the contract; and
</P>
<P>(v) A provision that requires the non-Exchange entity to bind any downstream entities to the same privacy and security standards and obligations to which the non-Exchange entity has agreed in its contract or agreement with the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(3) When collection, use or disclosure is not otherwise required by law, the privacy and security standards to which an Exchange binds non-Exchange entities must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be consistent with the principles and requirements listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section, including being at least as protective as the standards the Exchange has established and implemented for itself in compliance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c), (d), (f), and (g) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Take into specific consideration:
</P>
<P>(A) The environment in which the non-Exchange entity is operating;
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the standards are relevant and applicable to the non-Exchange entity's duties and activities in connection with the Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any existing legal requirements to which the non-Exchange entity is bound in relation to its administrative, technical, and operational controls and practices, including but not limited to, its existing data handling and information technology processes and protocols.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Workforce compliance.</I> The Exchange must ensure its workforce complies with the policies and procedures developed and implemented by the Exchange to comply with this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Written policies and procedures.</I> Policies and procedures regarding the creation collection, use, and disclosure of personally identifiable information must, at minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing, and available to the Secretary of HHS upon request; and
</P>
<P>(2) Identify applicable law governing collection, use, and disclosure of personally identifiable information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data sharing.</I> Data matching and sharing arrangements that facilitate the sharing of personally identifiable information between the Exchange and agencies administering Medicaid, CHIP or the BHP for the exchange of eligibility information must:
</P>
<P>(1) Meet any applicable requirements described in this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Meet any applicable requirements described in section 1413(c)(1) and (c)(2) of the Affordable Care Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Be equal to or more stringent than the requirements for Medicaid programs under section 1942 of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(4) For those matching agreements that meet the definition of “matching program” under 5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(8), comply with 5 U.S.C. 552a(o).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Compliance with the Code.</I> Return information, as defined in section 6103(b)(2) of the Code, must be kept confidential and disclosed, used, and maintained only in accordance with section 6103 of the Code.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Improper use and disclosure of information.</I> Any person who knowingly and willfully uses or discloses information in violation of section 1411(g) of the Affordable Care Act will be subject to a CMP of not more than $25,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 per person or entity, per use or disclosure, consistent with the bases and process for imposing civil penalties specified at § 155.285, in addition to other penalties that may be prescribed by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 31515, May 29, 2012; 79 FR 13837, Mar. 11, 2014; 79 FR 30346, May 27, 2014; 81 FR 12341, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 61581, Sept. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.270" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.270   Use of standards and protocols for electronic transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>HIPAA administrative simplification.</I> To the extent that the Exchange performs electronic transactions with a covered entity, the Exchange must use standards, implementation specifications, operating rules, and code sets that are adopted by the Secretary in 45 CFR parts 160 and 162 or that are otherwise approved by HHS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>HIT enrollment standards and protocols.</I> The Exchange must incorporate interoperable and secure standards and protocols developed by the Secretary in accordance with section 3021 of the PHS Act. Such standards and protocols must be incorporated within Exchange information technology systems.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 54135, Aug. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.280" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.280   Oversight and monitoring of privacy and security requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> HHS will oversee and monitor the Federally-facilitated Exchanges, State-based Exchanges on the Federal platform, and non-Exchange entities required to comply with the privacy and security standards established and implemented by a Federally-facilitated Exchange pursuant to § 155.260 for compliance with those standards. HHS will oversee and monitor State Exchanges for compliance with the standards State Exchanges establish and implement pursuant to § 155.260. State Exchanges will oversee and monitor non-Exchange entities required to comply with the privacy and security standards established and implemented by a State Exchange in accordance to § 155.260.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Audits and investigations.</I> HHS may conduct oversight activities that include but are not limited to the following: audits, investigations, inspections, and any reasonable activities necessary for appropriate oversight of compliance with the Exchange privacy and security standards. HHS may also pursue civil, criminal or administrative proceedings or actions as determined necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54135, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 12341, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.285" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.285   Bases and process for imposing civil penalties for provision of false or fraudulent information to an Exchange or improper use or disclosure of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for imposing civil money penalties.</I> (1) HHS may impose civil money penalties on any person, as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, if, based on credible evidence, HHS reasonably determines that a person has engaged in one or more of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to provide correct information under section 1411(b) of the Affordable Care Act where such failure is attributable to negligence or disregard of any rules or regulations of the Secretary with negligence and disregard defined as they are in section 6662 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986:
</P>
<P>(A) “Negligence” includes any failure to make a reasonable attempt to provide accurate, complete, and comprehensive information; and
</P>
<P>(B) “Disregard” includes any careless, reckless, or intentional disregard for any rules or regulations of the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Knowing and willful provision of false or fraudulent information required under section 1411(b) of the Affordable Care Act, where knowing and willful means the intentional provision of information that the person knows to be false or fraudulent; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Knowing and willful use or disclosure of information in violation of section 1411(g) of the Affordable Care Act, where knowing and willful means the intentional use or disclosure of information in violation of section 1411(g). Such violations would include, but not be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Any use or disclosure performed which violates relevant privacy and security standards established by the Exchange pursuant to § 155.260;
</P>
<P>(B) Any other use or disclosure which has not been determined by the Secretary to be in compliance with section 1411(g)(2)(A) of the Affordable Care Act pursuant to § 155.260(a); and
</P>
<P>(C) Any other use or disclosure which is not necessary to carry out a function described in a contract with a non-Exchange entity executed pursuant to § 155.260(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the term “person” is defined to include, but is not limited to, all individuals; corporations; Exchanges; Medicaid and CHIP agencies; other entities gaining access to personally identifiable information submitted to an Exchange to carry out additional functions which the Secretary has determined ensure the efficient operation of the Exchange pursuant to § 155.260(a)(1); and non-Exchange entities as defined in § 155.260(b) which includes agents, brokers, Web-brokers, QHP issuers, Navigators, non-Navigator assistance personnel, certified application counselors, in-person assistors, and other third party contractors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors in determining the amount of civil money penalties imposed.</I> In determining the amount of civil money penalties, HHS may take into account factors which include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and circumstances of the conduct including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of violations;
</P>
<P>(ii) The severity of the violations;
</P>
<P>(iii) The person's history with the Exchange including any prior violations that would indicate whether the violation is an isolated occurrence or represents a pattern of behavior;
</P>
<P>(iv) The length of time of the violation;
</P>
<P>(v) The number of individuals affected or potentially affected;
</P>
<P>(vi) The extent to which the person received compensation or other consideration associated with the violation;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any documentation provided in any complaint or other information, as well as any additional information provided by the individual to refute performing the violation; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Whether other remedies or penalties have been imposed for the same conduct or occurrence.
</P>
<P>(2) The nature of the harm resulting from, or reasonably expected to result from, the violation, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the violation resulted in actual or potential financial harm;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether there was actual or potential harm to an individual's reputation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the violation hindered or could have hindered an individual's ability to obtain health insurance coverage;
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) The actual or potential impact of the provision of false or fraudulent information or of the improper use or disclosure of the information; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether any person received a more favorable eligibility determination for enrollment in a QHP or insurance affordability program, such as greater advance payment of the premium tax credits or cost-sharing reductions than he or she would be eligible for if the correct information had been provided.
</P>
<P>(3) No penalty will be imposed under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section if HHS determines that there was a reasonable cause for the failure to provide correct information required under section 1411(b) of the Affordable Care Act and that the person acted in good faith.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maximum penalty.</I> The amount of a civil money penalty will be determined by HHS in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The following provisions provide maximum penalties for a single “plan year,” where “plan year” has the same meaning as at § 155.20:
</P>
<P>(i) Any person who fails to provide correct information as specified in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section may be subject to a maximum civil money penalty of $25,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 for each application, as defined at paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, pursuant to which a person fails to provide correct information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person who knowingly and willfully provides false information as specified in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section may be subject to a maximum civil money penalty of $250,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 for each application, as defined at paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, on which a person knowingly and willfully provides false information.
</P>
<P>(iii) For the purposes of this subsection, “application” is defined as a submission of information, whether through an online portal, over the telephone through a call center, or through a paper submission process, in which the information is provided in relation to an eligibility determination; an eligibility redetermination based on a change in an individual's circumstances; or an annual eligibility redetermination for any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Enrollment in a qualified health plan;
</P>
<P>(B) Premium tax credits or cost sharing reductions; or
</P>
<P>(C) An exemption from the individual shared responsibility payment.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who knowingly or willfully uses or discloses information as specified in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section may be subject to the following civil money penalty:
</P>
<P>(i) A civil money penalty for each use or disclosure described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section of not more than $25,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 per use or disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, a use or disclosure includes one separate use or disclosure of a single individual's personally identifiable information where the person against whom a civil money penalty may be imposed has made the use or disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) These penalties may be imposed in addition to any other penalties that may be prescribed by law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of intent to issue civil money penalty.</I> If HHS intends to impose a civil money penalty in accordance with this part, HHS will send a written notice of such intent to the person against whom it intends to impose a civil money penalty.
</P>
<P>(1) This written notice will be either hand delivered, sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, or sent by overnight delivery service with signature upon delivery required. The written notice must include the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the findings of fact regarding the violations with respect to which the civil money penalty is proposed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The basis and reasons why the findings of fact subject the person to a penalty;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any circumstances described in paragraph (b) of this section that were considered in determining the amount of the proposed penalty;
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of the proposed penalty;
</P>
<P>(v) An explanation of the person's right to a hearing under any applicable administrative hearing process;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that failure to request a hearing within 60 calendar days after the date of issuance printed on the notice permits the assessment of the proposed penalty; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Information explaining how to file a request for a hearing and the address to which the hearing request must be sent.
</P>
<P>(2) The person may request a hearing before an ALJ on the proposed penalty by filing a request in accordance with the procedure to file an appeal specified in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to request a hearing.</I> If the person does not request a hearing within 60 calendar days of the date of issuance printed on the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section, HHS may impose the proposed civil money penalty.
</P>
<P>(1) HHS will notify the person in writing of any penalty that has been imposed, the means by which the person may satisfy the penalty, and the date on which the penalty is due.
</P>
<P>(2) A person has no right to appeal a penalty with respect to which the person has not timely requested a hearing in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appeal of proposed penalty.</I> Subject to paragraph (e)(2) of this section, any person against whom HHS proposed to impose a civil money penalty may appeal that penalty in accordance with the rules and procedures outlined at 45 CFR part 150, subpart D, excluding §§ 150.461, 150.463, and 150.465.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Enforcement authority</I>—(1) <I>HHS.</I> HHS may impose civil money penalties up to the maximum amounts specified in paragraph (d) of this section for any of the violations described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>OIG.</I> In accordance with the rules and procedures of 42 CFR part 1003, and in place of imposition of penalties by CMS, the OIG may impose civil money penalties for violations described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Settlement authority.</I> Nothing in this section limits the authority of HHS to settle any issue or case described in the notice furnished in accordance with § 155.285(d) or to compromise on any penalty provided for in this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limitations.</I> No action under this section will be entertained unless commenced, in accordance with § 155.285(d), within 6 years from the date on which the violation occurred.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30346, May 27, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 61581, Sept. 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exchange Functions in the Individual Market: Eligibility Determinations for Exchange Participation and Insurance Affordability Programs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.300" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.300   Definitions and general standards for eligibility determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> In addition to those definitions in § 155.20, for purposes of this subpart, the following terms have the following meaning:
</P>
<P><I>Applicable Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP) MAGI-based income standard</I> means the applicable income standard as defined at 42 CFR 457.310(b)(1), as applied under the State plan adopted in accordance with title XXI of the Act, or waiver of such plan and as certified by the State CHIP Agency in accordance with 42 CFR 457.348(d), for determining eligibility for child health assistance and enrollment in a separate child health program.
</P>
<P><I>Applicable Medicaid modified adjusted gross income (MAGI)-based income standard</I> has the same meaning as “applicable modified adjusted gross income standard,” as defined at 42 CFR 435.911(b), as applied under the State plan adopted in accordance with title XIX of the Act, or waiver of such plan, and as certified by the State Medicaid agency in accordance with 42 CFR 435.1200(b)(2) for determining eligibility for Medicaid.
</P>
<P><I>Federal poverty level</I> or <I>FPL</I> means the most recently published Federal poverty level, updated periodically in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under the authority of 42 U.S.C. 9902(2), as of the first day of the annual open enrollment period for coverage in a QHP through the Exchange, as specified in § 155.410.
</P>
<P><I>Indian</I> means any individual as defined in section 4(d) of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (Pub. L. 93-638).
</P>
<P><I>Insurance affordability program</I> has the same meaning as “insurance affordability program,” as specified in 42 CFR 435.4.
</P>
<P><I>MAGI-based income</I> has the same meaning as it does in 42 CFR 435.603(e).
</P>
<P><I>Minimum value</I> when used to describe coverage in an eligible employer-sponsored plan, means that the employer-sponsored plan meets the standards for coverage of the total allowed costs of benefits set forth in § 156.145.
</P>
<P><I>Modified Adjusted Gross Income (MAGI)</I> has the same meaning as it does in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(e)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Non-citizen</I> means an individual who is not a citizen or national of the United States, in accordance with section 101(a)(3) of the Immigration and Nationality Act.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying coverage in an eligible employer-sponsored plan</I> means coverage in an eligible employer-sponsored plan that meets the affordability and minimum value standards specified in 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(3).
</P>
<P><I>State CHIP Agency</I> means the agency that administers a separate child health program established by the State under title XXI of the Act in accordance with implementing regulations at 42 CFR 457.
</P>
<P><I>State Medicaid Agency</I> means the agency established or designated by the State under title XIX of the Act that administers the Medicaid program in accordance with implementing regulations at 42 CFR parts 430 through 456.
</P>
<P><I>Tax dependent</I> has the same meaning as the term dependent under section 152 of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Tax filer</I> means an individual, or a married couple, who indicates that he, she or they expects—
</P>
<P>(1) To file an income tax return for the benefit year, in accordance with 26 U.S.C. 6011, 6012, and implementing regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) If married (within the meaning of 26 CFR 1.7703-1), to file a joint tax return for the benefit year;
</P>
<P>(3) That no other taxpayer will be able to claim him, her or them as a tax dependent for the benefit year; and
</P>
<P>(4) That he, she, or they expects to claim a personal exemption deduction under section 151 of the Code on his or her tax return for one or more applicants, who may or may not include himself or herself and his or her spouse.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medicaid and CHIP.</I> In general, references to Medicaid and CHIP regulations in this subpart refer to those regulations as implemented in accordance with rules and procedures which are the same as those applied by the State Medicaid or State CHIP agency or approved by such agency in the agreement described in § 155.345(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attestation.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, for the purposes of this subpart, an attestation may be made by the application filer.
</P>
<P>(2) The attestations specified in §§ 155.310(d)(2)(ii) and 155.315(f)(4)(ii) must be provided by the tax filer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reasonably compatible.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the Exchange must consider information obtained through electronic data sources, other information provided by the applicant, or other information in the records of the Exchange to be reasonably compatible with an applicant's attestation if the difference or discrepancy does not impact the eligibility of the applicant, including the amount of advance payments of the premium tax credit or category of cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42314, July 15, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.302" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.302   Options for conducting eligibility determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Options for conducting eligibility determinations.</I> The Exchange may satisfy the requirements of this subpart—
</P>
<P>(1) Directly, through contracting arrangements in accordance with § 155.110(a) under which the Exchange carries out all eligibility determinations for QHP coverage and related insurance affordability programs; or, as a State-based Exchange on the Federal platform, through a Federal platform agreement under which HHS carries out eligibility determinations and other requirements contained within this subpart; or


</P>
<P>(2) Through a combination of the approach described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and one or both of the options described in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, subject to the standards in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medicaid and CHIP.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this subpart, the Exchange may conduct an assessment of eligibility for Medicaid and CHIP, rather than an eligibility determination for Medicaid and CHIP, provided that—
</P>
<P>(1) The Exchange makes such an assessment based on the applicable Medicaid and CHIP MAGI-based income standards and citizenship and immigration status, using verification rules and procedures consistent with 42 CFR parts 435 and 457, without regard to how such standards are implemented by the State Medicaid and CHIP agencies.
</P>
<P>(2) Notices and other activities required in connection with an eligibility determination for Medicaid or CHIP are performed by the Exchange consistent with the standards identified in this subpart or the State Medicaid or CHIP agency consistent with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applicants found potentially eligible for Medicaid or CHIP.</I> When the Exchange assesses an applicant as potentially eligible for Medicaid or CHIP consistent with the standards in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the Exchange transmits all information provided as a part of the application, update, or renewal that initiated the assessment, and any information obtained or verified by the Exchange to the State Medicaid agency or CHIP agency via secure electronic interface, promptly and without undue delay.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Applicants not found potentially eligible for Medicaid and CHIP.</I> (i) If the Exchange conducts an assessment in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section and finds that an applicant is not potentially eligible for Medicaid or CHIP based on the applicable Medicaid and CHIP MAGI-based income standards, the Exchange must consider the applicant as ineligible for Medicaid and CHIP for purposes of determining eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions and must notify such applicant, and provide him or her with the opportunity to—
</P>
<P>(A) Withdraw his or her application for Medicaid and CHIP, unless the Exchange has assessed the applicant as potentially eligible for Medicaid based on factors not otherwise considered in this subpart, in accordance with § 155.345(b), and provided that the application will not be considered withdrawn if he or she appeals his or her eligibility determination for advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions and the appeals entity described in § 155.500(a) finds that the individual is potentially eligible for Medicaid or CHIP; or
</P>
<P>(B) Request a full determination of eligibility for Medicaid and CHIP by the applicable State Medicaid and CHIP agencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent that an applicant described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section requests a full determination of eligibility for Medicaid and CHIP, the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(A) Transmit all information provided as a part of the application, update, or renewal that initiated the assessment, and any information obtained or verified by the Exchange to the State Medicaid agency and CHIP agency via secure electronic interface, promptly and without undue delay; and
</P>
<P>(B) Consider such an applicant as ineligible for Medicaid and CHIP for purposes of determining eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions until the State Medicaid or CHIP agency notifies the Exchange that the applicant is eligible for Medicaid or CHIP.
</P>
<P>(5) The Exchange and the Exchange appeals entity adheres to the eligibility determination or appeals decision for Medicaid or CHIP made by the State Medicaid or CHIP agency, or the appeals entity for such agency.
</P>
<P>(6) The Exchange and the State Medicaid and CHIP agencies enter into an agreement specifying their respective responsibilities in connection with eligibility determinations for Medicaid and CHIP, and provide a copy of such agreement to HHS upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this subpart, the Exchange may implement a determination of eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions made by HHS, provided that—
</P>
<P>(1) Verifications, notices, and other activities required in connection with an eligibility determination for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions are performed by the Exchange in accordance with the standards identified in this subpart or by HHS in accordance with the agreement described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange transmits all information provided as a part of the application, update, or renewal that initiated the eligibility determination, and any information obtained or verified by the Exchange, to HHS via secure electronic interface, promptly and without undue delay;
</P>
<P>(3) The Exchange adheres to the eligibility determination for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions made by HHS; and
</P>
<P>(4) The Exchange and HHS enter into an agreement specifying their respective responsibilities in connection with eligibility determinations for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Standards.</I> To the extent that assessments of eligibility for Medicaid and CHIP based on MAGI or eligibility determinations for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions are made in accordance with paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section, the Exchange must ensure that—
</P>
<P>(1) Eligibility processes for all insurance affordability programs are streamlined and coordinated across HHS, the Exchange, the State Medicaid agency, and the State CHIP agency, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) Such arrangement does not increase administrative costs and burdens on applicants, enrollees, beneficiaries, or application filers, or increase delay; and
</P>
<P>(3) Applicable requirements under 45 CFR 155.260, 155.270, and 155.315(i), and section 6103 of the Code for the confidentiality, disclosure, maintenance, and use of information are met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42314, July 15, 2013; 81 FR 12341, Mar. 8, 2016; 89 FR 26421, Apr. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.305" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.305   Eligibility standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange.</I> The Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange if he or she meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Citizenship, status as a national, or lawful presence.</I> Is a citizen or national of the United States, or is a non-citizen who is lawfully present in the United States, and is reasonably expected to be a citizen, national, or a non-citizen who is lawfully present for the entire period for which enrollment is sought;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Incarceration.</I> Is not incarcerated, other than incarceration pending the disposition of charges; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Residency.</I> Meets the applicable residency standard identified in this paragraph (a)(3).
</P>
<P>(i) For an individual who is age 21 and over, is not living in an institution as defined in 42 CFR 435.403(b), is capable of indicating intent, and is not receiving an optional State supplementary payment as addressed in 42 CFR 435.403(f), the service area of the Exchange of the individual is the service areas of the Exchange in which he or she is living and—
</P>
<P>(A) Intends to reside, including without a fixed address; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has entered with a job commitment or is seeking employment (whether or not currently employed).
</P>
<P>(ii) For an individual who is under the age of 21, is not living in an institution as defined in 42 CFR 435.403(b), is not eligible for Medicaid based on receipt of assistance under title IV-E of the Social Security Act as addressed in 42 CFR 435.403(g), is not emancipated, is not receiving an optional State supplementary payment as addressed in 42 CFR 435.403(f), the Exchange service area of the individual—
</P>
<P>(A) Is the service area of the Exchange in which he or she resides, including without a fixed address; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is the service area of the Exchange of a parent or caretaker, established in accordance with paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, with whom the individual resides.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other special circumstances.</I> In the case of an individual who is not described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section, the Exchange must apply the residency requirements described in 42 CFR 435.403 with respect to the service area of the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Special rule for tax households with members in multiple Exchange service areas.</I> (A) Except as specified in paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(B) of this section if all of the members of a tax household are not within the same Exchange service area, in accordance with the applicable standards in paragraphs (a)(3)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section, any member of the tax household may enroll in a QHP through any of the Exchanges for which one of the tax filers meets the residency standard.
</P>
<P>(B) If both spouses in a tax household enroll in a QHP through the same Exchange, a tax dependent may only enroll in a QHP through that Exchange, or through the Exchange that services the area in which the dependent meets a residency standard described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Temporary absence.</I> The Exchange may not deny or terminate an individual's eligibility for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange if the individual meets the standards in paragraph (a)(3) of this section but for a temporary absence from the service area of the Exchange and intends to return when the purpose of the absence has been accomplished.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility for QHP enrollment periods.</I> The Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for an enrollment period if he or she meets the criteria for an enrollment period, as specified in §§ 155.410 and 155.420.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligibility for Medicaid.</I> The Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for Medicaid if he or she meets the non-financial eligibility criteria for Medicaid for populations whose eligibility is based on MAGI-based income, as certified by the Medicaid agency in accordance with 42 CFR 435.1200(b)(2), has a household income, as defined in 42 CFR 435.603(d), that is at or below the applicable Medicaid MAGI-based income standard as defined in 42 CFR 435.911(b)(1) and—
</P>
<P>(1) Is a pregnant woman, as defined in the Medicaid State Plan in accordance with 42 CFR 435.4;
</P>
<P>(2) Is under age 19;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a parent or caretaker relative of a dependent child, as defined in the Medicaid State plan in accordance with 42 CFR 435.4; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is not described in paragraph (c)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, is under age 65 and is not entitled to or enrolled for benefits under part A of title XVIII of the Social Security Act, or enrolled for benefits under part B of title XVIII of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligibility for CHIP.</I> The Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for CHIP if he or she meets the requirements of 42 CFR 457.310 through 457.320 and has a household income, as defined in 42 CFR 435.603(d), at or below the applicable CHIP MAGI-based income standard.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligibility for BHP.</I> If a BHP is operating in the service area of the Exchange, the Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for the BHP if he or she meets the requirements specified in section 1331(e) of the Affordable Care Act and regulations implementing that section.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Exchange must determine a tax filer eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit if the Exchange determines that—




</P>
<P>(i) He or she is expected to have a household income that will qualify the tax filer as an applicable taxpayer according to 26 CFR 1.36B-2(b) for the benefit year for which coverage is requested; and
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more applicants who is expected to be a member of the tax filer's family within the meaning of 26 CFR 1.36B-1(d) for the benefit year—




</P>
<P>(A) Meets the requirements for eligibility for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange, as specified in paragraph (a) of this section; and


</P>
<P>(B) Is not eligible for minimum essential coverage for the full calendar month for which advance payments of the premium tax credit would be paid, with the exception of coverage in the individual market, in accordance with 26 CFR 1.36B-2(a)(2) and (c).


</P>
<P>(C) He or she is a U.S. citizen, U.S. national, or an eligible noncitizen as defined in §  155.20.


</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Enrollment required.</I> The Exchange may provide advance payments of the premium tax credit on behalf of a tax filer only if one or more applicants for whom the tax filer attests that he or she expects to claim a personal exemption deduction for the benefit year, including the tax filer and his or her spouse, is enrolled in a QHP that is not a catastrophic plan, through the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Compliance with tax filing requirement</I>—(i) <I>APTC eligibility.</I> (A) For plan year 2027, an Exchange must implement one of two policies where it may not determine a tax filer eligible for APTC if the tax filer and their spouse, if the tax filer is married, has either failed to file and reconcile for 1 year, as described in paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(A) of this section (“1 tax year FTR policy”) or has failed to file and reconcile for 2 consecutive tax years, as described in paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(B) of this section (“2 tax-year policy”). Exchanges must apply any such policy uniformly to all tax filers (and their spouses, if married).
</P>
<P>(B) For plan year 2028 and beyond, an Exchange must implement a 1-tax year FTR policy described in paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Failure to file and reconcile.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A tax filer and their spouse, if the tax filer is married, is considered to have failed to file and reconcile for 1 tax year if HHS notifies the Exchange as part of the process described in § 155.320(c)(3) that APTC payments were made on behalf of either the tax filer or the tax filer's spouse, if the tax filer is a married couple, for the most recent year for which tax data would be utilized for verification of household income and family size in accordance with § 155.320(c)(1)(i), and the tax filer or the tax filer's spouse did not comply with the requirement to file an income tax return for that year as required by 26 U.S.C. 6011, 6012, and in 26 CFR chapter I, and reconcile APTC for that period.
</P>
<P>(B) A tax filer and their spouse, if the tax filer is married, is considered to have failed to file and reconcile for 2 tax years if HHS notifies the Exchange as part of the process described in § 155.320(c)(3) that APTC payments were made on behalf of either the tax filer or the tax filer's spouse, if the tax filer is a married couple, for the 2 most recent consecutive tax years for which tax data would be utilized for verification of household income and family size in accordance with § 155.320(c)(1)(i), and the tax filer or the tax filer's spouse did not comply with the requirement to file an income tax return for those years as required by 26 U.S.C. 6011, 6012, and in 26 CFR chapter I, and reconcile APTC for that period.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notice Requirements. For purposes of paragraph (f)(4)(ii) of this section, the following notice requirements apply.
</P>
<P>(A) An Exchange that implements a 2-tax year FTR policy as described in paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(B) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For tax filers failing to file and reconcile for 1 tax year as described in paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Send a notification to the tax filer, consistent with the standards applicable to the protection of Federal Tax Information, that informs the tax filer that the Exchange has determined that the tax filer or the tax filer's spouse, if the tax filer is married, has failed to file and reconcile, and educate the tax filer of the need to file and reconcile or risk being determined ineligible for APTC if they fail to file and reconcile for a second consecutive tax year; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Send a notification to either the tax filer or their enrollee, that informs the tax filer or enrollee that they may be at risk of being determined ineligible for APTC in the future. These notices must educate tax filers or their enrollees on the requirement to file and reconcile, while not directly stating that the IRS indicates the tax filer or the tax filer's spouse, if the tax filer is married, has failed to file and reconcile.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For tax filers failing to file and reconcile for 2 consecutive tax years as described in paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Send a direct notification to the tax filer, consistent with the standards applicable to the protection of Federal Tax Information, that explicitly informs the tax filer that the Exchange has determined that the tax filer or the tax filer's spouse, if the tax filer is married, has failed to file their Federal income taxes and reconcile APTC, and educate the tax filer of the need to file and reconcile or risk being determined ineligible for APTC after 2 consecutive tax years of failing to file and reconcile; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Send an indirect notification to either the tax filer or their enrollee, that informs the tax filer or enrollee that they may be at risk of being determined ineligible for APTC after 2 consecutive tax years of failing to file and reconcile. These notices must educate tax filers or their enrollees on the requirement to file and reconcile, while not directly stating that the Internal Revenue Service indicates the tax filer or the tax filer's spouse, if the tax filer is married, has failed to file and reconcile.
</P>
<P>(B) An Exchange that implements 1-tax year FTR policy as described in paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(A) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Send a notification to the tax filer, consistent with the standards applicable to the protection of Federal Tax Information, that informs the tax filer that the Exchange has determined that the tax filer or the tax filer's spouse, if the tax filer is married, has failed to file and reconcile of the need to file and reconcile, and of the risk of being determined ineligible for APTC if they fail to file and reconcile immediately; or
</P>
<P>(2) Send a notification to either the tax filer or their enrollee, that informs the tax filer or enrollee that they may be at risk of being determined ineligible for APTC in the future. These notices must educate tax filers or their enrollees on the requirement to file and reconcile, while not directly stating that the IRS indicates the tax filer or the tax filer's spouse, if the tax filer is married, has failed to file and reconcile.






</P>
<P>(5) <I>Calculation of advance payments of the premium tax credit.</I> The Exchange must calculate advance payments of the premium tax credit in accordance with 26 CFR 1.36B-3 and § 155.340(i) of this subpart.






</P>
<P>(6) <I>Collection of Social Security numbers.</I> The Exchange must require an application filer to provide the Social Security number of a tax filer who is not an applicant only if an applicant attests that the tax filer has a Social Security number and filed a tax return for the year for which tax data would be utilized for verification of household income and family size.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Eligibility for cost-sharing reductions</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility criteria.</I> (i) The Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for cost-sharing reductions if he or she—
</P>
<P>(A) Meets the requirements for eligibility for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange, as specified in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Meets the requirements for advance payments of the premium tax credit, as specified in paragraph (f) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is expected to have a household income that does not exceed 250 percent of the FPL, for the benefit year for which coverage is requested.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Exchange may only provide cost-sharing reductions to an enrollee who is not an Indian if he or she is enrolled through the Exchange in a silver-level QHP, as defined by section 1302(d)(1)(B) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility categories.</I> The Exchange must use the following eligibility categories for cost-sharing reductions when making eligibility determinations under this section—
</P>
<P>(i) An individual who is expected to have a household income greater than or equal to 100 percent of the FPL and less than or equal to 150 percent of the FPL for the benefit year for which coverage is requested, or for an individual who is eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, a household income less than 100 percent of the FPL for the benefit year for which coverage is requested;
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual is expected to have a household income greater than 150 percent of the FPL and less than or equal to 200 percent of the FPL for the benefit year for which coverage is requested; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An individual who is expected to have a household income greater than 200 percent of the FPL and less than or equal to 250 percent of the FPL for the benefit year for which coverage is requested.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule for family policies.</I> To the extent that an enrollment in a QHP in the individual market offered through an Exchange under a single policy covers two or more individuals who, if they were to enroll in separate individual policies would be eligible for different cost sharing, the Exchange must deem the individuals under such policy to be collectively eligible only for the category of eligibility last listed below for which all the individuals covered by the policy would be eligible:
</P>
<P>(i) Individuals not eligible for changes to cost sharing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals described in § 155.350(b) (the special cost-sharing rule for Indians regardless of income);
</P>
<P>(iii) Individuals described in paragraph (g)(2)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Individuals described in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) Individuals described in paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Individuals described in § 155.350(a) (the cost-sharing rule for Indians with household incomes under 300 percent of the FPL).
</P>
<P>(4) For the purposes of paragraph (g) of this section, “household income” means household income as defined in section 36B(d)(2) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Eligibility for enrollment through the Exchange in a QHP that is a catastrophic plan.</I> The Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange in a QHP that is a catastrophic plan as defined by section 1302(e) of the Affordable Care Act, if he or she has met the requirements for eligibility for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange, in accordance with § 155.305(a), and either—
</P>
<P>(1) Has not attained the age of 30 before the beginning of the plan year; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has a certification in effect for any plan year that he or she is exempt from the requirement to maintain minimum essential coverage under section 5000A of the Code by reason of—
</P>
<P>(i) Section 5000A(e)(1) of the Code (relating to individuals without affordable coverage); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5000A(e)(5) of the Code (relating to individuals with hardships).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15533, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 42315, July 15, 2013; 87 FR 27388, May 6, 2022; 88 FR 25918, Apr. 27, 2023; 89 FR 26421, Apr. 15, 2024; 90 FR 4540, Jan. 15, 2025; 90 FR 27221, June 25, 2025; 91 FR 29866, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.310" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.310   Eligibility process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application</I>—(1) <I>Accepting applications.</I> The Exchange must accept applications from individuals in the form and manner specified in § 155.405.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information collection from non-applicants.</I> The Exchange may not request information regarding citizenship, status as a national, or immigration status for an individual who is not seeking coverage for himself or herself on any application or supplemental form.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Collection of Social Security numbers.</I> (i) The Exchange must require an applicant who has a Social Security number to provide such number to the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Exchange may not require an individual who is not seeking coverage for himself or herself to provide a Social Security number, except as specified in § 155.305(f)(6).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicant choice for Exchange to determine eligibility for insurance affordability programs.</I> The Exchange must permit an applicant to request only an eligibility determination for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange; however, the Exchange may not permit an applicant to request an eligibility determination for less than all insurance affordability programs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> The Exchange must accept an application and make an eligibility determination for an applicant seeking an eligibility determination at any point in time during the year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination of eligibility.</I> (1) The Exchange must determine an applicant's eligibility, in accordance with the standards specified in § 155.305.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rules relating to advance payments of the premium tax credit.</I> (i) The Exchange must permit an enrollee to accept less than the full amount of advance payments of the premium tax credit for which he or she is determined eligible.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Exchange may authorize advance payments of the premium tax credit on behalf of a tax filer only if the Exchange first obtains necessary attestations from the tax filer regarding advance payments of the premium tax credit, including, but not limited to attestations that—
</P>
<P>(A) He or she will file an income tax return for the benefit year, in accordance with 26 U.S.C. 6011, 6012, and implementing regulations;
</P>
<P>(B) If married (within the meaning of 26 CFR 1.7703-1), he or she will file a joint tax return for the benefit year;
</P>
<P>(C) No other taxpayer will be able to claim him or her as a tax dependent for the benefit year; and
</P>
<P>(D) He or she will claim a personal exemption deduction on his or her tax return for the applicants identified as members of his or her family, including the tax filer and his or her spouse, in accordance with § 155.320(c)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule relating to Medicaid and CHIP.</I> To the extent that the Exchange determines an applicant eligible for Medicaid or CHIP, the Exchange must notify the State Medicaid or CHIP agency and transmit all information from the records of the Exchange to the State Medicaid or CHIP agency, promptly and without undue delay, that is necessary for such agency to provide the applicant with coverage.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timeliness standards.</I> (1) The Exchange must determine eligibility promptly and without undue delay.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must assess the timeliness of eligibility determinations based on the period from the date of application or transfer from an agency administering an insurance affordability program to the date the Exchange notifies the applicant of its decision or the date the Exchange transfers the application to another agency administering an insurance affordability program, when applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effective dates for eligibility.</I> Upon making an eligibility determination, the Exchange must implement the eligibility determination under this section for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange, advance payments of the premium tax credit, and cost-sharing reductions as follows—
</P>
<P>(1) For an initial eligibility determination, in accordance with the dates specified in §§ 155.410(c) and (f) and 155.420(b), as applicable,
</P>
<P>(2) For a redetermination, in accordance with the dates specified in §§ 155.330(f) and 155.335(i), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notification of eligibility determination.</I> The Exchange must provide timely written notice to an applicant of any eligibility determination made in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of an employee's receipt of advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions to an employer.</I> The Exchange must notify an employer that an employee has been determined eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions and has enrolled in a qualified health plan through the Exchange within a reasonable timeframe following a determination that the employee is eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions in accordance with § 155.305(g) or § 155.350(a) and enrollment by the employee in a qualified health plan through the Exchange. Such notice must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the employee;
</P>
<P>(2) Indicate that the employee has been determined eligible advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions and has enrolled in a qualified health plan through the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(3) Indicate that, if the employer has 50 or more full-time employees, the employer may be liable for the payment assessed under section 4980H of the Code; and
</P>
<P>(4) Notify the employer of the right to appeal the determination.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Certification program for employers.</I> As part of its determination of whether an employer has a liability under section 4980H of the Code, the Internal Revenue Service will adopt methods to certify to an employer that one or more employees has enrolled for one or more months during a year in a QHP for which a premium tax credit or cost-sharing reduction is allowed or paid.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Duration of eligibility determinations without enrollment.</I> To the extent that an applicant who is determined eligible for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange does not select a QHP within his or her enrollment period, or is not eligible for an enrollment period, in accordance with subpart E, and seeks a new enrollment period prior to the date on which his or her eligibility is redetermined in accordance with § 155.335, the Exchange must require the applicant to attest as to whether information affecting his or her eligibility has changed since his or her most recent eligibility determination before determining his or her eligibility for a special enrollment period, and must process any changes reported in accordance with the procedures specified in § 155.330.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Incomplete application.</I> If an application filer submits an application that does not include sufficient information for the Exchange to conduct an eligibility determination for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange or for insurance affordability programs, if applicable, the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Provide notice to the applicant indicating that information necessary to complete an eligibility determination is missing, specifying the missing information, and providing instructions on how to provide the missing information; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the applicant with a period of no less than 10 days and no more than 90 days from the date on which the notice described in paragraph (k)(1) of this section is sent to the applicant to provide the information needed to complete the application to the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(3) During the period described in paragraph (k)(2) of this section, the Exchange must not proceed with an applicant's eligibility determination or provide advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions, unless an application filer has provided sufficient information to determine his or her eligibility for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange, in which case the Exchange must make such a determination for enrollment in a QHP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42314, July 15, 2013; 78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013; 81 FR 12341, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.315" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.315   Verification process related to eligibility for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Unless a request for modification is granted in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section, the Exchange must verify or obtain information as provided in this section in order to determine that an applicant is eligible for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Validation of Social Security number.</I> (1) For any individual who provides his or her Social Security number to the Exchange, the Exchange must transmit the Social Security number and other identifying information to HHS, which will submit it to the Social Security Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that the Exchange is unable to validate an individual's Social Security number through the Social Security Administration, or the Social Security Administration indicates that the individual is deceased, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in paragraph (f) of this section, except that the Exchange must provide the individual with a period of 90 days from the date on which the notice described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section is received for the applicant to provide satisfactory documentary evidence or resolve the inconsistency with the Social Security Administration. The date on which the notice is received means 5 days after the date on the notice, unless the individual demonstrates that he or she did not receive the notice within the 5 day period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of citizenship, status as a national, or lawful presence</I>—(1) <I>Verification with records from the Social Security Administration.</I> For an applicant who attests to citizenship and has a Social Security number, the Exchange must transmit the applicant's Social Security number and other identifying information to HHS, which will submit it to the Social Security Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification with the records of the Department of Homeland Security.</I> For an applicant who has documentation that can be verified through the Department of Homeland Security and who attests to lawful presence, or who attests to citizenship and for whom the Exchange cannot substantiate a claim of citizenship through the Social Security Administration, the Exchange must transmit information from the applicant's documentation and other identifying information to HHS, which will submit necessary information to the Department of Homeland Security for verification.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inconsistencies and inability to verify information.</I> For an applicant who attests to citizenship, status as a national, or lawful presence, and for whom the Exchange cannot verify such attestation through the Social Security Administration or the Department of Homeland Security, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in paragraph (f) of this section, except that the Exchange must provide the applicant with a period of 90 days from the date on which the notice described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section is received for the applicant to provide satisfactory documentary evidence or resolve the inconsistency with the Social Security Administration or the Department of Homeland Security, as applicable. The date on which the notice is received means 5 days after the date on the notice, unless the applicant demonstrates that he or she did not receive the notice within the 5 day period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Verification of residency.</I> The Exchange must verify an applicant's attestation that he or she meets the standards of § 155.305(a)(3) as follows—
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraphs (d)(3) and (4) of this section, accept his or her attestation without further verification; or
</P>
<P>(2) Examine electronic data sources that are available to the Exchange and which have been approved by HHS for this purpose, based on evidence showing that such data sources are sufficiently current and accurate, and minimize administrative costs and burdens.
</P>
<P>(3) If information provided by an applicant regarding residency is not reasonably compatible with other information provided by the individual or in the records of the Exchange the Exchange must examine information in data sources that are available to the Exchange and which have been approved by HHS for this purpose, based on evidence showing that such data sources are sufficiently current and accurate.
</P>
<P>(4) If the information in such data sources is not reasonably compatible with the information provided by the applicant, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in paragraph (f) of this section. Evidence of immigration status may not be used to determine that an applicant is not a resident of the Exchange service area.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Verification of incarceration status.</I> The Exchange must verify an applicant's attestation that the applicant meets the requirements of § 155.305(a)(2) by—
</P>
<P>(1) Accepting an applicant's attestation that they are not currently incarcerated; or
</P>
<P>(2) Verifying an applicant's attestation of incarceration status using any electronic data source that is available to the Exchange and which has been approved by HHS for this purpose. HHS will approve an electronic data source for incarceration verification if it provides data that are current and accurate, and if its use minimizes administrative costs and burdens.
</P>
<P>(3) If an Exchange verifies an applicant's attestation of incarceration status using an approved data source under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, to the extent that an applicant's attestation is not reasonably compatible with information from the approved data source or other information provided by the applicant or in the records of the Exchange, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in § 155.315(f).


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inconsistencies.</I> Except as otherwise specified in this subpart, for an applicant for whom the Exchange cannot verify information required to determine eligibility for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange, advance payments of the premium tax credit, and cost-sharing reductions, including when electronic data is required in accordance with this subpart but data for individuals relevant to the eligibility determination are not included in such data sources or when electronic data from IRS, DHS, or SSA is required but it is not reasonably expected that data sources will be available within 1 day of the initial request to the data source, the Exchange:
</P>
<P>(1) Must make a reasonable effort to identify and address the causes of such inconsistency, including through typographical or other clerical errors, by contacting the application filer to confirm the accuracy of the information submitted by the application filer;
</P>
<P>(2) If unable to resolve the inconsistency through the process described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, must—
</P>
<P>(i) Provide notice to the applicant regarding the inconsistency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the applicant with a period of 90 days from the date on which the notice described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section is sent to the applicant to either present satisfactory documentary evidence via the channels available for the submission of an application, as described in § 155.405(c), except for by telephone through a call center, or otherwise resolve the inconsistency.
</P>
<P>(3) May extend the period described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section for an applicant if the applicant demonstrates that a good faith effort has been made to obtain the required documentation during the period.
</P>
<P>(4) During the periods described in paragraphs (f)(1) and (f)(2)(ii) of this section, must:
</P>
<P>(i) Proceed with all other elements of eligibility determination using the applicant's attestation, and provide eligibility for enrollment in a QHP to the extent that an applicant is otherwise qualified; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions are provided on behalf of an applicant within this period who is otherwise qualified for such payments and reductions, as described in § 155.305, if the tax filer attests to the Exchange that he or she understands that any advance payments of the premium tax credit paid on his or her behalf are subject to reconciliation.
</P>
<P>(5) If, after the period described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the Exchange remains unable to verify the attestation, the Exchange must determine the applicant's eligibility based on the information available from the data sources specified in this subpart, unless such applicant qualifies for the exception provided under paragraph (g) of this section, and notify the applicant of such determination in accordance with the notice requirements specified in § 155.310(g), including notice that the Exchange is unable to verify the attestation.
</P>
<P>(6) When electronic data to support the verifications specified in § 155.315(d) or § 155.320(b) is required but it is not reasonably expected that data sources will be available within 1 day of the initial request to the data source, the Exchange must accept the applicant's attestation regarding the factor of eligibility for which the unavailable data source is relevant.










</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exception for special circumstances.</I> For an applicant who does not have documentation with which to resolve the inconsistency through the process described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section because such documentation does not exist or is not reasonably available and for whom the Exchange is unable to otherwise resolve the inconsistency, with the exception of an inconsistency related to citizenship or immigration status, the Exchange must provide an exception, on a case-by-case basis, to accept an applicant's attestation as to the information which cannot otherwise be verified along with an explanation of circumstances as to why the applicant does not have documentation.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Flexibility in information collection and verification.</I> HHS may approve an Exchange Blueprint in accordance with § 155.105(d) or a significant change to the Exchange Blueprint in accordance with § 155.105(e) to modify the methods to be used for collection of information and verification of information as set forth in this subpart, as well as the specific information required to be collected, provided that HHS finds that such modification would reduce the administrative costs and burdens on individuals while maintaining accuracy and minimizing delay, that it would not undermine coordination with Medicaid and CHIP, and that applicable requirements under §§ 155.260, 155.270, paragraph (i) of this section, and section 6103 of the Code with respect to the confidentiality, disclosure, maintenance, or use of such information will be met.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicant information.</I> The Exchange must not require an applicant to provide information beyond the minimum necessary to support the eligibility and enrollment processes of the Exchange, Medicaid, CHIP, and the BHP, if a BHP is operating in the service area of the Exchange, described in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Verification related to eligibility for enrollment through the Exchange in a QHP that is a catastrophic plan.</I> The Exchange must verify an applicant's attestation that he or she meets the requirements of § 155.305(h) by—
</P>
<P>(1) Verifying the applicant's attestation of age as follows—
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (j)(1)(iii) of this section, accepting his or her attestation without further verification; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Examining electronic data sources that are available to the Exchange and which have been approved by HHS for this purpose, based on evidence showing that such data sources are sufficiently current and accurate, and minimize administrative costs and burdens.
</P>
<P>(iii) If information regarding age is not reasonably compatible with other information provided by the individual or in the records of the Exchange, the Exchange must examine information in data sources that are available to the Exchange and which have been approved by HHS for this purpose based on evidence showing that such data sources are sufficiently current and accurate.
</P>
<P>(2) Verifying that an applicant has a certification of exemption in effect as described in § 155.305(h)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that the Exchange is unable to verify the information required to determine eligibility for enrollment through the Exchange in a QHP that is a catastrophic plan as described in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in § 155.315(f), except for § 155.315(f)(4).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 31515, May 29, 2012; 78 FR 42316, July 15, 2013; 88 FR 25918, Apr. 27, 2023; 89 FR 26421, Apr. 15, 2024; 90 FR 27221, June 25, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.320" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.320   Verification process related to eligibility for insurance affordability programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The Exchange must verify information in accordance with this section only for an applicant or tax filer who requested an eligibility determination for insurance affordability programs in accordance with § 155.310(b).
</P>
<P>(2) Unless a request for modification is granted in accordance with § 155.315(h), the Exchange must verify or obtain information in accordance with this section before making an eligibility determination for insurance affordability programs, and must use such information in such determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Verification of eligibility for minimum essential coverage other than through an eligible employer-sponsored plan.</I> (1)(i) The Exchange must verify whether an applicant is eligible for minimum essential coverage other than through an eligible employer-sponsored plan, Medicaid, CHIP, or the BHP, using information obtained by transmitting identifying information specified by HHS to HHS for verification purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Exchange must verify whether an applicant has already been determined eligible for coverage through Medicaid, CHIP, or the BHP, if a BHP is operating in the service area of the Exchange, within the State or States in which the Exchange operates using information obtained from the agencies administering such programs.
</P>
<P>(2) Consistent with § 164.512(k)(6)(i) of this subchapter, the disclosure to HHS of information regarding eligibility for and enrollment in a health plan, which may be considered protected health information, as that term is defined in § 160.103 of this subchapter, is expressly authorized, for the purposes of verification of applicant eligibility for minimum essential coverage as part of the eligibility determination process for advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of household income and family/household size</I>—(1) <I>Data</I>—(i) <I>Data regarding annual household income.</I> (A) For all individuals whose income is counted in calculating a tax filer's household income, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(e), or an applicant's household income, calculated in accordance with 42 CFR 435.603(d), and for whom the Exchange has a Social Security number, the Exchange must request tax return data regarding MAGI and family size from the Secretary of the Treasury and data regarding Social security benefits described in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(e)(2)(iii) from the Commissioner of Social Security by transmitting identifying information specified by HHS to HHS.
</P>
<P>(B) If the identifying information for one or more individuals does not match a tax record on file with the Secretary of the Treasury that may be disclosed in accordance with section 6103(l)(21) of the Code and its accompanying regulations, the Exchange must proceed in accordance with § 155.315(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Data regarding MAGI-based income.</I> For all individuals whose income is counted in calculating a tax filer's household income, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(e), or an applicant's household income, calculated in accordance with 42 CFR 435.603(d), the Exchange must request data regarding MAGI-based income in accordance with 42 CFR 435.948(a).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Payment to use income data through the Verify Current Income Hub service.</I> Beginning July 1, 2024, State Exchanges that elect the option to access the Verify Current Income service through the Federal Data Services Hub (“the Hub”) to verify an individual's income as described in paragraph (c)(3)(vi)(A) of this section, must reimburse HHS for the costs of their access to and use of the income data provided by the Verify Current Income Hub service. HHS will invoice States monthly for the amount the State must pay to HHS based on their actual utilization of CSI income data from the prior month and this invoiced amount will equal the product of the number of purchased transactions returned from the Verify Current Income Hub service and the price per transaction established under the contract maintained by HHS to provide the VCI Hub service, as well as an administrative fee to account for any direct or indirect costs of making CSI income data accessed through the VCI Hub service available to State Exchanges and State Medicaid and CHIP agencies.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification process for Medicaid and CHIP</I>—(i) <I>Household size.</I> (A) The Exchange must verify household size in accordance with 42 CFR 435.945(a) or through other reasonable verification procedures consistent with the requirements in 42 CFR 435.952.
</P>
<P>(B) The Exchange must verify the information in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section by accepting an applicant's attestation without further verification, unless the Exchange finds that an applicant's attestation to the individuals that comprise his or her household for Medicaid and CHIP is not reasonably compatible with other information provided by the application filer for the applicant or in the records of the Exchange, in which case the Exchange must utilize data obtained through electronic data sources to verify the attestation. If such data sources are unavailable or information in such data sources is not reasonably compatible with the applicant's attestation, the Exchange must request additional documentation to support the attestation within the procedures specified in 42 CFR 435.952.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Verification process for MAGI-based household income.</I> The Exchange must verify MAGI-based income, within the meaning of 42 CFR 435.603(d), for the household described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) in accordance with the procedures specified in Medicaid regulations 42 CFR 435.945, 42 CFR 435.948, and 42 CFR 435.952 and CHIP regulations at 42 CFR 457.380.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification process for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions</I>—(i) <I>Family size.</I> (A) The Exchange must require an applicant to attest to the individuals that comprise a tax filer's family for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent that the applicant attests that the information described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section represents an accurate projection of a tax filer's family size for the benefit year for which coverage is requested, the Exchange must determine the tax filer's eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions based on the family size data in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) To the extent that the data described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section is unavailable, or an applicant attests that a change in circumstances has occurred or is reasonably expected to occur, and so it does not represent an accurate projection of a tax filer's family size for the benefit year for which coverage is requested, the Exchange must verify the tax filer's family size for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions by accepting an applicant's attestation without further verification, except as specified in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) If the Exchange finds that an applicant's attestation of a tax filer's family size is not reasonably compatible with other information provided by the application filer for the family or in the records of the Exchange, with the exception of the data described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, the Exchange must utilize data obtained through other electronic data sources to verify the attestation. If such data sources are unavailable or information in such data sources is not reasonably compatible with the applicant's attestation, the Exchange must request additional documentation to support the attestation within the procedures specified in § 155.315(f).
</P>
<P>(E) The Exchange must verify that neither advance payments of the premium tax credit nor cost-sharing reductions are being provided on behalf of an individual using information obtained by transmitting identifying information specified by HHS to HHS.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Basic verification process for annual household income.</I> (A) The Exchange must compute annual household income for the family described in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section based on the data described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The Exchange must require the applicant to attest regarding a tax filer's projected annual household income;
</P>
<P>(C) To the extent that the applicant's attestation indicates that the information described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section represents an accurate projection of the tax filer's household income for the benefit year for which coverage is requested, the Exchange must determine the tax filer's eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions based on the household income data in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) To the extent that the data described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section is unavailable, or an applicant attests that a change in circumstances has occurred or is reasonably expected to occur, and so it does not represent an accurate projection of the tax filer's household income for the benefit year for which coverage is requested, the Exchange must require the applicant to attest to the tax filer's projected household income for the benefit year for which coverage is requested.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Verification process for changes in household income.</I> 
</P>
<P>(A) Except as specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(iii)(B), (C), and (D) of this section, if an applicant's attestation to projected annual household income, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, would qualify the tax payer as an applicable taxpayer under 26 CFR 1.36B-2(b) for the plan year for which coverage is requested and is more than a reasonable threshold above the annual household income computed in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, the data described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section indicates that projected annual household income is under 100 percent of the FPL, and the Exchange has not verified the applicant's MAGI-based income through the process specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section to be within the applicable Medicaid or CHIP MAGI-based income standard, the Exchange must proceed in accordance with § 155.315(f)(1) through (4). For the purposes of this paragraph, a reasonable threshold is established by the Exchange in guidance and approved by HHS, but must not be less than 10 percent, and can also include a threshold dollar amount.




</P>
<P>(B) If data available to the Exchange in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section indicate that a tax filer's projected annual household income is in excess of his or her attestation by a significant amount, the Exchange must proceed in accordance with § 155.315(f)(1) through (4).
</P>
<P>(C) If other information provided by the application filer indicates that a tax filer's projected annual household income is in excess of his or her attestation by a significant amount, the Exchange must utilize data available to the Exchange in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section to verify the attestation. If such data is unavailable or are not reasonably compatible with the applicant's attestation, the Exchange must proceed in accordance with § 155.315(f)(1) through (4).
</P>
<P>(D) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(E) If, at the conclusion of the period specified in § 155.315(f)(2)(ii), the Exchange remains unable to verify the applicant's attestation, the Exchange must determine the applicant's eligibility based on the information described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, notify the applicant of such determination in accordance with the notice requirements specified in § 155.310(g), and implement such determination in accordance with the effective dates specified in § 155.330(f).
</P>
<P>(F) If, at the conclusion of the period specified in § 155.315(f)(2)(ii), the Exchange remains unable to verify the applicant's attestation and the information described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section is unavailable, the Exchange must determine the tax filer ineligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions, notify the applicant of such determination in accordance with the notice requirements specified in § 155.310(g), and discontinue any advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions in accordance with the effective dates specified in § 155.330(f).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Eligibility for alternate verification process for decreases in annual household income and situations in which tax return data is unavailable.</I> The Exchange must determine a tax filer's annual household income for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions based on the alternate verification procedures described in paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section, if an applicant attests to projected annual household income in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, the tax filer does not meet the criteria specified in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, the applicants in the tax filer's family have not established MAGI-based income through the process specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section that is within the applicable Medicaid or CHIP MAGI-based income standard, and one of the following conditions is met—
</P>
<P>(A) The Secretary of the Treasury does not have tax return data that may be disclosed under section 6103(l)(21) of the Code for the tax filer that is at least as recent as the calendar year two years prior to the calendar year for which advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions would be effective;
</P>
<P>(B) The applicant attests that the tax filer's applicable family size has changed or is reasonably expected to change for the benefit year for which the applicants in his or her family are requesting coverage, or the members of the tax filer's family have changed or are reasonably expected to change for the benefit year for which the applicants in his or her family are requesting coverage;
</P>
<P>(C) The applicant attests that a change in circumstances has occurred or is reasonably expected to occur, and so the tax filer's annual household income has decreased or is reasonably expected to decrease from the data described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section for the benefit year for which the applicants in his or her family are requesting coverage;
</P>
<P>(D) The applicant attests that the tax filer's filing status has changed or is reasonably expected to change for the benefit year for which the applicants in his or her family are requesting coverage; or
</P>
<P>(E) An applicant in the tax filer's family has filed an application for unemployment benefits.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Alternate verification process.</I> If a tax filer qualifies for an alternate verification process based on the requirements specified in paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section and the applicant's attestation to projected annual household income, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, is no more than ten percent below the annual household income computed in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, the Exchange must accept the applicant's attestation without further verification.


</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Alternate verification process for decreases in annual household income estimates and for situations in which tax return data is unavailable.</I> If a tax filer qualifies for an alternate verification process based on the requirements specified in paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section and the applicant's attestation to projected annual household income, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, is more than a reasonable threshold below the annual household income computed in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, or if data described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section is unavailable, the Exchange must attempt to verify the applicant's attestation of the tax filer's projected annual household income by following the procedures specified in paragraph (c)(3)(vi)(A) through (G) of this section. For the purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(vi), a reasonable threshold is established by the Exchange in guidance and approved by HHS, but must not be less than 10 percent, and can also include a threshold dollar amount. The Exchange's threshold is subject to approval by HHS.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Data.</I> The Exchange must annualize data from the MAGI-based income sources specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, and obtain any data available from other electronic data sources that have been approved by HHS, based on evidence showing that such data sources are sufficiently accurate and offer less administrative complexity than paper verification.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Eligibility.</I> To the extent that the applicant's attestation indicates that the information described in paragraph (c)(3)(vi)(A) of this section represents an accurate projection of the tax filer's household income for the benefit year for which coverage is requested, the Exchange must determine the tax filer's eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions based on the household income data in paragraph (c)(3)(vi)(A) of this section.


</P>
<P>(C) <I>Increases in annual household income.</I> If an applicant's attestation, in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, indicates that a tax filer's annual household income has increased or is reasonably expected to increase from the data described in paragraph (c)(3)(vi)(A) of this section to the benefit year for which the applicant(s) in the tax filer's family are requesting coverage and the Exchange has not verified the applicant's MAGI-based income through the process specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section to be within the applicable Medicaid or CHIP MAGI-based income standard, the Exchange must accept the applicant's attestation for the tax filer's family without further verification, unless:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Exchange finds that an applicant's attestation of a tax filer's annual household income is not reasonably compatible with other information provided by the application filer, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the data described in paragraph (c)(3)(vi)(A) of this section indicates that projected annual household income is under 100 percent of the FPL and the applicant's attestation to projected household income, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, would qualify the taxpayer as an applicable taxpayer according to 26 CFR 1.36B-2(b) for the plan year for which coverage is requested and is more than a reasonable threshold above the annual household income as computed using data sources described in paragraph (c)(3)(vi)(A) of this section, in which case the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in § 155.315(f)(1) through (4). The reasonable threshold used under this paragraph must be equal to the reasonable threshold established in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(vi) of this section.




</P>
<P>(D) <I>Decreases in annual household income and situations in which electronic data is unavailable.</I> If electronic data are unavailable or an applicant's attestation to projected annual household income, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, is more than a reasonable threshold below the annual household income as computed using data sources described in paragraphs (c)(3)(vi)(A) of this section, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in § 155.315(f)(1) through (4). The reasonable threshold used under this paragraph must be equal to the reasonable threshold established in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) If, following the 90-day period described in paragraph (c)(3)(vi)(D) of this section, an applicant has not responded to a request for additional information from the Exchange and the data sources specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section indicate that an applicant in the tax filer's family is eligible for Medicaid or CHIP, the Exchange must not provide the applicant with eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit, cost-sharing reductions, Medicaid, CHIP or the BHP, if a BHP is operating in the service area of the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(F) If, at the conclusion of the period specified in § 155.315(f)(2)(ii), the Exchange remains unable to verify the applicant's attestation, the Exchange must determine the applicant's eligibility based on the information described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, notify the applicant of such determination in accordance with the notice requirements specified in § 155.310(g), and implement such determination in accordance with the effective dates specified in § 155.330(f).
</P>
<P>(G) If, at the conclusion of the period specified in § 155.315(f)(2)(ii), the Exchange remains unable to verify the applicant's attestation for the tax filer and the information described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section is unavailable, the Exchange must determine the tax filer ineligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions, notify the applicant of such determination in accordance with the notice requirement specified in § 155.310(g), and discontinue any advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions in accordance with the effective dates specified in § 155.330(f).




</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Definition of household income.</I> For the purposes of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, “household income” means household income as specified in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(e).
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Definition of family size.</I> For purposes of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, “family size” means family size as specified in section 26 CFR 1.36B-1(d).
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Verification of eligible noncitizen status.</I> (A) Verification with the records of the Department of Homeland Security. For an applicant who has information or documentation of immigration status that can be verified through the Department of Homeland Security's Systematic Alien Verification for Entitlements (SAVE) program, and who attests to having an eligible noncitizen immigration status as defined at § 155.20, the Exchange must transmit information from the applicant or document to the Department of Homeland Security for verification.
</P>
<P>(B) Inconsistencies and inability to verify information. For an applicant who attests to having an eligible noncitizen status as defined at § 155.20, and for whom the Exchange cannot verify such attestation through the Department of Homeland Security, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in § 155.315(f)(1) through (4). The date on which the notice is received means 5 days after the date on the notice, unless the applicant demonstrates that he or she did not receive the notice within the 5 day period as described in § 155.315(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(C) If, at the conclusion of the period specified in paragraph (c)(3)(ix)(B) of this section, the Exchange remains unable to verify the applicant's attestation, the Exchange must determine the applicant ineligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions, notify the applicant of such determination in accordance with the notice requirements specified in § 155.310(g), and discontinue any advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions in accordance with the effective dates specified in § 155.330(f).
</P>
<P>(4) The Exchange must provide education and assistance to an applicant regarding the process specified in this paragraph.












</P>
<P>(d) <I>Verification related to enrollment in an eligible employer-sponsored plan and eligibility for qualifying coverage in an eligible employer-sponsored plan</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> The Exchange must verify whether an applicant reasonably expects to be enrolled in an eligible employer-sponsored plan or is eligible for qualifying coverage in an eligible employer-sponsored plan for the benefit year for which coverage is requested.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Data.</I> The Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain data about enrollment in and eligibility for an eligible employer-sponsored plan from any electronic data sources that are available to the Exchange and which have been approved by HHS, based on evidence showing that such data sources are sufficiently current, accurate, and minimize administrative burden.
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtain any available data regarding enrollment in employer-sponsored coverage or eligibility for qualifying coverage in an eligible employer-sponsored plan based on federal employment by transmitting identifying information specified by HHS to HHS for HHS to provide the necessary verification using data obtained by HHS.
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtain any available data from the SHOP that corresponds to the State in which the Exchange is operating.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification procedures.</I> (i) If an applicant's attestation is not reasonably compatible with the information obtained by the Exchange as specified in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section, other information provided by the application filer, or other information in the records of the Exchange, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in § 155.315(f).
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i) or (d)(4)(i) of this section, the Exchange must accept an applicant's attestation regarding the verification specified in paragraph (d) of this section without further verification.




</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternate procedures.</I> For any benefit year for which it does not reasonably expect to obtain sufficient verification data as described in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section, the Exchange may follow the procedures specified in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(4), the Exchange reasonably expects to obtain sufficient verification data for the benefit year when the Exchange is able to obtain data about enrollment in or eligibility for qualifying coverage in an eligible employer sponsored plan from at least one electronic data source that is available to the Exchange and that has been approved by HHS, based on evidence showing that the data source is sufficiently current, accurate, and minimizes administrative burden, as described under paragraphs (d)(2)(i) of this section.


</P>
<P>(i) Based on the Exchange's assessment of risk for inappropriate payment of advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions, implement a verification process that is reasonably designed to ensure the accuracy of the data and is based on the activities or methods used by an Exchange such as studies, research, and analysis of an Exchange's own enrollment data, for enrollment in or eligibility for qualifying coverage in an eligible employer sponsored plan, as appropriate.


</P>
<P>(A) The Exchange must provide notice to the applicant if, as part of the verification process described under paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section, the Exchange will be contacting any employer identified on the application for the applicant and the members of his or her family, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(d), to verify whether the applicant is enrolled in an eligible employer sponsored plan or is eligible for qualifying coverage in an eligible employer sponsored plan for the benefit year for which coverage is requested;






</P>
<P>(B) Proceed with all other elements of the eligibility determination using the applicant's attestation, and provide eligibility for enrollment in a QHP to the extent that an applicant is otherwise qualified;
</P>
<P>(C) Ensure that advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions are provided on behalf of an applicant who is otherwise qualified for such payments and reductions, as described in § 155.305, if the tax filer attests to the Exchange that he or she understands that any advance payments of the premium tax credit paid on his or her behalf are subject to reconciliation;
</P>
<P>(D) If the Exchange receives any information from an employer relevant to the applicant's enrollment in an eligible employer-sponsored plan or eligibility for qualifying coverage in an eligible employer-sponsored plan, the Exchange must determine the applicant's eligibility based on such information and in accordance with the effective dates specified in § 155.330(f), and if such information changes his or her eligibility determination, notify the applicant and his or her employer or employers of such determination in accordance with the notice requirements specified in § 155.310(g) and (h);


</P>
<P>(E) To carry out the process described in paragraph (d)(4)(iii) of this section, the Exchange must only disclose an individual's information to an employer to the extent necessary for the employer to identify the employee.




</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional verification related to immigration status for Medicaid and CHIP.</I> (1) For purposes of determining eligibility for Medicaid, the Exchange must verify whether an applicant who does not attest to being a citizen or a national has satisfactory immigration status to be eligible for Medicaid, as required by 42 CFR 435.406 and, if applicable under the State Medicaid plan, section 1903(v)(4) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining eligibility for CHIP, the Exchange must verify whether an applicant who does not attest to being a citizen or a national has satisfactory immigration status to be eligible for CHIP, in accordance with 42 CFR 457.320(b) and if applicable under the State Child Health Plan, section 2107(e)(1)(J) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42316, July 15, 2013; 78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013; 79 FR 30347, May 27, 2014; 81 FR 12341, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17061, Apr. 17, 2018; 86 FR 24289, May 5, 2021; 87 FR 27389, May 6, 2022; 88 FR 25918, Apr. 27, 2023; 89 FR 26421, Apr. 15, 2024; 90 FR 27221, June 25, 2025; 91 FR 29866, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.330" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.330   Eligibility redetermination during a benefit year.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> The Exchange must redetermine the eligibility of an enrollee in a QHP through the Exchange during the benefit year if it receives and verifies new information reported by an enrollee or identifies updated information through the data matching described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement for individuals to report changes.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, the Exchange must require an enrollee to report any change with respect to the eligibility standards specified in § 155.305 within 30 days of such change.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must not require an enrollee who did not request an eligibility determination for insurance affordability programs to report changes that affect eligibility for insurance affordability programs.
</P>
<P>(3) The Exchange may establish a reasonable threshold for changes in income, such that an enrollee who experiences a change in income that is below the threshold is not required to report such change.
</P>
<P>(4) The Exchange must allow an enrollee, or an application filer on behalf of the enrollee, to report changes via the channels available for the submission of an application, as described in § 155.405(c)(2), except that the Exchange is permitted but not required to allow an enrollee, or an application filer, on behalf of the enrollee, to report changes via mail.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of reported changes.</I> The Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Verify any information reported by an enrollee in accordance with the processes specified in §§ 155.315 and 155.320 prior to using such information in an eligibility redetermination; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide periodic electronic notifications regarding the requirements for reporting changes and an enrollee's opportunity to report any changes as described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, to an enrollee who has elected to receive electronic notifications, unless he or she has declined to receive notifications under this paragraph (c)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Periodic examination of data sources</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> Subject to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the Exchange must periodically examine available data sources described in §§ 155.315(b)(1) and 155.320(b) to identify the following changes:
</P>
<P>(i) Death; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For an enrollee on whose behalf advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions are being provided, eligibility determinations for or enrollment in Medicare, Medicaid, CHIP, or the Basic Health Program, if a Basic Health Program is operating in the service area of the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Flexibility.</I> The Exchange may make additional efforts to identify and act on changes that may affect an enrollee's eligibility for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange or for insurance affordability programs, provided that such efforts—
</P>
<P>(i) Would reduce the administrative costs and burdens on individuals while maintaining accuracy and minimizing delay, that it would not undermine coordination with Medicaid and CHIP, and that applicable requirements under §§ 155.260, 155.270, 155.315(i), and section 6103 of the Code with respect to the confidentiality, disclosure, maintenance, or use of such information will be met; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with the standards specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition of periodically.</I> (i) Beginning with the 2021 calendar year, the Exchange must perform the periodic examination of data sources described in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) of this section at least twice in a calendar year. State Exchanges that have implemented a fully integrated eligibility system with their respective State Medicaid programs, that have a single eligibility rules engine that uses MAGI to determine eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit, cost-sharing reductions, Medicaid, CHIP, and the BHP, if a BHP is operating in the service area of the Exchange, will be deemed in compliance with the Medicaid/CHIP PDM requirements and, if applicable, BHP PDM requirements, in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) and (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning with the 2025 calendar year, the Exchange must perform the periodic examination of data sources described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section at least twice in a calendar year.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, the Secretary has authority to temporarily suspend the requirement that Exchanges conduct the PDM processes described at paragraph (d)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section during certain situations or circumstances that leads to the limited availability of data needed to conduct PDM or of documentation needed for an enrollee to notify the Exchange that the result of PDM is inaccurate as described in paragraph (e)(2)(i)(C) of this section.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Redetermination and notification of eligibility</I>—(1) <I>Enrollee-reported data.</I> If the Exchange verifies updated information reported by an enrollee, the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(i) Redetermine the enrollee's eligibility in accordance with the standards specified in § 155.305;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the enrollee regarding the determination in accordance with the requirements specified in § 155.310(g); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Notify the enrollee's employer, as applicable, in accordance with the requirements specified in § 155.310(h).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Data matching.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section, if the Exchange identifies updated information regarding death, in accordance with paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, or regarding any factor of eligibility not regarding income, family size, or family composition, or tax filing status, the Exchange must—</P>
<P>(A) Notify the enrollee regarding the updated information, as well as the enrollee's projected eligibility determination after considering such information.
</P>
<P>(B) Allow an enrollee 30 days from the date of the notice to notify the Exchange that such information is inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(C) If the enrollee responds contesting the updated information, proceed in accordance with § 155.315(f) of this part.
</P>
<P>(D) If the enrollee does not respond contesting the updated information within the 30-day period specified in paragraph (e)(2)(i)(B) of this section, proceed in accordance with paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, provided the enrollee has not directed the Exchange to terminate his or her coverage under such circumstances, in which case the Exchange will terminate the enrollee's coverage in accordance with § 155.430(b)(1)(ii), and provided the enrollee has not been determined to be deceased, in which case the Exchange will terminate the enrollee's coverage in accordance with § 155.430(d)(7).
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Exchange identifies updated information regarding income, family size, or family composition, with the exception of information regarding death, the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(A) Follow procedures described in paragraph (e)(2)(i)(A) and (B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the enrollee responds confirming the updated information, proceed in accordance with paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) If the enrollee does not respond within the 30-day period specified in paragraph (e)(2)(i)(B) of this section, maintain the enrollee's existing eligibility determination without considering the updated information.
</P>
<P>(D) If the enrollee provides more up-to-date information, proceed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Exchange identifies updated information that the tax filer for the enrollee's household or the tax filer's spouse did not comply with the requirements described in § 155.305(f)(4), the Exchange when redetermining and providing notification of eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit must:
</P>
<P>(A) Follow the procedures specified in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Follow the procedures in guidance published by the Secretary; or
</P>
<P>(C) Follow alternative procedures approved by the Secretary based on a showing by the Exchange that the alternative procedures facilitate continued enrollment in coverage with financial assistance for which the enrollee remains eligible, provide appropriate information about the process to the enrollee (including regarding any action by the enrollee necessary to obtain the most accurate redetermination of eligibility), and provide adequate program integrity protections and safeguards for Federal tax information under section 6103 of the Internal Revenue Code with respect to the confidentiality, disclosure, maintenance, or use of such information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effective dates.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraphs (f)(2) through (f)(5) of this section, the Exchange must implement changes—
</P>
<P>(i) Resulting from a redetermination under this section on the first day of the month following the date of the notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Resulting from an appeal decision, on the date specified in the appeal decision; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Affecting enrollment or premiums only, on the first day of the month following the date on which the Exchange is notified of the change;
</P>
<P>(2) Except as specified in paragraphs (f)(3) through (5) of this section, the Exchange may determine a reasonable point in a month after which a change described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section will not be effective until the first day of the month after the month specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. Such reasonable point in a month must be no earlier than the 15th of the month.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as specified in paragraphs (f)(4) and (5) of this section, the Exchange must implement a change described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section that results in a decreased amount of advance payments of the premium tax credit, or a change in the level of cost-sharing reductions, and for which the date of the notices described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, or the date on which the Exchange is notified in accordance with paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section is after the 15th of the month, on the first day of the month after the month specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The Exchange must implement a change associated with the events described in § 155.420(b)(2)(i) and (ii) on the coverage effective dates described in § 155.420(b)(2)(i) and (ii), respectively.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding paragraphs (f)(1) through (f)(4) of this section, the Exchange may provide the effective date of a change associated with the events described in § 155.420(d)(4), (d)(5), and (d)(9) based on the specific circumstances of each situation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Recalculation of advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.</I> (1) When an eligibility redetermination in accordance with this section results in a change in the amount of advance payments of the premium tax credit for the benefit year, the Exchange must:
</P>
<P>(i) Recalculate the amount of advance payments of the premium tax credit in such a manner as to account for any advance payments already made on behalf of the tax filer for the benefit year for which information is available to the Exchange, such that the recalculated advance payment amount is projected to result in total advance payments for the benefit year that correspond to the tax filer's total projected premium tax credit for the benefit year, calculated in accordance with 26 CFR 1.36B-3 (or, if less than zero, be set at zero); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Recalculate advance payments of the premium tax credit using an alternate method that has been approved by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) When an eligibility redetermination in accordance with this section results in a change in cost-sharing reductions, the Exchange must determine an individual eligible for the category of cost-sharing reductions that corresponds to his or her expected annual household income for the benefit year (subject to the special rule for family policies set forth in § 155.305(g)(3)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15533, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 42318, July 15, 2013; 79 FR 30347, May 27, 2014; 79 FR 53005, Sept. 5, 2014; 81 FR 94177, Dec. 22, 2016; 84 FR 71710, Dec. 27, 2019; 85 FR 29259, May 14, 2020; 89 FR 26422, Apr. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.335" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.335   Annual eligibility redetermination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraphs (l) and (m) of this section, the Exchange must redetermine the eligibility of a qualified individual on an annual basis.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must conduct annual redeterminations required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section using one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The procedures described in paragraphs (b) through (m) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Alternative procedures specified by the Secretary for the applicable benefit year; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Alternative procedures approved by the Secretary based on a showing by the Exchange that the alternative procedures would facilitate continued enrollment in coverage for which the enrollee remains eligible, provide clear information about the process to the qualified individual or enrollee (including regarding any action by the qualified individual or enrollee necessary to obtain the most accurate redetermination of eligibility), and provide adequate program integrity protections.
</P>
<P>(3) The annual redeterminations described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section are subject to the requirements in paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Updated income and family size information.</I> In the case of a qualified individual who requested an eligibility determination for insurance affordability programs in accordance with § 155.310(b) of this part, the Exchange must request updated tax return information, if the qualified individual has authorized the request of such tax return information, data regarding Social Security benefits, and data regarding MAGI-based income as described in § 155.320(c)(1) of this part for use in the qualified individual's eligibility redetermination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to qualified individual.</I> The Exchange must provide a qualified individual with an annual redetermination notice including the following:
</P>
<P>(1)-(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) The qualified individual's projected eligibility determination for the following year, after considering any updated information described in paragraph (b) of this section, including, if applicable, the amount of any advance payments of the premium tax credit and the level of any cost-sharing reductions or eligibility for Medicaid, CHIP or BHP.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing.</I> (1) For redeterminations under this section for coverage effective January 1, 2015, the Exchange must satisfy the notice provisions of paragraph (c) of this section and § 155.410(d) through a single, coordinated notice.
</P>
<P>(2) For redeterminations under this section for coverage effective on or after January 1, 2017, the Exchange may send the notice specified in paragraph (c) of this section separately from the notice of annual open enrollment specified in § 155.410(d), provided that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Exchange sends the notice specified in paragraph (c) of this section no earlier than the date of the notice of annual open enrollment specified in § 155.410(d); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The timing of the notice specified in paragraph (c) of this section allows a reasonable amount of time for the enrollee to review the notice, provide a timely response, and for the Exchange to implement any changes in coverage elected during the annual open enrollment period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Changes reported by qualified individuals.</I> Except as specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the Exchange must require a qualified individual to report any change with respect to the eligibility standards specified in § 155.305 within 30 days of such change.
</P>
<P>(1) The Exchange must not require a qualified individual who did not request an eligibility determination for insurance affordability programs to report changes that affect eligibility for insurance affordability programs.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must allow a qualified individual, or an application filer, on behalf of the qualified individual, to report changes via the channels available for the submission of an application, as described in § 155.405(c)(2), except that the Exchange is permitted but not required to allow a qualified individual, or an application filer, on behalf of the qualified individual, to report changes via mail.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Verification of reported changes.</I> The Exchange must verify any information reported by a qualified individual under paragraph (e) of this section using the processes specified in §§ 155.315 and 155.320, including the relevant provisions in those sections regarding inconsistencies, prior to using such information to determine eligibility.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Response to redetermination notice.</I> (1) The Exchange must require a qualified individual, or an application filer, on behalf of the qualified individual, to sign and return the notice described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that a qualified individual does not sign and return the notice described in paragraph (c) of this section within the 30-day period specified in paragraph (e) of this section, the Exchange must proceed in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Redetermination and notification of eligibility.</I> (1) After the 30-day period specified in paragraph (e) of this section has elapsed, the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(i) Redetermine the qualified individual's eligibility in accordance with the standards specified in § 155.305 using the information provided to the qualified individual in the notice specified in paragraph (c) of this section, as supplemented with any information reported by the qualified individual and verified by the Exchange in accordance with paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the qualified individual in accordance with the requirements specified in § 155.310(g).
</P>
<P>(iii) If applicable, notify the qualified individual employer, in accordance with the requirements specified in § 155.310(h).
</P>
<P>(2) If a qualified individual reports a change for the information provided in the notice specified in paragraph (c) of this section that the Exchange has not verified as of the end of the 30-day period specified in paragraph (e) of this section, the Exchange must redetermine the qualified individual's eligibility after completing verification, as specified in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Effective date of annual redetermination.</I> The Exchange must ensure that a redetermination under this section is effective on the first day of the coverage year following the year in which the Exchange provided the notice in paragraph (c) of this section, or in accordance with the rules specified in § 155.330(f) regarding effective dates, whichever is later.


</P>
<P>(j) <I>Re-enrollment.</I> If an enrollee remains eligible for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange upon annual redetermination and—
</P>
<P>(1) The product under which the QHP in which the enrollee is enrolled remains available through the Exchange for renewal, consistent with § 147.106 of this subchapter, the Exchange will renew the enrollee in a QHP under that product, unless the enrollee terminates coverage, including termination of coverage in connection with voluntarily selecting a different QHP, in accordance with § 155.430, or unless otherwise provided in paragraph (j)(1)(iii)(A) of this section, as follows:


</P>
<P>(i) The Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in the same plan as the enrollee's current QHP, unless the current QHP is not available through the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the enrollee's current QHP is not available through the Exchange, the Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in a QHP within the same product at the same coverage level as described in sections 1302(d) or (e) of the ACA as the enrollee's current QHP that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP;




</P>
<P>(iii) If the enrollee's current QHP is not available through the Exchange and the enrollee's product no longer includes a QHP at the same coverage level as described in sections 1302(d) or (e) of the ACA as the enrollee's current QHP and—
</P>
<P>(A) The enrollee's current QHP is a silver level plan, the Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in a silver level QHP under a different product offered by the same QHP issuer that is most similar to the enrollee's current product and that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP. If no such silver level QHP is available for enrollment through the Exchange, the Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in a QHP under the same product that is coverage level higher or lower than the enrollee's current QHP and that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP; or
</P>
<P>(B) The enrollee's current QHP is not a silver level plan, the Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in a QHP under the same product that is one coverage level higher or lower than the enrollee's current QHP and that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP;


</P>
<P>(iv) If the enrollee's current QHP is not available through the Exchange and the enrollee's product no longer includes a QHP that is at the same coverage level as described in sections 1302(d) or (e) of the ACA as, or one coverage level higher or lower than, the enrollee's current QHP, the Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in any other QHP offered under the product in which the enrollee's current QHP is offered in which the enrollee is eligible to enroll and that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP; or
</P>
<P>(v) Notwithstanding the other provisions in this paragraph (j)(1), to the extent permitted by applicable State law, if the enrollee's current QHP is a catastrophic plan as described in section 1302(e) of the ACA, and the enrollee will no longer meet the criteria for enrollment in a catastrophic plan as described in section 1302(e)(2) of the ACA:
</P>
<P>(A) The Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in a bronze metal level QHP within the same product as the enrollee's current QHP that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP; or
</P>
<P>(B) If no bronze plan is available through this product, the Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in the QHP with the lowest coverage level offered under the product in which the enrollee's current QHP is offered in which the enrollee is eligible to enroll and that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP.
</P>
<P>(2) No plans under the product under which the QHP in which the enrollee is enrolled are available through the Exchange for renewal, consistent with § 147.106 of this subchapter, the Exchange will enroll the enrollee in a QHP under a different product offered by the same QHP issuer, to the extent permitted by applicable State law, unless the enrollee terminates coverage, including termination of coverage in connection with voluntarily selecting a different QHP, in accordance with § 155.430, as follows:


</P>
<P>(i) The Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in a QHP at the same coverage level as the enrollee's current QHP in the product offered by the same issuer that is the most similar to the enrollee's current product and that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP;


</P>
<P>(ii) If the issuer does not offer another QHP at the same coverage level as the enrollee's current QHP, the Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in a QHP that is one coverage level higher or lower than the enrollee's current QHP and that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP in the product offered by the same issuer through the Exchange that is the most similar to the enrollee's current product;


</P>
<P>(iii) If the issuer does not offer another QHP through the Exchange at the same coverage level as, or one metal level higher or lower than the enrollee's current QHP, the Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in any other QHP offered by the same issuer in which the enrollee is eligible to enroll and that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP in the product that is most similar to the enrollee's current product; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding the other provisions in this paragraph (j)(2), to the extent permitted by applicable State law, if the enrollee's current QHP is a catastrophic plan as described in section 1302(e) of the ACA, and the enrollee will no longer meet the criteria for enrollment in a catastrophic plan as described in section 1302(e)(2) of the ACA:
</P>
<P>(A) The Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in a bronze metal level QHP offered by the same issuer in which the enrollee is eligible to enroll and that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP in the product that is most similar to the enrollee's current product; or
</P>
<P>(B) If no bronze plan is available through this product, the Exchange will re-enroll the enrollee in the QHP with the lowest coverage level offered under the product in which the enrollee's current QHP is offered in which the enrollee is eligible to enroll and that has the most similar network compared to the enrollee's current QHP.


</P>
<P>(3) No QHPs from the same issuer are available through the Exchange, the Exchange may enroll the enrollee in a QHP issued by a different issuer, to the extent permitted by applicable State law, unless the enrollee terminates coverage, including termination of coverage in connection with voluntarily selecting a different QHP, in accordance with § 155.430, as follows:




</P>
<P>(i) As directed by the applicable State regulatory authority; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the applicable State regulatory authority declines to provide direction, in a similar QHP from a different issuer, as determined by the Exchange.




</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this section, catastrophic coverage is not a coverage level that is considered higher or lower than metal level coverage when re-enrolling an enrollee to a plan that is a metal level higher or lower than their current plan, and an Exchange may not re-enroll an enrollee that has coverage under section 1302(d) into catastrophic coverage.






</P>
<P>(k) <I>Authorization of the release of tax data to support annual redetermination.</I> (1) The Exchange must have authorization from a qualified individual to obtain updated tax return information described in paragraph (b) of this section for purposes of conducting an annual redetermination.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange is authorized to obtain the updated tax return information described in paragraph (b) of this section for a period of no more than five years based on a single authorization, provided that—
</P>
<P>(i) An individual may decline to authorize the Exchange to obtain updated tax return information; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual may authorize the Exchange to obtain updated tax return information for fewer than five years; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The Exchange must allow an individual to discontinue, change, or renew his or her authorization at any time.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Limitation on redetermination.</I> To the extent that a qualified individual has requested an eligibility determination for insurance affordability programs in accordance with § 155.310(b) and the Exchange does not have an active authorization to obtain tax data as a part of the annual redetermination process, the Exchange must redetermine the qualified individual's eligibility only for enrollment in a QHP and notify the enrollee in accordance with the timing described in paragraph (d) of this section. The Exchange may not proceed with a redetermination for insurance affordability programs until such authorization has been obtained or the qualified individual continues his or her request for an eligibility determination for insurance affordability programs in accordance with § 155.310(b).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Special rule.</I> The Exchange must not redetermine a qualified individual's eligibility in accordance with this section if the qualified individual's eligibility was redetermined under this section during the prior year, and the qualified individual was not enrolled in a QHP through the Exchange at the time of such redetermination, and has not enrolled in a QHP through the Exchange since such redetermination.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Additional consumer protections.</I> For benefit year 2026 annual redeterminations, if an enrollee does not submit an application for an updated eligibility determination for the immediately forthcoming coverage year (2026) on or before the last day on which a plan selection must be made for coverage effective January 1, 2026, in accordance with the effective dates specified in § 155.410(f), and the enrollee's portion of the premium for a policy after the application of advance payments of the premium tax credit through the annual redetermination process would be zero dollars, the Exchange on the Federal platform must decrease the amount of the advance payment applied to the policy such that the remaining monthly premium owed for the policy equals $5.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42319, July 15, 2013; 79 FR 53005, Sept. 5, 2014; 81 FR 12342, Mar. 8, 2016; 88 FR 25918, Apr. 27, 2023; 89 FR 26422, Apr. 15, 2024; 90 FR 27221, June 25, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.340" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.340   Administration of advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement to provide information to enable advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.</I> In the event that the Exchange determines that a tax filer is eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit, an applicant is eligible for cost-sharing reductions, or that such eligibility for such programs has changed, the Exchange must, simultaneously—
</P>
<P>(1) Transmit eligibility and enrollment information to HHS necessary to enable HHS to begin, end, or change advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Notify and transmit information necessary to enable the issuer of the QHP to implement, discontinue the implementation, or modify the level of advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions, as applicable, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The dollar amount of the advance payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The cost-sharing reductions eligibility category.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement to provide information related to employer responsibility.</I> (1) In the event that the Exchange determines that an individual is eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions based in part on a finding that an individual's employer does not provide minimum essential coverage, or provides minimum essential coverage that is unaffordable, within the standard of 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(3)(v), or provide minimum essential coverage that does not meet the minimum value standard of § 156.145, the Exchange must transmit the individual's name and taxpayer identification number to HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) If an enrollee for whom advance payments of the premium tax credit are made or who is receiving cost-sharing reductions notifies the Exchange that he or she has changed employers, the Exchange must transmit the enrollee's name and taxpayer identification number to HHS.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event that an individual for whom advance payments of the premium tax credit are made or who is receiving cost-sharing reductions terminates coverage from a QHP through the Exchange during a benefit year, the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(i) Transmit the individual's name and taxpayer identification number, and the effective date of coverage termination, to HHS, which will transmit it to the Secretary of the Treasury; and,
</P>
<P>(ii) Transmit the individual's name and the effective date of the termination of coverage to his or her employer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirement to provide information related to reconciliation of advance payments of the premium tax credit.</I> The Exchange must comply with the requirements of 26 CFR 1.36B-5 regarding reporting to the IRS and to taxpayers.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timeliness standard.</I> The Exchange must transmit all information required in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section promptly and without undue delay.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Allocation of advance payments of the premium tax credit among policies.</I> If one or more advance payments of the premium tax credit are to be made on behalf of a tax filer (or two tax filers covered by the same plan(s)), and individuals in the tax filers' tax households are enrolled in more than one QHP or stand-alone dental plan, then the advance payment must be allocated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) That portion of the advance payment of the premium tax credit that is less than or equal to the aggregate adjusted monthly premiums, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-3(e), for the QHP policies properly allocated to EHB must be allocated among the QHP policies in a reasonable and consistent manner specified by the Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any remaining advance payment of the premium tax credit must be allocated among the stand-alone dental policies in a reasonable and consistent manner specified by the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Allocation of advance payments of the premium tax credit among policies offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange.</I> If one or more advance payments of the premium tax credit are to be made on behalf of a tax filer (or two tax filers covered by the same plan(s)), and individuals in the tax filers' tax households are enrolled in more than one QHP or stand-alone dental plan offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange, then that portion of the advance payment of the premium tax credit that is less than or equal to the aggregate adjusted monthly premiums, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-3(e), properly allocated to EHB for the QHP policies, will be allocated among the QHP policies, as described in § 155.340(f)(1); and any remaining advance payment of the premium tax credit will be allocated among the stand-alone dental policies based on the methodology described in § 155.340(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(1) That portion of the advance payment(s) of the premium tax credit to be allocated among QHP policies will be allocated based on the number of enrollees covered under the QHP, weighted by the age of the enrollees, using the default uniform age rating curve established by the Secretary of HHS under 45 CFR 147.102(e), with the portion allocated to any single QHP policy not to exceed the portion of the QHP's adjusted monthly premium properly allocated to EHB. If the portion of the advance payment(s) of the premium tax credit allocated to a QHP under this subparagraph exceeds the portion of the same QHP's adjusted monthly premium properly allocated to EHB, the remainder will be allocated evenly among all other QHPs in which individuals in the tax filers' tax households are enrolled.
</P>
<P>(2) That portion of the advance payment(s) of the premium tax credit to be allocated among stand-alone dental policies will be allocated based on the number of enrollees covered under the stand-alone dental policy, weighted by the age of the enrollees, using the default uniform age rating curve established by the Secretary of HHS under 45 CFR 147.102(e), with the portion allocated to any single stand-alone dental policy not to exceed the portion of the stand-alone dental policy premium properly allocated to EHB. If the portion of the advance payment(s) of the premium tax credit allocated to a stand-alone dental policy under this subparagraph exceeds the portion of the same policy's premium properly allocated to EHB, the remainder will be allocated evenly among all other stand-alone dental policies in which individuals in the tax filers' tax households are enrolled.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reduction of enrollee's portion of premium to account for advance payments of the premium tax credit.</I> If an Exchange is facilitating the collection and payment of premiums to QHP issuers and stand-alone dental plans on behalf of enrollees under § 155.240, and if a QHP issuer or stand-alone dental plan has been notified that it will receive an advance payment of the premium tax credit on behalf of an enrollee for whom the Exchange is facilitating such functions, the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Reduce the portion of the premium for the policy collected from the individual for the applicable month(s) by the amount of the advance payment of the premium tax credit; and
</P>
<P>(2) Include with each billing statement, as applicable, to or for the individual the amount of the advance payment of the premium tax credit for the applicable month(s) and the remaining premium owed for the policy.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Failure to reduce enrollee's premiums to account for advance payments of the premium tax credit.</I> If the Exchange discovers that it did not reduce an enrollee's premium by the amount of the advance payment of the premium tax credit, then the Exchange must notify the enrollee of the improper reduction within 45 calendar days of discovery of the improper reduction and refund the enrollee any excess premium paid by or for the enrollee as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Unless a refund is requested by or for the enrollee, the Exchange must, within 45 calendar days of discovery of the error, apply the excess premium paid by or for the enrollee to the enrollee's portion of the premium (or refund the amount directly). If any excess premium remains, the Exchange must then apply the excess premium to the enrollee's portion of the premium for each subsequent month for the remainder of the period of enrollment or benefit year until the excess premium is fully refunded (or refund the remaining amount directly). If any excess premium remains at the end of the period of enrollment or benefit year, the Exchange must refund any excess premium within 45 calendar days of the end of the period of enrollment or benefit year, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(2) If a refund is requested by or for the enrollee, the refund must be provided within 45 calendar days of the date of the request.


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Calculation of advance payments of the premium tax credit when policy coverage lasts less than the full coverage month.</I> (1) For plan years beginning with 2024 and beyond, when an Exchange determines that an individual is eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit and the enrollee is enrolled in a policy for less than the full coverage month, including when the enrollee is enrolled in multiple policies within a month, each lasting less than the full coverage month—


</P>
<P>(i) In an Exchange using the Federal eligibility and enrollment platform, the amount of the advance payment of the premium tax credit paid to the issuer of the policy must equal the product of—


</P>
<P>(A) The advance payments of the premium tax credit applied to the policy for one month of coverage divided by the number of days in the month; and


</P>
<P>(B) The number of days for which coverage is being provided in the month under the policy described in paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section.


</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(2) For plan years beginning with 2024 and beyond, a State Exchange operating its own platform will be required to calculate advance payments of the premium tax credit in accordance with a methodology that does not cause the amount of advance payments of the premium tax credit applied to an enrollee's monthly premium to exceed their expected monthly premium assistance credit amount when the enrollee is enrolled in a policy for less than the full coverage month, including when the enrollee is enrolled in multiple policies within a month, each lasting less than the full coverage month, and to prospectively report the methodology it intends to implement in the subsequent plan year to HHS under § 155.1200(b)(2).






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15533, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 42320, July 15, 2013; 78 FR 65095, Oct. 30, 2013; 87 FR 27389, May 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.345" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.345   Coordination with Medicaid, CHIP, the Basic Health Program, and the Pre-existing Condition Insurance Plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agreements.</I> The Exchange must enter into agreements with agencies administering Medicaid, CHIP, and the BHP, if a BHP is operating in the service area of the Exchange, as are necessary to fulfill the requirements of this subpart and provide copies of any such agreements to HHS upon request. Such agreements must include a clear delineation of the responsibilities of each agency to—
</P>
<P>(1) Minimize burden on individuals;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure prompt determinations of eligibility and enrollment in the appropriate program without undue delay, based on the date the application is submitted to or redetermination is initiated by the Exchange or the agency administering Medicaid, CHIP, or the BHP;
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure compliance with paragraphs (c), (d), (e), and (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities related to individuals potentially eligible for Medicaid based on other information or through other coverage groups.</I> For an applicant who is not eligible for Medicaid based on the standards specified in § 155.305(c), the Exchange must assess the information provided by the applicant on his or her application to determine whether he or she is potentially eligible for Medicaid based on factors not otherwise considered in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individuals requesting additional screening.</I> The Exchange must notify an applicant of the opportunity to request a full determination of eligibility for Medicaid based on eligibility criteria that are not described in § 155.305(c), and provide such an opportunity. The Exchange must also make such notification to an enrollee and provide an enrollee such opportunity in any determination made in accordance with § 155.330 or § 155.335.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of applicant and State Medicaid agency.</I> If an Exchange identifies an applicant as potentially eligible for Medicaid under paragraph (b) of this section or an applicant requests a full determination for Medicaid under paragraph (c) of this section, the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Transmit all information provided on the application and any information obtained or verified by, the Exchange to the State Medicaid agency, promptly and without undue delay; and
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the applicant of such transmittal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Treatment of referrals to Medicaid on eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.</I> The Exchange must consider an applicant who is described in paragraph (d) of this section and has not been determined eligible for Medicaid based on the standards specified in § 155.305(c) as ineligible for Medicaid for purposes of eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions until the State Medicaid agency notifies the Exchange that the applicant is eligible for Medicaid.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Special rule.</I> If the Exchange verifies that a tax filer's household income, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(e), is less than 100 percent of the FPL for the benefit year for which coverage is requested, determines that the tax filer is not eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit based on § 155.305(f)(2), and one or more applicants in the tax filer's household has been determined ineligible for Medicaid and CHIP based on income, the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the applicant with any information regarding income used in the Medicaid and CHIP eligibility determination; and
</P>
<P>(2) Follow the procedures specified in § 155.320(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Determination of eligibility for individuals submitting applications directly to an agency administering Medicaid, CHIP, or the BHP.</I> The Exchange, in consultation with the agency or agencies administering Medicaid, CHIP, and the BHP if a BHP is operating in the service area of the Exchange, must establish procedures to ensure that an eligibility determination for enrollment in a QHP, advance payments of the premium tax credit, and cost-sharing reductions is performed when an application is submitted directly to an agency administering Medicaid, CHIP, or the BHP if a BHP is operating in the service area of the Exchange. Under such procedures, the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Accept, via secure electronic interface, all information provided on the application and any information obtained or verified by, the agency administering Medicaid, CHIP, or the BHP, if a BHP is operating in the service area of the Exchange, for the individual, and not require submission of another application;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify such agency of the receipt of the information described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section and final eligibility determination for enrollment in a QHP, advance payments of the premium tax credit, and cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(3) Not duplicate any eligibility and verification findings already made by the transmitting agency, to the extent such findings are made in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Not request information or documentation from the individual already provided to another agency administering an insurance affordability program and included in the transmission of information provided on the application or other information transmitted from the other agency.
</P>
<P>(5) Determine the individual's eligibility for enrollment in a QHP, advance payments of the premium tax credit, and cost-sharing reductions, promptly and without undue delay, and in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) Follow a streamlined process for eligibility determinations regardless of the agency that initially received an application.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Adherence to state decision regarding Medicaid and CHIP.</I> The Exchange and the Exchange appeals entity must adhere to the eligibility determination or appeals decision for Medicaid or CHIP made by the State Medicaid or CHIP agency, or the appeals entity for such agency.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Standards for sharing information between the Exchange and the agencies administering Medicaid, CHIP, and the BHP.</I> (1) The Exchange must utilize a secure electronic interface to exchange data with the agencies administering Medicaid, CHIP, and the BHP, if a BHP is operating in the service area of the Exchange, including to verify whether an applicant for insurance affordability programs has been determined eligible for Medicaid, CHIP, or the BHP, as specified in § 155.320(b)(1)(ii), and for other functions required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Model agreements.</I> The Exchange may utilize any model agreements as established by HHS for the purpose of sharing data as described in this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Transition from the Pre-existing Condition Insurance Plan (PCIP).</I> The Exchange must follow procedures established in accordance with 45 CFR 152.45 to transition PCIP enrollees to the Exchange to ensure that there are no lapses in health coverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 31515, May 29, 2012; 78 FR 42320, July 15, 2013; 78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.350" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.350   Special eligibility standards and process for Indians.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility for cost-sharing reductions.</I> (1) The Exchange must determine an applicant who is an Indian eligible for cost-sharing reductions if he or she—
</P>
<P>(i) Meets the requirements specified in § 155.305(a) and § 155.305(f);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is expected to have a household income, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(e) that does not exceed 300 percent of the FPL for the benefit year for which coverage is requested.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange may only provide cost-sharing reductions to an individual who is an Indian if he or she is enrolled in a QHP through the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special cost-sharing rule for Indians regardless of income.</I> The Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for the special cost-sharing rule described in section 1402(d)(2) of the Affordable Care Act if he or she is an Indian, without requiring the applicant to request an eligibility determination for insurance affordability programs in accordance with § 155.310(b) in order to qualify for this rule.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification related to Indian status.</I> To the extent that an applicant attests that he or she is an Indian, the Exchange must verify such attestation by—
</P>
<P>(1) Utilizing any relevant documentation verified in accordance with § 155.315(f);
</P>
<P>(2) Relying on any electronic data sources that are available to the Exchange and which have been approved by HHS for this purpose, based on evidence showing that such data sources are sufficiently accurate and offer less administrative complexity than paper verification; or
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that approved data sources are unavailable, an individual is not represented in available data sources, or data sources are not reasonably compatible with an applicant's attestation, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in § 155.315(f) and verify documentation provided by the applicant in accordance with the standards for acceptable documentation provided in section 1903(x)(3)(B)(v) of the Social Security Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42321, July 15, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.355" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.355   Right to appeal.</HEAD>
<P><I>Individual appeals.</I> The Exchange must include the notice of the right to appeal and instructions regarding how to file an appeal in any eligibility determination notice issued to the applicant in accordance with § 155.310(g), § 155.330(e)(1)(ii), or § 155.335(h)(1)(ii).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Exchange Functions in the Individual Market: Enrollment in Qualified Health Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.400" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.400   Enrollment of qualified individuals into QHPs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The Exchange must accept a QHP selection from an applicant who is determined eligible for enrollment in a QHP in accordance with subpart D, and must—
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the issuer of the applicant's selected QHP; and
</P>
<P>(2) Transmit information necessary to enable the QHP issuer to enroll the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of data exchange.</I> The Exchange must:
</P>
<P>(1) Send eligibility and enrollment information to QHP issuers and HHS promptly and without undue delay; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish a process by which a QHP issuer acknowledges the receipt of such information.
</P>
<P>(3) Send updated eligibility and enrollment information to HHS promptly and without undue delay, in a manner and timeframe as specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> The Exchange must maintain records of all enrollments in QHP issuers through the Exchange.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconcile files.</I> The Exchange must reconcile enrollment information with QHP issuers and HHS no less than on a monthly basis.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Timeliness standard for State Exchanges to review, resolve, and report data inaccuracies submitted by a State Exchange issuer.</I> Within 60 calendar days after a State Exchange receives a data inaccuracy from an issuer operating in the State Exchange that includes a description of a data inaccuracy in accordance with § 156.1210 and all the information that the State Exchange requires or requests to properly assess the inaccuracy, the State Exchange must review and resolve the State Exchange issuer's data inaccuracies and submit to HHS a description of the resolution of the inaccuracies in a format and manner specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Premium payment.</I> Exchanges may, and the Federally-facilitated Exchanges and State-Based Exchanges on the Federal Platform will, require payment of a binder payment to effectuate an enrollment or to add coverage retroactively to an already effectuated enrollment. Exchanges may, and the Federally-facilitated Exchanges and State-Based Exchanges on the Federal Platform will, establish a standard policy for setting premium payment deadlines:
</P>
<P>(1) In a Federally-facilitated Exchange or State-Based Exchange on the Federal Platform:
</P>
<P>(i) For prospective coverage to be effectuated under regular coverage effective dates, as provided for in § 155.410(f), the binder payment must consist of the first month's premium, and the deadline for making the binder payment must be no earlier than the coverage effective date, and no later than 30 calendar days from the coverage effective date.
</P>
<P>(ii) For prospective coverage to be effectuated under special effective dates, as provided for in § 155.420(b)(2) and (3), the binder payment must consist of the first month's premium, and the deadline for making the binder payment must be no earlier than the coverage effective date and no later than 30 calendar days from the date the issuer receives the enrollment transaction or the coverage effective date, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(iii) For coverage to be effectuated under retroactive effective dates, as provided for in § 155.420(b)(2), including when retroactive effective dates are due to a delay until after special enrollment period verification, the binder payment must consist of the premium due for all months of retroactive coverage through the first prospective month of coverage, and the deadline for making the binder payment must be no earlier than 30 calendar days from the date the issuer receives the enrollment transaction. If only the premium for 1 month of coverage is paid, only prospective coverage should be effectuated, in accordance with § 155.420(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Premium payment deadline extension.</I> Exchanges may, and the Federally-facilitated Exchanges and State-based Exchanges on the Federal platform will, allow issuers experiencing billing or enrollment problems due to high volume or technical errors, or issuers directed to do so by applicable State or Federal authorities, to implement a reasonable extension of the binder payment and other premium payment deadlines.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Processing enrollment transactions.</I> The Exchange may provide requirements to QHP issuers regarding the instructions for processing electronic enrollment-related transactions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Premium payment threshold.</I> Exchanges may, and the Federally-facilitated Exchanges and State-Based Exchanges on the Federal Platform will, allow issuers to implement, a premium payment threshold policy under which issuers can consider enrollees to have paid all amounts due if the enrollees pay an amount sufficient to maintain a percentage of total premium paid out of the total premium owed equal to or greater than a level prescribed by the issuer, provided that the level is reasonable and that the level and the policy are applied in a uniform manner to all enrollees. If an applicant or enrollee satisfies the premium payment threshold policy, the issuer may:
</P>
<P>(1) Effectuate an enrollment based on payment of the binder payment under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Avoid triggering a grace period for non-payment of premium, as described by § 156.270(d) of this subchapter or a grace period governed by State rules.
</P>
<P>(3) Avoid terminating the enrollment for non-payment of premium as, described by §§ 156.270(g) of this subchapter and 155.430(b)(2)(ii)(A) and (B).




</P>
<P>(h) <I>Requirements.</I> A State Exchange may rely on HHS to carry out the requirements of this section and other requirements contained within this subpart through a Federal platform agreement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42321, July 15, 2013; 79 FR 30348, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10866, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12343, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94177, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 18381, Apr. 18, 2017; 85 FR 29260, May 14, 2020; 89 FR 26423, Apr. 15, 2024; 90 FR 4540, Jan. 15, 2025; 90 FR 27222, June 25, 2025; 91 FR 29867, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.405" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.405   Single streamlined application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The application.</I> The Exchange must use a single streamlined application to determine eligibility and to collect information necessary for:
</P>
<P>(1) Enrollment in a QHP;
</P>
<P>(2) Advance payments of the premium tax credit;
</P>
<P>(3) Cost-sharing reductions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Medicaid, CHIP, or the BHP, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative application.</I> If the Exchange seeks to use an alternative application, such application, as approved by HHS, must request the minimum information necessary for the purposes identified in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing the single streamlined application.</I> The Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Accept the single streamlined application from an application filer;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the tools to file an application—
</P>
<P>(i) Via an Internet Web site;
</P>
<P>(ii) By telephone through a call center;
</P>
<P>(iii) By mail; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In person, with reasonable accommodations for those with disabilities, as defined by the Americans with Disabilities Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.410" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.410   Initial and annual open enrollment periods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) The Exchange must provide an initial open enrollment period and annual open enrollment periods consistent with this section, during which qualified individuals may enroll in a QHP and enrollees may change QHPs.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange may only permit a qualified individual to enroll in a QHP or an enrollee to change QHPs during the initial open enrollment period specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the annual open enrollment period specified in paragraph (e) of this section, or a special enrollment period described in § 155.420 of this subpart for which the qualified individual has been determined eligible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial open enrollment period.</I> The initial open enrollment period begins October 1, 2013 and extends through March 31, 2014.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective coverage dates for initial open enrollment period</I>—(1) <I>Regular effective dates.</I> For a QHP selection received by the Exchange from a qualified individual—
</P>
<P>(i) On or before December 23, 2013, the Exchange must ensure a coverage effective date of January 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(ii) Between the first and fifteenth day of any subsequent month during the initial open enrollment period, the Exchange must ensure a coverage effective date of the first day of the following month.
</P>
<P>(iii) Between the sixteenth and last day of the month for any month between January 2014 and March 31, 2014 or between the twenty-fourth and the thirty-first of the month of December 2013, the Exchange must ensure a coverage effective date of the first day of the second following month.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding the requirement of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, an Exchange or SHOP operated by a State may require a January 1, 2014 effective date for plan selection dates later than December 23, 2013; a SHOP may also establish plan selection dates as early as December 15, 2013 for enrollment in SHOP QHPs for a January 1, 2014 coverage effective date.
</P>
<P>(v) Notwithstanding the regular effective dates set forth in this section, an Exchange may allow issuers to provide for a coverage effective date of January 1, 2014 for plan selections received after December 23, 2013 and on or before January 31, 2014, if a QHP issuer is willing to accept such enrollments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Option for earlier effective dates.</I> Subject to the Exchange demonstrating to HHS that all of its participating QHP issuers agree to effectuate coverage in a timeframe shorter than discussed in paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, the Exchange may do one or both of the following for all applicable individuals:
</P>
<P>(i) For a QHP selection received by the Exchange from a qualified individual in accordance with the dates specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) or (iii) of this section, the Exchange may provide a coverage effective date for a qualified individual earlier than specified in such paragraphs, provided that either—
</P>
<P>(A) The qualified individual has not been determined eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions; or
</P>
<P>(B) The qualified individual pays the entire premium for the first partial month of coverage as well as all cost sharing, thereby waiving the benefit of advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reduction payments until the first of the next month.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a QHP selection received by the Exchange from a qualified individual on a date set by the Exchange after the fifteenth of the month for any month between December 2013 and March 31, 2014, the Exchange may provide a coverage effective date of the first of the following month.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of annual open enrollment period.</I> Starting in 2014, the Exchange must provide a written annual open enrollment notification to each enrollee no earlier than the first day of the month before the open enrollment period begins and no later than the first day of the open enrollment period.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Annual open enrollment period.</I> (1) For the benefit year beginning on January 1, 2015, the annual open enrollment period begins on November 15, 2014, and extends through February 15, 2015.
</P>
<P>(2) For the benefit years beginning on January 1, 2016 and January 1, 2017, the annual open enrollment period begins on November 1 of the calendar year preceding the benefit year, and extends through January 31 of the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(3) For the benefit years beginning on January 1, 2018 through January 1, 2021, the annual open enrollment period begins on November 1 and extends through December 15 of the calendar year preceding the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(4) For benefit years beginning on January 1, 2022, through January 1, 2026—


</P>
<P>(i) Subject to paragraphs (e)(4)(ii) and (iii) of this section, the annual open enrollment period begins on November 1 of the calendar year preceding the benefit year and extends through January 15 of the benefit year.


</P>
<P>(ii) For State Exchanges, for the benefit years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, a later annual open enrollment period end date may be adopted, such that the open enrollment period begins on November 1 of the calendar year preceding the benefit year and ends after January 15 of the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(iii) For any State Exchange with an annual open enrollment period that began before November 1, 2023, and ended before January 15, 2024, for the 2024 benefit year, that State Exchange may continue to begin open enrollment before November 1 for consecutive future benefit years, so long as the open enrollment period continues uninterrupted for at least 11 weeks. If such State Exchange changes the date(s) of their annual open enrollment period, it must comply with paragraphs (e)(4)(i) and (ii) for all future annual open enrollment periods.
</P>
<P>(5) For benefit years beginning on or after January 1, 2027—
</P>
<P>(i) The annual open enrollment period for all Exchanges must begin no later than November 1 and must end no later than December 31 of the calendar year preceding the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The annual open enrollment period must not exceed 9 weeks in duration.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effective date.</I> (1) For the benefit year beginning on January 1, 2015, the Exchange must ensure coverage is effective—
</P>
<P>(i) January 1, 2015, for QHP selections received by the Exchange on or before December 15, 2014.
</P>
<P>(ii) February 1, 2015, for QHP selections received by the Exchange from December 16, 2014 through January 15, 2015.
</P>
<P>(iii) March 1, 2015, for QHP selections received by the Exchange from January 16, 2015 through February 15, 2015.
</P>
<P>(2) For the benefit years beginning on January 1, 2016 through January 1, 2021, the Exchange must ensure coverage is effective—
</P>
<P>(i) January 1, for QHP selections received by the Exchange on or before December 15 of the calendar year preceding the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(ii) February 1, for QHP selections received by the Exchange from December 16 of the calendar year preceding the benefit year through January 15 of the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(iii) March 1, for QHP selections received by the Exchange from January 16 through January 31 of the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(3) For benefit years beginning on January 1, 2022, through January 1, 2026, the Exchange must ensure that coverage is effective—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section—
</P>
<P>(A) January 1, for QHP selections received by the Exchange on or before December 15 of the calendar year preceding the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(B) February 1, for QHP selections received by the Exchange from December 16 of the calendar year preceding the benefit year through January 15 of the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(C) The first of the following month, for QHP selections received by the 15 of a month after January, if applicable under paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) The first of the second following month, for plan selections received between the 16th and the end of a month, beginning January 16 of the benefit year, if applicable under paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For State Exchanges not utilizing the Federal platform, for a QHP selection received by the Exchange during the open enrollment period for which effective dates specified in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section would apply, the Exchange may provide a coverage effective date that is earlier than specified in such paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) For benefit years beginning on or after January 1, 2027, the Exchange must ensure that coverage is effective January 1, for QHP selections received by the Exchange on or before December 31 of the calendar year preceding the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Automatic enrollment.</I> The Exchange may automatically enroll qualified individuals, at such time and in such manner as HHS may specify, and subject to the Exchange demonstrating to HHS that it has good cause to perform such automatic enrollments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 76218, Dec. 17, 2013; 79 FR 13838, Mar. 11, 2014; 79 FR 30348, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10866, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12343, Mar. 8, 2016; 82 FR 18381, Apr. 18, 2017; 86 FR 53503, Sept. 27, 2021; 89 FR 26423, Apr. 15, 2024; 90 FR 27222, June 25, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.415" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.415   Allowing issuer or direct enrollment entity application assisters to assist with eligibility applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exchange option.</I> An Exchange, to the extent permitted by State law, may permit issuer application assisters and direct enrollment entity application assisters, as defined at § 155.20, to assist individuals in the individual market with applying for a determination or redetermination of eligibility for coverage through the Exchange and insurance affordability programs, provided that such issuer application assisters or direct enrollment entity application assisters meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application assister requirements.</I> If permitted by an Exchange under paragraph (a) of this section, and to the extent permitted by State law, an issuer may permit its issuer application assisters and a direct enrollment entity may permit its direct enrollment entity application assisters to assist individuals in the individual market with applying for a determination or redetermination of eligibility for coverage through the Exchange and for insurance affordability programs, provided that such issuer or direct enrollment entity ensures that each of its issuer application assisters or direct enrollment entity application assisters at least—
</P>
<P>(1) Receives training on QHP options and insurance affordability programs, eligibility, and benefits rules and regulations, and for application assisters providing assistance in the Federally-facilitated Exchanges or a State Exchange using the Federal platform, the assisters must fulfill this requirement by completing registration and training in a form and manner to be specified by HHS;
</P>
<P>(2) Complies with the Exchange's privacy and security standards adopted consistent with § 155.260; and
</P>
<P>(3) Complies with applicable State law related to the sale, solicitation, and negotiation of health insurance products, including any State licensure laws applicable to the functions to be performed by the issuer application assister or direct enrollment entity application assister, as well as State law related to confidentiality and conflicts of interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 17567, Apr. 25, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.420" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.420   Special enrollment periods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>General parameters.</I> The Exchange must provide special enrollment periods consistent with this section, during which qualified individuals may enroll in QHPs and enrollees may change QHPs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definition of dependent.</I> For the purpose of this section, “dependent”, has the same meaning as it does in 26 CFR 54.9801-2, referring to any individual who is or who may become eligible for coverage under the terms of a QHP because of a relationship to a qualified individual or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of special enrollment periods.</I> Except in the circumstances specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Exchange must allow a qualified individual or enrollee, and when specified in paragraph (d) of this section, his or her dependent to enroll in a QHP if one of the triggering events specified in paragraph (d) of this section occur.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Use of special enrollment periods by enrollees.</I> (i) If an enrollee has gained a dependent in accordance with paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, the Exchange must allow the enrollee to add the dependent to his or her current QHP, or, if the current QHP's business rules do not allow the dependent to enroll, the Exchange must allow the enrollee and his or her dependents to change to another QHP within the same level of coverage (or one metal level higher or lower, if no such QHP is available), as outlined in § 156.140(b) of this subchapter, or, at the option of the enrollee or dependent, enroll the dependent in any separate QHP.




</P>
<P>(ii)(A) If an enrollee or their dependents become newly eligible for cost-sharing reductions in accordance with paragraph (d)(6)(i) or (ii) of this section and the enrollee or their dependents are not enrolled in a silver-level QHP, the Exchange must allow the enrollee and their dependents to change to a silver-level QHP if they elect to change their QHP enrollment; or
</P>
<P>(B) Beginning January 2022, if an enrollee or their dependents become newly ineligible for cost-sharing reductions in accordance with paragraph (d)(6)(i) or (ii) of this section and the enrollee or his or her dependents are enrolled in a silver-level QHP, the Exchange must allow the enrollee and their dependents to change to a QHP one metal level higher or lower if they elect to change their QHP enrollment;




</P>
<P>(C) No later than January 1, 2024, if an enrollee or his or her dependents become newly ineligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit in accordance with paragraph (d)(6)(i) or (ii) of this section, the Exchange must allow the enrollee and his or her dependents to change to a QHP of any metal level, if they elect to change their QHP enrollment; or








</P>
<P>(iii) For the other triggering events specified in paragraph (d) of this section, except for paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(4), and (d)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section for becoming newly eligible or ineligible for CSRs, and paragraphs (d)(8), (9), (10), (12), and (14) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) If an enrollee qualifies for a special enrollment period, the Exchange must allow the enrollee and his or her dependents, if applicable, to change to another QHP within the same level of coverage (or one metal level higher or lower, if no such QHP is available), as outlined in § 156.140(b) of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(B) If a dependent qualifies for a special enrollment period, and an enrollee who does not also qualify for a special enrollment period is adding the dependent to his or her QHP, the Exchange must allow the enrollee to add the dependent to his or her current QHP; or, if the QHP's business rules do not allow the dependent to enroll, the Exchange must allow the enrollee and his or her dependents to change to another QHP within the same level of coverage (or one metal level higher or lower, if no such QHP is available), as outlined in § 156.140(b) of this subchapter, or enroll the new qualified individual in a separate QHP; or
</P>
<P>(C) If a qualified individual who is not an enrollee qualifies for a special enrollment period and has one or more dependents who are enrollees who do not also qualify for a special enrollment period, the Exchange must allow the newly enrolling qualified individual to add himself or herself to a dependent's current QHP; or, if the QHP's business rules do not allow the qualified individual to enroll in the dependent's current QHP, to enroll with his or her dependent(s) in another QHP within the same level of coverage (or one metal level higher or lower, if no such QHP is available), as outlined in § 156.140(b) of this subchapter, or enroll himself or herself in a separate QHP.


</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prior coverage requirement.</I> Qualified individuals who are required to demonstrate coverage in the 60 days prior to a qualifying event can either demonstrate that they had minimum essential coverage as described in 26 CFR 1.5000A-1(b) or demonstrate that they had coverage as described in paragraphs (d)(1)(iii) or (iv) of this section for 1 or more days during the 60 days preceding the date of the qualifying event; lived in a foreign country or in a United States territory for 1 or more days during the 60 days preceding the date of the qualifying event; are an Indian as defined by section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act; or lived for 1 or more days during the 60 days preceding the qualifying event or during their most recent preceding enrollment period, as specified in §§ 155.410 and 155.420, in a service area where no qualified health plan was available through the Exchange.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective dates</I>—(1) <I>Regular effective dates.</I> Except as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, for a QHP selection received by the Exchange from a qualified individual, the Exchange must ensure a coverage effective date of the first day of the month following the QHP selection; except that before January 1, 2025, for a QHP selection received by the Exchange from a qualified individual between the sixteenth and the last day of any month, the Exchange may ensure a coverage effective date of the first day of the second month following QHP selection.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special effective dates.</I> (i) In the case of birth, adoption, placement for adoption, placement in foster care, or child support or other court order as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, the Exchange must ensure that coverage is effective for a qualified individual or enrollee on the date of birth, adoption, placement for adoption, placement in foster care, or effective date of court order; or it may permit the qualified individual or enrollee to elect a coverage effective date of the first of the month following plan selection; or in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section. If the Exchange permits the qualified individual or enrollee to elect a coverage effective date of either the first of the month following the date of plan selection or in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the Exchange must ensure coverage is effective on the date duly selected by the qualified individual or enrollee.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of marriage as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section the Exchange must ensure that coverage is effective for a qualified individual or enrollee on the first day of the month following plan selection.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a qualified individual or enrollee eligible for a special enrollment period as described in paragraph (d)(4), (5), (9), (11), (12), or (13) of this section, the Exchange must ensure that coverage is effective on an appropriate date based on the circumstances of the special enrollment period.


</P>
<P>(iv) If a qualified individual, enrollee, or dependent, as applicable, loses coverage as described in paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(6)(iii) of this section, or is enrolled in COBRA continuation coverage for which an employer is paying all or part of the premiums, or for which a government entity is providing subsidies, and the employer contributions or government subsidies completely cease as described in paragraph (d)(15) of this section, gains access to a new QHP as described in paragraph (d)(7) of this section, becomes newly eligible for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange in accordance with § 155.305(a)(2) as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, becomes newly eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit in conjunction with a permanent move as described in paragraph (d)(6)(iv) of this section, and if the plan selection is made on or before the day of the triggering event, the Exchange must ensure that the coverage effective date is the first day of the month following the date of the triggering event. If the plan selection is made after the date of the triggering event, the Exchange must ensure that coverage is effective in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section or on the first day of the following month, at the option of the Exchange. Notwithstanding the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(iv) with respect to losses of coverage as described at paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(6)(iii), and (d)(15) of this section, at the option of the Exchange, if the plan selection is made on or before the last day of the month preceding the triggering event, the Exchange must ensure that the coverage effective date is the first day of the month in which the triggering event occurs.




</P>
<P>(v) If an enrollee or his or her dependent dies as described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, the Exchange must ensure that coverage is effective on the first day of the month following the plan selection, or it may permit the enrollee or his or her dependent to elect a coverage effective date in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section. If the Exchange permits the enrollee or his or her dependent to elect a coverage effective date in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the Exchange must ensure coverage is effective on the date duly selected by the enrollee or his or her dependent.
</P>
<P>(vi) If a qualified individual, enrollee, or dependent newly gains access to an individual coverage HRA or is newly provided a QSEHRA, each as described in paragraph (d)(14) of this section, and if the plan selection is made before the day of the triggering event, the Exchange must ensure that coverage is effective on the first day of the month following the date of the triggering event or, if the triggering event is on the first day of a month, on the date of the triggering event. If the plan selection is made on or after the day of the triggering event, the Exchange must ensure that coverage is effective on the first day of the month following plan selection.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Option for earlier effective dates.</I> (i) For a QHP selection received by the Exchange under a special enrollment period for which the effective dates of coverage specified in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2)(i) of this section would apply, the Exchange may provide a coverage effective date that is earlier than specified in such paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a QHP selection received by the Exchange under a special enrollment period for which special effective dates specified in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section would apply, the Exchange may provide a coverage effective date that is earlier than specified in such paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.</I> Notwithstanding the standards of this section, the Exchange must ensure that advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions adhere to the effective dates specified in § 155.330(f).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Option for earlier effective dates due to untimely notice of triggering event.</I> At the option of a qualified individual, enrollee or dependent who is eligible to select a plan during a period provided for under paragraph (c)(5) of this section, the Exchange must provide the earliest effective date that would have been available under paragraph (b) of this section, based on the applicable triggering event under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability and length of special enrollment periods</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Unless specifically stated otherwise herein, a qualified individual or enrollee has 60 days from the date of a triggering event to select a QHP.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advanced availability.</I> A qualified individual or their dependent who is described in paragraph (d)(1), (d)(6)(iii), or (d)(15) of this section has 60 days before and, unless the Exchange exercises the option in paragraph (c)(6) of this section, 60 days after the triggering event to select a QHP. At the option of the Exchange, a qualified individual or their dependent who is described in paragraph (d)(7) of this section; who is described in paragraph (d)(6)(iv) of this section becomes newly eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit as a result of a permanent move to a new State; or who is described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section and becomes newly eligible for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange because they newly satisfy the requirements under § 155.305(a)(2), has 60 days before or after the triggering event to select a QHP.




</P>
<P>(3) <I>Advanced availability for individuals with an individual coverage HRA or QSEHRA.</I> A qualified individual, enrollee, or his or her dependent who is described in paragraph (d)(14) of this section has 60 days before the triggering event to select a QHP, unless the HRA or QSEHRA was not required to provide the notice setting forth its terms to such individual or enrollee at least 90 days before the beginning of the plan year, as specified in 45 CFR 146.123(c)(6), 26 CFR 54.9802-4(c)(6), and 29 CFR 2590.702-2(c)(6) or section 9831(d)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code, as applicable, in which case the qualified individual, enrollee, or his or her dependent has 60 days before or after the triggering event to select a QHP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special rule.</I> In the case of a qualified individual or enrollee who is eligible for a special enrollment period as described in paragraphs (d)(4), (5), or (9) of this section, the Exchange may define the length of the special enrollment period as appropriate based on the circumstances of the special enrollment period, but in no event may the length of the special enrollment period exceed 60 days.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Availability for individuals who did not receive timely notice of triggering events.</I> If a qualified individual, enrollee, or dependent did not receive timely notice of an event that triggers eligibility for a special enrollment period under this section, and otherwise was reasonably unaware that a triggering event described in paragraph (d) of this section occurred, the Exchange must allow the qualified individual, enrollee, or when applicable, his or her dependent to select a new plan within 60 days of the date that he or she knew, or reasonably should have known, of the occurrence of the triggering event.


</P>
<P>(6) <I>Special rule for individuals losing Medicaid or CHIP.</I> Beginning January 1, 2024, or earlier, at the option of the Exchange, a qualified individual or their dependent(s) who is described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section and whose loss of coverage is a loss of Medicaid or CHIP coverage shall have 90 days after the triggering event to select a QHP. If a State Medicaid or CHIP Agency allows or provides for a Medicaid or CHIP reconsideration period greater than 90 days, the Exchange in that State may elect to provide a qualified individual or their dependent(s) who is described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section and whose loss of coverage is a loss of Medicaid or CHIP coverage additional time to select a QHP, up to the number of days provided for the applicable Medicaid or CHIP reconsideration period.






</P>
<P>(d) <I>Triggering events.</I> Subject to paragraphs (a)(3) through (5) of this section, as applicable, the Exchange must allow a qualified individual or enrollee, and, when specified below, his or her dependent, to enroll in or change from one QHP to another if one of the triggering events occur:
</P>
<P>(1) The qualified individual or his or her dependent either:
</P>
<P>(i) Loses minimum essential coverage. The date of the loss of coverage is the last day the consumer would have coverage under his or her previous plan or coverage;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is enrolled in any non-calendar year group health plan, individual health insurance coverage, or qualified small employer health reimbursement arrangement (as defined in section 9831(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code); even if the qualified individual or his or her dependent has the option to renew or re-enroll in such coverage. The date of the loss of coverage is the last day of the plan year;
</P>
<P>(iii) Loses pregnancy-related coverage described under section 1902(a)(10)(A)(i)(IV) and (a)(10)(A)(ii)(IX) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(i)(IV), (a)(10)(A)(ii)(IX)) or loses access to health care services through coverage provided to a pregnant woman's unborn child, based on the definition of a child in 42 CFR 457.10. The date of the loss of coverage is the last day the qualified individual would have pregnancy-related coverage or access to health care services through the unborn child coverage; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Loses medically needy coverage as described under section 1902(a)(10)(C) of the Social Security Act only once per calendar year. The date of the loss of coverage is the last day the consumer would have medically needy coverage.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The qualified individual gains a dependent or becomes a dependent through marriage, birth, adoption, placement for adoption, or placement in foster care, or through a child support order or other court order.
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of marriage, at least one spouse must demonstrate having minimum essential coverage as described in 26 CFR 1.5000A-1(b) for 1 or more days during the 60 days preceding the date of marriage.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) At the option of the Exchange, the enrollee loses a dependent or is no longer considered a dependent through divorce or legal separation as defined by State law in the State in which the divorce or legal separation occurs, or if the enrollee, or his or her dependent, dies.
</P>
<P>(3) The qualified individual, or his or her dependent, becomes newly eligible for enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange because he or she newly satisfies the requirements under § 155.305(a)(1) or (2);
</P>
<P>(4) The qualified individual's or his or her dependent's, enrollment or non-enrollment in a QHP is unintentional, inadvertent, or erroneous and is the result of the error, misrepresentation, misconduct, or inaction of an officer, employee, or agent of the Exchange or HHS, its instrumentalities, or a non-Exchange entity providing enrollment assistance or conducting enrollment activities. For purposes of this provision, misconduct includes the failure to comply with applicable standards under this part, part 156 of this subchapter, or other applicable Federal or State laws as determined by the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(5) The enrollee or, his or her dependent adequately demonstrates to the Exchange that the QHP in which he or she is enrolled substantially violated a material provision of its contract in relation to the enrollee;
</P>
<P>(6)(i) The enrollee is determined newly eligible or newly ineligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit or has a change in eligibility for cost-sharing reductions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The enrollee's dependent enrolled in the same QHP is determined newly eligible or newly ineligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit or has a change in eligibility for cost-sharing reductions; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A qualified individual or his or her dependent who is enrolled in an eligible employer-sponsored plan is determined newly eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit based in part on a finding that such individual is ineligible for qualifying coverage in an eligible-employer sponsored plan in accordance with 26 CFR 1.36B-2(c)(3), including as a result of his or her employer discontinuing or changing available coverage within the next 60 days, provided that such individual is allowed to terminate existing coverage;
</P>
<P>(iv) A qualified individual who was previously ineligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit solely because of a household income below 100 percent of the FPL and who, during the same timeframe, was ineligible for Medicaid because he or she was living in a non-Medicaid expansion State, who either experiences a change in household income or moves to a different State resulting in the qualified individual becoming newly eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit; or
</P>
<P>(v) At the option of the Exchange, the qualified individual, or his or her dependent—
</P>
<P>(A) Experiences a decrease in household income;
</P>
<P>(B) Is newly determined eligible by the Exchange for advance payments of the premium tax credit; and
</P>
<P>(C) Had minimum essential coverage as described in 26 CFR 1.5000A-1(b) for one or more days during the 60 days preceding the date of the financial change.
</P>
<P>(7) The qualified individual or enrollee, or his or her dependent, gains access to new QHPs as a result of a permanent move and—
</P>
<P>(i) Had minimum essential coverage as described in 26 CFR 1.5000A-1(b) for one or more days during the 60 days preceding the date of the permanent move.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) The qualified individual—
</P>
<P>(i) Who gains or maintains status as an Indian, as defined by section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act, may enroll in a QHP or change from one QHP to another one time per month; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Who is or becomes a dependent of an Indian, as defined by section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act and is enrolled or is enrolling in a QHP through an Exchange on the same application as the Indian, may change from one QHP to another one time per month, at the same time as the Indian;
</P>
<P>(9) The qualified individual or enrollee, or his or her dependent, demonstrates to the Exchange, in accordance with guidelines issued by HHS, that the individual meets other exceptional circumstances as the Exchange may provide;
</P>
<P>(10) A qualified individual or enrollee—
</P>
<P>(i) Is a victim of domestic abuse or spousal abandonment as defined by 26 CFR 1.36B-2 or a dependent or unmarried victim within a household, is enrolled in minimum essential coverage, and sought to enroll in coverage separate from the perpetrator of the abuse or abandonment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is a dependent of a victim of domestic abuse or spousal abandonment, on the same application as the victim, may enroll in coverage at the same time as the victim;
</P>
<P>(11) A qualified individual or dependent—
</P>
<P>(i) Applies for coverage on the Exchange during the annual open enrollment period or due to a qualifying event, is assessed by the Exchange as potentially eligible for Medicaid or the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP), and is determined ineligible for Medicaid or CHIP by the State Medicaid or CHIP agency either after open enrollment has ended or more than 60 days after the qualifying event; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Applies for coverage at the State Medicaid or CHIP agency during the annual open enrollment period, and is determined ineligible for Medicaid or CHIP after open enrollment has ended;


</P>
<P>(12) The enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange was influenced by a material error related to plan benefits, service area, cost-sharing, or premium. A material error is one that is likely to have influenced a qualified individual's, enrollee's, or their dependent's enrollment in a QHP.


</P>
<P>(13) At the option of the Exchange, the qualified individual provides satisfactory documentary evidence to verify his or her eligibility for an insurance affordability program or enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange following termination of Exchange enrollment due to a failure to verify such status within the time period specified in § 155.315.


</P>
<P>(14) The qualified individual, enrollee, or dependent newly gains access to an individual coverage HRA (as defined in 45 CFR 146.123(b)) or is newly provided a qualified small employer health reimbursement arrangement (QSEHRA) (as defined in section 9831(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code). The triggering event is the first day on which coverage for the qualified individual, enrollee, or dependent under the individual coverage HRA can take effect, or the first day on which coverage under the QSEHRA takes effect. An individual, enrollee, or dependent will qualify for this special enrollment period regardless of whether they were previously offered or enrolled in an individual coverage HRA or previously provided a QSEHRA, so long as the individual, enrollee, or dependent is not enrolled in the individual coverage HRA or covered by the QSEHRA on the day immediately prior to the triggering event.
</P>
<P>(15) The qualified individual or his or her dependent is enrolled in COBRA continuation coverage for which an employer is paying all or part of the premiums, or for which a government entity is providing subsidies, and the employer completely ceases its contributions to the qualified individual's or dependent's COBRA continuation coverage or government subsidies completely cease. The triggering event is the last day of the period for which COBRA continuation coverage is paid for or subsidized, in whole or in part, by an employer or government entity. For purposes of this paragraph, “COBRA continuation coverage” has the meaning provided for in § 144.103 of this subchapter and includes coverage under a similar State program.






</P>
<P>(e) <I>Loss of coverage.</I> Loss of coverage described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section includes those circumstances described in 26 CFR 54.9801-6(a)(3)(i) through (iii) and in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) through (iv) of this section. Loss of coverage does not include voluntary termination of coverage or other loss due to—
</P>
<P>(1) Failure to pay premiums on a timely basis, including COBRA continuation coverage premiums prior to expiration of COBRA continuation coverage, except for circumstances in which an employer completely ceases its contributions to COBRA continuation coverage, or government subsidies of COBRA continuation coverage completely cease as described in paragraph (d)(15) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(2) Situations allowing for a rescission as specified in 45 CFR 147.128.
</P>
<P>(f) For purposes of this section, references to eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit refer to being eligible for such advance payments in an amount greater than zero dollars per month. References to ineligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit refer to being ineligible for such payments or being eligible for such payments but being eligible for a maximum of zero dollars per month of such payments.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Special enrollment period verification.</I> Beginning January 1, 2027, unless a request for modification is granted in accordance with § 155.315(h), Exchanges on the Federal platform must conduct pre-enrollment verification of new applicants' eligibility for special enrollment periods under this section. An Exchange meets this requirement if it verifies eligibility each plan year for the number of individuals newly enrolling in Exchange coverage through special enrollment periods that equals at least 75 percent of all special enrollments based on prior year enrollments. If the Exchange is unable to verify eligibility for individuals newly enrolling in Exchange coverage through a special enrollment period for which the Exchange requires verification, then such individuals are not eligible for enrollment through that special enrollment period. In accordance with § 155.505(b)(1)(iii), individuals have the right to appeal the eligibility determination.










</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012]


</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 155.420, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.430" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.430   Termination of Exchange enrollment or coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The Exchange must determine the form and manner in which enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange may be terminated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination events</I>—(1) <I>Enrollee-initiated terminations.</I> (i) The Exchange must permit an enrollee to terminate his or her coverage or enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange, including as a result of the enrollee obtaining other minimum essential coverage. To the extent the enrollee has the right to terminate the coverage under applicable State laws, including “free look” cancellation laws, the enrollee may do so, in accordance with such laws.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Exchange must provide an opportunity at the time of plan selection for an enrollee to choose to remain enrolled in a QHP if he or she becomes eligible for other minimum essential coverage and the enrollee does not request termination in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. If an enrollee does not choose to remain enrolled in a QHP in such situation, the Exchange must initiate termination of his or her enrollment in the QHP upon completion of the process specified in § 155.330(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) The Exchange must establish a process to permit individuals, including enrollees' authorized representatives, to report the death of an enrollee for purposes of initiating termination of the enrollee's Exchange enrollment. The Exchange may require the reporting party to submit documentation of the death. Any applicable premium refund, or premium due, must be processed by the deceased enrollee's QHP in accordance with State law.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Exchange must permit an enrollee to retroactively terminate or cancel the enrollee's coverage or enrollment in a QHP in the following circumstances:


</P>
<P>(A) The enrollee demonstrates to the Exchange that he or she attempted to terminate his or her coverage or enrollment in a QHP and experienced a technical error that did not allow the enrollee to terminate his or her coverage or enrollment through the Exchange, and requests retroactive termination within 60 days after he or she discovered the technical error.
</P>
<P>(B) The enrollee demonstrates to the Exchange that his or her enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange was unintentional, inadvertent, or erroneous and was the result of the error or misconduct of an officer, employee, or agent of the Exchange or HHS, its instrumentalities, or a non-Exchange entity providing enrollment assistance or conducting enrollment activities. Such enrollee must request cancellation within 60 days of discovering the unintentional, inadvertent, or erroneous enrollment. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(B), misconduct includes the failure to comply with applicable standards under this part, part 156 of this subchapter, or other applicable Federal or State requirements as determined by the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(C) The enrollee demonstrates to the Exchange that he or she was enrolled in a QHP without his or her knowledge or consent by any third party, including third parties who have no connection with the Exchange, and requests cancellation within 60 days of discovering of the enrollment.
</P>
<P>(D) In a Federally-facilitated Exchange or a State-based Exchange on the Federal platform, if HHS elects to permit such terminations, and in a State Exchange that elects to permit such terminations, the enrollee demonstrates to the Exchange that the enrollee enrolled in Medicare Part A or B coverage with a retroactive effective date, and requests retroactive termination of QHP coverage within 60 days of the enrollment. The effective date of the retroactive termination must be no earlier than the later of the day before the first day of coverage under Medicare Part A or B, and the day that is six months before the retroactive termination in QHP coverage is requested. A retroactive termination date as described in this paragraph is not available for enrollments in stand-alone dental plans.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exchange-initiated terminations.</I> The Exchange may initiate termination of an enrollee's enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange, and must permit a QHP issuer to terminate such coverage or enrollment, in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The enrollee is no longer eligible for coverage in a QHP through the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-payment of premiums for coverage of the enrollee, and
</P>
<P>(A) The exhaustion of the 3-month grace period, as described in § 156.270(d) and (g) of this subchapter, required for enrollees, who when first failing to timely pay premiums, are receiving advance payments of the premium tax credit.
</P>
<P>(B) Any other grace period not described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section has been exhausted;
</P>
<P>(iii) The enrollee's coverage is rescinded in accordance with § 147.128 of this subchapter, after a QHP issuer demonstrates, to the reasonable satisfaction of the Exchange, if required by the Exchange, that the rescission is appropriate;
</P>
<P>(iv) The QHP terminates or is decertified as described in § 155.1080; or
</P>
<P>(v) The enrollee changes from one QHP to another during an annual open enrollment period or special enrollment period in accordance with § 155.410 or § 155.420.
</P>
<P>(vi) The enrollee was enrolled in a QHP without his or her knowledge or consent by a third party, including by a third party with no connection with the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other reason for termination of coverage described in § 147.106 of this subchapter.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibition of issuer-initiated terminations due to aging-off.</I> Exchanges on the Federal platform must, and State Exchanges using their own platform may, prohibit QHP issuers from terminating dependent coverage of a child before the end of the plan year in which the child attains age 26 (or, if higher, the maximum age a QHP issuer is required to make available dependent coverage of children under applicable State law or the issuer's business rules), on the basis of the child's age, unless otherwise permitted.




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Termination of coverage or enrollment tracking and approval.</I> The Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Establish mandatory procedures for QHP issuers to maintain records of termination of enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(2) Send termination information to the QHP issuer and HHS, promptly and without undue delay in accordance with § 155.400(b).
</P>
<P>(3) Require QHP issuers to make reasonable accommodations for all individuals with disabilities (as defined by the Americans with Disabilities Act) before terminating enrollment of such individuals through the Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(4) Retain records in order to facilitate audit functions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective dates for termination of coverage or enrollment.</I> (1) For purposes of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) Reasonable notice is defined as at least fourteen days before the requested effective date of termination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes in eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost sharing reductions, including terminations, must adhere to the effective dates specified in § 155.330(f).
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a termination in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the last day of enrollment through the Exchange is—
</P>
<P>(i) The termination date specified by the enrollee, if the enrollee provides reasonable notice;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the enrollee does not provide reasonable notice, fourteen days after the termination is requested by the enrollee; or
</P>
<P>(iii) At the option of the Exchange, on the date on which the termination is requested by the enrollee, or on another prospective date selected by the enrollee; or
</P>
<P>(iv) If an Exchange does not require an earlier termination date in accordance with paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, at the option of the QHP issuer, on a date on or after the termination is requested by the enrollee that is less than 14 days after the termination is requested by the enrollee, if the enrollee requests an earlier termination date; or
</P>
<P>(v) At the option of the Exchange, for an individual who is newly determined eligible for Medicaid, CHIP, or the Basic Health Program, if a Basic Health Program is operating in the service area of the Exchange, the day before the enrollee's date of eligibility for Medicaid, CHIP, or the Basic Health Program.
</P>
<P>(vi) The retroactive termination date requested by the enrollee, if specified by applicable State laws.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a termination in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the last day of enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange is the last day of eligibility, as described in § 155.330(f), unless the individual requests an earlier termination effective date per paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a termination in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, the last day of enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange will be the last day of the first month of the 3-month grace period.
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a termination in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, the last day of enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange should be consistent with existing State laws regarding grace periods.
</P>
<P>(6) In the case of a termination in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section, the last day of coverage in an enrollee's prior QHP is the day before the effective date of coverage in his or her new QHP, including any retroactive enrollments effectuated under § 155.420(b)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>(7) In the case of a termination due to death, the last day of enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange is the date of death.
</P>
<P>(8) In cases of retroactive termination dates, the Exchange will ensure that appropriate actions are taken to make necessary adjustments to advance payments of the premium tax credit, cost-sharing reductions, premiums, claims, and user fees.
</P>
<P>(9) In case of a retroactive termination in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section, the termination date will be no sooner than the date that would have applied under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, based on the date that the enrollee can demonstrate he or she contacted the Exchange to terminate his or her coverage or enrollment through the Exchange, had the technical error not occurred.
</P>
<P>(10) In case of a retroactive cancellation or termination in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(B) or (C) of this section, the cancellation date or termination date will be the original coverage effective date or a later date, as determined appropriate by the Exchange, based on the circumstances of the cancellation or termination.
</P>
<P>(11) In the case of cancellation in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section, the Exchange may cancel the enrollee's enrollment upon its determination that the enrollment was performed without the enrollee's knowledge or consent and following reasonable notice to the enrollee (where possible). The termination date will be the original coverage effective date.
</P>
<P>(12) In the case of retroactive cancellations or terminations in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1)(iv)(A), (B) and (C) of this section, such terminations or cancellations for the preceding coverage year must be initiated within a timeframe established by the Exchange based on a balance of operational needs and consumer protection. This timeframe will not apply to cases adjudicated through the appeals process.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Termination, cancellation, and reinstatement.</I> The Exchange may establish operational instructions as to the form, manner, and method for addressing each of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Termination.</I> A termination is an action taken after a coverage effective date that ends an enrollee's enrollment through the Exchange for a date after the original coverage effective date, resulting in a period during which the individual was enrolled in coverage through the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cancellation.</I> A cancellation is specific type of termination action that ends a qualified individual's enrollment through the Exchange on the date such enrollment became effective resulting in enrollment through the Exchange never having been effective.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reinstatement.</I> A reinstatement is a correction of an erroneous termination or cancellation action and results in restoration of an enrollment with no break in coverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18444, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 31515, May 29, 2012; 78 FR 42322, July 15, 2013; 79 FR 30348, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10867, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12343, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94179, Dec. 22, 2016; 83 FR 17063, Apr. 17, 2018; 85 FR 29260, May 14, 2020; 88 FR 25920, Apr. 27, 2023; 89 FR 26423, Apr. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Appeals of Eligibility Determinations for Exchange Participation and Insurance Affordability Programs</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.500" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.500   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to those definitions in §§ 155.20 and 155.300, for purposes of this subpart and § 155.740 of subpart H, the following terms have the following meanings:
</P>
<P><I>Appeal record</I> means the appeal decision, all papers and requests filed in the proceeding, and, if a hearing was held, the transcript or recording of hearing testimony or an official report containing the substance of what happened at the hearing, and any exhibits introduced at the hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Appeal request</I> means a clear expression, either orally or in writing, by an applicant, enrollee, employer, or small business employer or employee to have any eligibility determination or redetermination contained in a notice issued in accordance with § 155.310(g), § 155.330(e)(1)(ii), § 155.335(h)(1)(ii), § 155.610(i), § 155.715(e) or (f), or § 155.716(e) reviewed by an appeals entity.
</P>
<P><I>Appeals entity</I> means a body designated to hear appeals of eligibility determinations or redeterminations contained in notices issued in accordance with § 155.310(g), § 155.330(e)(1)(ii), § 155.335(h)(1)(ii), § 155.610(i), § 155.715(e) and (f), or § 155.716(e).
</P>
<P><I>Appellant</I> means the applicant or enrollee, the employer, or the small business employer or employee who is requesting an appeal.
</P>
<P><I>De novo review</I> means a review of an appeal without deference to prior decisions in the case.
</P>
<P><I>Evidentiary hearing</I> means a hearing conducted where evidence may be presented.
</P>
<P><I>Vacate</I> means to set aside a previous action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 17063, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.505" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.505   General eligibility appeals requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Unless otherwise specified, the provisions of this subpart apply to Exchange eligibility appeals processes, regardless of whether the appeals process is provided by a State Exchange appeals entity or by the HHS appeals entity.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Right to appeal.</I> An applicant, enrollee, or application filer must have the right to appeal:
</P>
<P>(1) An eligibility determination made in accordance with subpart D, including—
</P>
<P>(i) An initial determination of eligibility, including the amount of advance payments of the premium tax credit and level of cost-sharing reductions, made in accordance with the standards specified in § 155.305(a) through (h); and
</P>
<P>(ii) A redetermination of eligibility, including the amount of advance payments of the premium tax credit and level of cost-sharing reductions, made in accordance with §§ 155.330 and 155.335;
</P>
<P>(iii) A determination of eligibility for an enrollment period, made in accordance with § 155.305(b);
</P>
<P>(2) An eligibility determination for an exemption made in accordance § 155.605;
</P>
<P>(3) A failure by the Exchange to provide timely notice of an eligibility determination in accordance with § 155.310(g), § 155.330(e)(1)(ii), § 155.335(h)(1)(ii), or § 155.610(i); and
</P>
<P>(4) A denial of a request to vacate dismissal made by a State Exchange appeals entity in accordance with § 155.530(d)(2), made under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) An appeal decision issued by a State Exchange appeals entity in accordance with § 155.545(b), consistent with § 155.520(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Options for Exchange appeals.</I> Exchange eligibility appeals may be conducted by—
</P>
<P>(1) A State Exchange appeals entity, or an eligible entity described in paragraph (d) of this section that is designated by the Exchange, if the Exchange establishes an appeals process in accordance with the requirements of this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(2) The HHS appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(i) Upon exhaustion of the State Exchange appeals process;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Exchange has not established an appeals process in accordance with the requirements of this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Exchange has delegated appeals of exemption determinations made by HHS pursuant to § 155.625(b) to the HHS appeals entity, and the appeal is limited to a determination of eligibility for an exemption.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligible entities.</I> An appeals process established under this subpart must comply with § 155.110(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Representatives.</I> An appellant may represent himself or herself, or be represented by an authorized representative under § 155.227, or by legal counsel, a relative, a friend, or another spokesperson, during the appeal.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accessibility requirements.</I> Appeals processes established under this subpart must comply with the accessibility requirements in § 155.205(c).


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Review of Exchange eligibility appeal decisions.</I> Review of appeal decisions issued by an impartial official as described in § 155.535(c)(4) is available as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Administrative review.</I> The Administrator may review an Exchange eligibility appeal decision as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Request by a party to the appeal.</I> (A) Within 14 calendar days of the date of the Exchange eligibility appeal decision issued by an impartial official as described in § 155.535(c)(4), a party to the appeal may request review of the Exchange eligibility appeal decision by the CMS Administrator. Such a request may be made even if the CMS Administrator has already at their initiative declined review as described in paragraph (g)(1)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section. If the CMS Administrator accepts that party's request for a review after having declined review, then the CMS Administrator's initial declination to review the eligibility appeal decision is void.
</P>
<P>(B) Within 30 days of the date of the party's request for administrative review, the CMS Administrator must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Decline to review the Exchange eligibility appeal decision;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Render a final decision as described in § 155.545(a)(1) based on their review of the eligibility appeal decision; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Choose to take no action on the request for review.
</P>
<P>(C) The Exchange eligibility appeal decision of the impartial official as described in § 155.535(c)(4) is final as of the date of the impartial official's decision if the CMS Administrator declines the party's request for review or if the CMS Administrator does not take any action on the party's request for review by the end of the 30-day period described in paragraphs (g)(1)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>3</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Review at the discretion of the CMS Administrator.</I> (A) Within 14 calendar days of the date of the Exchange eligibility appeal decision issued by an impartial official as described in § 155.535(c)(4), the CMS Administrator may initiate a review of an eligibility appeal decision at their discretion.
</P>
<P>(B) Within 30 days of the date the CMS Administrator initiates a review, the CMS Administrator may:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Decline to review the Exchange eligibility appeal decision;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Render a final decision as described in § 155.545(a)(1) based on their review of the eligibility appeal decision; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Choose to take no action on the Exchange eligibility appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(C) The eligibility Exchange appeal decision of the impartial official as described in § 155.535(c)(4) is final as of the date of the Exchange eligibility appeal decision if the CMS Administrator declines to review the eligibility appeal decision or chooses to take no action by the end of the 30-day period described in paragraphs (g)(1)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>3</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Effective dates.</I> If a party requests a review of an Exchange eligibility appeal decision by the CMS Administrator or the CMS Administrator initiates a review of an Exchange eligibility appeal decision at their own discretion, the eligibility appeal decision is effective as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If an Exchange eligibility appeal decision is final pursuant to paragraphs (g)(1)(i)(C) and (g)(1)(ii)(C) in this section, the Exchange eligibility appeal decision of the impartial official as described in § 155.535(c)(4) is effective as of the date of the impartial official's decision.
</P>
<P>(B) If the CMS Administrator renders a final decision after reviewing an Exchange eligibility appeal decision as described in paragraphs (g)(1)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) and (g)(1)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, the CMS Administrator may choose to change the effective date of the Exchange eligibility appeal decision as described in § 155.545(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Informal resolution decision.</I> Informal resolution decisions as described in § 155.535(a)(4) are not subject to administrative review by the CMS Administrator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Judicial review.</I> To the extent it is available by law, an appellant may seek judicial review of a final Exchange eligibility appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Implementation date.</I> The administrative review process is available for eligibility appeal decisions issued on or after January 1, 2024.




</P>
<P>(h) <I>Electronic requirements.</I> If the Exchange appeals entity cannot fulfill the electronic requirements of subparts C, D, F, and H of this part related to acceptance of telephone- or Internet-based appeal requests, the provision of appeals notices electronically, or the secure electronic transfer of eligibility and appeal records between appeals entities and Exchanges or Medicaid or CHIP agencies, the Exchange appeals entity may fulfill those requirements that it cannot fulfill electronically using a secure and expedient paper-based process.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30349, May 27, 2014; 81 FR 12344, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94179, Dec. 22, 2016; 88 FR 25920, Apr. 27, 2023; 90 FR 4540, Jan. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.510" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.510   Appeals coordination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agreements.</I> The appeals entity or the Exchange must enter into agreements with the agencies administering insurance affordability programs regarding the appeals processes for such programs as are necessary to fulfill the requirements of this subpart. Such agreements must include a clear delineation of the responsibilities of each entity to support the eligibility appeals process, and must—
</P>
<P>(1) Minimize burden on appellants, including not asking the appellant to provide duplicative information or documentation that he or she already provided to an agency administering an insurance affordability program or eligibility appeals process, unless the appeals entity, Exchange, or agency does not have access to the information or documentation and cannot reasonably obtain it, and such information is necessary to properly adjudicate an appeal;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure prompt issuance of appeal decisions consistent with timeliness standards established under this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(3) Comply with the requirements set forth in—
</P>
<P>(i) 42 CFR 431.10(d), if the state Medicaid agency delegates authority to hear fair hearings under 42 CFR 431.10(c)(ii) to the Exchange appeals entity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 42 CFR 457.348(b), if the state CHIP agency delegates authority to review appeals under § 457.1120 to the Exchange appeals entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coordination for Medicaid and CHIP appeals.</I> (1) Where the Medicaid or CHIP agency has delegated appeals authority to the Exchange appeals entity consistent with 42 CFR 431.10(c)(1)(ii) or 457.1120, and the Exchange appeals entity has accepted such delegation—
</P>
<P>(i) The Exchange appeals entity will conduct the appeal in accordance with—
</P>
<P>(A) Medicaid and CHIP MAGI-based income standards and standards for citizenship and immigration status, in accordance with the eligibility and verification rules and procedures, consistent with 42 CFR parts 435 and 457.
</P>
<P>(B) Notice standards identified in this subpart, subpart D, and by the State Medicaid or CHIP agency, consistent with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(ii) Consistent with 42 CFR 431.10(c)(1)(ii), an appellant who has been determined ineligible for Medicaid must be informed of the option to opt into pursuing his or her appeal of the adverse Medicaid eligibility determination with the Medicaid agency, and if the appellant elects to do so, the appeals entity transmits the eligibility determination and all information provided via secure electronic interface, promptly and without undue delay, to the Medicaid agency.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the Medicaid or CHIP agency has not delegated appeals authority to the appeals entity and the appellant seeks review of a denial of Medicaid or CHIP eligibility, the appeals entity must transmit the eligibility determination and all relevant information provided as part of the initial application or appeal, if applicable, via secure electronic interface, promptly and without undue delay, to the Medicaid or CHIP agency, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) The Exchange must consider an appellant determined or assessed by the appeals entity as not potentially eligible for Medicaid or CHIP as ineligible for Medicaid and CHIP based on the applicable Medicaid and CHIP MAGI-based income standards for purposes of determining eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Data exchange.</I> The appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that all data exchanges that are part of the appeals process, comply with the data exchange requirements in §§ 155.260, 155.270, and 155.345(i); and
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with all data sharing requests made by HHS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 12344, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.515" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.515   Notice of appeal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement to provide notice of appeal procedures.</I> The Exchange must provide notice of appeal procedures at the time that the—
</P>
<P>(1) Applicant submits an application; and
</P>
<P>(2) Notice of eligibility determination is sent under §§ 155.310(g), 155.330(e)(1)(ii), 155.335(h)(1)(ii), and 155.610(i).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General content on right to appeal and appeal procedures.</I> Notices described in paragraph (a) of this section must contain—
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation of the applicant or enrollee's appeal rights under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the procedures by which the applicant or enrollee may request an appeal;
</P>
<P>(3) Information on the applicant or enrollee's right to represent himself or herself, or to be represented by legal counsel or another representative;
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the circumstances under which the appellant's eligibility may be maintained or reinstated pending an appeal decision, as described in § 155.525; and
</P>
<P>(5) An explanation that an appeal decision for one household member may result in a change in eligibility for other household members and that such a change will be handled as a redetermination of eligibility for all household members in accordance with the standards specified in § 155.305.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.520" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.520   Appeal requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General standards for appeal requests.</I> The Exchange and the appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(1) Must accept appeal requests submitted—
</P>
<P>(i) By telephone;
</P>
<P>(ii) By mail;
</P>
<P>(iii) In person, if the Exchange or the appeals entity, as applicable, is capable of receiving in-person appeal requests; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Via the Internet.
</P>
<P>(2) Must assist the applicant or enrollee in making the appeal request, if requested;
</P>
<P>(3) Must not limit or interfere with the applicant or enrollee's right to make an appeal request; and
</P>
<P>(4) Must consider an appeal request to be valid for the purpose of this subpart, if it is submitted in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and § 155.505(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appeal request.</I> The Exchange and the appeals entity must allow an applicant or enrollee to request an appeal within—
</P>
<P>(1) 90 days of the date of the notice of eligibility determination; or
</P>
<P>(2) A timeframe consistent with the state Medicaid agency's requirement for submitting fair hearing requests, provided that timeframe is no less than 30 days, measured from the date of the notice of eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeal of a State Exchange appeals entity decision to HHS.</I> If the appellant disagrees with the appeal decision of a State Exchange appeals entity, he or she may make an appeal request to the HHS appeals entity within 30 days of the date of the State Exchange appeals entity's notice of appeal decision or notice of denial of a request to vacate a dismissal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acknowledgement of appeal request.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a valid appeal request pursuant to paragraph (b), (c), or (d)(3)(i) of this section, the appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(i) Send timely acknowledgment to the appellant of the receipt of his or her valid appeal request, including—
</P>
<P>(A) Information regarding the appellant's eligibility pending appeal pursuant to § 155.525; and
</P>
<P>(B) An explanation that any advance payments of the premium tax credit paid on behalf of the tax filer pending appeal are subject to reconciliation under 26 CFR 1.36B-4.
</P>
<P>(ii) Send timely notice via secure electronic interface of the appeal request and, if applicable, instructions to provide eligibility pending appeal pursuant to § 155.525, to the Exchange and to the agencies administering Medicaid or CHIP, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the appeal request is made pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, send timely notice via secure electronic interface of the appeal request to the State Exchange appeals entity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Promptly confirm receipt of the records transferred pursuant to paragraph (d)(3) or (4) of this section to the Exchange or the State Exchange appeals entity, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of an appeal request that is not valid because it fails to meet the requirements of this section or § 155.505(b), the appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(i) Promptly and without undue delay, send written notice to the applicant or enrollee informing the appellant:
</P>
<P>(A) That the appeal request has not been accepted;
</P>
<P>(B) About the nature of the defect in the appeal request; and
</P>
<P>(C) That the applicant or enrollee may cure the defect and resubmit the appeal request by the date determined under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as applicable, or within a reasonable timeframe established by the appeals entity.
</P>
<P>(D) That, in the event the appeal request is not valid due to failure to submit by the date determined under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as applicable, the appeal request may be considered valid if the applicant or enrollee sufficiently demonstrates within a reasonable timeframe determined by the appeals entity that failure to timely submit was due to exceptional circumstances and should not preclude the appeal.
</P>
<P>(ii) Treat as valid an amended appeal request that meets the requirements of this section and § 155.505(b).
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of a valid appeal request pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or upon receipt of the notice under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the Exchange must transmit via secure electronic interface to the appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(i) The appeal request, if the appeal request was initially made to the Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The appellant's eligibility record.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon receipt of the notice pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section, the State Exchange appeals entity must transmit via secure electronic interface the appellant's appeal record, including the appellant's eligibility record as received from the Exchange, to the HHS appeals entity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 12344, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.525" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.525   Eligibility pending appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General standards.</I> After receipt of a valid appeal request or notice under § 155.520(d)(1)(ii) that concerns an appeal of a redetermination under § 155.330(e) or § 155.335(h), the Exchange or the Medicaid or CHIP agency, as applicable, must continue to consider the appellant eligible while the appeal is pending in accordance with standards set forth in paragraph (b) of this section or as determined by the Medicaid or CHIP agency consistent with 42 CFR parts 435 and 457, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation.</I> If the tax filer or appellant, as applicable, accepts eligibility pending an appeal, the Exchange must continue the appellant's eligibility for enrollment in a QHP, advance payments of the premium tax credit, and cost-sharing reductions, as applicable, in accordance with the level of eligibility immediately before the redetermination being appealed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.530" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.530   Dismissals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Dismissal of appeal.</I> The appeals entity must dismiss an appeal if the appellant—
</P>
<P>(1) Withdraws the appeal request in writing or by telephone, if the appeals entity is capable of accepting telephonic withdrawals.
</P>
<P>(i) Accepting telephonic withdrawals means the appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(A) Records in full the appellant's statement and telephonic signature made under penalty of perjury; and
</P>
<P>(B) Provides a written confirmation to the appellant documenting the telephonic interaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) Fails to appear at a scheduled hearing without good cause;
</P>
<P>(3) Fails to submit a valid appeal request as specified in § 155.520(a)(4); or
</P>
<P>(4) Dies while the appeal is pending, except if the executor, administrator, or other duly authorized representative of the estate requests to continue the appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of dismissal to the appellant.</I> If an appeal is dismissed under paragraph (a) of this section, the appeals entity must provide timely written notice to the appellant, including—
</P>
<P>(1) The reason for dismissal;
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation of the dismissal's effect on the appellant's eligibility; and
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation of how the appellant may show good cause why the dismissal should be vacated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of the dismissal to the Exchange, Medicaid, and CHIP.</I> If an appeal is dismissed under paragraph (a) of this section, the appeals entity must provide timely notice to the Exchange, and to the agency administering Medicaid or CHIP, as applicable, including instruction regarding—
</P>
<P>(1) The eligibility determination to implement; and
</P>
<P>(2) Discontinuing eligibility provided under § 155.525, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Vacating a dismissal.</I> The appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(1) Vacate a dismissal and proceed with the appeal if the appellant makes a written request within 30 days of the date of the notice of dismissal showing good cause why the dismissal should be vacated; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide timely written notice of the denial of a request to vacate a dismissal to the appellant, if the request is denied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30349, May 27, 2014; 81 FR 12344, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.535" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.535   Informal resolution and hearing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Informal resolution.</I> The HHS appeals process will provide an opportunity for informal resolution and a hearing in accordance with the requirements of this section. A State Exchange appeals entity may also provide an informal resolution process prior to a hearing. Any information resolution process must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The process complies with the scope of review specified in paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The appellant's right to a hearing is preserved in any case in which the appellant remains dissatisfied with the outcome of the informal resolution process;
</P>
<P>(3) If the appeal advances to hearing, the appellant is not asked to provide duplicative information or documentation that he or she previously provided during the application or informal resolution process; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the appeal does not advance to hearing, the informal resolution decision is final and binding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> When a hearing is scheduled, the appeals entity must send written notice to the appellant and the appellant's authorized representative, if any, of the date, time, and location or format of the hearing no later than 15 days prior to the hearing date unless—
</P>
<P>(1) The appellant requests an earlier hearing date; or
</P>
<P>(2) A hearing date sooner than 15 days is necessary to process an expedited appeal, as described in § 155.540(a), and the appeals entity has contacted the appellant to schedule a hearing on a mutually agreed upon date, time, and location or format.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conducting the hearing.</I> All hearings under this subpart must be conducted—
</P>
<P>(1) At a reasonable date, time, and location or format;
</P>
<P>(2) After notice of the hearing, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) As an evidentiary hearing, consistent with paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) By one or more impartial officials who have not been directly involved in the eligibility determination or any prior Exchange appeal decisions in the same matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedural rights of an appellant.</I> The appeals entity must provide the appellant with the opportunity to—
</P>
<P>(1) Review his or her appeal record, including all documents and records to be used by the appeals entity at the hearing, at a reasonable time before the date of the hearing as well as during the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) Bring witnesses to testify;
</P>
<P>(3) Establish all relevant facts and circumstances;
</P>
<P>(4) Present an argument without undue interference; and
</P>
<P>(5) Question or refute any testimony or evidence, including the opportunity to confront and cross-examine adverse witnesses.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Information and evidence to be considered.</I> The appeals entity must consider the information used to determine the appellant's eligibility as well as any additional relevant evidence presented during the course of the appeals process, including at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Standard of review.</I> The appeals entity will review the appeal <I>de novo</I> and will consider all relevant facts and evidence adduced during the appeals process.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 12344, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.540" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.540   Expedited appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expedited appeals.</I> The appeals entity must establish and maintain an expedited appeals process for an appellant to request an expedited process where there is an immediate need for health services because a standard appeal could jeopardize the appellant's life, health, or ability to attain, maintain, or regain maximum function.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Denial of a request for expedited appeal.</I> If the appeals entity denies a request for an expedited appeal, it must—
</P>
<P>(1) Handle the appeal request under the standard process and issue the appeal decision in accordance with § 155.545(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the appellant, promptly and without undue delay, through electronic or oral notification, if possible, of the denial and, if notification is oral, follow up with the appellant by written notice, within the timeframe established by the Secretary. Written notice of the denial must include—
</P>
<P>(i) The reason for the denial;
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation that the appeal request will be transferred to the standard process; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of the appellant's rights under the standard process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.545" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.545   Appeal decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeal decisions.</I> Appeal decisions must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be based exclusively on the information and evidence specified in § 155.535(e) and the eligibility requirements under subpart D or G of this part, as applicable, and if the Medicaid or CHIP agencies delegate authority to conduct the Medicaid fair hearing or CHIP review to the appeals entity in accordance with 42 CFR 431.10(c)(1)(ii) or 457.1120, the eligibility requirements under 42 CFR parts 435 and 457, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) State the decision, including a plain language description of the effect of the decision on the appellant's eligibility;
</P>
<P>(3) Summarize the facts relevant to the appeal;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify the legal basis, including the regulations that support the decision;
</P>
<P>(5) State the effective date of the decision; and
</P>
<P>(6) If the appeals entity is a State Exchange appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(i) Provide an explanation of the appellant's right to pursue the appeal before the HHS appeals entity, including the applicable timeframe, if the appellant remains dissatisfied with the eligibility determination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Indicate that the decision of the State Exchange appeals entity is final, unless the appellant pursues the appeal before the HHS appeals entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of appeal decision.</I> The appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(1) Must issue written notice of the appeal decision to the appellant within 90 days of the date an appeal request under § 155.520(b) or (c) is received, as administratively feasible.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an appeal request submitted under § 155.540 that the appeals entity determines meets the criteria for an expedited appeal, must issue the notice as expeditiously as reasonably possible, consistent with the timeframe established by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) Must provide notice of the appeal decision and instructions to cease pended eligibility to the appellant, if applicable, via secure electronic interface, to the Exchange or the Medicaid or CHIP agency, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Implementation of appeal decisions.</I> The Exchange, upon receiving the notice described in paragraph (b), must promptly—
</P>
<P>(1) Implement the appeal decision effective—
</P>
<P>(i) Prospectively, on the first day of the month following the date of the notice of appeal decision, or consistent with § 155.330(f)(2), (3), (4), or (5), if applicable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Retroactively, to the coverage effective date the appellant did receive or would have received if the appellant had enrolled in coverage under the incorrect eligibility determination that is the subject of the appeal, at the option of the appellant.
</P>
<P>(2) Redetermine the eligibility of household members who have not appealed their own eligibility determinations but whose eligibility may be affected by the appeal decision, in accordance with the standards specified in § 155.305.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 12345, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.550" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.550   Appeal record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appellant access to the appeal record.</I> Subject to the requirements of all applicable Federal and State laws regarding privacy, confidentiality, disclosure, and personally identifiable information, the appeals entity must make the appeal record accessible to the appellant at a convenient place and time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public access to the appeal decision.</I> The appeals entity must provide public access to all appeal decisions, subject to all applicable Federal and State laws regarding privacy, confidentiality, disclosure, and personally identifiable information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.555" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.6.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.555   Employer appeals process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The provisions of this section apply to employer appeals processes through which an employer may, in response to a notice under § 155.310(h), appeal a determination that the employer does not provide minimum essential coverage through an employer-sponsored plan or that the employer does provide that coverage but it is not affordable coverage with respect to an employee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exchange employer appeals process.</I> An Exchange may establish an employer appeals process in accordance with the requirements of this section and §§ 155.505(f) through (h) and 155.510(a)(1) and (2) and (c). Where an Exchange has not established an employer appeals process, HHS will provide an employer appeals process that meets the requirements of this section and §§ 155.505(f) through (h) and 155.510(a)(1) and (2) and (c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeal request.</I> The Exchange and appeals entity, as applicable, must—
</P>
<P>(1) Allow an employer to request an appeal within 90 days from the date the notice described under § 155.310(h) is sent;
</P>
<P>(2) Allow an employer to submit relevant evidence to support the appeal;
</P>
<P>(3) Allow an employer to submit an appeal request to—
</P>
<P>(i) The Exchange or the Exchange appeals entity, if the Exchange establishes an employer appeals process; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The HHS appeals entity, if the Exchange has not established an employer appeals process;
</P>
<P>(4) Comply with the requirements of § 155.520(a)(1) through (3); and
</P>
<P>(5) Consider an appeal request valid if it is submitted in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section and with the purpose of appealing the determination identified in the notice specified in § 155.310(h).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of appeal request.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a valid appeal request, the appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(i) Send timely acknowledgement of the receipt of the appeal request to the employer, including an explanation of the appeals process;
</P>
<P>(ii) Send timely notice to the employee of the receipt of the appeal request, including—
</P>
<P>(A) An explanation of the appeals process;
</P>
<P>(B) Instructions for submitting additional evidence for consideration by the appeals entity; and
</P>
<P>(C) An explanation of the potential effect of the employer's appeal on the employee's eligibility.
</P>
<P>(iii) Promptly notify the Exchange of the appeal, if the employer did not initially make the appeal request to the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of an invalid appeal request, the appeals entity must promptly and without undue delay send written notice to the employer that the appeal request is not valid because it fails to meet the requirements of this section. The written notice must inform the employer—
</P>
<P>(i) That the appeal request has not been accepted;
</P>
<P>(ii) About the nature of the defect in the appeal request; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That the employer may cure the defect and resubmit the appeal request by the date determined under paragraph (c) of this section, or within a reasonable timeframe established by the appeals entity.
</P>
<P>(iv) Treat as valid an amended appeal request that meets the requirements of this section, including standards for timeliness.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transmittal and receipt of records.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a valid appeal request under this section, or upon receipt of the notice under paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section, the Exchange must promptly transmit via secure electronic interface to the appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(i) The appeal request, if the appeal request was initially made to the Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee's eligibility record.
</P>
<P>(2) The appeals entity must promptly confirm receipt of records transmitted pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section to the entity that transmitted the records.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dismissal of appeal.</I> The appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(1) Must dismiss an appeal under the circumstances specified in § 155.530(a)(1) or if the request fails to comply with the standards in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Must provide timely notice of the dismissal to the employer, employee, and Exchange including the reason for dismissal; and
</P>
<P>(3) May vacate a dismissal if the employer makes a written request within 30 days of the date of the notice of dismissal showing good cause as to why the dismissal should be vacated.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Procedural rights of the employer.</I> The appeals entity must provide the employer the opportunity to—
</P>
<P>(1) Provide relevant evidence for review of the determination of an employee's eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit or cost-sharing reductions;
</P>
<P>(2) Review—
</P>
<P>(i) The information described in § 155.310(h)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) Information regarding whether the employee's income is above or below the threshold by which the affordability of employer-sponsored minimum essential coverage is measured, as set forth by standards described in 26 CFR 1.36B; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Other data used to make the determination described in § 155.305(f) or (g), to the extent allowable by law, except the information described in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Confidentiality of employee information.</I> Neither the Exchange nor the appeals entity may make available to an employer any tax return information of an employee as prohibited by section 6103 of the Code.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Adjudication of employer appeals.</I> Employer appeals must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be reviewed by one or more impartial officials who have not been directly involved in the employee eligibility determination implicated in the appeal;
</P>
<P>(2) Consider the information used to determine the employee's eligibility as well as any additional relevant evidence provided by the employer or the employee during the course of the appeal; and
</P>
<P>(3) Be reviewed <I>de novo.</I>
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Appeal decisions.</I> Employer appeal decisions must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be based exclusively on the information and evidence described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section and the eligibility standards in 45 CFR part 155, subpart D;
</P>
<P>(2) State the decision, including a plain language description of the effect of the decision on the employee's eligibility; and
</P>
<P>(3) Comply with the requirements set forth in § 155.545(a)(3) through (5).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Notice of appeal decision.</I> The appeals entity must provide written notice of the appeal decision within 90 days of the date the appeal request is received, as administratively feasible, to—
</P>
<P>(1) The employer. Such notice must include—
</P>
<P>(i) The appeal decision; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation that the appeal decision does not foreclose any appeal rights the employer may have under subtitle F of the Code.
</P>
<P>(2) The employee. Such notice must include—
</P>
<P>(i) The appeal decision; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation that the employee and his or her household members, if applicable, may appeal a redetermination of eligibility that occurs as a result of the appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(3) The Exchange.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Implementation of the appeal decision.</I> After receipt of the notice under paragraph (k)(3) of this section, if the appeal decision affects the employee's eligibility, the Exchange must promptly:
</P>
<P>(1) Redetermine the employee's eligibility and the eligibility of the employee's household members, if applicable, in accordance with the standards specified in § 155.305; or
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the employee of the requirement to report changes in eligibility as described in § 155.330(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Appeal record.</I> Subject to the requirements of § 155.550 and paragraph (h) of this section, the appeal record must be accessible to the employer and to the employee in a convenient format and at a convenient time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54136, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30349, May 27, 2014; 81 FR 12345, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94179, Dec. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Exchange Functions in the Individual Market: Eligibility Determinations for Exemptions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 39523, July 1, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.600" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.600   Definitions and general requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the following terms have the following meaning:
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means an individual who is seeking an exemption for him or herself through an application submitted to the Exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Application filer</I> means an applicant, an individual who is liable for the shared responsibility payment in accordance with section 5000A of the Code for an applicant, an authorized representative, or if the applicant is a minor or incapacitated, someone acting responsibly for an applicant.
</P>
<P><I>Exemption</I> means an exemption from the shared responsibility payment.
</P>
<P><I>Health care sharing ministry</I> has the same meaning as it does in section 5000A(d)(2)(B)(ii) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Indian tribe</I> has the same meaning as it does in section 45A(c)(6) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Required contribution</I> has the same meaning as it does in section 5000A(e)(1)(B) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Required contribution percentage</I> means the product of eight percent and the rate of premium growth over the rate of income growth for the calendar year, rounded to the nearest one-hundredth of one percent.
</P>
<P><I>Shared responsibility payment</I> means the payment imposed with respect to a non-exempt individual who does not maintain minimum essential coverage in accordance with section 5000A(b) of the Code.
</P>
<P><I>Tax filer</I> has the same meaning as it does in § 155.300(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Attestation.</I> For the purposes of this subpart, any attestation that an applicant is to provide under this subpart may be made by the application filer on behalf of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reasonably compatible.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the Exchange must consider information through electronic data sources, other information provided by the applicant, or other information in the records of the Exchange to be reasonably compatible with an applicant's attestation if the difference or discrepancy does not impact the eligibility of the applicant for the exemption or exemptions for which he or she applied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accessibility.</I> Information, including notices, forms, and applications, must be provided to applicants in accordance with the standards specified in § 155.205(c).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notices.</I> Any notice required to be sent by the Exchange to an individual in accordance with this subpart must be provided in accordance with the standards specified in § 155.230.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 39523, July 1, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30349, May 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.605" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.605   Eligibility standards for exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility for an exemption through the Exchange.</I> Except as specified in paragraph (g) of this section, the Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for and issue a certificate of exemption for any month if the Exchange determines that he or she meets the requirements for one or more of the categories of exemptions described in this section for at least one day of the month.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of single exemption.</I> Except as specified in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, the Exchange may provide a certificate of exemption only for the calendar year in which an applicant submitted an application for such exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Religious conscience.</I> (1) The Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for an exemption for any month if the applicant is a member of a recognized religious sect or division described in section 1402(g)(1) of the Code, and an adherent of established tenets or teachings of such sect or division, for such month in accordance with section 5000A(d)(2)(A) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duration of exemption for religious conscience.</I> (i) The Exchange must grant the certificate of exemption specified in this paragraph to an applicant who meets the standards provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for a month on a continuing basis, until the month after the month of the individual's 21st birthday, or until such time that an individual reports that he or she no longer meets the standards provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Exchange granted a certificate of exemption in this category to an applicant prior to his or her reaching the age of 21, the Exchange must send the applicant a notice upon reaching the age of 21 informing the applicant that he or she must submit a new exemption application to maintain the certificate of exemption.
</P>
<P>(3) The Exchange must make an exemption in this category available prospectively or retrospectively.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hardship</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The Exchange must grant a hardship exemption to an applicant eligible for an exemption for at least the month before, the month or months during which, and the month after a specific event or circumstance, if the Exchange determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) He or she experienced financial or domestic circumstances, including an unexpected natural or human-caused event, such that he or she had a significant, unexpected increase in essential expenses that prevented him or her from obtaining coverage under a qualified health plan;


</P>
<P>(ii) The expense of purchasing a qualified health plan would have caused him or her to experience serious deprivation of food, shelter, clothing or other necessities;


</P>
<P>(iii) He or she has experienced other circumstances that prevented him or her from obtaining coverage under a qualified health plan; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The applicant, or if the applicant is a tax dependent, the tax filer claiming the applicant as a dependent, has a projected household income that does not qualify them as an applicable taxpayer according to 26 CFR 1.36B-2(b) or does not qualify them for cost-sharing reductions according to 45 CFR 155.305(g)(1)(i)(C).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lack of affordable coverage based on projected income.</I> The Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for an exemption for a month or months during which he or she, or another individual the applicant attests will be included in the applicant's family, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(d), is unable to afford coverage in accordance with the standards specified in section 5000A(e)(1) of the Code, provided that—
</P>
<P>(i) Eligibility for this exemption is based on projected annual household income;
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible employer-sponsored plan is only considered under paragraphs (d)(4)(iii) and (iv) of this section if it meets the minimum value standard described in § 156.145 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) For an individual who is eligible to purchase coverage under an eligible employer-sponsored plan, the Exchange determines the required contribution for coverage such that—
</P>
<P>(A) An individual who uses tobacco is treated as not earning any premium incentive related to participation in a wellness program designed to prevent or reduce tobacco use that is offered by an eligible employer-sponsored plan;
</P>
<P>(B) Wellness incentives offered by an eligible employer-sponsored plan that do not relate to tobacco use are treated as not earned;
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of an employee who is eligible to purchase coverage under an eligible employer-sponsored plan sponsored by the employee's employer, the required contribution is the portion of the annual premium that the employee would pay (whether through salary reduction or otherwise) for the lowest cost self-only coverage.
</P>
<P>(D) In the case of an individual who is eligible to purchase coverage under an eligible employer-sponsored plan as a member of the employee's family, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(d), the required contribution is the portion of the annual premium that the employee would pay (whether through salary reduction or otherwise) for the lowest cost family coverage that would cover the employee and all other individuals who are included in the employee's family who have not otherwise been granted an exemption through the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(iv) For an individual who is ineligible to purchase coverage under an eligible employer-sponsored plan, the Exchange determines the required contribution for coverage in accordance with section 5000A(e)(1)(B)(ii) of the Code, inclusive of all members of the family, as defined in 26 CFR 1.36B-1(d), who have not otherwise been granted an exemption through the Exchange and who are not treated as eligible to purchase coverage under an eligible employer-sponsored plan, in accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section. If there is not a bronze level plan offered through the Exchange in the individual's county, the Exchange must use the annual premium for the lowest cost Exchange metal level plan, excluding catastrophic coverage, available in the individual market through the Exchange in the State in the county in which the individual resides to determine whether coverage exceeds the affordability threshold specified in section 5000A(e)(1) of the Code; and
</P>
<P>(v) The applicant applies for this exemption prior to the last date on which he or she could enroll in a QHP through the Exchange for the month or months of a calendar year for which the exemption is requested.
</P>
<P>(vi) The Exchange must make an exemption in this category available prospectively, and provide it for all remaining months in a coverage year, notwithstanding any change in an individual's circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ineligible for Medicaid based on a State's decision not to expand.</I> The Exchange must determine an applicant eligible for an exemption for a calendar year if he or she would be determined ineligible for Medicaid for one or more months during the benefit year solely as a result of a State not implementing section 2001(a) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligibility for an exemption through the IRS.</I> Hardship exemptions in this paragraph (e) can be claimed on a Federal income tax return without obtaining an exemption certificate number. The IRS may allow an individual to claim the hardship exemptions described in this paragraph (e) without requiring an exemption certificate number from the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Filing threshold.</I> The IRS may allow an applicant to claim an exemption specified in HHS Guidance published September 18, 2014, entitled, “Shared Responsibility Guidance—Filing Threshold Hardship Exemption,” and in IRS Notice 2014-76, section B (see <I>https://www.cms.gov/cciio/</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Self-only coverage in an eligible employer-sponsored plan.</I> The IRS may allow an applicant to claim an exemption specified in HHS Guidance published November 21, 2014, entitled, “Guidance on Hardship Exemptions for Persons Meeting Certain Criteria,” and in IRS Notice 2014-76, section A (see <I>https://www.cms.gov/cciio/</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligible for services through an Indian health care provider.</I> The IRS may allow an applicant to claim the exemption specified in HHS Guidance published September 18, 2014, entitled, “Shared Responsibility Guidance—Exemption for Individuals Eligible for Services through an Indian Health Care Provider,” and in IRS Notice 2014-76, section E (see <I>https://www.cms.gov/cciio/</I>).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Ineligible for Medicaid based on a State's decision not to expand.</I> The IRS may allow an applicant to claim the exemption specified in HHS Guidance published November 21, 2014, entitled, “Guidance on Hardship Exemptions for Persons Meeting Certain Criteria,” and in IRS Notice 2014-76, section F (see <I>https://www.cms.gov/cciio/</I>).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>General hardship.</I> The IRS may allow an applicant to claim the exemption specified in HHS Guidance published September 12, 2018, entitled, “Guidance on Claiming a Hardship Exemption through the Internal Revenue Service (IRS)” (see <I>https://www.cms.gov/CCIIO/Resources/Regulations-and-Guidance/Downloads/Authority-to-Grant-HS-Exemptions-2018-Final-91218.pdf</I>) and in IRS Notice 2019-05 (see <I>https://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-drop/n-19-05.pdf</I>), for the 2018 tax year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 39523, July 1, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30349, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10868, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12345, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17063, Apr. 17, 2018; 84 FR 17567, Apr. 25, 2019; 91 FR 29868, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.610" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.610   Eligibility process for exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> Except as specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the Exchange must use an application established by HHS to collect information necessary for determining eligibility for and granting certificates of exemption as described in § 155.605.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative application.</I> If the Exchange seeks to use an alternative application, such application, as approved by HHS, must request the minimum information necessary for the purposes identified in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions through the eligibility process for coverage.</I> If an individual submits the application described in § 155.405 and then requests an exemption, the Exchange must use information collected for purposes of the eligibility determination for enrollment in a QHP and for insurance affordability programs in making the exemption eligibility determination, and must not request duplicate information or conduct repeat verifications to the extent that the Exchange finds that such information is still applicable, where the standards for such verifications adhere to the standards specified in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing the exemption application.</I> The Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Accept the application from an application filer; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the tools to file an application.
</P>
<P>(3) For applications submitted before October 15, 2014, the Exchange must, at a minimum, accept the application by mail.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Collection of Social Security numbers.</I> (1) The Exchange must require an applicant who has a Social Security number to provide such number to the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange may not require an individual who is not seeking an exemption for himself or herself to provide a Social Security number, except as specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The Exchange must require an application filer to provide the Social Security number of a tax filer who is not an applicant only if an applicant attests that the tax filer has a Social Security number and filed a tax return for the year for which tax data would be utilized for verification of household income and family size for an exemption under § 155.605(g)(2) that requires such verification.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Determination of eligibility; granting of certificates.</I> The Exchange must determine an applicant's eligibility for an exemption in accordance with the standards specified in § 155.605, and grant a certificate of exemption to any applicant determined eligible.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Timeliness standards.</I> (1) The Exchange must determine eligibility for exemption promptly and without undue delay.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must assess the timeliness of eligibility determinations made under this subpart based on the period from the date of application to the date the Exchange notifies the applicant of its decision.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exemptions for previous tax years.</I> (1) Except for the exemptions described in § 155.605(c) and (d), after December 31 of a given calendar year, the Exchange may decline to accept an application for an exemption that is available retrospectively for months for such calendar year, and must provide information to individuals regarding how to claim an exemption through the tax filing process.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange will only accept an application for an exemption described in § 155.605(d)(1) during one of the 3 calendar years after the month or months during which the applicant attests that the hardship occurred.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notification of eligibility determination for exemptions.</I> The Exchange must provide timely written notice to an applicant of any eligibility determination made in accordance with this subpart. In the case of a determination that an applicant is eligible for an exemption, this notification must include the exemption certificate number for the purposes of tax administration.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Retention of records for tax compliance.</I> (1) An Exchange must notify an individual to retain the records that demonstrate receipt of the certificate of exemption and qualification for the underlying exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of any factor of eligibility that is verified through use of the special circumstances exception described in § 155.615(h), the records that demonstrate qualification for the underlying exemption are the information submitted to the Exchange regarding the circumstances that warranted the use of the exception, as well as records of the Exchange decision to allow such exception.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Incomplete application.</I> (1) If an applicant submits an application that does not include sufficient information for the Exchange to conduct a determination for eligibility of an exemption the Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(i) Provide notice to the applicant indicating that information necessary to complete an eligibility determination is missing, specifying the missing information, and providing instructions on how to provide the missing information; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the applicant with a period of no less than 30 and no more than 90 days, in the reasonable discretion of the Exchange, from the date on which the notice described in paragraph (k)(1) of this section is sent to the applicant to provide the information needed to complete the application to the Exchange; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not proceed with the applicant's eligibility determination during the period described in paragraph (k)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Exchange does not receive the requested information within the time allotted in paragraph (k)(1)(ii) of this section, the Exchange must notify the applicant in writing that the Exchange cannot process the application and provide appeal rights to the applicant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 39523, July 1, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 12346, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17064, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.615" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.615   Verification process related to eligibility for exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Unless a request for modification is granted under paragraph (i) of this section, the Exchange must verify or obtain information as provided in this section in order to determine that an applicant is eligible for an exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Verification related to exemption for religious conscience.</I> For any applicant who requests an exemption based on religious conscience, the Exchange must verify that he or she meets the standards specified in § 155.605(c) by—
</P>
<P>(1) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, accepting a form that reflects that he or she is exempt from Social Security and Medicare taxes under section 1402(g)(1) of the Code;
</P>
<P>(2) Except as specified in paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section, accepting his or her attestation of membership in a religious sect or division, and verifying that the religious sect or division to which the applicant attests membership is recognized by the Social Security Administration as an approved religious sect or division under section 1402(g)(1) of the Code.
</P>
<P>(3) If information provided by an applicant regarding his or her membership in a religious sect or division is not reasonably compatible with other information provided by the individual or in the records of the Exchange, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) If an applicant attests to membership in a religious sect or division that is not recognized by the Social Security Administration as an approved religious sect or division under section 1402(g)(1) of the Code, the Exchange must provide the applicant with information regarding how his or her religious sect or division can pursue recognition under section 1402(g)(1) of the Code, and determine the applicant ineligible for this exemption until such time as the Exchange obtains information indicating that the religious sect or division has been approved.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification related to exemption for hardship</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For any applicant who requests an exemption based on hardship, except for the hardship exemptions described in § 155.605(d)(1)(i) and (iv), the Exchange must verify whether he or she has experienced the hardship to which he or she is attesting.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lack of affordable coverage based on projected income.</I> (i) For any applicant who requests an exemption based on the hardship described in § 155.605(g)(2), the Exchange must verify the unavailability of affordable coverage through the procedures used to determine eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit, as specified in subpart D of this part, including the procedures described in § 155.315(c)(1), and the procedures used to verify eligibility for qualifying coverage in an eligible employer-sponsored plan, as specified in § 155.320(d), except as specified in § 155.615(f)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(ii) The Exchange must accept an application filer's attestation for an applicant regarding eligibility for minimum essential coverage other than through an eligible employer-sponsored plan, instead of following the procedures specified in § 155.320(b).
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent that the Exchange is unable to verify any of the information needed to determine an applicant's eligibility for an exemption based on hardship, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inability to verify necessary information.</I> Except as otherwise specified in this subpart, for an applicant for whom the Exchange cannot verify information required to determine eligibility for an exemption, including but not limited to when electronic data is required in accordance with this subpart but data for individuals relevant to the eligibility determination for an exemption are not included in such data sources or when electronic data is required but it is not reasonably expected that data sources will be available within the time period as specified in § 155.315(f), the Exchange—
</P>
<P>(1) Must make a reasonable effort to identify and address the causes of such inconsistency, including typographical or other clerical errors, by contacting the application filer to confirm the accuracy of the information submitted by the application filer;
</P>
<P>(2) If unable to resolve the inconsistency through the process described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, must—
</P>
<P>(i) Provide notice to the applicant regarding the inconsistency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the applicant with a period of 90 days from the date on which the notice described in paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section is sent to the applicant to either present satisfactory documentary evidence via the channels available for the submission of an application, as described in § 155.610(d), except for by telephone, or otherwise to resolve the inconsistency.
</P>
<P>(3) May extend the period described in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section for an applicant if the applicant demonstrates that a good faith effort has been made to obtain the required documentation during the period.
</P>
<P>(4) During the period described in paragraph (g)(1) and (g)(2)(ii) of this section, must not grant a certificate of exemption based on the information subject to this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(5) If, after the period described in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, the Exchange remains unable to verify the attestation, the Exchange must determine the applicant's eligibility for an exemption based on any information available from the data sources used in accordance with this subpart, if applicable, unless such applicant qualifies for the exception provided under paragraph (h) of this section, and notify the applicant of such determination in accordance with the notice requirements specified in § 155.610(i), including notice that the Exchange is unable to verify the attestation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exception for special circumstances.</I> For an applicant who does not have documentation with which to resolve the inconsistency through the process described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section because such documentation does not exist or is not reasonably available and for whom the Exchange is unable to otherwise resolve the inconsistency, the Exchange must provide an exception, on a case-by-case basis, to accept an applicant's attestation as to the information which cannot otherwise be verified along with an explanation of circumstances as to why the applicant does not have documentation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Flexibility in information collection and verification.</I> HHS may approve an Exchange Blueprint in accordance with § 155.105(d) or a significant change to the Exchange Blueprint in accordance with § 155.105(e) to modify the methods to be used for collection of information and verification as set forth in this subpart, as well as the specific information required to be collected, provided that HHS finds that such modification would reduce the administrative costs and burdens on individuals while maintaining accuracy and minimizing delay, and that applicable requirements under §§ 155.260, 155.270, and paragraph (j) of this section, and section 6103 of the Code with respect to the confidentiality, disclosure, maintenance, or use of such information will be met.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicant information.</I> The Exchange may not require an applicant to provide information beyond the minimum necessary to support the eligibility process for exemptions as described in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Validation of Social Security number.</I> (1) For any individual who provides his or her Social Security number to the Exchange, the Exchange must transmit the Social Security number and other identifying information to HHS, which will submit it to the Social Security Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that the Exchange is unable to validate an individual's Social Security number through the Social Security Administration, or the Social Security Administration indicates that the individual is deceased, the Exchange must follow the procedures specified in paragraph (g) of this section, except that the Exchange must provide the individual with a period of 90 days from the date on which the notice described in paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section is received for the applicant to provide satisfactory documentary evidence or resolve the inconsistency with the Social Security Administration. The date on which the notice is received means 5 days after the date on the notice, unless the individual demonstrates that he or she did not receive the notice within the 5 day period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 39523, July 1, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 42322, July 15, 2013; 81 FR 12346, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.620" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.620   Eligibility redeterminations for exemptions during a calendar year.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> The Exchange must redetermine the eligibility of an individual with an exemption granted by the Exchange if it receives and verifies new information reported by such an individual, except for the exemption described in § 155.605(g)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement for individuals to report changes.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the Exchange must require an individual who has a certificate of exemption from the Exchange to report any change with respect to the eligibility standards for the exemption as specified in § 155.605, except for the exemption described in § 155.605(g)(2), within 30 days of such change.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must allow an individual with a certificate of exemption to report changes via the channels available for the submission of an application, as described in § 155.610(d).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of reported changes.</I> The Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Verify any information reported by an individual with a certificate of exemption in accordance with the processes specified in § 155.615 prior to using such information in an eligibility redetermination.
</P>
<P>(2) Notify an individual in accordance with § 155.610(i) after redetermining his or her eligibility based on a reported change.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide periodic electronic notifications regarding the requirements for reporting changes and an individual's opportunity to report any changes, to an individual who has a certificate of exemption for which changes must be reported in accordance with § 155.620(b) and who has elected to receive electronic notifications, unless he or she has declined to receive such notifications.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective date of changes.</I> The Exchange must implement a change resulting from a redetermination under this section for the month or months after the month in which the redetermination occurs, such that a certificate that was provided for the month in which the redetermination occurs, and for prior months remains effective.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.625" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.625   Options for conducting eligibility determinations for exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Options for conducting eligibility determinations.</I> The Exchange may satisfy the requirements of this subpart—
</P>
<P>(1) Directly or through contracting arrangements in accordance with § 155.110(a); or
</P>
<P>(2) By use of the HHS service under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of HHS service.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this subpart, the Exchange may adopt an exemption eligibility determination made by HHS.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administration of hardship exemption based on affordability.</I> States may choose to administer the hardship exemption under § 155.605(d)(2) only and delegate to HHS all other exemption determinations generally administered by HHS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30349, May 27, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 12346, Mar. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.630" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.630   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P><I>Requirement to provide information related to tax administration.</I> If the Exchange grants an individual a certificate of exemption in accordance with § 155.610(i), the Exchange must transmit to the IRS at such time and in such manner as the IRS may specify—
</P>
<P>(a) The individual's name, Social Security number, and exemption certificate number;
</P>
<P>(b) Any other information required in guidance published by the Secretary of the Treasury in accordance with 26 CFR 601.601(d)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.635" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.635   Right to appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For an application submitted before October 15, 2014, the Exchange must include the notice of the right to appeal and instructions regarding how to file an appeal in any notification issued in accordance with § 155.610(i).
</P>
<P>(b) For an application submitted on or after October 15, 2014, the Exchange must include the notice of the right to appeal and instructions regarding how to file an appeal in any notification issued in accordance with §§ 155.610(i) and 155.625(b)(2)(i).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Exchange Functions: Small Business Health Options Program (SHOP)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 18464, Mar. 27, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.700" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.700   Standards for the establishment of a SHOP.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> (1) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2018, an Exchange must provide for the establishment of a SHOP that meets the requirements of this subpart and is designed to assist qualified employers and facilitate the enrollment of qualified employees into qualified health plans.
</P>
<P>(2) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, an Exchange must provide for the establishment of a SHOP that meets the requirements of this subpart and is designed to assist qualified employers in facilitating the enrollment of their employees in qualified health plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> For the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Group participation rate</I> means the minimum percentage of all eligible individuals or employees of an employer that must be enrolled.
</P>
<P><I>SHOP application filer</I> means an applicant, an authorized representative, an agent or broker of the employer, or an employer filing for its employees where not prohibited by other law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18464, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 54141, Aug. 30, 2013; 80 FR 10868, Feb. 27, 2015; 83 FR 17064, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.705" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.705   Functions of a SHOP for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exchange functions that apply to SHOP.</I> The SHOP must carry out all the required functions of an Exchange described in this subpart and in subparts C, E, K, and M of this part, except:
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements related to individual eligibility determinations in subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Requirements related to enrollment of qualified individuals described in subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) The requirement to issue certificates of exemption in accordance with § 155.200(b); and
</P>
<P>(4) Requirements related to the payment of premiums by individuals, Indian tribes, tribal organizations and urban Indian organizations under § 155.240.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unique functions of a SHOP.</I> The SHOP must also provide the following unique functions:
</P>
<P>(1) Enrollment and eligibility functions. The SHOP must adhere to the requirements outlined in subpart H.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employer choice requirements.</I> With regard to QHPs offered through the SHOP for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, the SHOP must allow a qualified employer to select a level of coverage as described in section 1302(d)(1) of the Affordable Care Act, in which all QHPs within that level are made available to the qualified employees of the employer, unless the SHOP makes an election pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>SHOP options with respect to employer choice requirements.</I> (i) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2015, a SHOP may allow a qualified employer to make one or more QHPs available to qualified employees:
</P>
<P>(A) By the method described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(B) By a method other than the method described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the SHOP makes an election pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, a SHOP:
</P>
<P>(A) Must allow an employer to make available to qualified employees all QHPs at the level of coverage selected by the employer as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(B) May allow an employer to make one or more QHPs available to qualified employees by a method other than the method described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2015, a Federally-facilitated SHOP will provide a qualified employer the choice to make available to qualified employees a single QHP.
</P>
<P>(iv) Unless the Secretary makes an election pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, a Federally-facilitated SHOP will provide a qualified employer a choice of two methods to make QHPs available to qualified employees:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer may choose a level of coverage as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(B) The employer may choose a single QHP.
</P>
<P>(v) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, a Federally-facilitated SHOP will provide a qualified employer a choice of two methods to make stand-alone dental plans available to qualified employees and their dependents:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer may choose to make available a single stand-alone dental plan.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer may choose to make available all stand-alone dental plans offered through a Federally-facilitated SHOP at a level of coverage as described in § 156.150(b)(2) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(vi) For plan years beginning in 2015 only, the SHOP may elect to provide employers only with the option set forth at paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, or in the case of a Federally-facilitated SHOP, only with the option set forth at paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(B) of this section, only if the State Insurance Commissioner submits a written recommendation to the SHOP adequately explaining that it is the State Insurance Commissioner's expert judgment, based on a documented assessment of the full landscape of the small group market in his or her State, that not implementing employee choice would be in the best interests of small employers and their employees and dependents, given the likelihood that implementing employee choice would cause issuers to price products and plans higher in 2015 due to the issuers' beliefs about adverse selection. A State Insurance Commissioner's recommendation must be based on concrete evidence, including but not limited to discussions with those issuers expected to participate in the SHOP in 2015.
</P>
<P>(vii) For plan years beginning in 2015 only, a State Insurance Commissioner should submit the recommendation specified in paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section, and the SHOP should make a decision based on that recommendation sufficiently in advance of the end of the QHP certification application window such that issuers can make informed decisions about whether to participate in the SHOP. In a Federally-facilitated-SHOP, State Insurance Commissioners must submit to HHS the recommendation specified in paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section on or before June 2, 2014, and HHS will make a decision based on any recommendations submitted by that deadline before the close of the QHP certification application window.
</P>
<P>(viii) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, a Federally-facilitated SHOP will provide a qualified employer a choice of at least the two methods to make QHPs available to qualified employees and their dependents described in paragraphs (b)(3)(viii)(A) and (B) of this section, and may also provide a qualified employer with a choice of a third method to make QHPs available to qualified employees and their dependents as described in paragraph (b)(3)(viii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer may choose a level of coverage as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The employer may choose a single QHP; or
</P>
<P>(C) The employer may offer its qualified employees a choice of all QHPs offered through a Federally-facilitated SHOP by a single issuer across all available levels of coverage, as described in section 1302(d)(1) of the Affordable Care Act and implemented in § 156.140(b) of this subchapter. A State with a Federally-facilitated SHOP may recommend that the Federally-facilitated SHOP not make this additional option available in that State, by submitting a letter to HHS in advance of the annual QHP certification application deadline, by a date to be established by HHS. The State's letter must describe and justify the State's recommendation, based on the anticipated impact this additional option would have on the small group market and consumers.
</P>
<P>(ix) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, a Federally-facilitated SHOP will provide a qualified employer a choice of at least the two methods to make stand-alone dental plans available to qualified employees and their dependents described in paragraphs (b)(3)(ix)(A) and (B) of this section, and may also provide a qualified employer with a choice of a third method to make stand-alone dental plans available to qualified employees and their dependents as described in paragraph (b)(3)(ix)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The employer may choose to make available a single stand-alone dental plan;
</P>
<P>(B) The employer may choose to make available all stand-alone dental plans offered through a Federally-facilitated SHOP at a level of coverage as described in § 156.150(b)(2) of this subchapter; or
</P>
<P>(C) The employer may offer its qualified employees a choice of all stand-alone dental plans offered through a Federally-facilitated SHOP by a single issuer across all available levels of coverage, as described in § 156.150(b)(2) of this subchapter. A State with a Federally-facilitated SHOP may recommend that the Federally-facilitated SHOP not make this additional option available in that State, by submitting a letter to HHS in advance of the annual QHP certification application deadline, by a date to be established by HHS. The State's letter must describe and justify the State's recommendation, based on the anticipated impact this additional option would have on the small group market and consumers.
</P>
<P>(x) States operating a State-based Exchange utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP enrollment functions will have the same employer choice models available as States with a Federally-facilitated SHOP, except that a State with a State-based Exchange utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP enrollment functions may decide against offering the employer choice models specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(viii)(C) and (b)(3)(ix)(C) of this section in that State, provided that the State notifies HHS of that decision in advance of the annual QHP certification application deadline, by a date to be established by HHS.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) <I>Premium aggregation.</I> Consistent with the effective dates set forth in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, the SHOP must perform the following functions related to premium payment administration:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide each qualified employer with a bill on a monthly basis that identifies the employer contribution, the employee contribution, and the total amount that is due to the QHP issuers from the qualified employer;
</P>
<P>(B) Collect from each employer the total amount due and make payments to QHP issuers in the SHOP for all enrollees except as provided for in paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(A) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Maintain books, records, documents, and other evidence of accounting procedures and practices of the premium aggregation program for each benefit year for at least 10 years.
</P>
<P>(ii) The SHOP may establish one or more standard processes for premium calculation, premium payment, and premium collection.
</P>
<P>(A) The SHOP may, upon an election by a qualified employer, enter into an agreement with a qualified employer to facilitate the administration of continuation coverage by collecting premiums for continuation coverage enrolled in through the SHOP directly from a person enrolled in continuation coverage through the SHOP consistent with applicable law and the terms of the group health plan, and remitting premium payments for this coverage to QHP issuers. A Federally-facilitated SHOP may elect to limit this service to the collection of premiums related to continuation coverage required under 29 U.S.C. 1161, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Qualified employers in a Federally-facilitated SHOP must make premium payments according to a timeline and process established by HHS:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In a Federally-facilitated SHOP, payment for the group's first month of coverage must be received by the premium aggregation services vendor on or before the 20th day of the month prior to the month that coverage begins.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In a Federally-facilitated SHOP, when coverage is effectuated retroactively, payment for the first month's coverage and all months of the retroactive coverage must be received and processed no later than 30 days after the event that triggers the eligibility for retroactive coverage. If payment is received on or before the 20th day of a month, coverage will be effectuated upon the first day of the following month retroactive to the effective date of coverage. If payment is received after the 20th day of a month, coverage will be effectuated upon the first day of the second following month retroactive to the effective date of coverage, provided that the payment includes the premium for the intervening month.
</P>
<P>(C) For a Federally-facilitated SHOP, the premium for coverage lasting less than 1 month must equal the product of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The premium for 1 month of coverage divided by the number of days in the month; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The number of days for which coverage is being provided in the month described in paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Effective dates.</I> (A) A State-based SHOP may elect to perform these functions for plan years beginning before January 1, 2015, but need not do so.
</P>
<P>(B) A Federally-facilitated SHOP will perform these functions only in plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>QHP Certification.</I> With respect to certification of QHPs in the small group market, the SHOP must ensure each QHP meets the requirements specified in § 156.285 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rates and rate changes.</I> The SHOP must—
</P>
<P>(i) Require all QHP issuers to make any change to rates at a uniform time that is no more frequently than quarterly.
</P>
<P>(A) In a Federally-facilitated SHOP, rates may be updated quarterly with effective dates of January 1, April 1, July 1, or October 1 of each calendar year, beginning with rates effective no sooner than July 1, 2014. The updated rates must be submitted to HHS at least 60 days in advance of the effective date of the rates.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibit all QHP issuers from varying rates for a qualified employer during the employer's plan year.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>QHP availability in merged markets.</I> If a State merges the individual market and the small group market risk pools in accordance with section 1312(c)(3) of the Affordable Care Act, the SHOP may permit a qualified employee to enroll in any QHP meeting level of coverage requirements described in section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>QHP availability in unmerged markets.</I> If a State does not merge the individual and small group market risk pools, the SHOP must permit each qualified employee to enroll only in QHPs in the small group market.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>SHOP expansion to large group market.</I> If a State elects to expand the SHOP to the large group market, a SHOP must allow issuers of health insurance coverage in the large group market in the State to offer QHPs in such market through a SHOP beginning in 2017 provided that a large employer meets the qualified employer requirements other than that it be a small employer.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Participation rules.</I> Subject to § 147.104 of this subchapter, the SHOP may authorize a uniform group participation rate for the offering of health insurance coverage in the SHOP, which must be a single, uniform rate that applies to all groups and issuers in the SHOP. If the SHOP authorizes a minimum participation rate, such rate must be based on the rate of employee participation in the SHOP, not on the rate of employee participation in any particular QHP or QHPs of any particular issuer.
</P>
<P>(i) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2016, subject to § 147.104 of this subchapter, a Federally-facilitated SHOP must use a minimum participation rate of 70 percent, calculated as the number of qualified employees accepting coverage under the employer's group health plan, divided by the number of qualified employees offered coverage, excluding from the calculation any employee who, at the time the employer submits the SHOP application, is enrolled in coverage through another employer's group health plan or through a governmental plan such as Medicare, Medicaid, or TRICARE. For purposes of this calculation, qualified employees who are former employees will not be counted.
</P>
<P>(ii) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2016, subject to § 147.104 of this subchapter, a Federally-facilitated SHOP must use a minimum participation rate of 70 percent, calculated as the number of full-time employees accepting coverage offered by a qualified employer plus the number of full-time employees who, at the time the employer submits the SHOP group enrollment, are enrolled in coverage through another group health plan, governmental coverage (such as Medicare, Medicaid, or TRICARE), coverage sold through the individual market, or in other minimum essential coverage, divided by the number of full-time employees offered coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(10)(i) and (ii) of this section, a Federally-facilitated SHOP may utilize a different minimum participation rate in a State if there is evidence that a State law sets a minimum participation rate or that a higher or lower minimum participation rate is customarily used by the majority of QHP issuers in that State for products in the State's small group market outside the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Premium calculator.</I> In the SHOP, the premium calculator described in § 155.205(b)(6) must facilitate the comparison of available QHPs after the application of any applicable employer contribution in lieu of any advance payment of the premium tax credit and any cost sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(i) To determine the employer and employee contributions, a SHOP may establish one or more standard methods that employers may use to define their contributions toward employee and dependent coverage.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federally-facilitated SHOP must use the following method for employer contributions:
</P>
<P>(A) When the employer offers a single plan to qualified employees, the employer must use a fixed contribution methodology under which the employer contributes a fixed percentage of the plan's premium for each qualified employee and, if applicable, for each dependent of a qualified employee. The employer's contribution is calculated based on an enrollee's premium before any applicable tobacco surcharge, based on the total premium owed for the enrollee, is applied.
</P>
<P>(B) When the employer offers a choice of plans to qualified employees, the employer may use a fixed contribution methodology or a reference plan contribution methodology. Under the fixed contribution methodology, the employer contributes a fixed percentage of the premiums for each qualified employee and, if applicable, for each dependent of a qualified employee, across all plans in which any qualified employee, and, if applicable, any dependent of a qualified employee, is enrolled. Under the reference plan contribution methodology, the employer will select a plan from among the plans offered by the employer as described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section to serve as a reference plan on which contributions will be based, and then will define a percentage contribution toward premiums under the reference plan; the resulting contribution amounts under the reference plan will be applied toward any plan in which a qualified employee or, if applicable, any dependent of a qualified employee, is enrolled, up to the lesser of the contribution amount or the total amount of any premium for the selected plan before application of a tobacco surcharge, if applicable. The employer's contribution is calculated based on an enrollee's premium before any applicable tobacco surcharge, based on the total premium owed for the enrollee, is applied.
</P>
<P>(C) The employer will define a percentage contribution toward premiums for employee-only coverage and, if dependent coverage is offered, a percentage contribution toward premiums for dependent coverage. To the extent permitted by other applicable law, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, a Federally-facilitated SHOP may permit an employer to define a different percentage contribution for full-time employees from the percentage contribution it defines for non-full-time employees, and it may permit an employer to define a different percentage contribution for dependent coverage for full-time employees from the percentage contribution it defines for dependent coverage for non-full-time employees.
</P>
<P>(D) A Federally-facilitated SHOP may permit employers to base contributions on a calculated composite premium for employees, for adult dependents, and for dependents below age 21.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coordination with individual market Exchange for eligibility determinations.</I> A SHOP must provide data related to eligibility and enrollment of a qualified employee to the individual market Exchange that corresponds to the service area of the SHOP, unless the SHOP is operated pursuant to § 155.100(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duties of Navigators in the SHOP.</I> In States that have elected to operate only a SHOP pursuant to § 155.100(a)(2), at State option and if State law permits the Navigator duties described in § 155.210(e)(3) and (4) may be fulfilled through referrals to agents and brokers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018. Section 155.706 is applicable for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18464, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15533, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 33239, June 4, 2013; 78 FR 54141, Aug. 30, 2013; 78 FR 79620, Dec. 31, 2013; 79 FR 13838, Mar. 11, 2014; 79 FR 30349, May 27, 2014; 79 FR 59138, Oct. 1, 2014; 80 FR 10868, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12346, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17064, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.706" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.706   Functions of a SHOP for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exchange functions that apply to SHOP.</I> The SHOP must carry out all the required functions of an Exchange described in this subpart and in subparts C, E, K, and M of this part, except:
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements related to individual eligibility determinations in subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Requirements related to enrollment of qualified individuals described in subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) The requirement to issue certificates of exemption in accordance with § 155.200(b); and
</P>
<P>(4) Requirements related to the payment of premiums by individuals, Indian tribes, tribal organizations and urban Indian organizations under § 155.240.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unique functions of a SHOP.</I> The SHOP must also provide the following unique functions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enrollment and eligibility functions.</I> The SHOP must adhere to the requirements outlined in subpart H.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employer choice requirements.</I> The SHOP must allow a qualified employer to select a level of coverage as described in section 1302(d)(1) of the Affordable Care Act, in which all QHPs within that level are made available to the qualified employees of the employer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>SHOP options with respect to employer choice requirements.</I> (i) A SHOP:
</P>
<P>(A) Must allow an employer to make available to qualified employees all QHPs at the level of coverage selected by the employer as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(B) May allow an employer to make one or more QHPs available to qualified employees by a method other than the method described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federally-facilitated SHOP will provide a qualified employer a choice of two methods to make QHPs available to qualified employees:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer may choose a level of coverage as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(B) The employer may choose a single QHP.
</P>
<P>(iii) A SHOP may, and a Federally-facilitated SHOP will provide a qualified employer a choice of two methods to make stand-alone dental plans available to qualified employees:
</P>
<P>(A) The employer may choose to make available a single stand-alone dental plan.
</P>
<P>(B) The employer may choose to make available all stand-alone dental plans offered through a SHOP.
</P>
<P>(iv) A SHOP may also provide a qualified employer with a choice of a third method to make QHPs available to qualified employees by offering its qualified employees a choice of all QHPs offered through the SHOP by a single issuer across all available levels of coverage, as described in section 1302(d)(1) of the Affordable Care Act and implemented in § 156.140(b) of this subchapter. A State with a Federally-facilitated SHOP may recommend that the Federally-facilitated SHOP not make this additional option available in that State, by submitting a letter to HHS in advance of the annual QHP certification application deadline, by a date to be established by HHS. The State's letter must describe and justify the State's recommendation, based on the anticipated impact this additional option would have on the small group market and consumers.
</P>
<P>(v) A SHOP may also provide a qualified employer with a choice of a third method to make stand-alone dental plans available to qualified employees by offering its qualified employees a choice of all stand-alone dental plans offered through the SHOP by a single issuer. A State with a Federally-facilitated SHOP may recommend that the Federally-facilitated SHOP not make this additional option available in that State, by submitting a letter to HHS in advance of the annual QHP certification application deadline, by a date to be established by HHS. The State's letter must describe and justify the State's recommendation, based on the anticipated impact this additional option would have on the small group market and consumers.
</P>
<P>(vi) States operating a State Exchange utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP enrollment functions will have the same employer choice models available as States with a Federally-facilitated SHOP, except that a State with a State Exchange utilizing the Federal platform for SHOP enrollment functions may decide against offering the employer choice models specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(iv) and (v) of this section in that State, provided that the State notifies HHS of that decision in advance of the annual QHP certification application deadline, by a date to be established by HHS.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Continuation of Coverage.</I> The SHOP may, upon an election by a qualified employer, enter into an agreement with a qualified employer to facilitate the administration of continuation coverage by collecting premiums for continuation coverage enrolled in through the SHOP directly from a person enrolled in continuation coverage through the SHOP consistent with applicable law and the terms of the group health plan, and remitting premium payments for this coverage to QHP issuers.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>QHP Certification.</I> With respect to certification of QHPs in the small group market, the SHOP must ensure each QHP meets the requirements specified in § 156.285 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rates and rate changes.</I> The SHOP must—
</P>
<P>(i) Require all QHP issuers to make any change to rates at a uniform time that is no more frequently than quarterly.
</P>
<P>(A) In a Federally-facilitated SHOP, rates may be updated quarterly with effective dates of January 1, April 1, July 1, or October 1 of each calendar year. The updated rates must be submitted to HHS at least 60 days in advance of the effective date of the rates.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibit all QHP issuers from varying rates for a qualified employer during the employer's plan year.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>QHP availability in merged markets.</I> If a State merges the individual market and the small group market risk pools in accordance with section 1312(c)(3) of the Affordable Care Act, the SHOP may permit employer groups to enroll in any QHP meeting level of coverage requirements described in section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>QHP availability in unmerged markets.</I> If a State does not merge the individual and small group market risk pools, the SHOP must permit employer groups to enroll only in QHPs in the small group market.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>SHOP expansion to large group market.</I> If a State elects to expand the SHOP to the large group market, a SHOP must allow issuers of health insurance coverage in the large group market in the State to offer QHPs in such market through a SHOP beginning in 2017 provided that a large employer meets the qualified employer requirements other than that it be a small employer.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Participation rules.</I> Subject to § 147.104 of this subchapter, the SHOP may authorize a uniform group participation rate for the offering of health insurance coverage in the SHOP, which must be a single, uniform rate that applies to all groups and issuers in the SHOP. If the SHOP authorizes a minimum participation rate, such rate must be based on the rate of employee participation in the SHOP, not on the rate of employee participation in any particular QHP or QHPs of any particular issuer.
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to § 147.104 of this subchapter, a Federally-facilitated SHOP must use a minimum participation rate of 70 percent, calculated as the number of full-time employees accepting coverage offered by a qualified employer plus the number of full-time employees who, at the time the employer submits the SHOP group enrollment, are enrolled in coverage through another group health plan, governmental coverage (such as Medicare, Medicaid, or TRICARE), coverage sold through the individual market, or in other minimum essential coverage, divided by the number of full-time employees offered coverage.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(10)(i) of this section, a Federally-facilitated SHOP may utilize a different minimum participation rate in a State if there is evidence that a State law sets a minimum participation rate or that a higher or lower minimum participation rate is customarily used by the majority of QHP issuers in that State for products in the State's small group market outside the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Premium calculator.</I> In the SHOP, the premium calculator described in § 155.205(b)(6) must facilitate the comparison of available QHPs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coordination with individual market Exchange for eligibility determinations.</I> A SHOP that collects employee eligibility or enrollment data must provide data related to eligibility and enrollment of a qualified employee to the individual market Exchange that corresponds to the service area of the SHOP, unless the SHOP is operated pursuant to § 155.100(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duties of Navigators in the SHOP.</I> In States that have elected to operate only a SHOP pursuant to § 155.100(a)(2), at State option and if State law permits the Navigator duties described in § 155.210(e)(3) and (4) may be fulfilled through referrals to agents and brokers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17064, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.710" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.710   Eligibility standards for SHOP.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> The SHOP must permit qualified employers to purchase coverage for qualified employees through the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employer eligibility requirements.</I> An employer is a qualified employer eligible to purchase coverage through a SHOP if such employer—
</P>
<P>(1) Is a small employer;
</P>
<P>(2) Elects to offer, at a minimum, all full-time employees coverage in a QHP through a SHOP; and
</P>
<P>(3) Either—
</P>
<P>(i) Has its principal business address in the Exchange service area and offers coverage to all its full-time employees through that SHOP; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Offers coverage to each eligible employee through the SHOP serving that employee's primary worksite.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Participating in multiple SHOPs.</I> If an employer meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section and makes the election described in (b)(3)(ii) of this section, a SHOP shall allow the employer to offer coverage to those employees whose primary worksite is in the SHOP's service area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Continuing eligibility.</I> The SHOP must treat a qualified employer which ceases to be a small employer solely by reason of an increase in the number of employees of such employer as a qualified employer until the qualified employer otherwise fails to meet the eligibility criteria of this section or elects to no longer purchase coverage for qualified employees through the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employee eligibility requirements.</I> An employee is a qualified employee eligible to enroll in coverage through a SHOP if such employee receives an offer of coverage from a qualified employer. A qualified employee is eligible to enroll his or her dependents in coverage through a SHOP if the offer from the qualified employer includes an offer of dependent coverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18464, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 10869, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.715" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.715   Eligibility determination process for SHOP for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Before permitting the purchase of coverage in a QHP, the SHOP must determine that the employer or individual who requests coverage is eligible in accordance with the requirements of § 155.710.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applications.</I> The SHOP must accept a SHOP single employer application form from employers and the SHOP single employee application form from employees wishing to elect coverage through the SHOP, in accordance with the relevant standards of § 155.730.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of eligibility.</I> For the purpose of verifying employer and employee eligibility, the SHOP—
</P>
<P>(1) Must verify that an individual applicant is identified by the employer as an employee to whom the qualified employer has offered coverage and must otherwise accept the information attested to within the application unless the information is inconsistent with the employer-provided information;
</P>
<P>(2) May establish, in addition to or in lieu of reliance on the application, additional methods to verify the information provided by the applicant on the applicable application;
</P>
<P>(3) Must collect only the minimum information necessary for verification of eligibility in accordance with the eligibility standards described in § 155.710; and
</P>
<P>(4) May not perform individual market Exchange eligibility determinations or verifications described in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligibility adjustment period.</I> (1) When the information submitted on the SHOP single employer application is inconsistent with information collected from third-party data sources through the verification process described in § 155.715(c)(2), the SHOP must—
</P>
<P>(i) Make a reasonable effort to identify and address the causes of such inconsistency, including through typographical or other clerical errors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the employer of the inconsistency;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide the employer with a period of 30 days from the date on which the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section is sent to the employer to either present satisfactory documentary evidence to support the employer's application, or resolve the inconsistency; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If, after the 30-day period described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section, the SHOP has not received satisfactory documentary evidence, the SHOP must—
</P>
<P>(A) Notify the employer of its denial of eligibility in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section and of the employer's right to appeal such determination; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the employer was enrolled pending the confirmation or verification of eligibility information, discontinue the employer's participation in the SHOP at the end of the month following the month in which the notice is sent.
</P>
<P>(2) When the information submitted on the SHOP single employee application is inconsistent with information collected from third-party data sources through the verification process described in § 155.715(c)(2), the SHOP must-
</P>
<P>(i) Make a reasonable effort to identify and address the causes of such inconsistency, including through typographical or other clerical errors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the individual of the inability to substantiate his or her employee status;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide the employee with a period of 30 days from the date on which the notice described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section is sent to the employee to either present satisfactory documentary evidence to support the employee's application, or resolve the inconsistency; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If, after the 30-day period described in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, the SHOP has not received satisfactory documentary evidence, the SHOP must notify the employee of its denial of eligibility in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification of employer eligibility.</I> The SHOP must provide an employer requesting eligibility to purchase coverage with a notice of approval or denial of eligibility and the employer's right to appeal such eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notification of employee eligibility.</I> The SHOP must notify an employee seeking to enroll in a QHP offered through the SHOP of the determination by the SHOP whether the individual is eligible in accordance with § 155.710 and the employee's right to appeal such determination.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notification of employer withdrawal from SHOP.</I> If a qualified employer ceases to purchase coverage through the SHOP, the SHOP must ensure that—
</P>
<P>(1) Each QHP terminates the enrollment through the SHOP of the employer's enrollees enrolled in a QHP through the SHOP; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each of the employer's qualified employees enrolled in a QHP through the SHOP is notified of the termination of coverage prior to such termination. Such notification must also provide information about other potential sources of coverage, including access to individual market coverage through the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018. Section 155.716 is applicable for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18464, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 13839, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 12347, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17065, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.716" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.716   Eligibility determination process for SHOP for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> The SHOP must determine whether an employer requesting a determination of eligibility to participate in a SHOP is eligible in accordance with the requirements of § 155.710.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applications.</I> The SHOP must accept a SHOP single employer application form from employers, in accordance with the relevant standards of § 155.730.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of eligibility.</I> For the purpose of verifying employer eligibility, the SHOP—
</P>
<P>(1) May establish, in addition to or in lieu of reliance on the application, additional methods to verify the information provided by the applicant on the applicable application;
</P>
<P>(2) Must collect only the minimum information necessary for verification of eligibility in accordance with the eligibility standards described in § 155.710; and
</P>
<P>(3) May not perform individual market Exchange eligibility determinations or verifications described in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligibility adjustment period.</I> When the information submitted on the SHOP single employer application is inconsistent with information collected from third-party data sources through the verification process described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section or otherwise received by the SHOP, the SHOP must—
</P>
<P>(1) Make a reasonable effort to identify and address the causes of such inconsistency, including through typographical or other clerical errors;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the employer of the inconsistency;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide the employer with a period of 30 days from the date on which the notice described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section is sent to the employer to either present satisfactory documentary evidence to support the employer's application, or resolve the inconsistency; and
</P>
<P>(4) If, after the 30-day period described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the SHOP has not received satisfactory documentary evidence, the SHOP must—
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the employer of its denial or termination of eligibility in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section and of the employer's right to appeal such determination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employer was enrolled pending the confirmation or verification of eligibility information, discontinue the employer's participation in the SHOP at the end of the month following the month in which the notice is sent.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification of employer eligibility.</I> The SHOP must provide an employer requesting eligibility to purchase coverage through the SHOP with a notice of approval or denial or termination of eligibility and the employer's right to appeal such eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Validity of Eligibility Determination.</I> An employer's determination of eligibility to participate in SHOP remains valid until the employer makes a change that could end its eligibility under § 155.710(b) or withdraws from participation in the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17065, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.720" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.720   Enrollment of employees into QHPs under SHOP for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The SHOP must process the SHOP single employee applications of qualified employees to the applicable QHP issuers and facilitate the enrollment of qualified employees in QHPs. All references to QHPs in this section refer to QHPs offered through the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enrollment timeline and process.</I> The SHOP must establish a uniform enrollment timeline and process for all QHP issuers and qualified employers to follow, which includes the following activities that must occur before the effective date of coverage for qualified employees:
</P>
<P>(1) Determination of employer eligibility for purchase of coverage in the SHOP as described in § 155.715;
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified employer selection of QHPs offered through the SHOP to qualified employees, consistent with § 155.705(b)(2) and (3);
</P>
<P>(3) Provision of a specific timeframe during which the qualified employer can select the level of coverage or QHP offering, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(4) Provision of a specific timeframe for qualified employees to provide relevant information to complete the application process;
</P>
<P>(5) Determination and verification of employee eligibility for enrollment through the SHOP; and
</P>
<P>(6) Processing enrollment of qualified employees into selected QHPs.</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transfer of enrollment information.</I> In order to enroll qualified employees of a qualified employer participating in the SHOP, the SHOP must—
</P>
<P>(1) Transmit enrollment information on behalf of qualified employees to QHP issuers in accordance with the timeline and process described in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Follow requirements set forth in § 155.400(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment.</I> The SHOP must—
</P>
<P>(1) Follow requirements set forth in § 155.705(b)(4) of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Terminate participation of qualified employers that do not comply with the process established in § 155.705(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification of effective date.</I> (1) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2017, the SHOP must ensure that a QHP issuer notifies a qualified employee enrolled in a QHP through the SHOP of the effective date of his or her coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, the SHOP must ensure that a QHP issuer notifies an enrollee enrolled in a QHP through the SHOP of the effective date of his or her coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) When a primary subscriber and his or her dependents live at the same address, a separate notice of the effective date of coverage need not be sent to each dependent at that address, provided that the notice sent to each primary subscriber at that address contains all required information about the coverage effective date for the primary subscriber and his or her dependents at that address.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Records.</I> The SHOP must receive and maintain for at least 10 years records of enrollment in QHPs, including identification of—
</P>
<P>(1) Qualified employers participating in the SHOP; and
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified employees enrolled in QHPs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reconcile files.</I> The SHOP must reconcile enrollment information and employer participation information with QHPs on no less than a monthly basis.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Employee termination of coverage from a QHP.</I> If any employee terminates coverage from a QHP, the SHOP must notify the employee's employer.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reporting requirement for tax administration purposes.</I> The SHOP must report to the IRS employer participation, employer contribution, and employee enrollment information in a time and format to be determined by HHS.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018. Section 155.721 is applicable for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18464, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 10869, Feb. 27, 2015; 83 FR 17066, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.721" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.721   Record retention and IRS Reporting for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records.</I> The SHOP must receive and maintain for at least 10 years records of qualified employers participating in the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting requirement for tax administration purposes.</I> The SHOP must, at the request of the IRS, report information to the IRS about employer eligibility to participate in SHOP coverage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17066, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.725" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.725   Enrollment periods under SHOP for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The SHOP must ensure that enrollment transactions are sent to QHP issuers and that such issuers adhere to coverage effective dates in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rolling enrollment in the SHOP.</I> The SHOP must permit a qualified employer to purchase coverage for its small group at any point during the year. The employer's plan year must consist of the 12-month period beginning with the qualified employer's effective date of coverage, unless the plan is issued in a State that has elected to merge its individual and small group risk pools under section 1312(c)(3) of the Affordable Care Act, in which case the plan year will end on December 31 of the calendar year in which coverage first became effective.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annual employer election period.</I> The SHOP must provide qualified employers with a standard election period prior to the completion of the employer's plan year and before the annual employee open enrollment period, in which the qualified employer may change its participation in the SHOP for the next plan year, including—
</P>
<P>(1) The method by which the qualified employer makes QHPs available to qualified employees pursuant to § 155.705(b)(2) and (3);
</P>
<P>(2) The employer contribution towards the premium cost of coverage;
</P>
<P>(3) The level of coverage offered to qualified employees as described in § 155.705(b)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(4) The QHP or QHPs offered to qualified employees in accordance with § 155.705.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual employer election period notice.</I> The SHOP must provide notification to a qualified employer of the annual election period in advance of such period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Annual employee open enrollment period.</I> (1) The SHOP must establish a standardized annual open enrollment period for qualified employees prior to the completion of the applicable qualified employer's plan year and after that employer's annual election period.
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified employers in a Federally-facilitated SHOP must provide qualified employees with an annual open enrollment period of at least one week.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Annual employee open enrollment period notice.</I> The SHOP must provide notification to a qualified employee of the annual open enrollment period in advance of such period.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Newly qualified employees.</I> (1) In a State Exchange that does not use the Federal platform for SHOP functions, the following rules apply with respect to enrollment and coverage effective dates for newly qualified employees.
</P>
<P>(i) The SHOP must provide an employee who becomes a qualified employee outside of the initial or annual open enrollment period an enrollment period beginning on the first day of becoming a qualified employee. A newly qualified employee must have at least 30 days from the beginning of his or her enrollment period to select a QHP. The enrollment period must end no sooner than 15 days prior to the date that any applicable employee waiting period longer than 45 days would end if the employee made a plan selection on the first day of becoming eligible.
</P>
<P>(ii) The effective date of coverage for a QHP selection received by the SHOP from a newly qualified employee must always be the first day of a month, and must generally be determined in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section, unless the employee is subject to a waiting period consistent with § 147.116 of this subchapter, in which case the effective date may be on the first day of a later month, but in no case may the effective date fail to comply with § 147.116 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Waiting periods in the SHOP are calculated beginning on the date the employee becomes a qualified employee who is otherwise eligible for coverage, regardless of when a qualified employer notifies the SHOP about a newly qualified employee.
</P>
<P>(2) In a Federally-facilitated SHOP or in a State Exchange that uses the Federal platform for SHOP functions, the following rules apply with respect to enrollment and coverage effective dates for newly qualified employees.
</P>
<P>(i) The SHOP must provide an employee who becomes a qualified employee outside of the initial or annual open enrollment period with a 30-day enrollment period beginning on the date the qualified employer notifies the SHOP about the newly qualified employee. Qualified employers must notify the SHOP about a newly qualified employee on or before the thirtieth day after the day that the employee becomes a newly qualified employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) The effective date of coverage for a QHP selection received by the SHOP from a newly qualified employee is the first day of the month following plan selection, unless the employee is subject to a waiting period consistent with § 147.116 of this subchapter and paragraph (g)(2)(iii) of this section, in which case the effective date will be on the first day of the month following the end of the waiting period, but in no case may the effective date fail to comply with § 147.116 of this subchapter. If a newly qualified employee's waiting period ends on the first day of a month and the employee has already made a plan selection by that date, coverage must take effect on that date. If a newly qualified employee makes a plan selection on the first day of a month and any applicable waiting period has ended by that date, coverage must be effective on the first day of the following month. If a qualified employer with variable hour employees makes regularly having a specified number of hours of service per period, or working full-time, a condition of employee eligibility for coverage offered through the SHOP, any measurement period that the qualified employer elects to use under § 147.116(c)(3)(i) to determine whether an employee meets the applicable eligibility conditions with respect to coverage offered through the SHOP must not exceed 10 months, beginning on any date between the employee's start date and the first day of the first calendar month following the employee's start date.
</P>
<P>(iii) Waiting periods in the SHOP are calculated beginning on the date the employee becomes a qualified employee who is otherwise eligible for coverage, regardless of when a qualified employer notifies the SHOP about a newly qualified employee, and must not exceed 60 days in length. Waiting periods must be 0, 15, 30, 45 or 60 days in length.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Initial and annual open enrollment effective dates.</I> (1) The SHOP must establish effective dates of coverage for qualified employees enrolling in coverage for the first time, and for qualified employees enrolling during the annual open enrollment period described in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For a group enrollment received by the Federally-facilitated SHOP from a qualified employer at the time of an initial group enrollment or renewal:
</P>
<P>(i) Between the first and fifteenth day of any month, the Federally-facilitated SHOP must ensure a coverage effective date of the first day of the following month unless the employer opts for a later effective date within a quarter for which small group market rates are available.
</P>
<P>(ii) Between the 16th and last day of any month, the Federally-facilitated SHOP must ensure a coverage effective date of the first day of the second following month unless the employer opts for a later effective date within a quarter for which small group market rates are available.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Renewal of coverage.</I> (1) If a qualified employee enrolled in a QHP through the SHOP remains eligible for enrollment through the SHOP in coverage offered by the same qualified employer, the SHOP may provide for a process under which the employee will remain in the QHP selected the previous year, unless—</P>
<P>(i) The qualified employee terminates coverage from such QHP in accordance with standards identified in § 155.430;
</P>
<P>(ii) The qualified employee enrolls in another QHP if such option exists; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The QHP is no longer available to the qualified employee.
</P>
<P>(2) The SHOP may treat a qualified employer offering coverage through the SHOP as offering the same coverage under § 155.705(b)(3) at the same level of contribution under § 155.705(b)(11) unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The qualified employer is no longer eligible to offer such coverage through the SHOP;
</P>
<P>(ii) The qualified employer elects to offer different coverage or a different contribution through the SHOP;
</P>
<P>(iii) The qualified employer withdraws from the SHOP; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a qualified employer offering a single QHP, the single QHP is no longer available through the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(j)(1) <I>Special enrollment periods.</I> The SHOP must provide special enrollment periods consistent with this section, during which certain qualified employees or a dependent of a qualified employee may enroll in QHPs and enrollees may change QHPs.
</P>
<P>(2) The SHOP must provide a special enrollment period for a qualified employee or dependent of a qualified employee who:
</P>
<P>(i) Experiences an event described in § 155.420(d)(1) (other than paragraph (d)(1)(ii)), or experiences an event described in § 155.420(d)(2), (4), (5), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12);
</P>
<P>(ii) Loses eligibility for coverage under a Medicaid plan under title XIX of the Social Security Act or a State child health plan under title XXI of the Social Security Act; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Becomes eligible for assistance, with respect to coverage under a SHOP, under such Medicaid plan or a State child health plan (including any waiver or demonstration project conducted under or in relation to such a plan).
</P>
<P>(3) A qualified employee or dependent of a qualified employee who experiences a qualifying event described in paragraph (j)(2) of this section has:
</P>
<P>(i) Thirty (30) days from the date of a triggering event described in paragraph (j)(2)(i) of this section to select a QHP through the SHOP; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Sixty (60) days from the date of a triggering event described in paragraph (j)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section to select a QHP through the SHOP;
</P>
<P>(4) A dependent of a qualified employee is not eligible for a special election period if the employer does not extend the offer of coverage to dependents.
</P>
<P>(5) The effective dates of coverage for special enrollment periods are determined using the provisions of § 155.420(b).
</P>
<P>(6) Loss of minimum essential coverage is determined using the provisions of § 155.420(e).
</P>
<P>(7) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in § 155.420(d), § 155.420(a)(4) and (d)(2)(i)(A) do not apply to special enrollment periods in the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Limitation.</I> Qualified employees will not be able to enroll unless the employer group meets any applicable minimum participation rate implemented under § 155.705(b)(10).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018. Section 155.726 is applicable for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18464, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 33239, June 4, 2013; 78 FR 65095, Oct. 30, 2013; 79 FR 30350, May 27, 2014; 79 FR 42986, July 24, 2014; 80 FR 10869, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12347, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94179, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 18382, Apr. 18, 2017; 83 FR 17066, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.726" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.726   Enrollment periods under SHOP for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The SHOP must ensure that issuers offering QHPs through the SHOP adhere to applicable enrollment periods, including special enrollment periods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rolling enrollment in the SHOP.</I> The SHOP must permit a qualified employer to purchase coverage for its small group at any point during the year. The employer's plan year must consist of the 12-month period beginning with the qualified employer's effective date of coverage, unless the plan is issued in a State that has elected to merge its individual and small group risk pools under section 1312(c)(3) of the Affordable Care Act, in which case the plan year will end on December 31 of the calendar year in which coverage first became effective.
</P>
<P>(c)<I> Special enrollment periods.</I> (1) The SHOP must ensure that issuers offering QHPs through the SHOP provide special enrollment periods consistent with the section, during which certain qualified employees or dependents of qualified employees may enroll in QHPs and enrollees may change QHPs.
</P>
<P>(2) The SHOP must ensure that issuers offering QHPs through a SHOP provide a special enrollment period for a qualified employee or a dependent of a qualified employee who;
</P>
<P>(i) Experiences an event described in § 155.420(d)(1) (other than paragraph (d)(1)(ii)), or experiences an event described in § 155.420(d)(2), (4), (5), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12);
</P>
<P>(ii) Loses eligibility for coverage under a Medicaid plan under title XIX of the Social Security Act or a State child health plan under title XXI of the Social Security Act; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Becomes eligible for assistance, with respect to coverage under a SHOP, under such Medicaid plan or a State child health plan (including any waiver or demonstration project conducted under or in relation to such a plan).
</P>
<P>(3) A qualified employee or dependent of a qualified employee who experiences a qualifying event described in paragraph (j)(2) of this section has:
</P>
<P>(i) Thirty (30) days from the date of a triggering event described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section to select a QHP through the SHOP; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Sixty (60) days from the date of a triggering event described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section to select a QHP through the SHOP;
</P>
<P>(4) A dependent of a qualified employee is not eligible for a special enrollment period if the employer does not extend the offer of coverage to dependents.
</P>
<P>(5) The effective dates of coverage for special enrollment periods are determined using the provisions of § 155.420(b).
</P>
<P>(6) Loss of minimum essential coverage is determined using the provisions of § 155.420(e).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitation.</I> Qualified employees will not be able to enroll unless the employer group meets any applicable minimum participation rate implemented under § 155.706(b)(10).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17066, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.730" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.730   Application standards for SHOP for plan year beginning prior to January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Application forms used by the SHOP must meet the requirements set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Single employer application.</I> The SHOP must use a single application to determine employer eligibility and to collect information necessary for purchasing coverage. Such application must collect the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Employer name and address of employer's locations;
</P>
<P>(2) Number of employees;
</P>
<P>(3) Employer Identification Number (EIN); and
</P>
<P>(4) A list of qualified employees and their taxpayer identification numbers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Single employee application.</I> The SHOP must use a single application for eligibility determination, QHP selection and enrollment for qualified employees and their dependents.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Model application.</I> The SHOP may use the model single employer application and the model single employee application provided by HHS.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative employer and employee application.</I> The SHOP may use an alternative application if such application is approved by HHS and collects the following:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of the employer application, the information in described in paragraph (b); and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of the employee application, the information necessary to establish eligibility of the employee as a qualified employee and to complete the enrollment of the qualified employee and any dependents to be enrolled.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Filing.</I> The SHOP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Accept applications from SHOP application filers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the tools to file an application via an Internet Web site.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional safeguards.</I> (1) The SHOP may not provide to the employer any information collected on the employee application with respect to spouses or dependents other than the name, address, and birth date of the spouse or dependent.
</P>
<P>(2) The SHOP is not permitted to collect information on the single employer or single employee application unless that information is necessary to determine SHOP eligibility or effectuate enrollment through the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018. Section 155.731 is applicable for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18464, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 54141, Aug. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13839, Mar. 11, 2014; 83 FR 17066, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.731" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.731   Application standards for SHOP for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Application forms used by the SHOP must meet the requirements set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Single employer application.</I> The SHOP must use a single application to determine employer eligibility. Such application must collect the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Employer name and address of employer's locations;
</P>
<P>(2) Information sufficient to confirm the employer is a small employer;
</P>
<P>(3) Employer Identification Number (EIN); and
</P>
<P>(4) Information sufficient to confirm that the employer is offering, at a minimum, all full-time employees coverage in a QHP through a SHOP.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Model application.</I> The SHOP may use the model single employer application provided by HHS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative employer application.</I> The SHOP may use an alternative application if such application is approved by HHS and collects the information described in paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing.</I> The SHOP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Accept applications from SHOP application filers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the tools to file an employer eligibility application via an internet website.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional safeguards.</I> (1) The SHOP may not provide to the employer any information collected on an employee application with respect to spouses or dependents other than the name, address, and birth date of the spouse or dependent.
</P>
<P>(2) The SHOP is not permitted to collect information on the single employer or on an employee application unless that information is necessary to determine SHOP eligibility or effectuate enrollment through the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17066, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.735" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.735   Termination of SHOP enrollment or coverage for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The SHOP must determine the timing, form, and manner in which coverage or enrollment in a QHP through the SHOP may be terminated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of employer group health coverage or enrollment at the request of the employer.</I> (1) The SHOP must establish policies for advance notice of termination required from the employer and effective dates of termination.
</P>
<P>(2) In the Federally-facilitated SHOP, an employer may terminate coverage or enrollment for all enrollees covered by the employer group health plan effective on the last day of any month, provided that the employer has given notice to the Federally-facilitated SHOP on or before the 15th day of any month. If notice is given after the 15th of the month, the Federally-facilitated SHOP may terminate the coverage or enrollment on the last day of the following month.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Termination of employer group health coverage for non-payment of premiums.</I> (1) The SHOP must establish policies for termination for non-payment of premiums, including but not limited to policies regarding due dates for payment of premiums to the SHOP, grace periods, employer and employee notices, and reinstatement provisions.
</P>
<P>(2) In an FF-SHOP, for premium payments other than payments for the first month of coverage—
</P>
<P>(i) For a given month of coverage, premium payment is due by the first day of the coverage month.
</P>
<P>(ii) If premium payment is not received 31 days from the first of the coverage month, the Federally-facilitated SHOP may terminate the qualified employer for lack of payment. The termination would take effect on the last day of the month for which the Federally-facilitated SHOP received full payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a qualified employer is terminated due to lack of premium payment, but within 30 days following its termination the qualified employer requests reinstatement, pays all premiums owed including any prior premiums owed for coverage during the grace period, and pays the premium for the next month's coverage, the Federally-facilitated SHOP must reinstate the qualified employer in its previous coverage. A qualified employer may be reinstated in the Federally-facilitated SHOP only once per calendar year.
</P>
<P>(iv) Enrollees enrolled in continuation coverage required under 29 U.S.C. 1161, <I>et seq.</I> through the Federally-facilitated SHOP may not be terminated if timely payment is made to the Federally-facilitated SHOP in an amount that is not less than $50 less than the amount the plan requires to be paid for a period of coverage unless the Federally-facilitated SHOP notifies the enrollee of the amount of the deficiency and the enrollee does not pay the deficiency within 30 days of such notice, pursuant to the notice requirements in § 155.230.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Payment for COBRA Continuation Coverage.</I> Nothing in this section modifies existing obligations related to the administration of coverage required under 29 U.S.C. 1161, <I>et seq.,</I> as described in 26 CFR part 54.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination of employee or dependent coverage or enrollment.</I> (1) The SHOP must establish consistent policies regarding the process for and effective dates of termination of employee or dependent coverage or enrollment in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The employee or dependent is no longer eligible for coverage under the employer's group health plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The employee requests that the SHOP terminate the coverage of the employee or a dependent of the employee under the employer's group health plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The QHP in which the enrollee is enrolled terminates, is decertified as described in § 155.1080, or its certification as a QHP is not renewed;
</P>
<P>(iv) The enrollee changes from one QHP to another during the employer's annual open enrollment period or during a special enrollment period in accordance with § 155.725(j); or
</P>
<P>(v) The enrollee's coverage is rescinded in accordance with § 147.128 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(2) In the FF-SHOP, termination is effective:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a termination in accordance with paragraphs (d)(1)(i), (ii), (iii), and (v) of this section, termination is effective on the last day of the month in which the Federally-facilitated SHOP receives notice of the event described in paragraph (d)(1)(i), (ii), (iii), or (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a termination in accordance with paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section, the last day of coverage in an enrollee's prior QHP is the day before the effective date of coverage in his or her new QHP, including for any retroactive enrollments effectuated under § 155.725(j)(5).
</P>
<P>(iii) The FF-SHOP will send qualified employees a notice notifying them in advance of a child dependent's loss of eligibility for dependent child coverage under their plan because of age. The notice will be sent 90 days in advance of the date when the dependent enrollee would lose eligibility for dependent child coverage. The enrollee will also receive a separate termination notice when coverage is terminated, under § 155.735(g).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Termination of enrollment or coverage tracking and approval.</I> The SHOP must comply with the standards described in § 155.430(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply to coverage—
</P>
<P>(1) Beginning on or after January 1, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(2) In any SHOP providing qualified employers with the option described in § 155.705(b)(2) or the option described in § 155.705(b)(4) before January 1, 2015, beginning with the date that option is offered.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of termination.</I> Beginning January 1, 2016:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, if any enrollee's coverage or enrollment through the SHOP is terminated due to non-payment of premiums or due to a loss of the enrollee's eligibility to participate in the SHOP, including where an enrollee loses his or her eligibility because a qualified employer has lost its eligibility, the SHOP must notify the enrollee of the termination. Such notice must include the termination effective date and reason for termination, and must be sent within 3 business days if an electronic notice is sent, and within 5 business days if a mailed hard copy notice is sent.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, if an employer group's coverage or enrollment through the SHOP is terminated due to non-payment of premiums or, where applicable, due to a loss of the qualified employer's eligibility to offer coverage through the SHOP, the SHOP must notify the employer of the termination. Such notice must include the termination effective date and reason for termination, and must be sent within 3 business days if an electronic notice is sent, and within 5 business days if a mailed hard copy notice is sent.
</P>
<P>(3) Where State law requires a QHP issuer to send the notices described in paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section, a SHOP is not required to send such notices.
</P>
<P>(4) When a primary subscriber and his or her dependents live at the same address, a separate termination notice need not be sent to each dependent at that address, provided that the notice sent to each primary subscriber at that address contains all required information about the termination for the primary subscriber and his or her dependents at that address.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning before January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54141, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10870, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12348, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17067, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.740" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.740   SHOP employer and employee eligibility appeals requirements for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions in §§ 155.20, 155.300, and 155.500 apply to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) A State, establishing an Exchange that provides for the establishment of a SHOP pursuant to § 155.100 must provide an eligibility appeals process for the SHOP. Where a State has not established an Exchange that provides for the establishment of a SHOP pursuant to § 155.100, HHS will provide an eligibility appeals process for the SHOP that meets the requirements of this section and the requirements in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The appeals entity must conduct appeals in accordance with the requirements established in this section and §§ 155.505(e) through (h) and 155.510(a)(1) and (2) and (c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employer right to appeal.</I> An employer may appeal—
</P>
<P>(1) A notice of denial of eligibility under § 155.715(e); or
</P>
<P>(2) A failure by the SHOP to provide a timely eligibility determination or a timely notice of an eligibility determination in accordance with § 155.715(e).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee right to appeal.</I> An employee may appeal—
</P>
<P>(1) A notice of denial of eligibility under § 155.715(f); or
</P>
<P>(2) A failure by the SHOP to provide a timely eligibility determination or a timely notice of an eligibility determination in accordance with § 155.715(f).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appeals notice requirement.</I> Notices of the right to appeal a denial of eligibility under § 155.715(e) or (f) must be written and include—
</P>
<P>(1) The reason for the denial of eligibility, including a citation to the applicable regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) The procedure by which the employer or employee may request an appeal of the denial of eligibility.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appeal request.</I> The SHOP and appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(1) Allow an employer or employee to request an appeal within 90 days from the date of the notice of denial of eligibility to—
</P>
<P>(i) The SHOP or the appeals entity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) HHS, if no State Exchange that provides for establishment of a SHOP has been established;
</P>
<P>(2) Accept appeal requests submitted through any of the methods described in § 155.520(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(3) Comply with the requirements of § 155.520(a)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(4) Consider an appeal request valid if it is submitted in accordance with paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of appeal request.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a valid appeal request, the appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(i) Send timely acknowledgement to the employer, or employer and employee if an employee is appealing, of the receipt of the appeal request, including—
</P>
<P>(A) An explanation of the appeals process; and
</P>
<P>(B) Instructions for submitting additional evidence for consideration by the appeals entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly notify the SHOP of the appeal, if the appeal request was not initially made to the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of an appeal request that is not valid because it fails to meet the requirements of this section, the appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(i) Promptly and without undue delay, send written notice to the employer or employee that is appealing that—
</P>
<P>(A) The appeal request has not been accepted,
</P>
<P>(B) The nature of the defect in the appeal request; and
</P>
<P>(C) An explanation that the employer or employee may cure the defect and resubmit the appeal request if it meets the timeliness requirements of paragraph (f) of this section, or within a reasonable timeframe established by the appeals entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Treat as valid an amended appeal request that meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Transmittal and receipt of records.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a valid appeal request under this section, or upon receipt of the notice under paragraph (g)(2) of this section, the SHOP must promptly transmit, via secure electronic interface, to the appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(i) The appeal request, if the appeal request was initially made to the SHOP; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The eligibility record of the employer or employee that is appealing.
</P>
<P>(2) The appeals entity must promptly confirm receipt of records transmitted pursuant to paragraph (h)(1) of this section to the SHOP that transmitted the records.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dismissal of appeal.</I> The appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(1) Must dismiss an appeal if the employer or employee that is appealing—
</P>
<P>(i) Withdraws the request in accordance with the standards set forth in § 155.530(a)(1); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Fails to submit an appeal request meeting the standards specified in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Must provide timely notice to the employer or employee that is appealing of the dismissal of the appeal request, including the reason for dismissal, and must notify the SHOP of the dismissal.
</P>
<P>(3) May vacate a dismissal if the employer or employee makes a written request within 30 days of the date of the notice of dismissal showing good cause why the dismissal should be vacated.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Procedural rights of the employer or employee.</I> The appeals entity must provide the employer, or the employer and employee if an employee is appealing, the opportunity to submit relevant evidence for review of the eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Adjudication of SHOP appeals.</I> SHOP appeals must—
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with the standards set forth in § 155.555(i)(1) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(2) Consider the information used to determine the employer or employee's eligibility as well as any additional relevant evidence submitted during the course of the appeal by the employer or employee.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Appeal decisions.</I> Appeal decisions must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be based solely on—
</P>
<P>(i) The evidence referenced in paragraph (k)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The eligibility requirements for the SHOP under § 155.710(b) or (e), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the standards set forth in § 155.545(a)(2) through (5); and
</P>
<P>(3) Be effective as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If an employer is found eligible under the decision, then at the employer's option, the effective date of coverage or enrollment through the SHOP under the decision can either be made retroactive to the effective date of coverage or enrollment through the SHOP that the employer would have had if the employer had been correctly determined eligible, or prospective to the first day of the month following the date of the notice of the appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(ii) For employee appeal decisions only, if an employee is found eligible under the decision, then at the employee's option, the effective date of coverage or enrollment through the SHOP under the decision can either be made effective retroactive to the effective date of coverage or enrollment through the SHOP that the employee would have had if the employee had been correctly determined eligible, or prospective to the first day of the month following the date of the notice of the appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the employer or employee is found ineligible under the decision, then the appeal decision is effective as of the date of the notice of the appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Notice of appeal decision.</I> The appeals entity must issue written notice of the appeal decision to the employer, or to the employer and employee if an employee is appealing, and to the SHOP within 90 days of the date the appeal request is received.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Implementation of SHOP appeal decisions.</I> The SHOP must promptly implement the appeal decision upon receiving the notice under paragraph (m) of this section.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Appeal record.</I> Subject to the requirements of § 155.550, the appeal record must be accessible to the employer, or employer and employee if an employee is appealing, in a convenient format and at a convenient time.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018. Section 155.741 is applicable for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54141, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30350, May 27, 2014; 81 FR 12348, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94180, Dec. 22, 2016; 83 FR 17067, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.741" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.8.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.741   SHOP employer and employee eligibility appeals requirements for plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions in §§ 155.20, 155.300, and 155.500 apply to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) A State, establishing an Exchange that provides for the establishment of a SHOP pursuant to § 155.100 must provide an eligibility appeals process for the SHOP. Where a State has not established an Exchange that provides for the establishment of a SHOP pursuant to § 155.100, HHS will provide an eligibility appeals process for the SHOP that meets the requirements of this section and the requirements in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The appeals entity must conduct appeals in accordance with the requirements established in this section and §§ 155.505(e) through (h) and 155.510(a)(1) and (2) and (c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employer right to appeal.</I> An employer may appeal—
</P>
<P>(1) A notice of denial or termination of eligibility under § 155.716(e); or
</P>
<P>(2) A failure by the SHOP to provide a timely eligibility determination or a timely notice of an eligibility determination in accordance with § 155.716(e).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeals notice requirement.</I> Notices of the right to appeal a denial of eligibility under § 155.716(e) must be written and include—
</P>
<P>(1) The reason for the denial or termination of eligibility, including a citation to the applicable regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) The procedure by which the employer may request an appeal of the denial or termination of eligibility.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appeal request.</I> The SHOP and appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(1) Allow an employer to request an appeal within 90 days from the date of the notice of denial or termination of eligibility to—
</P>
<P>(i) The SHOP or the appeals entity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) HHS, if no State Exchange that provides for establishment of a SHOP has been established;
</P>
<P>(2) Accept appeal requests submitted through any of the methods described in § 155.520(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(3) Comply with the requirements of § 155.520(a)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(4) Consider an appeal request valid if it is submitted in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of appeal request.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a valid appeal request, the appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(i) Send timely acknowledgement to the employer of the receipt of the appeal request, including—
</P>
<P>(A) An explanation of the appeals process; and
</P>
<P>(B) Instructions for submitting additional evidence for consideration by the appeals entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly notify the SHOP of the appeal, if the appeal request was not initially made to the SHOP.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of an appeal request that is not valid because it fails to meet the requirements of this section, the appeals entity must—
</P>
<P>(i) Promptly and without undue delay, send written notice to the employer that is appealing that—
</P>
<P>(A) The appeal request has not been accepted,
</P>
<P>(B) The nature of the defect in the appeal request; and
</P>
<P>(C) An explanation that the employer may cure the defect and resubmit the appeal request if it meets the timeliness requirements of paragraph (e) of this section, or within a reasonable timeframe established by the appeals entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Treat as valid an amended appeal request that meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Transmittal and receipt of records.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a valid appeal request under this section, or upon receipt of the notice under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the SHOP must promptly transmit, via secure electronic interface, to the appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(i) The appeal request, if the appeal request was initially made to the SHOP; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The eligibility record of the employer that is appealing.
</P>
<P>(2) The appeals entity must promptly confirm receipt of records transmitted pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section to the SHOP that transmitted the records.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Dismissal of appeal.</I> The appeals entity—
</P>
<P>(1) Must dismiss an appeal if the employer that is appealing—
</P>
<P>(i) Withdraws the request in accordance with the standards set forth in § 155.530(a)(1); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Fails to submit an appeal request meeting the standards specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Must provide timely notice to the employer that is appealing of the dismissal of the appeal request, including the reason for dismissal, and must notify the SHOP of the dismissal.
</P>
<P>(3) May vacate a dismissal if the employer makes a written request within 30 days of the date of the notice of dismissal showing good cause why the dismissal should be vacated.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Procedural rights of the employer.</I> The appeals entity must provide the employer the opportunity to submit relevant evidence for review of the eligibility determination.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Adjudication of SHOP appeals.</I> SHOP appeals must—
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with the standards set forth in § 155.555(i)(1) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(2) Consider the information used to determine the employer's eligibility as well as any additional relevant evidence submitted during the course of the appeal by the employer or employee.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Appeal decisions.</I> Appeal decisions must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be based solely on—
</P>
<P>(i) The evidence referenced in paragraph (j)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The eligibility requirements for the SHOP under § 155.710(b), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the standards set forth in § 155.545(a)(2) through (5)
</P>
<P>(3) Be effective as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If an employer is found eligible under the decision, then at the employer's option, the effective date of coverage or enrollment through the SHOP under the decision can either be made retroactive to the effective date of coverage or enrollment through the SHOP that the employer would have had if the employer had been correctly determined eligible, or prospective to the first day of the month following the date of the notice of the appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employer is found ineligible under the decision, then the appeal decision is effective as of the date of the notice of the appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Notice of appeal decision.</I> The appeals entity must issue written notice of the appeal decision to the employer and to the SHOP within 90 days of the date the appeal request is received.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Implementation of SHOP appeal decisions.</I> The SHOP must promptly implement the appeal decision upon receiving the notice under paragraph (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Appeal record.</I> Subject to the requirements of § 155.550, the appeal record must be accessible to the employer in a convenient format and at a convenient time.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17067, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts I-J [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Exchange Functions: Certification of Qualified Health Plans</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 18467, Mar. 27, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.1000" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1000   Certification standards for QHPs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The following definition applies in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Multi-State plan</I> means a health plan that is offered in accordance with section 1334 of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirement.</I> The Exchange must offer only health plans which have in effect a certification issued or are recognized as plans deemed certified for participation in an Exchange as a QHP, unless specifically provided for otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General certification criteria.</I> The Exchange may certify a health plan as a QHP in the Exchange if—
</P>
<P>(1) The health insurance issuer provides evidence during the certification process in § 155.1010 that it complies with the minimum certification requirements outlined in subpart C of part 156, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange determines that making the health plan available is in the interest of the qualified individuals and qualified employers, except that the Exchange must not exclude a health plan—
</P>
<P>(i) On the basis that such plan is a fee-for-service plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Through the imposition of premium price controls; or
</P>
<P>(iii) On the basis that the health plan provides treatments necessary to prevent patients' deaths in circumstances the Exchange determines are inappropriate or too costly.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule for SHOP.</I> Except when a QHP is decertified by the Exchange pursuant to § 155.1080, in a SHOP that certifies QHPs on a calendar-year basis, the certification shall remain in effect for the duration of any plan year beginning in the calendar year for which the QHP was certified, even if the plan year ends after the calendar year for which the QHP was certified.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Denial of certification.</I> The Exchange may deny certification to any plan that does not meet the general certification criteria under § 155.1000(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18467, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 10870, Feb. 27, 2015; 90 FR 4541, Jan. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1010" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1010   Certification process for QHPs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification procedures.</I> The Exchange must establish procedures for the certification of QHPs consistent with § 155.1000(c).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Completion date.</I> The Exchange must complete the certification of the QHPs that will be offered during the open enrollment period prior to the beginning of such period, as outlined in § 155.410.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ongoing compliance.</I> The Exchange must monitor the QHP issuers for demonstration of ongoing compliance with the certification requirements in § 155.1000(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exchange recognition of plans deemed certified for participation in an Exchange.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, an Exchange must recognize as certified QHPs:
</P>
<P>(1) A multi-State plan certified by and under contract with the U.S. Office of Personnel Management.
</P>
<P>(2) A CO-OP QHP as described in subpart F of part 156 and deemed as certified under § 156.520(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1020" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1020   QHP issuer rate and benefit information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Receipt and posting of rate increase justification.</I> The Exchange must ensure that a QHP issuer submits a justification for a rate increase for a QHP prior to the implementation of such an increase, except for multi-State plans, for which the U.S. Office of Personnel Management will provide a process for the submission of rate increase justifications. The Exchange must ensure that the QHP issuer has prominently posted the justification on its Web site as required under § 156.210. To ensure consumer transparency, the Exchange must also provide access to the justification on its Internet Web site described in § 155.205(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rate increase consideration.</I> (1) The Exchange must consider rate increases in accordance with section 1311(e)(2) of the Affordable Care Act, which includes consideration of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A justification for a rate increase prior to the implementation of the increase;
</P>
<P>(ii) Recommendations provided to the Exchange by the State in accordance with section 2794(b)(1)(B) of the PHS Act; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any excess of rate growth outside the Exchange as compared to the rate of such growth inside the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(2) This paragraph does not apply to multi-State plans for which the U.S. Office of Personnel Management will provide a process for rate increase consideration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Benefit and rate information.</I> The Exchange must receive the information described in this paragraph, at least annually, from QHP issuers for each QHP in a form and manner to be specified by HHS. Information about multi-State plans may be provided in a form and manner determined by the U.S. Office of Personnel Management. The information identified in this paragraph is:
</P>
<P>(1) Rates;
</P>
<P>(2) Covered benefits; and
</P>
<P>(3) Cost-sharing requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18467, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 31515, May 29, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1030" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1030   QHP certification standards related to advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of plan variations for cost-sharing reductions.</I> (1) An Exchange must ensure that each issuer that offers, or intends to offer a health plan at any level of coverage in the individual market on the Exchange submits the required plan variations for the health plan as described in § 156.420 of this subchapter. The Exchange must certify that the plan variations meet the requirements of § 156.420.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must provide to HHS the actuarial values of each QHP and silver plan variation, calculated under § 156.135 of this subchapter, in the manner and timeframe established by HHS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information for administering advance payments of the premium tax credit and advance payments of cost-sharing reductions.</I> (1) The Exchange must collect and review annually the rate allocation and the actuarial memorandum that an issuer submits to the Exchange under § 156.470 of this subchapter, to ensure that the allocation meets the standards set forth in § 156.470(c) and (d) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The Exchange must submit, in the manner and timeframe established by HHS, to HHS the approved allocations and actuarial memorandum underlying the approved allocations for each health plan at any level of coverage or stand-alone dental plan offered, or intended to be offered in the individual market on the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(3) The Exchange must use the methodology specified in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters to calculate advance payment amounts for cost-sharing reductions, and must transmit the advance payment amounts to HHS, in accordance with § 156.340(a) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(4) HHS may use the information provided to HHS by the Exchange under this section for oversight of advance payments of cost-sharing reductions and premium tax credits.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multi-State plans.</I> The U.S. Office of Personnel Management will ensure compliance with the standards referenced in this section for multi-State plans, as defined in § 155.1000(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15534, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 13839, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1040" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1040   Transparency in coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> The Exchange must collect information relating to coverage transparency as described in § 156.220 of this subtitle from QHP issuers, and from multi-State plans in a time and manner determined by the U.S. Office of Personnel Management.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of plain language.</I> The Exchange must determine whether the information required to be submitted and made available under paragraph (a) of this section is provided in plain language.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transparency of cost-sharing information.</I> The Exchange must monitor whether a QHP issuer has made cost-sharing information available in a timely manner upon the request of an individual as required by § 156.220(d) of this subtitle.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1045" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1045   Accreditation timeline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timeline.</I> The Exchange must establish a uniform period following certification of a QHP within which a QHP issuer that is not already accredited must become accredited as required by § 156.275 of this subchapter, except for multi-state plans. The U.S. Office of Personnel Management will establish the accreditation period for multi-state plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federally-facilitated Exchange.</I> The accreditation timeline used in federally-facilitated Exchanges follows:
</P>
<P>(1) During certification for an issuer's initial year of QHP certification (for example, in 2013 for the 2014 coverage year), a QHP issuer without existing commercial, Medicaid, or Exchange health plan accreditation granted by a recognized accrediting entity for the same State in which the issuer is applying to offer coverage must have scheduled or plan to schedule a review of QHP policies and procedures of the applying QHP issuer with a recognized accrediting entity.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to a QHP issuer's second year and third year of QHP certification (for example, in 2014 for the 2015 coverage year and 2015 for the 2016 coverage year), a QHP issuer must be accredited by a recognized accrediting entity on the policies and procedures that are applicable to their Exchange products, or a QHP issuer must have commercial or Medicaid health plan accreditation granted by a recognized accrediting entity for the same State in which the issuer is offering Exchange coverage and the administrative policies and procedures underlying that accreditation must be the same or similar to the administrative policies and procedures used in connection with the QHP.
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to the QHP issuer's fourth year of QHP certification and in every subsequent year of certification (for example, in 2016 for the 2017 coverage year and forward), a QHP issuer must be accredited in accordance with § 156.275 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12865, Feb. 25, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1050" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1050   Establishment of Exchange provider access standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except with regard to multi-State plans:
</P>
<P>(1) A Federally-facilitated Exchange State without an Effective Provider Access Review Program (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section) must ensure that each QHP provides sufficient access to providers in a manner that meets the standards specified in § 156.230 for network plans, or, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2028, § 156.236 for non-network plans if such plans are allowed to be offered through the Exchange, as applicable. A State on the Federally-facilitated Exchanges with an Effective Provider Access Review Program (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section) must ensure that each QHP provides sufficient access to providers in a manner that meets the standards specified in § 156.230(a)(1) for network plans, or, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2028, § 156.236(a) for non-network plans if such plans are allowed to be offered through the Exchange, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) State Exchanges and State-based Exchanges on the Federal Platform must ensure that each QHP provides sufficient access to providers in a manner that meets standards under § 156.230(a)(1)(ii) and (iii) for network plans, or, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2027, § 156.236(a) for non-network plans if such plans are allowed to be offered through the Exchange, as applicable.




</P>
<P>(b) The U.S. Office of Personnel Management will ensure compliance with the standards specified in § 156.230 of this subtitle for multi-State plans.
</P>
<P>(c) A QHP issuer in an Exchange may not be prohibited from contracting with any essential community provider designated under § 156.235(c) of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) FFE States may elect to conduct their own provider access certification reviews of issuers' plans, with or without a provider network, applying for certification as a QHP to be offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange provided that the State has demonstrated sufficient authority and the technical capacity to conduct these reviews by satisfying the applicable criteria to be considered to have an Effective Provider Access Review Program under paragraphs (d)(2) through (d)(4) of this section. This option applies to Federally-facilitated Exchange States, including States performing plan management. If States do not satisfy the criteria established under paragraphs (d)(2) through (d)(4) of this section, or do not elect to conduct such reviews, CMS will continue to conduct reviews of QHP issuer provider access in those States consistent with requirements listed under § 156.230 for network plans and under § 156.236 for non-network plans. Applicable requirements for non-network plans under this section are effective for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2028.
</P>
<P>(2) Federally-facilitated Exchange States with an Effective Provider Access Review Program must ensure that a QHP issuer that uses a network of providers ensures that the in-network providers, as available to all enrollees, include essential community providers (ECPs) in accordance with § 156.235, and maintains a network that is sufficient in number and types of providers, including providers that specialize in mental health and substance use disorder services, to ensure that all services will be accessible without unreasonable delay. The QHP issuer's provider network consisting of in-network providers, as available to all enrollees, must be consistent with the rules for network plans of section 2702(c) of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(3) Federally-facilitated Exchange States with an Effective Provider Access Review Program must ensure that a QHP issuer that does not use a network of providers (a non-network plan) provides access to a sufficient choice of providers that accept the non-network plan's benefit amount as payment in full, including ECPs and providers that specialize in mental health and substance use disorder services, to ensure that all services will be accessible without unreasonable delay.
</P>
<P>(4) A Federally-facilitated Exchange State that elects to conduct provider access reviews has an Effective Provider Access Review Program if it meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The State has established provider access standards that are set forth in State statute or regulation, which are consistent with provider access standards as set forth in § 156.230(a)(1)(ii) and (iii), and reports to CMS whether the State has delegated authority to some entity other than the State Department of Insurance to perform any or all provider access review activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) The State's provider access review process includes reporting systems for State required provider access metrics and documentation of methodology and the State provides descriptions of all data collection systems, resources, templates, and methodologies used by the State, or the State's delegated entity to collect and review provider access data; and the State receives from issuers data and documentation in connection with provider access standards that are sufficient to conduct the examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) The State's provider access review process includes procedures to ensure full and ongoing compliance with State provider access standards and enforcement frameworks applicable to issuers that fail to meet provider access standards so that those issuers come into compliance with State provider access standards, including standardized processes to assess efforts the issuer is pursuing to come into compliance with State provider access standards and implementing any justification and exception processes for issuers that have not yet or cannot meet provider access requirements.
</P>
<P>(iv) The State establishes and maintains clear procedures and timeline requirements for regular provider access reviews, including processes that ensure reviews occur prior to completion of each plan year's QHP certification cycle.
</P>
<P>(v) The State has a process for monitoring and addressing consumer-related provider access complaints to ensure sufficient access to providers consistent with section 1311(c)(1)(B) of the Affordable Care Act and as set forth in State statute.
</P>
<P>(vi) The State has a process to collect and review information described under § 156.236(b)(4) through (b)(9) from non-network plans, which non-network plans must submit to the FFE for a determination that it provides access to a sufficient choice of providers that accept the non-network plan's benefit amount as payment in full.
</P>
<P>(5) CMS will determine whether a State has an Effective Provider Access Review Program based on information available to CMS that demonstrates whether the program meets the criteria described under paragraphs (d)(2) through (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) CMS may grant an exception to the requirements in paragraph (d) of this section if it determines that making such an exception is in the interests of qualified individuals in the State or States in which such Exchange operates.
</P>
<P>(7) CMS will notify the FFE State electing to conduct provider access certification reviews of its decision in writing whether the State is determined to have an Effective Provider Access Review Program and can therefore conduct its own provider access certification reviews. CMS reserves the right to evaluate at any time whether, and to what extent, an FFE State's circumstances have changed such that it has begun to or has ceased to satisfy the criteria established by CMS under this section. Such evaluations may result in CMS assuming provider access review responsibilities or transitioning such responsibilities back to the State.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18467, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 26423, Apr. 15, 2024; 91 FR 29868, May 20, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1051" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1051   Effective Essential Community Provider Review Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FFE States may elect to conduct their own ECP certification reviews of issuers' plans with or without a provider network applying for certification as a QHP to be offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange provided that the State demonstrates it has sufficient authority and the technical capacity to conduct these reviews by satisfying the applicable criteria to be considered to have an Effective Essential Community Provider Review Program under this section. This option applies to all FFE States, including States performing plan management. An FFE State must demonstrate it meets applicable criteria established under paragraphs (b) through (c) of this section for both network plans and non-network plans, and the sufficient authority and technical capacity to conduct reviews of such plans (as assessed by CMS under § 155.1051(e)), to be considered to have an Effective Essential Community Provider Review Program, if they decide to certify such plans. If FFE States do not satisfy the criteria established by CMS under paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section or do not elect to conduct such reviews, then CMS will continue to perform ECP certification reviews consistent with § 156.235 for network plans and § 156.236 for non-network plans. Applicable requirements for non-network plans under this section are effective for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2028.
</P>
<P>(b) FFE States with an Effective ECP Review Program must ensure that a QHP issuer with a provider network includes in their provider network a sufficient number and geographic distribution of ECPs, where available, to ensure reasonable and timely access to a broad range of such providers for low-income individuals or individuals residing in Health Professional Shortage Areas within the QHP's service area, in accordance with the Exchange's network adequacy standards. FFE States with an Effective ECP Review Program must also ensure that a non-network plan applying for certification to be offered as a QHP through a Federally-facilitated Exchange demonstrates that it provides reasonable and timely access to ECPs that accept the plan's benefit amount as payment in full to ensure that services will be accessible without unreasonable delay.
</P>
<P>(c) FFE States with an Effective ECP Review Program must have established ECP requirements that are set forth in State statute or regulation. FFE States must demonstrate that these established ECP requirements ensure that plans meet all the following requirements that promote a sufficient number and geographic distribution of ECPs:
</P>
<P>(1) The minimum percentage requirements under § 156.235(a)(2)(i) for network plans, and under § 156.236(b)(1) for non-network plans.
</P>
<P>(2) The Indian health care provider requirement under § 156.235(a)(2)(ii)(A) for network plans and under § 156.236(b)(3) for non-network plans.
</P>
<P>(3) The category per county requirements, including for each of the eight ECP category types under § 156.235(a)(2)(ii)(B) for network plans and under § 156.236(b)(2) for non-network plans.
</P>
<P>(d) FFE States with an Effective ECP Review Program that have alternative ECP requirements compared to those described under paragraph (c)(1) through (3) of this section must demonstrate how their requirements would continue to promote a sufficient number and geographic distribution of ECPs to ensure reasonable and timely access to ECPs, and an adequate level of service for low-income enrollees or individuals residing in Health Professional Shortage Areas.
</P>
<P>(e) CMS will consider all the following factors in its review to determine if an FFE State has an Effective ECP Review Program:
</P>
<P>(1) The State's legal authority to review whether plans applying for QHP certification meet ECP requirements, including relevant State regulations and statutes.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that the State's requirements are consistent with ECP requirements under paragraph (c)(1) through (3) of this section that promote a sufficient number and geographic distribution of ECPs, or the State provides a rationale to describe how its alternative requirements promote a sufficient number and geographic distribution of ECPs to ensure reasonable and timely access to ECPs.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the State's definition of an ECP, if different from the definition under § 156.235(c), including relevant categories and eligibility criteria that the State uses to determine whether a facility qualifies as an ECP.
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the State utilizes the Federal ECP List or has a process it uses to identify qualified ECPs that may be included within a network plan's provider network.
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the State utilizes the Federal ECP List or has a process it uses to identify qualified ECPs that may accept a non-network plan's benefit amount as payment in full.
</P>
<P>(6) A description of data collection systems, resources, templates, or methodologies used by the State to collect and review ECP data.
</P>
<P>(7) Whether the State generally collects information from QHP issuers regarding the status of contract offers for network plans or offers of benefit amounts as payment in full to an ECP for non-network plans.
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the State has delegated authority to some other entity other than the State Department of Insurance to perform any or all ECP review activities.
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the State has compliance reviews, follow-up procedures, and enforcement frameworks applicable to issuers that demonstrate inadequate networks of ECPs or inadequate access to ECPs that accept benefit amounts as payment in full, so that those issuers come into compliance with State ECP requirements, including standardized processes to assess efforts the issuer is pursuing to come into compliance with State ECP requirements and any justification and exception processes for issuers that have not yet or cannot meet ECP requirements.
</P>
<P>(10) Whether the State has a process for monitoring and addressing consumer-related complaints regarding access to ECPs to ensure sufficient access to ECPs consistent with section 1311(c)(1)(C) of the Affordable Care Act and set forth in State statute.
</P>
<P>(11) Whether the State collects the information described under § 156.236(b)(4) through (b)(9) from issuers of non-network plans, which issuers of non-network plans must submit to the FFE for a determination that the plan provides reasonable and timely access to ECPs that accept the plan's benefit amount as payment in full.
</P>
<P>(f) CMS will notify the FFE State electing to conduct ECP certification reviews of its decision in writing whether the State is determined to have an Effective ECP Review Program and can therefore conduct its own ECP certification reviews. CMS reserves the right to evaluate at any time whether, and to what extent, an FFE State's circumstances have changed such that it has begun to or has ceased to satisfy the criteria established by CMS under this section, and consequently no longer has an Effective ECP Review Program.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 29869, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1055" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1055   Service area of a QHP.</HEAD>
<P>The Exchange must have a process to establish or evaluate the service areas of QHPs to ensure such service areas meet the following minimum criteria:
</P>
<P>(a) The service area of a QHP covers a minimum geographical area that is at least the entire geographic area of a county, or a group of counties defined by the Exchange, unless the Exchange determines that serving a smaller geographic area is necessary, nondiscriminatory, and in the best interest of the qualified individuals and employers.
</P>
<P>(b) The service area of a QHP has been established without regard to racial, ethnic, language, health status-related factors specified under section 2705(a) of the PHS Act, or other factors that exclude specific high utilizing, high cost or medically-underserved populations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1065" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1065   Stand-alone dental plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The Exchange must allow the offering of a limited scope dental benefits plan through the Exchange, if—
</P>
<P>(1) The plan meets the requirements of section 9832(c)(2)(A) of the Code and 2791(c)(2)(A) of the PHS Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) The plan covers at least the pediatric dental essential health benefit as defined in section 1302(b)(1)(J) of the Affordable Care Act, provided that, with respect to this benefit, the plan satisfies the requirements of section 2711 of the PHS Act; and
</P>
<P>(3) The plan and issuer of such plan meets QHP certification standards, including § 155.1020(c), except for any certification requirement that cannot be met because the plan covers only the benefits described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Offering options.</I> The Exchange may allow the dental plan to be offered—
</P>
<P>(1) As a stand-alone dental plan; or
</P>
<P>(2) In conjunction with a QHP.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sufficient capacity.</I> An Exchange must consider the collective capacity of stand-alone dental plans during certification to ensure sufficient access to pediatric dental coverage.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>QHP Certification standards.</I> If a plan described in paragraph (a) of this section is offered through an Exchange, another health plan offered through such Exchange must not fail to be treated as a QHP solely because the plan does not offer coverage of benefits offered through the stand-alone plan that are otherwise required under section 1302(b)(1)(J) of the Affordable Care Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1075" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1075   Recertification of QHPs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recertification process.</I> Except with respect to multi-State plans and CO-OP QHPs, an Exchange must establish a process for recertification of QHPs that, at a minimum, includes a review of the general certification criteria as outlined in § 155.1000(c). Upon determining the recertification status of a QHP, the Exchange must notify the QHP issuer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> The Exchange must complete the QHP recertification process no later than 2 weeks prior to the beginning of the open enrollment date at § 155.410(e)(2) of the applicable calendar year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18467, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 10870, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1080" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1080   Decertification of QHPs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The following definition applies to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Decertification</I> means the termination by the Exchange of the certification status and offering of a QHP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decertification process.</I> Except with respect to multi-State plans and CO-OP QHPs, the Exchange must establish a process for the decertification of QHPs, which, at a minimum, meets the requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decertification by the Exchange.</I> The Exchange may at any time decertify a health plan if the Exchange determines that the QHP issuer is no longer in compliance with the general certification criteria as outlined in § 155.1000(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeal of decertification.</I> The Exchange must establish a process for the appeal of a decertification of a QHP.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of decertification.</I> Upon decertification of a QHP, the Exchange must provide notice of decertification to all affected parties, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The QHP issuer;
</P>
<P>(2) Exchange enrollees in the QHP who must receive information about a special enrollment period, as described in § 155.420;
</P>
<P>(3) HHS; and
</P>
<P>(4) The State department of insurance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18467, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 31515, May 29, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1090" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.10.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1090   Request for the reconsideration of a denial of certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for the reconsideration of a denial of certification specific to a Federally-facilitated Exchange</I>—(1) <I>Request for reconsideration.</I> The Federally-facilitated Exchanges will permit an issuer that has submitted a complete application to a Federally-facilitated Exchange for certification of a health plan as a QHP and is denied certification to request reconsideration of such action.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form and manner of request.</I> An issuer submitting a request for reconsideration under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must submit a written request for reconsideration to HHS, in the form and manner specified by HHS, within 7 calendar days of the date of the written notice of denial of certification. The issuer must include any and all documentation the issuer wishes to provide in support of its request with its request for reconsideration. The request for reconsideration must provide clear and convincing evidence that HHS' determination that the plan does not meet the general certification criteria at § 155.1000(c) was in error.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>HHS reconsideration decision.</I> HHS will review the reconsideration request to determine whether the issuer's reconsideration request provided clear and convincing evidence that HHS' determination that the plan does not meet the general certification criteria at § 155.1000(c) was in error. HHS will provide the issuer with a written notice of the reconsideration decision. The decision will constitute HHS' final determination.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 94180, Dec. 22, 2016, as amended at 90 FR 4541, Jan. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Oversight and Program Integrity Standards for State Exchanges</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 65095, Oct. 30, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.1200" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1200   General program integrity and oversight requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A State Exchange must:
</P>
<P>(1) Keep an accurate accounting of Exchange receipts and expenditures in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP).
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor and report to HHS on Exchange related activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Collect and report to HHS performance monitoring data.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting.</I> The State Exchange must, at least annually, provide to HHS, in a manner specified by HHS and by applicable deadlines specified by HHS, the following data and information:
</P>
<P>(1) A financial statement presented in accordance with GAAP,
</P>
<P>(2) Information showing compliance with Exchange requirements under this part 155 through submission of annual reports,
</P>
<P>(3) Performance monitoring data, and
</P>
<P>(4) If the Exchange is collecting premiums under § 155.240, a report on instances in which it did not reduce an enrollee's premium by the amount of the advance payment of the premium tax credit in accordance with § 155.340(g)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>External audits.</I> The State Exchange must engage an independent qualified auditing entity which follows generally accepted government auditing standards (GAGAS) to perform an annual independent external financial and programmatic audit and must make such information available to HHS for review. The State Exchange must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide to HHS the results of the annual external audit; and
</P>
<P>(2) Inform HHS of any material weakness or significant deficiency identified in the audit and must develop and inform HHS of a corrective action plan for such material weakness or significant deficiency;
</P>
<P>(3) Make public a summary of the results of the external audit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>External audit standard.</I> The State Exchange must ensure that independent audits of State Exchange financial activities and program activities under paragraph (c) of this section address the following requirements, unless a State Exchange is satisfying certain programmatic audit requirements for a given benefit year, as identified by HHS in sub-regulatory guidance, under paragraph (e) of this section:


</P>
<P>(1) Compliance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance with subparts D and E of this part 155, or other requirements under this part 155 as specified by HHS;
</P>
<P>(3) Processes and procedures designed to prevent improper eligibility determinations and enrollment transactions, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(4) Compliance with eligibility and enrollment standards through sampling, testing, or other equivalent auditing procedures that demonstrate the accuracy of eligibility determinations and enrollment transactions; and
</P>
<P>(5) Identification of errors that have resulted in incorrect eligibility determinations, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>State Exchange Improper Payment Measurement (SEIPM) program.</I> For a given benefit year, a State Exchange may satisfy certain requirements of the independent external programmatic audit, particularly the review of compliance with subparts D and E of this part, as identified by HHS in sub-regulatory guidance, as outlined in paragraph (d) of this section, by completing the SEIPM process established through 45 CFR part 155, subpart Q.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65095, Oct. 30, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 71710, Dec. 27, 2019; 91 FR 29870, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1210" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1210   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The State Exchange must maintain and must ensure its contractors, subcontractors, and agents maintain for 10 years, documents and records (whether paper, electronic, or other media) and other evidence of accounting procedures and practices, which are sufficient to do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Accommodate periodic auditing of the State Exchange's financial records; and
</P>
<P>(2) Enable HHS or its designee(s) to inspect facilities, or otherwise evaluate the State- Exchange's compliance with Federal standards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records.</I> The State Exchange and its contractors, subcontractors, and agents must ensure that the records specified in paragraph (a) of this section include, at a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Information concerning management and operation of the State Exchange's financial and other record keeping systems;
</P>
<P>(2) Financial statements, including cash flow statements, and accounts receivable and matters pertaining to the costs of operations;
</P>
<P>(3) Any financial reports filed with other Federal programs or State authorities;
</P>
<P>(4) Data and records relating to the State Exchange's eligibility verifications and determinations, enrollment transactions, appeals, and plan variation certifications; and
</P>
<P>(5) Qualified health plan contracting (including benefit review) data and consumer outreach and Navigator grant oversight information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability.</I> A State Exchange must make all records and must ensure its contractors, subcontractors, and agents must make all records in paragraph (a) of this section available to HHS, the OIG, the Comptroller General, or their designees, upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—State Flexibility</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1300" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1300   Basis and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory basis.</I> This subpart implements provisions of section 1332 of the Affordable Care Act, relating to Waivers for State Innovation, which the Secretary may authorize for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2017. Section 1332 of the Affordable Care Act requires the Secretary to issue regulations that provide for all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A process for public notice and comment at the State level, including public hearings, sufficient to ensure a meaningful level of public input.
</P>
<P>(2) A process for the submission of an application that ensures the disclosure of all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The provisions of law that the State involved seeks to waive.
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific plans of the State to ensure that the waiver will meet all requirements specified in section 1332.
</P>
<P>(3) A process for the provision of public notice and comment after a waiver application is received by the Secretary, that is sufficient to ensure a meaningful level of public input and that does not impose requirements that are in addition to, or duplicative of, requirements imposed under the Administrative Procedures Act, or requirements that are unreasonable or unnecessarily burdensome with respect to State compliance.
</P>
<P>(4) A process for the submission of reports to the Secretary by a State relating to the implementation of a waiver.
</P>
<P>(5) A process for the periodic evaluation by the Secretary of programs under waivers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart sets forth certain procedural requirements for Waivers for State Innovation under section 1332 of the Affordable Care Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1302" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1302   Coordinated waiver process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coordination with applications for waivers under other Federal laws.</I> A State may submit a single application to the Secretary for a waiver under section 1332 of the Affordable Care Act and a waiver under one or more of the existing waiver processes applicable under titles XVIII, XIX, and XXI of the Act, or under any other Federal law relating to the provision of health care items or services, provided that such application is consistent with the procedures described in this part, the procedures for demonstrations under section 1115 of the Act, if applicable, and the procedures under any other applicable Federal law under which the State seeks a waiver.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coordinated process for section 1332 waivers.</I> A State seeking a section 1332 waiver must submit a waiver application to the Secretary. Any application submitted to the Secretary that requests to waive sections 36B, 4980H, or 5000A of the Code, in accordance with section 1332(a)(2)(D) of the Affordable Care Act, shall upon receipt be transmitted by the Secretary to the Secretary of the Treasury to be reviewed in accordance with 31 CFR part 33.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1304" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1304   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Complete application</I> means an application that has been submitted and for which the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, have made a preliminary determination that it includes all required information and satisfies all requirements that are described in § 155.1308(f).
</P>
<P><I>Public notice</I> means a notice issued by a government agency or legislative body that contains sufficient detail to notify the public at large of a proposed action consistent with § 155.1312.
</P>
<P><I>Section 1332 waiver</I> means a Waiver for State Innovation under section 1332 of the Affordable Care Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1308" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1308   Application procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable formats for applications.</I> Applications for initial approval of a section 1332 waiver shall be submitted in electronic format to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application timing.</I> Applications for initial approval of a section 1332 waiver must be submitted sufficiently in advance of the requested effective date to allow for an appropriate implementation timeline.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preliminary review.</I> Each application for a section 1332 waiver will be subject to a preliminary review by the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, who will make a preliminary determination that the application is complete. A submitted application will not be deemed received until the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, have made the preliminary determination that the application is complete.
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, will complete the preliminary review of the application within 45 days after it is submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, determine that the application is not complete, the Secretary will send the State a written notice of the elements missing from the application.
</P>
<P>(3) The preliminary determination that an application is complete does not preclude a finding during the 180-day Federal decision-making period that a necessary element of the application is missing or insufficient.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of preliminary determination.</I> Upon making the preliminary determination that an application is complete, as defined in this part, the Secretary will send the State a written notice informing the State that the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, have made such a preliminary determination. That date will also mark the beginning of the Federal public notice process and the 180-day Federal decision-making period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public notice of completed application.</I> Upon receipt of a complete application for an initial section 1332 waiver, the Secretary will—
</P>
<P>(1) Make available to the public the application, and all related State submissions, including all supplemental information received from the State following the receipt of a complete application for a section 1332 waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) Indicate the status of the application.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Criteria for a complete application.</I> An application for initial approval of a section 1332 waiver will not be considered complete unless the application meets all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Complies with paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Provides written evidence of the State's compliance with the public notice requirements set forth in § 155.1312, including a description of the key issues raised during the State public notice and comment period.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A comprehensive description of the State legislation and program to implement a plan meeting the requirements for a waiver under section 1332 of PPACA. In analyzing whether the State has satisfied the requirement under section 1332(b)(2)(A) of PPACA that the State enact a law authorizing a waiver under section 1332 of PPACA, the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, may consider existing State legislation combined with duly-enacted State regulation or an executive order so long as the State legislation provides statutory authority to enforce PPACA provisions or the State plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the enacted State legislation that provides the State with authority to implement the proposed waiver, as required under section 1332(a)(1)(C) of the Affordable Care Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list of the provisions of law that the State seeks to waive including a description of the reason for the specific requests; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The analyses, actuarial certifications, data, assumptions, targets, and other information set forth in paragraph (f)(4) of this section sufficient to provide the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, with the necessary data to determine that the State's proposed waiver satisfies the general requirements for approval under section 1332(b)(1) of the Affordable Care Act consistent with the provisions of this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(A) As required under section 1332(b)(1)(A) of the Affordable Care Act (the comprehensive coverage requirement), will provide coverage that is at least as comprehensive as the coverage defined in section 1302(b) of the Affordable Care Act and offered through Exchanges established under the Affordable Care Act as certified by the Office of the Actuary of the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services based on sufficient data from the State and from comparable States about their experience with programs created by the Affordable Care Act and the provisions of the Affordable Care Act that the State seeks to waive. To satisfy the comprehensive coverage requirement, the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, must determine that the coverage under the State plan is forecasted to be at least as comprehensive overall for residents of the State as coverage absent the waiver;
</P>
<P>(B) As required under section 1332(b)(1)(B) of the Affordable Care Act (the affordability requirement), will provide coverage and cost sharing protections against excessive out-of-pocket spending that are at least as affordable as the provisions of Title I of the Affordable Care Act would provide. To satisfy the affordability requirement, the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, must determine that the coverage under the State plan is forecasted to be at least as affordable overall for State residents as coverage absent the waiver;
</P>
<P>(C) As required under section 1332(b)(1)(C) of the Affordable Care Act (the scope of coverage requirement), will provide coverage to at least a comparable number of its residents as the provisions of Title I of the Affordable Care Act would provide. To satisfy the scope of coverage requirement, the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, must determine that the State plan will provide coverage to a comparable number of State residents under the waiver as would have coverage absent the waiver; and
</P>
<P>(D) As prohibited under section 1332(b)(1)(D) of the Affordable Care Act (the Federal deficit requirement), will not increase the Federal deficit.
</P>
<P>(4) Contains the following supporting information:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Actuarial analyses and actuarial certifications.</I> Actuarial analyses and actuarial certifications to support the State's estimates that the proposed waiver will comply with the comprehensive coverage requirement, the affordability requirement, and the scope of coverage requirement;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Economic analyses.</I> Economic analyses to support the State's estimates that the proposed waiver will comply with the comprehensive coverage requirement, the affordability requirement, the scope of coverage requirement and the Federal deficit requirement, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed 10-year budget plan that is deficit neutral to the Federal government, as prescribed by section 1332(a)(1)(B)(ii) of the Affordable Care Act, and includes all costs under the waiver, including administrative costs and other costs to the Federal government, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(B) A detailed analysis regarding the estimated impact of the waiver on health insurance coverage in the State.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Data and assumptions.</I> The data and assumptions used to demonstrate that the State's proposed waiver is in compliance with the comprehensive coverage requirement, the affordability requirement, the scope of coverage requirement and the Federal deficit requirement, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Information on the age, income, health expenses and current health insurance status of the relevant State population; the number of employers by number of employees and whether the employer offers insurance; cross-tabulations of these variables; and an explanation of data sources and quality; and
</P>
<P>(B) An explanation of the key assumptions used to develop the estimates of the effect of the waiver on coverage and the Federal budget, such as individual and employer participation rates, behavioral changes, premium and price effects, and other relevant factors.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Implementation timeline.</I> A detailed draft timeline for the State's implementation of the proposed waiver.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Additional information.</I> Additional information supporting the State's proposed waiver, including:
</P>
<P>(A) An explanation as to whether the waiver increases or decreases the administrative burden on individuals, insurers, and employers, and if so, how and why;
</P>
<P>(B) An explanation of how the waiver will affect the implementation of the provisions of the Affordable Care Act which the State is not requesting to waive in the State and at the Federal level;
</P>
<P>(C) An explanation of how the waiver will affect residents who need to obtain health care services out-of-State, as well as the States in which such residents may seek such services;
</P>
<P>(D) If applicable, an explanation as to how the State will provide the Federal government with all information necessary to administer the waiver at the Federal level; and
</P>
<P>(E) An explanation of how the State's proposal will address potential individual, employer, insurer, or provider compliance, waste, fraud and abuse within the State or in other States.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Reporting targets.</I> Quarterly, annual, and cumulative targets for the comprehensive coverage requirement, the affordability requirement, the scope of coverage requirement and the Federal deficit requirement.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Other information.</I> Other information consistent with guidance provided by the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional supporting information.</I> (1) During the Federal review process, the Secretary may request additional supporting information from the State as needed to address public comments or to address issues that arise in reviewing the application.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for additional information, and responses to such requests, will be made available to the public in the same manner as information described in § 155.1316(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 11718, Feb. 27, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 6177, Jan. 19, 2021; 86 FR 53504, Sept. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1312" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1312   State public notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Prior to submitting an application for a new section 1332 waiver to the Secretary for review and consideration, a State must provide a public notice and comment period sufficient to ensure a meaningful level of public input for the application for a section 1332 waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) Such public notice and comment period shall include, for a State with one or more Federally-recognized Indian tribes within its borders, a separate process for meaningful consultation with such tribes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public notice and comment period.</I> The State shall make available at the beginning of the public notice and comment period, through its Web site or other effective means of communication, and shall update as appropriate, a public notice that includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A comprehensive description of the application for a section 1332 waiver to be submitted to the Secretary including information and assurances related to all statutory requirements and other information consistent with guidance provided by the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Information relating to where copies of the application for a section 1332 waiver are available for public review and comment.
</P>
<P>(3) Information relating to how and where written comments may be submitted and reviewed by the public, and the timeframe during which comments will be accepted.
</P>
<P>(4) The location, date, and time of public hearings that will be convened by the State to seek public input on the application for a section 1332 waiver.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public hearings.</I> (1) After issuing the public notice and prior to submitting an application for a new section 1332 waiver, a State must conduct public hearings regarding the State's application.
</P>
<P>(2) Such public hearings shall provide an interested party the opportunity to learn about and comment on the contents of the application for a section 1332 waiver.
</P>
<P>(3) Such public hearings shall be conducted in an in-person, virtual (that is, one that uses telephonic, digital, and/or web-based platforms), or hybrid (that is, one that provides for both in-person and virtual attendance) format.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of initial application.</I> After the State public notice and comment period has concluded, the State may submit an application to the Secretary for an initial waiver in accordance with the requirements set forth in § 155.1308.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 11718, Feb. 27, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 26424, Apr. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1316" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1316   Federal public notice and approval process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Federal public notice and approval process begins on the first business day after the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, determine that all elements for a complete application were documented and submitted to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public notice and comment period.</I> (1) Following a determination that a State's application for a section 1332 waiver is complete, the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, will provide for a public notice and comment period that is sufficient to ensure a meaningful level of public input and that does not impose requirements that are in addition to, or duplicative of, requirements imposed under the Administrative Procedures Act, or requirements that are unreasonable or unnecessarily burdensome with respect to State compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) At the beginning of the Federal notice and comment period, the Secretary will make available through its Web site and otherwise, and shall update as appropriate, public notice that includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The complete application for a section 1332 waiver, updates for the status of the State's application, and any supplemental materials received from the State prior to and during the Federal public notice and comment period.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information relating to where copies of the application for a section 1332 waiver are available for public review and comment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information relating to how and where written comments may be submitted and reviewed by the public, and the timeframe during which comments will be accepted.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any public comments received during the Federal public notice and comment period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approval of a section 1332 waiver application.</I> The final decision of the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, on a State application for a section 1332 waiver will be issued by the Secretary no later than 180 days after the determination by the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, that a complete application was received in accordance with § 155.1308.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1318" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1318   Modification from the normal public notice requirements during an emergent situation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury may modify, in part, the State public notice requirements under § 155.1312(a)(1), (b), (c), and (d) and the Federal public notice procedures under § 155.1316(b) to expedite a decision on a proposed section 1332 waiver request during an emergent situation, when a delay would undermine or compromise the purpose of the proposed waiver request and be contrary to the interests of consumers. These flexibilities are limited to emergent situations, including natural disasters; public health emergencies; or other emergent situations that threaten consumers' access to comprehensive coverage, consumers' access to health care, or human life.
</P>
<P>(b) A State must meet all of the following criteria to request a modification under paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The State must request a modification under paragraph (a) of this section, in the form and manner specified by the Secretaries.
</P>
<P>(2) The State must have acted in good faith, and in a diligent, timely, and prudent manner in the preparation of the request for a modification under paragraph (a) of this section, and the waiver application request, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) The State must, as applicable, detail in its request for a modification from State-level notice procedures under paragraph (a) of this section the justification for the request as it relates to the emergent situation and the alternative public notice procedures it proposes to implement at the State level, including public hearings, that are designed to provide the greatest opportunity and level of meaningful public input from impacted stakeholders that is practicable given the emergency circumstances underlying the State's request for a modification.
</P>
<P>(4) The State must, as applicable, detail in its request for a modification from Federal-level notice procedures under paragraph (a) of this section the justification for the request and the alternative public notice procedures it requests to be implemented at the Federal level.
</P>
<P>(5) The State must explain in its request for a modification from State-level notice procedures under paragraph (a) of this section how the emergent circumstances underlying its request result from a natural disaster; public health emergency; or other emergent situations that threaten consumers' access to comprehensive coverage, consumers' access to health care, or human life could not reasonably have been foreseen and how a delay would undermine or compromise the purpose of the waiver and be contrary to the interests of consumers.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury will evaluate a State's request for a modification under paragraph (a) of this section and issue their modification determination within approximately 15 calendar days after the request is received.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary will publish on the CMS website any modification determinations within 15 calendar days of the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury making such a determination, as well as the approved revised timeline for public comment under the approved alternative State or Federal public notice procedures, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) The State must publish on its website any modification requests and determinations within 15 calendar days of receipt of the determination, as well as the approved revised timeline for public comment under the alternative State or Federal public notice procedures, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) The State must, as applicable, implement the alternative public notice procedures at the State level if the State's modification request is approved and, if required, amend the waiver application request.
</P>
<P>(g) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury will consider circumstances to be emergent when they could not have been reasonably foreseen. The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury will assess “reasonable foreseeability” based on the specific issues that a section 1332 waiver proposes to address and other relevant factors, and will not make this assessment based solely on the number of days a State may have been aware of such issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 71202, Nov. 6, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 53504, Sept. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1320" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1320   Monitoring and compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Following the issuance of a final decision to approve a section 1332 waiver by the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, a State must comply with all applicable Federal laws and regulations, unless expressly waived. A State must, within the timeframes specified in law and regulation come into compliance with any changes in Federal law and regulation affecting section 1332 waivers, unless the provision being changed is expressly waived.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury will examine compliance with Federal and regulatory requirements consistent with § 155.1308(f)(3)(iv) when conducting implementation reviews under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation reviews.</I> (1) The terms and conditions of an approved section 1332 waiver will provide that the State will perform periodic reviews of the implementation of the section 1332 waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, will review documented complaints that a State is failing to comply with requirements specified in the terms and conditions of any approved section 1332 waiver.
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, will promptly share with a State any complaint that the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury has received and will also provide notification of any applicable monitoring and compliance issues.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Post award.</I> Within at least 6 months after the implementation date of a section 1332 waiver and annually thereafter, a State must hold a public forum to solicit comments on the progress of a section 1332 waiver. The State must hold the public forum at which members of the public have an opportunity to provide comments and must provide a summary of the forum to the Secretary as part of the quarterly report specified in § 155.1324(a) that is associated with the quarter in which the forum was held, as well as in the annual report specified in § 155.1324(b) that is associated with the year in which the forum was held. The public forum shall be conducted in an in-person, virtual (that is, one that uses telephonic, digital, and/or web-based platforms), or hybrid (that is, one that provides for both in-person and virtual attendance) format.


</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notification requirements for public forum.</I> The State must publish the date, time, and location of the public forum in a prominent location on the State's public web site, at least 30 days prior to the date of the planned public forum.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Modification from the normal post award requirements during an emergent situation.</I> (i) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury may modify, in part, State post award requirements under this paragraph (c)(2) for an approved section 1332 waiver request during an emergent situation when the application of the post award public notice requirements would be contrary to the interests of consumers. These flexibilities are limited to emergent situations, including natural disasters; public health emergencies; or other emergent situations that threaten consumers' access to comprehensive coverage, consumers' access to health care, or human life.
</P>
<P>(ii) A State must meet all of the following criteria to request a modification under paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The State must request a modification under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, in the form and manner specified by the Secretaries.
</P>
<P>(B) The State must have acted in good faith, and in a diligent, timely, and prudent manner to comply with the monitoring and compliance requirement under the waiver and the terms and conditions of the agreement between the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, and the State to implement a section 1332 waiver and to submit and prepare the request for a modification under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) The State must detail in its request for a modification under paragraph (c)(2) of this section the alternative post award public notice procedures it proposes to implement at the State level, including public hearings, that are designed to provide the greatest opportunity and level of meaningful public input from impacted stakeholders that is practicable given the emergency circumstances underlying the State's request for a modification.
</P>
<P>(D) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury will evaluate a State's request for a modification under paragraph (c)(2) of this section and issue their modification determination within approximately 15 calendar days after the request is received.
</P>
<P>(E) The State must publish on its website any modification requests and determinations within 15 calendar days of receipt of the determination, as well as information on the approved revised timeline for the State's post award public notice procedures, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(F) The State must explain in its request for a modification under paragraph (c)(2) of this section how the emergent circumstances underlying its request results from a natural disaster; public health emergency; or other emergent situations that threaten consumers' access to comprehensive coverage, consumers' access to health care, or human life and could not reasonably have been foreseen and how the application of the post award public notice requirements would be contrary to the interests of consumers.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury will consider circumstances to be emergent when they could not have been reasonably foreseen. The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury will assess “reasonable foreseeability” based on the specific issues that a section 1332 waiver proposes to address and other relevant factors, and will not make this assessment based solely on the number of days a State may have been aware of such issues.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Terminations and suspensions.</I> The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, reserve the right to suspend or terminate a section 1332 waiver in whole or in part, at any time before the date of expiration, whenever the Secretary or the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, determines that a State has materially failed to comply with the terms of a section 1332 waiver.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Closeout costs.</I> If all or part of a section 1332 waiver is terminated or suspended, or if a portion of a section 1332 waiver is withdrawn, Federal funding is limited to normal closeout costs associated with an orderly termination, suspension, or withdrawal, including service costs during any approved transition period, and administrative costs of disenrolling participants.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal evaluators.</I> (1) A State must fully cooperate with the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, or an independent evaluator selected by the Secretary or the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, to undertake an independent evaluation of any component of a section 1332 waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of this required cooperation, a State must submit all requested data and information to the Secretary, the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, or the independent evaluator.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 11718, Feb. 27, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 71203, Nov. 6, 2020; 86 FR 6178, Jan. 19, 2021; 86 FR 53505, Sept. 27, 2021; 89 FR 26424, Apr. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1322" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1322   Pass-through funding for approved waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pass-through funding.</I> With respect to a State's approved section 1332 waiver, under which, due to the structure of the approved State waiver plan, individuals and small employers in the State would not qualify for or would qualify for a reduced amount of premium tax credit under section 36B of the Internal Revenue Code, small business tax credit under section 45R of the Internal Revenue Code, or cost-sharing reductions under ACA part I of subtitle E for which they would otherwise be eligible, the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury shall provide for an alternative means by which the aggregate amount of such credits or reductions that would have been paid on behalf of participants in the Exchanges had the State not received such waiver shall be paid to the State for purposes of implementing the approved State waiver plan. Such amount shall be determined annually by the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, taking into consideration the experience of other States with respect to participation in an Exchange and credits and reductions provided under such provisions to residents of the other States. This amount can be updated to reflect applicable changes in Federal or State law.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 53505, Sept. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1324" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1324   State reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Quarterly reports.</I> A State must submit quarterly reports to the Secretary in accordance with the terms and conditions of the State's section 1332 waiver. These quarterly reports must include, but are not limited to, reports of any ongoing operational challenges and plans for and results of associated corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual reports.</I> A State must submit an annual report to the Secretary documenting all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The progress of the section 1332 waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) Data on compliance with section 1332(b)(1)(A) through (D) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(3) A summary of the annual post-award public forum, held in accordance with § 155.1320(c), including all public comments received at such forum regarding the progress of the section 1332 waiver and action taken in response to such concerns or comments.
</P>
<P>(4) Other information consistent with the State's approved terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submitting and publishing annual reports.</I> A State must submit a draft annual report to the Secretary no later than 90 days after the end of each waiver year, or as specified in the waiver's terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) Within 60 days of receipt of comments from the Secretary, a State must submit to the Secretary the final annual report for the waiver year.
</P>
<P>(2) The draft and final annual reports are to be published on a State's public web site within 30 days of submission to and approval by the Secretary, respectively.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1328" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1328   Periodic evaluation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, as applicable, shall periodically evaluate the implementation of a program under a section 1332 waiver consistent with § 155.1308(f)(3)(iv) and any terms and conditions governing the section 1332 waiver.
</P>
<P>(b) Each periodic evaluation must include a review of the annual report or reports submitted by the State in accordance with § 155.1324 that relate to the period of time covered by the evaluation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 11718, Feb. 27, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 53505, Sept. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1330" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1330   Waiver amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendment to an approved section 1332 waiver.</I> A State may request an amendment to an approved section 1332 waiver from the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury. A section 1332 waiver amendment is considered a change to a section 1332 waiver plan that is not otherwise allowable under the terms and conditions of an approved waiver, a change that could impact any of the section 1332 statutory guardrails or a change to the program design for an approved waiver. A State is not authorized to implement any aspect of the proposed amendment without prior approval by the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 53505, Sept. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1332" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.13.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1332   Waiver extension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Extension.</I> A State may request continuation of an approved section 1332 waiver, and such request shall be deemed granted unless the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, within 90 days after the date of submission of a complete waiver extension request to the Secretary and the Secretary of the Treasury, either denies such request in writing or informs the State in writing with respect to any additional information that is needed in order to make a final determination with respect to the request.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 53505, Sept. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Quality Reporting Standards for Exchanges</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 30350, May 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.1400" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.14.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1400   Quality rating system.</HEAD>
<P>The Exchange must prominently display quality rating information for each QHP on its website, in accordance with § 155.205(b)(1)(v), in a form and manner specified by HHS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 29261, May 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1405" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.14.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1405   Enrollee satisfaction survey system.</HEAD>
<P>The Exchange must prominently display results from the Enrollee Satisfaction Survey for each QHP on its website, in accordance with § 155.205(b)(1)(iv), in a form and manner specified by HHS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 29261, May 14, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Improper Payment Pre-Testing and Assessment (IPPTA) for State-based Exchanges</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 25920, Apr. 27, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.1500" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.15.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1500   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth the requirements of the IPPTA. The IPPTA is an initiative between HHS and the State-based Exchanges. These requirements are intended to:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare State-based Exchanges for the planned measurement of improper payments.
</P>
<P>(2) Test processes and procedures that support HHS's review of determinations of advance payments of the premium tax credit (APTC) made by State-based Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a mechanism for HHS and State-based Exchanges to share information that will aid in developing an efficient measurement process.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1505" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.15.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1505   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart-
</P>
<P><I>Business rules</I> means the State-based Exchange's internal directives defining, guiding, or constraining the State-based Exchange's actions when making eligibility determinations and related APTC calculations.
</P>
<P><I>Entity relationship diagram</I> means a graphical representation illustrating the organization and relationship of the data elements that are pertinent to applications for QHP and associated APTC payments.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-testing and assessment</I> means the process that uses the procedures specified in § 155.1515 to prepare State-based Exchanges for the planned measurement of improper payments of APTC.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-testing and assessment checklist</I> means the document that contains criteria that HHS will use to review a State-based Exchange's ability to accomplish the requirements of the IPPTA.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-testing and assessment data request form</I> means the document that specifies the structure for the data elements that HHS will require each State-based Exchange to submit.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-testing and assessment period</I> means the two calendar year timespan during which HHS will engage in pre-testing and assessment procedures with a State-based Exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-testing and assessment plan</I> means the template developed by HHS in collaboration with each State-based Exchange enumerating the procedures, sequence, and schedule to accomplish pre-testing and assessment.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-testing and assessment report</I> means the summary report provided by HHS to each State-based Exchange at the end of the State-based Exchange's pre-testing and assessment period that will include, but not be limited to, the State-based Exchange's status regarding completion of each of the pre-testing and assessment procedures specified in § 155.1515, as well as observations and recommendations that result from processing and reviewing the data submitted by the State-based Exchange to HHS.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1510" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.15.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1510   Data submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> For purposes of the IPPTA, a State-based Exchange must submit the following information in a form and manner specified by HHS:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Data documentation.</I> The State-based Exchange must provide to HHS the following data documentation:
</P>
<P>(i) The State-based Exchange's data dictionary including attribute name, data type, allowable values, and description;
</P>
<P>(ii) An entity relationship diagram, which shall include the structure of the data tables and the residing data elements that identify the relationships between the data tables; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Business rules and related calculations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Data for processing and testing.</I> The State-based Exchange must use the pre-testing and assessment data request form, or other method as specified by HHS, to submit to HHS the application data associated with no fewer than 10 tax household identification numbers and the associated policy identification numbers that address scenarios specified by HHS to allow HHS to test all of the pre-testing and assessment processes and procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> The State-based Exchange must submit the information specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the timelines in the pre-testing and assessment plan specified in § 155.1515.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1515" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.15.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1515   Pre-testing and assessment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> The State-based Exchanges are required to participate in the IPPTA for a period of two calendar years. The State-based Exchange and HHS will execute the pre-testing and assessment procedures in this section within the timelines in the pre-testing and assessment plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Orientation and planning processes.</I> (1) As a part of the orientation process, HHS will provide State-based Exchanges with an overview of the pre-testing and assessment procedures and identify documentation that a State-based Exchange must provide to HHS for pre-testing and assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) As a part of the planning process, HHS, in collaboration with each State-based Exchange, will develop a pre-testing and assessment plan that takes into consideration relevant activities, if any, that were completed during a prior, voluntary State engagement. The pre-testing and assessment plan will include the pre-testing and assessment checklist.
</P>
<P>(3) At the conclusion of the pre-testing and assessment planning process, HHS will issue the pre-testing and assessment plan specific to that State-based Exchange. The pre-testing and assessment plan will be for HHS and State-based Exchange internal use only and will not be made available to the public by HHS unless otherwise required by law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notifications and updates</I>—(1) <I>Notification</I>s. As needed throughout the pre-testing and assessment period, HHS will issue notifications to State-based Exchanges concerning information related to the pre-testing and assessment processes and procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Updates regarding changes.</I> Throughout the pre-testing and assessment period, the State-based Exchange must provide HHS with information regarding any operational, policy, business rules, information technology, or other changes that may impact the ability of the State-based Exchange to satisfy the requirements of the pre-testing and assessment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of required data and data documentation.</I> As specified in § 155.1510, HHS will inform State-based Exchanges about the form and manner for State-based Exchanges to submit required data and data documentation to HHS in accordance with the pre-testing and assessment plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data processing.</I> (1) HHS will coordinate with each State-based Exchange to track and manage the data and data documentation submitted by a State-based Exchange as specified in § 155.1510(a)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(2) HHS will coordinate with each State-based Exchange to provide assistance in aligning the data specified in § 155.1510(a)(2) from the State-based Exchange's existing data structure to the standardized set of data elements.
</P>
<P>(3) HHS will coordinate with each State-based Exchange to interpret and validate the data specified in § 155.1510(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) HHS will use the data and data documentation submitted by the State-based Exchange to execute the pre-testing and assessment procedures.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Pre-testing and assessment checklist.</I> HHS will issue the pre-testing and assessment checklist as part of the pre-testing and assessment plan. The pre-testing and assessment checklist criteria will include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) A State-based Exchange's submission of the data documentation as specified in § 155.1510(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) A State-based Exchange's submission of the data for processing and testing as specified in § 155.1510(a)(2); and
</P>
<P>(3) A State-based Exchange's completion of the pre-testing and assessment processes and procedures related to the IPPTA program.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Pre-testing and assessment report.</I> Subsequent to the completion of a State-based Exchange's pre-testing and assessment period, HHS will issue a pre-testing and assessment report specific to that State-based Exchange. The pre-testing and assessment report will be for HHS and State-based Exchange internal use only and will not be made available to the public by HHS unless otherwise required by law.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—State Exchange Improper Payment Measurement (SEIPM)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>91 FR 29870, May 20, 2026, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.1600" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1600   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth the requirements of the State Exchange Improper Payment Measurement (SEIPM) program. SEIPM is an initiative through which HHS will measure improper payments of advance payment of the premium tax credit (APTC) that are administered by State Exchanges, as described in more detail in § 155.1610. HHS will use the SEIPM program results to produce an estimate of improper payments of APTC aggregated across State Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specified by HHS, all State Exchanges must submit information on an annual basis that is necessary to support the SEIPM processes.
</P>
<P>(c) HHS will publish in the Agency Financial Report an estimate of improper payments that is aggregated across all State Exchanges.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1605" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1605   Applicability date and implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability date.</I> The requirements of this subpart are applicable beginning January 1, 2027.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1610" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1610   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Annual Program Schedule</I> means the document issued by HHS to each State Exchange that prescribes the dates by which key program milestones must be met for each SEIPM Cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Appeal</I> means the process by which a State Exchange may request HHS to review and reconsider a Difference Resolution Decision. The appeal is the second and last level for a State Exchange to contest findings of error or improper payment as it relates to APTC.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Appeal Decision</I> means the HHS final appeal decision resulting from a State Exchange's request for an appeal of one or more error or improper payment findings in a Sampled Unit Assessment Package.
</P>
<P><I>Corrective Action Plan</I> (<I>CAP</I>) means the plan a State Exchange develops in order to correct errors resulting in improper payments of APTC identified through SEIPM.
</P>
<P><I>Difference Resolution</I> means the process by which a State Exchange may initially request HHS to reconsider one or more errors or improper payment findings documented in a Sampled Unit Assessment Package.
</P>
<P><I>Difference Resolution Decision</I> means the HHS decision resulting from a State Exchange's request for a difference resolution of any Sampled Unit Assessment Package.
</P>
<P><I>Error</I> means a finding by HHS that a State Exchange did not correctly apply a requirement of subparts D and E of this part related to:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligibility for and enrollment in a Qualified Health Plan (QHP);
</P>
<P>(2) Eligibility for APTC, and calculated amount of APTC;
</P>
<P>(3) Redeterminations of eligibility during a plan year;
</P>
<P>(4) Eligibility redeterminations for purposes of re-enrollment.
</P>
<P><I>Measurement Year</I> means the calendar year in which the processes described in § 155.1625 are initiated. The Measurement Year immediately follows the Plan Year and is the second year of the SEIPM Cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Reporting Year</I> means the calendar year in which HHS reports the improper payment rate for State Exchanges as required under § 155.1625(c), following completion of the measurement processes for the applicable Plan Year. The Reporting Year immediately follows the Measurement Year and is the last year of the SEIPM Cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Sampled Unit Assessment Package</I> means the collection of findings and supporting documentation that HHS prepares in order to record errors at the tax household level using the process described in § 155.1625.
</P>
<P><I>State Exchange Improper Payment Measurement or SEIPM</I> means the process for determining estimated improper payments of APTC that are administered by State Exchanges as required under the Payment Integrity Information Act of 2019, which includes a review of a State Exchange's APTC-related determinations regarding:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligibility for and enrollment in a QHP;
</P>
<P>(2) Eligibility for APTC, and calculated amount of APTC;
</P>
<P>(3) Redeterminations of eligibility during a Plan Year;
</P>
<P>(4) Annual eligibility redeterminations.
</P>
<P><I>SEIPM Cycle</I> means the 3-year period consisting of the Plan Year, Measurement Year, and Reporting Year, during which the improper payment measurement process occurs for the Plan Year that is subject to review.
</P>
<P><I>Tax Household</I> means the applicant, the applicant's spouse if the applicant is married and files a joint return, and all individuals who are dependents of the applicant or spouse as defined in 26 U.S.C. 152.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1615" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1615   Information submission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HHS will issue an Annual Program Schedule to each State Exchange no later than January 5th of the Measurement Year. The Annual Program Schedule will specify the deadlines for all information submissions required under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) On an annual basis, each State Exchange must submit or make available to HHS the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Program documentation.</I> Policy, operational and technical documentation concerning business rules and APTC calculations that pertain to consumer eligibility and enrollment processes of the State Exchange as well as information that describes the data system architecture of the State Exchange such as entity relationship diagrams and data dictionaries.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Universe.</I> For the Plan Year being reviewed, a listing of the population of tax households that have associated QHP enrollments and payments of APTC. For each tax household within the universe, the State Exchange must submit the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Exchange assigned policy identifier;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tax household grouping identifier;
</P>
<P>(iii) SSN inconsistency indicator;
</P>
<P>(iv) Citizenship inconsistency indicator;
</P>
<P>(v) Lawful presence inconsistency indicator;
</P>
<P>(vi) Annual income inconsistency indicator;
</P>
<P>(vii) Non-employer sponsored minimum essential coverage inconsistency indicator;
</P>
<P>(viii) Employer sponsored minimum essential coverage inconsistency indicator;
</P>
<P>(ix) Incarceration inconsistency indicator;
</P>
<P>(x) Residency inconsistency indicator;
</P>
<P>(xi) Number of tax household members; and
</P>
<P>(xii) APTC amount paid over the duration of the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tax household Data.</I> For each of the sampled tax households and in a format specified by HHS:
</P>
<P>(i) Information pertaining to the calculation of the APTC benefits paid that includes monthly enrollment premium amounts, monthly APTC payment amounts, monthly Second Lowest Cost Silver Plan Premium amounts, and the amount of each monthly premium that is attributable to essential health benefits.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information relevant to enrollment that includes dates and amounts of effectuation payments, premium payment amount, and policy start and end dates.
</P>
<P>(iii) Information relevant to the determination of eligibility for a special enrollment period (where applicable), which would include (where applicable) information collected by the State Exchange about consumer attestations and representations regarding special enrollment period eligibility criteria, copies of documentary evidence submitted by applicants, electronic verification information, and timing information.
</P>
<P>(iv) Information about the timing of QHP certification or approval, the coverage area of the associated QHP, and the timing of any QHP decertification or suppression.
</P>
<P>(v) To the extent applicable, for each person who is included in the APTC payment calculation:
</P>
<P>(A) Information collected by the State Exchange about consumer attestations regarding QHP and APTC eligibility factors and demographic information relevant to initial QHP enrollment and eligibility.
</P>
<P>(B) APTC eligibility and payment determinations which includes evidence of required data verifications, the electronic sources consulted, the timing of required verifications, and the results of the verification.
</P>
<P>(C) Information relevant to QHP and APTC manual eligibility verifications and the resolution of electronic verification inconsistencies, which would include copies of documentary evidence submitted by QHP enrollees, the timing of submissions, the timing of adjudication, and information about good faith extensions.
</P>
<P>(D) Information relevant to QHP and APTC eligibility redeterminations such as information about automatic annual redeterminations, the timing and results of periodic examinations of data sources, and policy or application changes initiated by the consumer and resultant electronic or manual eligibility verifications.
</P>
<P>(vi) Any consumer submitted documents that were used to establish new or continued eligibility for enrollment in a QHP and APTC.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1620" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1620   Sampling procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sample size.</I> At the beginning of each SEIPM cycle, HHS will calculate a sample size in aggregate across all State Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Statistical methodology.</I> The sample size will be calculated to estimate an improper payment rate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State-specific sample sizes.</I> HHS will develop sample sizes specific for each State Exchange. HHS may take into consideration the following factors in determining each State Exchange's sample size for the current SEIPM cycle:
</P>
<P>(i) Overall APTC expenditures associated with the State Exchange.
</P>
<P>(ii) State-level precision goals for the current SEIPM cycle.
</P>
<P>(iii) The improper payment rate from the State Exchange's previous SEIPM cycle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sample size parameters.</I> HHS will establish minimum and maximum sample sizes to ensure statistical validity while maintaining operational feasibility across State Exchanges of varying sizes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sample selection procedures.</I> On an annual basis, HHS will select samples of tax households from the data provided by each State Exchange as described in § 155.1615(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State Exchange coordination and notification</I>—(1) <I>Sampled records notification.</I> Following receipt of the universe data from State Exchanges as described in § 155.1615(b)(2), HHS will notify each State Exchange of the specific records selected for review. This notification will include:
</P>
<P>(i) The total number of sampled tax households selected for the State Exchange.
</P>
<P>(ii) A unique identifier for each sampled tax household.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any specific instructions or requirements that HHS determines are needed to facilitate HHS' review of the sampled records.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of sampled records notification.</I> HHS will provide the sampled records notification described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section no later than 60 days after receipt of complete universe data from all State Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extension of sampling notification timeline.</I> (i) HHS may extend the 60-day timeline specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(A) Technical issues prevent completion of the sampling process within the standard timeframe;
</P>
<P>(B) Data quality issues require additional coordination with State Exchanges before sampling can be completed; or
</P>
<P>(C) Other circumstances beyond HHS's control necessitate additional time to ensure accurate sampling methodology.
</P>
<P>(ii) If HHS determines an extension is necessary, HHS will:
</P>
<P>(A) Notify all affected State Exchanges in writing of the extension and the revised notification date;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide the reason for the extension; and
</P>
<P>(C) Confirm the impact, if any, on subsequent SEIPM cycle timelines.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1625" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1625   Determining payment errors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of records and error identification</I>—(1) <I>Systematic review process.</I> For each sampled record, HHS will conduct a comprehensive review of all information provided by the State Exchange using standardized review criteria.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Data sources.</I> HHS will conduct reviews using the tax household information provided under § 155.1615(b)(3), supplemented by any relevant consumer-submitted documents that were gathered by the State Exchange as part of the enrollment and eligibility process and provided to HHS.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Error identification.</I> The review will identify whether the State Exchange made any errors related to the following resulting in improper payments of APTC:
</P>
<P>(i) Enrolling or re-enrolling a consumer into a QHP for which APTC was paid.
</P>
<P>(ii) Consumer eligibility for APTC being paid on the consumer's behalf.
</P>
<P>(iii) Calculating the APTC amount that was paid on the consumer's behalf.
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking required actions upon changes to a consumer's status that would affect their APTC-related eligibility or payment amount.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Review standards and criteria.</I> HHS will apply consistent review standards based on the APTC-related determination requirements established in subparts D and E of this part, and other applicable provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Error evaluation.</I> HHS will evaluate each error to determine an improper payment amount. For each error identified, HHS will:
</P>
<P>(1) Calculate the correct APTC amount based on the requirements of section 36B of the Internal Revenue Code and applicable implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine an improper payment amount.
</P>
<P>(3) Document the error and improper payment amount within a Sampled Unit Assessment Package and provide the Sampled Unit Assessment Package to the State Exchange.
</P>
<P>(4) Extrapolate the identified improper payments from the sample to estimate the total improper payment amount for the State Exchange's entire universe of APTC payments, using statistically valid methodologies that comply with OMB guidance on improper payment estimation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting.</I> HHS will report annually in the Agency Financial Report, which is made available to the public:
</P>
<P>(1) The estimated aggregate improper payment rate for Federal and State Exchanges combined.
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated aggregate improper payment rate for State Exchanges, and;
</P>
<P>(3) HHS will provide to each State Exchange a report that documents the State-specific improper payment rate and error analysis.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1630" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1630   Difference Resolution and appeal process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Difference Resolution.</I> (1) The State Exchange may make a written Difference Resolution request to HHS within 30 days after the issuance of the Sampled Unit Assessment Package to dispute HHS' error and improper payment findings.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of a Difference Resolution request, HHS will do the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Engage with the State Exchange in a collaborative process to examine the disputed findings and any additional documentation provided by the State Exchange.
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluate the disputed findings by applying the same protocol used in the original review while considering whether the State Exchange's position is supported by the existing or newly provided evidence.
</P>
<P>(iii) Prepare the Difference Resolution Decision.
</P>
<P>(3) The Difference Resolution Decision will be communicated to the State Exchange within 90 days of receipt of the written request for a Difference Resolution. The Difference Resolution Decision will include a summary of the analysis and rationale that informed the decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative appeal.</I> (1) To dispute a Difference Resolution Decision, the State Exchange may make a written request for an administrative appeal within 15 business days after the issuance of the Difference Resolution Decision.
</P>
<P>(i) The State Exchange may not submit new evidence; it may use evidence that was previously submitted during Difference Resolution.
</P>
<P>(ii) The State Exchange may provide additional context regarding information that was submitted during Difference Resolution.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of an appeal request, HHS will do the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Assign the appeal request to one or more administrative appeal reviewers who were not involved in the original review;
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct a comprehensive review of the disputed findings using the administrative record established during the Difference Resolution process;
</P>
<P>(iii) Independently evaluate the disputed findings by applying the same protocol used in the original review while considering whether the State Exchange's position is supported by the evidence; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Prepare an appeal decision for the completed review based on a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(3) HHS will issue the appeal decision within 90 days of receipt of the written request for appeal. The appeal decision will include a summary of the analysis and rationale that informed the decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Difference Resolution and administrative appeal submission requirements.</I> All Difference Resolution and appeal requests must be filed in a form and manner specified by HHS and contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A clear statement of the specific finding(s) being challenged.
</P>
<P>(2) All factual and legal bases for filing the request.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence directly related to the finding(s), which may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Clarifying information regarding data interpretation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Legal citations supporting the State Exchange's position.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing of Difference Resolution and Administrative Appeal decisions.</I> (1) For Difference Resolution Requests or administrative appeals resolved in favor of the State Exchange during the current SEIPM cycle:
</P>
<P>(i) HHS will adjust the affected improper payment rate calculations for the SEIPM cycle.
</P>
<P>(ii) Updated aggregate rates will be reflected in current cycle reporting.
</P>
<P>(2) For Difference Resolution Requests or administrative appeals resolved in favor of the State Exchange after completion of the SEIPM cycle:
</P>
<P>(i) If Difference Resolution or administrative appeal decisions result in material changes to aggregate rates, HHS will publish amended aggregate improper payment rates in subsequent Agency Financial Reports or other appropriate public reporting mechanisms as well as notify affected State Exchanges of any amendments to previously published rates.
</P>
<P>(ii) If HHS determines, at its discretion, that the Difference Resolution or administrative appeal decisions do not result in material changes to aggregate rates, no action will be taken to publish amended aggregated improper payment rates or notify affected State Exchanges.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Good cause exception.</I> For good cause, HHS may extend the timelines for accepting a Difference Resolution request or administrative appeal request or for issuing a Difference Resolution Decision or Administrative Appeal Decision. The failure of HHS to timely issue a Difference Resolution or Administrative Appeal decision does not indicate an acceptance of the State Exchange's position and is not a basis to decide in favor of the State Exchange.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1635" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1635   Corrective action plan (CAP).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>CAP.</I> HHS may require the State Exchange to develop and submit a proposed CAP to correct errors resulting in improper payments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Development of proposed CAP.</I> A State Exchange's proposed CAP must address errors that are included in the State Exchange improper payment report described in § 155.1625(c)(2) and must be developed in accordance with HHS requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) In developing a proposed CAP, the State Exchange must conduct an error analysis such as reviewing causes, characteristics, and frequency of errors that are associated with improper payments. The State Exchange must review the findings of the analysis to determine the causes of the errors included in the State Exchange improper payment rate, if any, and to identify the root causes of the resulting improper payments.
</P>
<P>(i) If a State Exchange has a pending Difference Resolution request or administrative appeal and HHS requests a CAP, HHS may provide a new timeline for CAP submission after the Difference Resolution or Administrative Appeal Decision and calculation of the final improper payment rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) The State Exchange must determine the corrective actions to be implemented to correct causes of the errors included in the State Exchange improper payment rate and to prevent them from occurring again.
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed CAP must include measurable milestones, accountability mechanisms, regular monitoring and validation of progress, documentation of implemented corrective actions, and regular status updates. The CAP must include all the following for each identified error:
</P>
<P>(i) The specific corrective action.
</P>
<P>(ii) Status of the corrective action.
</P>
<P>(iii) Scheduled or actual implementation date of the corrective action.
</P>
<P>(iv) Key personnel responsible for implementing each corrective action.
</P>
<P>(v) A plan for monitoring the effectiveness of the corrective action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Implementation and evaluation of a CAP.</I> A State Exchange must develop an implementation schedule for its CAP, implement the plan in accordance with that schedule, and regularly evaluate whether the initiatives are effective at reducing or eliminating error causes. The State Exchange must provide updates on CAP implementation progress in a manner and frequency specified by HHS, but at least annually.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failures in the CAP process.</I> If a State Exchange does not submit a CAP when one has been required, submits an incomplete CAP that does not address all the required parts of a CAP as specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, fails to follow the implementation schedule referenced in paragraph (c), or submits a CAP that is otherwise unacceptable following technical assistance from HHS, HHS may take actions consistent with § 155.1650.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1640" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1640   SEIPM preparation phase.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any State Exchange in its first year of operation must participate in a 1-year SEIPM preparation phase prior to participating in SEIPM in the subsequent year.
</P>
<P>(b) To satisfy the requirements of the SEIPM preparation phase, a State Exchange must:
</P>
<P>(1) Complete the information submission requirements in § 155.1615(b)(1) and (3) using information from the most current Plan Year for a sample size not to exceed 10 unique tax households that address scenarios specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) Undergo the review procedures in § 155.1625(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(3) Participate in technical assistance activities provided by HHS, which may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Training on SEIPM requirements and procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) System readiness assessments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Data quality validation exercises; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Process improvement recommendations.
</P>
<P>(c) At the beginning of each calendar year, HHS will provide any State Exchange that meets the conditions in paragraph (a) of this section with a schedule that spans a 12-month period that specifies when the requirements of this section must be completed.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1645" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1645   Minimizing potential duplicate audit requirements.</HEAD>
<P>HHS will minimize potential duplicate requirements of the annual independent external programmatic audit described at § 155.1200(c) and (d) and SEIPM, such that, as determined by HHS, a State Exchange may be deemed to satisfy certain requirements of § 155.1200(c) and (d), particularly the review of compliance with subparts D and E, as identified in HHS sub-regulatory guidance, for a particular plan year by successfully completing the SEIPM process.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.1650" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.13.16.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.1650   Failure to comply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General principle.</I> For purposes of improper payment measurement under this subpart, HHS will classify APTC payments as improper when a State Exchange fails to provide adequate documentation demonstrating that such payments were made in accordance with applicable Federal requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of substantial noncompliance.</I> HHS will determine that a State Exchange has failed to substantially comply with this subpart if the State Exchange:
</P>
<P>(1) Fails to submit required data or documentation within the timelines specified in the Annual Program Schedule.
</P>
<P>(2) Submits data or documentation that is incomplete, inaccurate, or in a format that would reasonably prevent effective review.
</P>
<P>(3) Fails to implement the CAP process as set out in § 155.1635(d).
</P>
<P>(4) Demonstrates a pattern of more than five instances during a SEIPM cycle in which the State Exchange fails to respond within 30 calendar days, or provides a non-responsive answer, to HHS requests for clarification or additional information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice and opportunity to cure.</I> Before implementing measures under paragraph (d) of this section, HHS will:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide written notice to the State Exchange specifying the nature of the noncompliance and the potential consequences.
</P>
<P>(2) Allow the State Exchange a reasonable opportunity, not less than 30 days, to cure the noncompliance or demonstrate that compliance has been achieved.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Remedial measures.</I> If a State Exchange fails to substantially comply with the data collection requirements, the CAP provisions contained in this subpart, or HHS requests for clarification or additional information, and HHS finds that such failures undermine or prohibit HHS's efficient administration of Exchange improper payment measurement activities, HHS may implement measures or procedures for:
</P>
<P>(1) Enhanced monitoring and reporting.
</P>
<P>(2) Mandatory implementation of specific operational procedures or controls.
</P>
<P>(3) On-site visits to State Exchange facilities to assess operational procedures, data systems, and compliance with program requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Escalation procedures.</I> If a State Exchange continues to fail to comply after implementation of initial remedial measures under paragraph (d) of this section, HHS may initiate proceedings to revoke the State Exchange's authority to operate in accordance with applicable law.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="156" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 156—HEALTH INSURANCE ISSUER STANDARDS UNDER THE AFFORDABLE CARE ACT, INCLUDING STANDARDS RELATED TO EXCHANGES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 18021-18024, 18031-18032, 18041-18042, 18044, 18054, 18061, 18063, 18071, 18082, and 26 U.S.C. 36B.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 77411, Dec. 13, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 18468, Mar. 27, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 156.10" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.10   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> (1) This part is based on the following sections of title I of the Affordable Care Act:
</P>
<P>(i) 1301. QHP defined.
</P>
<P>(ii) 1302. Essential health benefits requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) 1303. Special rules.
</P>
<P>(iv) 1304. Related definitions.
</P>
<P>(v) 1311. Affordable choices of health benefit plans.
</P>
<P>(vi) 1312. Consumer choice.
</P>
<P>(vii) 1313. Financial integrity.
</P>
<P>(viii) 1321. State flexibility in operation and enforcement of Exchanges and related requirements.
</P>
<P>(ix) 1322. Federal program to assist establishment and operation of nonprofit, member-run health insurance issuers.
</P>
<P>(x) 1331. State flexibility to establish Basic Health Programs for low-income individuals not eligible for Medicaid.
</P>
<P>(xi) 1334. Multi-State plans.
</P>
<P>(xii) 1402. Reduced cost-sharing for individuals enrolling in QHPs.
</P>
<P>(xiii) 1411. Procedures for determining eligibility for Exchange participation, advance premium tax credits and reduced cost sharing, and individual responsibility exemptions.
</P>
<P>(xiv) 1412. Advance determination and payment of premium tax credits and cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(xv) 1413. Streamlining of procedures for enrollment through an Exchange and State, Medicaid, CHIP, and health subsidy programs.
</P>
<P>(2) This part is based on section 1150A, Pharmacy Benefit Managers Transparency Requirements, of title I of the Act:
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part establishes standards for QHPs under Exchanges, and addresses other health insurance issuer requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.20" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part, unless the context indicates otherwise:
</P>
<P><I>Actuarial value (AV)</I> means the percentage paid by a health plan of the percentage of the total allowed costs of benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Base-benchmark plan</I> means the plan that is selected by a State from the options described in § 156.100(a) of this subchapter, or a default benchmark plan, as described in § 156.100(c) of this subchapter, prior to any adjustments made pursuant to the benchmark standards described in § 156.110 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit design standards</I> means coverage that provides for all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The essential health benefits as described in section 1302(b) of the Affordable Care Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Cost-sharing limits as described in section 1302(c) of the Affordable Care Act; and
</P>
<P>(3) A bronze, silver, gold, or platinum level of coverage as described in section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act, or is a catastrophic plan as described in section 1302(e) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit year</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P><I>Cost-sharing</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P><I>Cost-sharing reductions</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P><I>Delegated entity</I> means any party, including an agent or broker, that enters into an agreement with a QHP issuer to provide administrative services or health care services to qualified individuals, qualified employers, or qualified employees and their dependents.
</P>
<P><I>Downstream entity</I> means any party, including an agent or broker, that enters into an agreement with a delegated entity or with another downstream entity for purposes of providing administrative or health care services related to the agreement between the delegated entity and the QHP issuer. The term “downstream entity” is intended to reach the entity that directly provides administrative services or health care services to qualified individuals, qualified employers, or qualified employees and their dependents.
</P>
<P><I>EHB-benchmark plan</I> means the standardized set of essential health benefits that must be met by a QHP, as defined in § 155.20 of this section, or other issuer as required by § 147.150 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Enrollee satisfaction survey vendor</I> means an organization that has relevant survey administration experience (for example, CAHPS® surveys), organizational survey capacity, and quality control procedures for survey administration.
</P>
<P><I>Essential health benefits package or EHB package</I> means the scope of covered benefits and associated limits of a health plan offered by an issuer that provides at least the ten statutory categories of benefits, as described in § 156.110(a) of this subchapter; provides the benefits in the manner described in § 156.115 of this subchapter; limits cost sharing for such coverage as described in § 156.130; and subject to offering catastrophic plans as described in section 1302(e) of the Affordable Care Act, provides distinct levels of coverage as described in § 156.140 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Federally-facilitated SHOP</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Group health plan</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 144.103 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance coverage</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 144.103 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P><I>Health insurance issuer or issuer</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 144.103 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P><I>Issuer group</I> means all entities treated under subsection (a) or (b) of section 52 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 as a member of the same controlled group of corporations as (or under common control with) a health insurance issuer, or issuers affiliated by the common use of a nationally licensed service mark.
</P>
<P><I>Level of coverage</I> means one of four standardized actuarial values as defined by section 1302(d)(1) of the Affordable Care Act of plan coverage.
</P>
<P><I>Percentage of the</I> <I>total allowed costs of benefits</I> means the anticipated covered medical spending for EHB coverage (as defined in § 156.110(a) of this subchapter) paid by a health plan for a standard population, computed in accordance with the plan's cost-sharing, divided by the total anticipated allowed charges for EHB coverage provided to a standard population, and expressed as a percentage.
</P>
<P><I>Plan</I> has the meaning given the term in § 144.103 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Plan year</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified employer</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified health plan</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified health plan issuer</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Registered user of the enrollee satisfaction survey data warehouse</I> means enrollee satisfaction survey vendors, QHP issuers, and Exchanges authorized to access CMS's secure data warehouse to submit survey data and to preview survey results prior to public reporting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18468, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 31515, May 29, 2012; 78 FR 12865, Feb. 25, 2013; 78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 54142, Aug. 30, 2013; 78 FR 65096, Oct. 30, 2013; 80 FR 10871, Feb. 27, 2015; 84 FR 17567, Apr. 25, 2019; 85 FR 29261, May 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.50" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.50   Financial support.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply for the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Participating issuer</I> means any issuer offering a plan that participates in the specific function that is funded by user fees. This term may include: health insurance issuers, QHP issuers, issuers of multi-State plans (as defined in § 155.1000(a) of this subchapter), issuers of stand-alone dental plans (as described in § 155.1065 of this subtitle), or other issuers identified by an Exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement for State-based Exchange user fees.</I> A participating issuer must remit user fee payments, or any other payments, charges, or fees, if assessed by a State-based Exchange under § 155.160 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirement for Exchange user fees.</I> (1) To support the functions of Federally-facilitated Exchanges, a participating issuer offering a plan through a Federally-facilitated Exchange must remit a user fee to HHS each month, in the timeframe and manner established by HHS, equal to the product of the monthly user fee rate specified in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for Federally-facilitated Exchanges for the applicable benefit year and the monthly premium charged by the issuer for each policy under the plan where enrollment is through a Federally-facilitated Exchange.
</P>
<P>(2) To support the functions of State Exchanges on the Federal platform, unless the State Exchange and HHS agree on an alternative mechanism to collect the funds, a participating issuer offering a plan through a State Exchange on the Federal Exchange platform for certain Exchange functions described in § 155.200 of this subchapter, as specified in a Federal platform agreement, must remit a user fee to HHS, in the timeframe and manner established by HHS, equal to the product of the sum of the monthly user fee rate specified in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters for State Exchanges on the Federal platform for the applicable benefit year, multiplied by the monthly premium charged by the issuer for each policy under the plan where enrollment is through the State-based Exchange on the Federal platform.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjustment of Exchange user fees.</I> (1) A participating issuer offering a plan through a Federally-facilitated Exchange or State Exchange on the Federal platform may qualify for an adjustment of the Federally-facilitated Exchange user fee specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section or the State Exchange on the Federal platform user fee specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, to the extent that the participating issuer—
</P>
<P>(i) Made payments for contraceptive services on behalf of a third party administrator pursuant to 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(b)(2)(ii) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(b)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Seeks an adjustment in the Federally-facilitated Exchange user fee with respect to a third party administrator that, following receipt of a copy of the self-certification referenced in 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(a)(4) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(a)(4), made or arranged for payments for contraceptive services pursuant to 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(b)(2)(i) or (ii) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(b)(2)(i) or (ii).
</P>
<P>(2) For a participating issuer described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to receive an adjustment of a user fee under this section—
</P>
<P>(i) The participating issuer must submit to HHS, in the manner and timeframe specified by HHS, in the year following the calendar year in which the contraceptive services for which payments were made pursuant to 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(b)(2) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(b)(2) were provided —


</P>
<P>(A) Identifying information for the participating issuer and each third party administrator that received a copy of the self-certification referenced in 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(a)(4) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(a)(4) or with respect to which the participating issuer seeks an adjustment of the user fee specified in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable, whether or not the participating issuer was the entity that made the payments for contraceptive services;


</P>
<P>(B) Identifying information for each self-insured group health plan with respect to which a copy of the self-certification referenced in 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(a)(4) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(a)(4) was received by a third party administrator and with respect to which the participating issuer seeks an adjustment of the user fee specified in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable; and








</P>
<P>(C) For each such self-insured group health plan, the total dollar amount of the payments that were made pursuant to 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(b)(2) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(b)(2) for contraceptive services that were provided during the applicable calendar year. If such payments were made by the participating issuer directly as described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, the total dollar amount should reflect the amount of the payments made by the participating issuer; if the third party administrator made or arranged for such payments, as described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the total dollar amount should reflect the amount reported to the participating issuer by the third party administrator.


</P>
<P>(ii) Each third party administrator that intends to seek an adjustment on behalf of a participating issuer of the Federally-facilitated Exchange user fee or the State-based Exchange on the Federal platform user fee based on payments for contraceptive services, must submit to HHS a notification of such intent, in a manner specified by HHS, by the 60th calendar day following the date on which the third party administrator receives the applicable copy of the self-certification referenced in 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(a)(4) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(a)(4).






</P>
<P>(iii) Each third party administrator identified in paragraph (d)(2)(i)(A) of this section must submit to HHS, in the manner and timeframe specified by HHS, in the year following the calendar year in which the contraceptive services for which payments were made pursuant to 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(b)(2) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(b)(2) were provided—
</P>
<P>(A) Identifying information for the third party administrator and the participating issuer;


</P>
<P>(B) Identifying information for each self-insured group health plan with respect to which a copy of the self-certification referenced in 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(a)(4) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(a)(4) was received by the third party administrator and with respect to which the participating issuer seeks an adjustment of the user fee specified in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable;




</P>
<P>(C) The total number of participants and beneficiaries in each such self-insured group health plan during the applicable calendar year;
</P>
<P>(D) For each such self-insured group health plan with respect to which the third party administrator made payments pursuant to 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(b)(2) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(b)(2) for contraceptive services, the total dollar amount of such payments that were provided during the applicable calendar year. If such payments were made by the participating issuer directly as described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, the total dollar amount should reflect the amount reported to the third party administrator by the participating issuer; if the third party administrator made or arranged for such payments, as described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the total dollar amount should reflect the amount of the payments made by or on behalf of the third party administrator; and
</P>
<P>(E) An attestation that the payments for contraceptive services were made in compliance with 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(b)(2) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(b)(2).


</P>
<P>(3) If the requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section are met, the participating issuer will be provided a reduction in its obligation to pay the user fee specified in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable, equal in value to the sum of the following:






</P>
<P>(i) The total dollar amount of the payments for contraceptive services submitted by the applicable third-party administrators, as described in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(D) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An allowance for administrative costs and margin. The allowance will be no less than 10 percent of the total dollar amount of the payments for contraceptive services specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section. HHS will specify the allowance for a particular calendar year in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters.


</P>
<P>(4) If the amount of the adjustment under paragraph (d)(3) of this section is greater than the amount of the participating issuer's obligation to pay the user fee specified in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable, in a particular month, the participating issuer will be provided a credit in succeeding months in the amount of the excess.






</P>
<P>(5) Within 60 days of receipt of any adjustment of a user fee under this section, a participating issuer must pay each third party administrator with respect to which it received any portion of such adjustment an amount that is no less than the portion of the adjustment attributable to the total dollar amount of the payments for contraceptive services submitted by the third party administrator, as described in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(D) of this section. No such payment is required with respect to the allowance for administrative costs and margin described in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section. This paragraph does not apply if the participating issuer made the payments for contraceptive services on behalf of the third party administrator, as described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, or is in the same issuer group as the third party administrator.


</P>
<P>(6) A participating issuer that receives an adjustment in the user fee specified in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section for a particular calendar year must maintain for 10 years following that year, and make available upon request to HHS, the Office of the Inspector General, the Comptroller General, and their designees, documentation demonstrating that it timely paid each third party administrator with respect to which it received any such adjustment any amount required to be paid to the third party administrator under paragraph (d)(5) of this section.


</P>
<P>(7) A third party administrator of a plan with respect to which an adjustment of the user fee specified in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section is received under this section for a particular calendar year must maintain for 10 years following that year, and make available upon request to HHS, the Office of the Inspector General, the Comptroller General, and their designees, all of the following documentation:






</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the self-certification referenced in 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(a)(4) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(a)(4) for each self-insured plan with respect to which an adjustment is received.
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation demonstrating that the payments for contraceptive services were made in compliance with 26 CFR 54.9815-2713A(b)(2) or 29 CFR 2590.715-2713A(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation supporting the total dollar amount of the payments for contraceptive services submitted by the third party administrator, as described in paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(D) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18468, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 39897, July 2, 2013; 81 FR 12348, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 62498, Dec. 4, 2018; 86 FR 24290, May 5, 2021; 87 FR 27389, May 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.80" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.80   Single risk pool.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Individual market.</I> A health insurance issuer must consider the claims experience of all enrollees in all health plans (other than grandfathered health plans) subject to section 2701 of the Public Health Service Act and offered by such issuer in the individual market in a state, including those enrollees who do not enroll in such plans through the Exchange, to be members of a single risk pool.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Small group market.</I> A health insurance issuer must consider the claims experience of all enrollees in all health plans (other than grandfathered health plans) subject to section 2701 of the Public Health Service Act and offered by such issuer in the small group market in a state, including those enrollees who do not enroll in such plans through the Exchange, to be members of a single risk pool.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Merger of the individual and small group markets.</I> A state may require the individual and small group insurance markets within a state to be merged into a single risk pool if the state determines appropriate. A state that requires such merger must submit to CMS information on its election in accordance with the procedures described in § 147.103 of this subchapter.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Index rate</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A health insurance issuer must establish an index rate that is effective January 1 of each calendar year for a State market described in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The index rate must be based on the total combined claims costs for providing essential health benefits within the single risk pool of that State market.
</P>
<P>(ii) The index rate must be adjusted on a market-wide basis for the State based on the total expected market-wide payments and charges under the risk adjustment program and Exchange user fees (expected to be remitted under § 156.50(b) or (c) and (d) as applicable, plus the dollar amount under § 156.50(d)(3)(i) and (ii) expected to be credited against user fees payable for that State market).
</P>
<P>(iii) The premium rate for all of the health insurance issuer's plans in the relevant State market must use the applicable market-wide adjusted index rate, subject only to the plan-level adjustments permitted in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permitted plan-level adjustments to the index rate.</I> For plan years or policy years beginning on or after January 1, 2014, a health insurance issuer may vary premium rates for a particular plan from its market-wide index rate for a relevant state market based only on the following actuarially justified plan-specific factors:
</P>
<P>(i) The actuarial value and cost-sharing design of the plan, including, if permitted by the applicable State authority (as defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter), accounting for cost-sharing reduction amounts provided to eligible enrollees under § 156.410, provided the issuer does not otherwise receive reimbursement for such amounts.
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan's provider network, delivery system characteristics, and utilization management practices.
</P>
<P>(iii) The benefits provided under the plan that are in addition to the essential health benefits. These additional benefits must be pooled with similar benefits within the single risk pool and the claims experience from those benefits must be utilized to determine rate variations for plans that offer those benefits in addition to essential health benefits.
</P>
<P>(iv) Administrative costs, excluding Exchange user fees.
</P>
<P>(v) With respect to catastrophic plans, the expected impact of the specific eligibility categories for those plans.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calibration.</I> The issuer must calibrate the plan-adjusted index rate for its plans within the single risk pool to correspond to an age rating factor of 1.0, a geographic rating factor of 1.0, and a tobacco use rating factor of 1.0, in a manner specified by the Secretary in guidance, to ensure that any rating variation under § 147.102 of this subchapter may be accurately applied with respect to a particular plan or coverage. The calibration must be applied uniformly to all plans within the single risk pool of the State market and cannot vary by plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Frequency of index rate and plan-level adjustments.</I> (i) A health insurance issuer may not establish an index rate and make the market-wide adjustments pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, make the plan-level adjustments pursuant to paragraph (d)(2) of this section, or calibrate the plan-adjusted index rate for its plans pursuant to paragraph (d)(3) of this section more or less frequently than annually, except as provided in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A health insurance issuer in the small group market (not including a merged market) may establish index rates and make the marketwide adjustments under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, make the plan-level adjustments under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, and calibrate the plan-adjusted index rate for its plans pursuant to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, no more frequently than quarterly. Any changes to rates must have effective dates of January 1, April 1, July 1, or October 1. Such rates may only apply to coverage issued or renewed on or after the rate effective date and will apply for the entire plan year of the group health plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Grandfathered health plans in the individual and small group market.</I> A state law requiring grandfathered health plans described in § 147.140 of this subchapter to be included in a single risk pool described in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section does not apply.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years (as that term is defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter) in the group market, and for policy years (as that term is defined in § 144.103 of this subchapter) in the individual market, beginning on or after January 1, 2014.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13441, Feb. 27, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 39898, July 2, 2013; 78 FR 65096, Oct. 30, 2013; 81 FR 12349, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94180, Dec. 22, 2016; 90 FR 4541, Jan. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Essential Health Benefits Package</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 156.100" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.100   State selection of benchmark plan for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2020.</HEAD>
<P>For plan years beginning before January 1, 2020, each State may identify a base-benchmark plan according to the selection criteria described below:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>State selection of base-benchmark plan.</I> The options from which a base-benchmark plan may be selected by the State are the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Small group market health plan.</I> The largest health plan by enrollment in any of the three largest small group insurance products by enrollment, as defined in § 159.110 of this subpart, in the State's small group market as defined in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State employee health benefit plan.</I> Any of the largest three employee health benefit plan options by enrollment offered and generally available to State employees in the State involved.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>FEHBP plan.</I> Any of the largest three national Federal Employees Health Benefits Program (FEHBP) plan options by aggregate enrollment that is offered to all health-benefits-eligible federal employees under 5 USC 8903.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>HMO.</I> The coverage plan with the largest insured commercial non-Medicaid enrollment offered by a health maintenance organization operating in the State.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>EHB-benchmark selection standards.</I> In order to become an EHB-benchmark plan as defined in § 156.20 of this subchapter, a state-selected base-benchmark plan must meet the requirements for coverage of benefits and limits described in § 156.110 of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default base-benchmark plan.</I> If a State does not make a selection using the process described in this section, the default base-benchmark plan will be the largest plan by enrollment in the largest product by enrollment in the State's small group market.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability date:</I> For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2020, § 156.111 applies in place of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10871, Feb. 27, 2015; 83 FR 17068, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.105" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.105   Determination of EHB for multi-state plans.</HEAD>
<P>A multi-state plan must meet benchmark standards set by the U.S. Office of Personnel Management.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.110" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.110   EHB-benchmark plan standards.</HEAD>
<P>An EHB-benchmark plan must meet the following standards:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>EHB coverage.</I> Provide coverage of at least the following categories of benefits:
</P>
<P>(1) Ambulatory patient services.
</P>
<P>(2) Emergency services.
</P>
<P>(3) Hospitalization.
</P>
<P>(4) Maternity and newborn care.
</P>
<P>(5) Mental health and substance use disorder services, including behavioral health treatment.
</P>
<P>(6) Prescription drugs.
</P>
<P>(7) Rehabilitative and habilitative services and devices.
</P>
<P>(8) Laboratory services.
</P>
<P>(9) Preventive and wellness services and chronic disease management.
</P>
<P>(10) Pediatric services, including oral and vision care.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage in each benefit category.</I> A base-benchmark plan not providing any coverage in one or more of the categories described in paragraph (a) of this section, must be supplemented as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General supplementation methodology.</I> A base-benchmark plan that does not include items or services within one or more of the categories described in paragraph (a) of this section must be supplemented by the addition of the entire category of such benefits offered under any other benchmark plan option described in § 156.100(a) of this subpart unless otherwise described in this subsection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supplementing pediatric oral services.</I> A base-benchmark plan lacking the category of pediatric oral services must be supplemented by the addition of the entire category of pediatric oral benefits from one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The FEDVIP dental plan with the largest national enrollment that is described in and offered to federal employees under 5 U.S.C. 8952; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The benefits available under that State's separate CHIP plan, if a separate CHIP plan exists, to the eligibility group with the highest enrollment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Supplementing pediatric vision services.</I> A base-benchmark plan lacking the category of pediatric vision services must be supplemented by the addition of the entire category of pediatric vision benefits from one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The FEDVIP vision plan with the largest national enrollment that is offered to federal employees under 5 USC 8982; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The benefits available under the State's separate CHIP plan, if a separate CHIP plan exists, to the eligibility group with the highest enrollment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supplementing the default base-benchmark plan.</I> A default base-benchmark plan as defined in § 156.100(c) of this subpart that lacks any categories of essential health benefits will be supplemented by HHS in the following order, to the extent that any of the plans offer benefits in the missing EHB category:
</P>
<P>(1) The largest plan by enrollment in the second largest product by enrollment in the State's small group market, as defined in § 155.20 of this subchapter (except for pediatric oral and vision benefits);
</P>
<P>(2) The largest plan by enrollment in the third largest product by enrollment in the State's small group market, as defined in § 155.20 of this subchapter (except for pediatric oral and vision benefits);
</P>
<P>(3) The largest national FEHBP plan by enrollment across States that is offered to federal employees under 5 USC 8903 (except for pediatric oral and vision benefits);
</P>
<P>(4) The plan described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section for pediatric oral care benefits; and
</P>
<P>(5) The plan described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section for pediatric vision care benefits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-discrimination.</I> Not include discriminatory benefit designs that contravene the non-discrimination standards defined in § 156.125 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Balance.</I> Ensure an appropriate balance among the EHB categories to ensure that benefits are not unduly weighted toward any category.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Determining habilitative services.</I> If the base-benchmark plan does not include coverage for habilitative services, the State may determine which services are included in that category.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10871, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.111" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.111   State selection of EHB-benchmark plan for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2020.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Subject to paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2025, a State may change its EHB-benchmark plan by:
</P>
<P>(i) Selecting the EHB-benchmark plan that another State used for the 2017 plan year under §§ 156.100 and 156.110;
</P>
<P>(ii) Replacing one or more categories of EHBs established at § 156.110(a) in the State's EHB-benchmark plan used for the 2017 plan year with the same category or categories of EHB from the EHB-benchmark plan that another State used for the 2017 plan year under §§ 156.100 and 156.110; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Otherwise selecting a set of benefits that would become the State's EHB-benchmark plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2026, a State may change its EHB-benchmark plan by selecting a set of benefits that would become the State's EHB-benchmark plan.
</P>
<P>(b) A State's EHB-benchmark plan must:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>EHB coverage.</I> Provide coverage of items and services for at least the categories of benefits at § 156.110(a), including an appropriate balance of coverage for these categories of benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope of benefits.</I> (i) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2025:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide a scope of benefits equal to the scope of benefits provided under a typical employer plan (supplemented by the State as necessary to provide coverage within each EHB category at § 156.110(a)), defined as either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) One of the selecting State's 10 base-benchmark plan options established at § 156.100, and available for the selecting State's selection for the 2017 plan year; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The largest health insurance plan by enrollment within one of the five largest large group health insurance products by enrollment in the State, as product and plan are defined at § 144.103 of this subchapter, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The product has at least 10 percent of the total enrollment of the five largest large group health insurance products in the State;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The plan provides minimum value, as defined under § 156.145;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The benefits are not excepted benefits, as established under §§ 146.145(b), and 148.220 of this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The benefits in the plan are from a plan year beginning after December 31, 2013.
</P>
<P>(B) Not exceed the generosity of the most generous among a set of comparison plans, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The State's EHB-benchmark plan used for the 2017 plan year, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any of the State's base-benchmark plan options for the 2017 plan year described in § 156.100(a)(1), supplemented as necessary under § 156.110.
</P>
<P>(ii) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2026, provide a scope of benefits that is equal to the scope benefits of a typical employer plan in the State. The scope of benefits in a typical employer plan in a State is any scope of benefits that is as or more generous than the scope of benefits in the least generous plan (supplemented by the State as necessary to provide coverage within each EHB category at § 156.110(a)), and as or less generous than the scope of benefits in the most generous plan in the State (supplemented by the State as necessary to provide coverage within each EHB category at § 156.110(a)), among the following:
</P>
<P>(A) One of the selecting State's 10 base-benchmark plan options established at § 156.100, and available for the selecting State's selection for the 2017 plan year; or
</P>
<P>(B) The largest health insurance plan by enrollment within one of the five largest large group health insurance products by enrollment in the State, as product and plan are defined at § 144.103 of this subchapter, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The product has at least 10 percent of the total enrollment of the five largest large group health insurance products in the State;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The plan provides minimum value, as defined under § 156.145;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The benefits are not excepted benefits, as established under § 146.145(b), and § 148.220 of this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The benefits in the plan are from a plan year beginning after December 31, 2013.


</P>
<P>(iii) Not have benefits unduly weighted towards any of the categories of benefits at § 156.110(a);


</P>
<P>(iv) Provide benefits for diverse segments of the population, including women, children, persons with disabilities, and other groups; and


</P>
<P>(v) Not include discriminatory benefit designs that contravene the non-discrimination standards defined in § 156.125.








</P>
<P>(c) The State must provide reasonable public notice and an opportunity for public comment on the State's selection of an EHB-benchmark plan that includes posting a notice on its opportunity for public comment with associated information on a relevant State website.


</P>
<P>(d) A State must notify HHS of the selection of a new EHB-benchmark plan by the first Wednesday in May of the year that is 2 years before the effective date of the new EHB-benchmark plan.


</P>
<P>(1) If the State does not make a selection by the first Wednesday in May of the year that is 2 years before the effective date of the new EHB-benchmark plan, or its benchmark plan selection does not meet the requirements of this section and section 1302 of the ACA, the State's EHB-benchmark plan for the applicable plan year will be that State's EHB-benchmark plan applicable for the prior year.


</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(e) A State changing its EHB-benchmark plan under this section must submit documents in a format and manner specified by HHS by the first Wednesday in May of the year that is 2 years before the effective date of the new EHB-benchmark plan. These must include:






</P>
<P>(1) A document confirming that the State's EHB-benchmark plan definition complies with the requirements under paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this section, including information on which selection option under paragraph (a) of this section the State is using, and whether the State is using another State's EHB-benchmark plan;
</P>
<P>(2) An actuarial certification and an associated actuarial report from an actuary, who is a member of the American Academy of Actuaries, in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and methodologies, that affirms that the State's EHB-benchmark plan complies with the applicable scope of benefits requirements at paragraph (b)(2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(3) The State's EHB-benchmark plan document that reflects the benefits and limitations, including medical management requirements, a schedule of benefits and, if the State is changing the number of prescription drugs pursuant to § 156.122(a)(1)(ii), a formulary drug list in a format and manner specified by HHS; and


</P>
<P>(4) Other documentation specified by HHS, which is necessary to operationalize the State's EHB-benchmark plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17068, Apr. 17, 2018, as amended at 85 FR 29261, May 14, 2020; 87 FR 27390, May 6, 2022; 89 FR 26424, Apr. 15, 2024; 89 FR 85431, Oct. 28, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.115" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.115   Provision of EHB.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Provision of EHB means that a health plan provides benefits that—
</P>
<P>(1) Are substantially equal to the EHB-benchmark plan including:
</P>
<P>(i) Covered benefits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Limitations on coverage including coverage of benefit amount, duration, and scope; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Prescription drug benefits that meet the requirements of § 156.122 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) Are required by a State action taking place on or before December 31, 2011.
</P>
<P>(3) With the exception of the EHB category of coverage for pediatric services, do not exclude an enrollee from coverage in an EHB category.
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to the mental health and substance use disorder services, including behavioral health treatment services, required under § 156.110(a)(5), comply with the requirements under section 2726 of the Public Health Service Act and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(5) Include preventive health services described in § 147.130 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(6) With respect to habilitative services and devices—
</P>
<P>(i) Cover health care services and devices that help a person keep, learn, or improve skills and functioning for daily living (habilitative services). Examples include therapy for a child who is not walking or talking at the expected age. These services may include physical and occupational therapy, speech-language pathology and other services for people with disabilities in a variety of inpatient and/or outpatient settings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Do not impose limits on coverage of habilitative services and devices that are less favorable than any such limits imposed on coverage of rehabilitative services and devices; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, do not impose combined limits on habilitative and rehabilitative services and devices.
</P>
<P>(7) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2016, for pediatric services that are required under § 156.110(a)(10), provide coverage for enrollees until at least the end of the month in which the enrollee turns 19 years of age.
</P>
<P>(b) An issuer of a plan offering EHB may substitute benefits for those provided in the EHB-benchmark plan under the following conditions—
</P>
<P>(1) The issuer substitutes a benefit that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is actuarially equivalent to the benefit that is being replaced as determined in paragraph (b)(4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a prescription drug benefit.


</P>
<P>(2) An issuer may substitute a benefit within the same EHB category, unless prohibited by applicable State requirements. Substitution of benefits between EHB categories is not permitted.






</P>
<P>(3) The plan that includes substituted benefits must:
</P>
<P>(i) Continue to comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, including by providing benefits that are substantially equal to the EHB-benchmark plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide an appropriate balance among the EHB categories such that benefits are not unduly weighted toward any category; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide benefits for diverse segments of the population.
</P>
<P>(4) The issuer submits to the State evidence of actuarial equivalence that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Certified by a member of the American Academy of Actuaries;
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on an analysis performed in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and methodologies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Based on a standardized plan population; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Determined without taking cost-sharing into account.
</P>
<P>(c) A health plan does not fail to provide EHB solely because it does not offer the services described in § 156.280(d) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(d) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2026, an issuer of a plan offering EHB may not include routine non-pediatric dental services, routine non-pediatric eye exam services, long-term/custodial nursing home care benefits, or non-medically necessary orthodontia as EHB. For plan years beginning on any day in calendar year 2026, an issuer of a plan offering EHB may not include routine non-pediatric dental services, routine non-pediatric eye exam services, long-term/custodial nursing home care benefits, non-medically necessary orthodontia, or specified sex-trait modification procedures (as defined at § 156.400) as EHB. For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2027, an issuer of a plan offering EHB may not include routine non-pediatric dental services, routine non-pediatric eye exam services, long-term/custodial nursing home care benefits, non-medically necessary orthodontia, or specified sex-trait modification procedures (as defined at § 156.400) as EHB.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10871, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12349, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17069, Apr. 17, 2018; 86 FR 53506, Sept. 27, 2021; 87 FR 27390, May 6, 2022; 89 FR 26425, Apr. 15, 2024; 90 FR 27223, June 25, 2025; 91 FR 29874, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.120" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.120   Collection of data to define essential health benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to this section, unless the context indicates otherwise:
</P>
<P><I>Health benefits</I> means benefits for medical care, as defined at § 144.103 of this subchapter, which may be delivered through the purchase of insurance or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Health plan</I> has the meaning given to the term “Portal Plan” in § 159.110 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> has the meaning given to that term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Treatment limitations</I> include limits on benefits based on the frequency of treatment, number of visits, days of coverage, or other similar limits on the scope or duration of treatment. Treatment limitations include only quantitative treatment limitations. A permanent exclusion of all benefits for a particular condition or disorder is not a treatment limitation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting requirement.</I> A State that selects a base-benchmark plan or an issuer that offers a default base-benchmark plan in accordance with § 156.100 must submit to HHS the following information in a form and manner, and by a date, determined by HHS:
</P>
<P>(1) Administrative data necessary to identify the health plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Data and descriptive information for each plan on the following items:
</P>
<P>(i) All health benefits in the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Treatment limitations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Drug coverage; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Exclusions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 10871, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.122" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.122   Prescription drug benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A health plan does not provide essential health benefits unless it:
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to the exception in paragraph (b) of this section, covers at least the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) One drug in every United States Pharmacopeia (USP) category and class; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The same number of prescription drugs in each category and class as the EHB-benchmark plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Submits its formulary drug list to the Exchange, the State or OPM; and
</P>
<P>(3) For plans years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, uses a pharmacy and therapeutics (P&amp;T) committee that meets the following standards.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Membership standards.</I> The P&amp;T committee must:
</P>
<P>(A) Have members that represent a sufficient number of clinical specialties to adequately meet the needs of enrollees.
</P>
<P>(B) Consist of a majority of individuals who are practicing physicians, practicing pharmacists and other practicing health care professionals who are licensed to prescribe drugs.
</P>
<P>(C) Prohibit any member with a conflict of interest with respect to the issuer or a pharmaceutical manufacturer from voting on any matters for which the conflict exists.
</P>
<P>(D) Require at least 20 percent of its membership to have no conflict of interest with respect to the issuer and any pharmaceutical manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(E) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2026, include at minimum one patient representative who must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Represent the patient perspective as a member of the P&amp;T committee.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Have relevant experience or participation in patient or community-based organizations.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Be able to demonstrate the ability to integrate data interpretations with practical patient considerations.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Have no fiduciary obligation to a health facility or other health agency and have no material financial interest in the rendering of health services.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Have a broad understanding of one or more conditions or diseases, associated treatment options, and research.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Disclose financial interests on their conflict-of-interest statements. Disclosed financial interests must include all interests with any entity that would benefit from decisions regarding plan formularies as well as specific information about their financial interests, such as the nature of the relationship and the value of the financial interest.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Meeting standards.</I> The P&amp;T committee must:
</P>
<P>(A) Meet at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(B) Maintain written documentation of the rationale for all decisions regarding formulary drug list development or revision.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Formulary drug list establishment and management.</I> The P&amp;T committee must:
</P>
<P>(A) Develop and document procedures to ensure appropriate drug review and inclusion.
</P>
<P>(B) Base clinical decisions on the strength of scientific evidence and standards of practice, including assessing peer-reviewed medical literature, pharmacoeconomic studies, outcomes research data, and other such information as it determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(C) Consider the therapeutic advantages of drugs in terms of safety and efficacy when selecting formulary drugs.
</P>
<P>(D) Review policies that guide exceptions and other utilization management processes, including drug utilization review, quantity limits, and therapeutic interchange.
</P>
<P>(E) Evaluate and analyze treatment protocols and procedures related to the plan's formulary at least annually.
</P>
<P>(F) Review and approve all clinical prior authorization criteria, step therapy protocols, and quantity limit restrictions applied to each covered drug.
</P>
<P>(G) Review new FDA-approved drugs and new uses for existing drugs.
</P>
<P>(H) Ensure the issuer's formulary drug list:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Covers a range of drugs across a broad distribution of therapeutic categories and classes and recommended drug treatment regimens that treat all disease states, and does not discourage enrollment by any group of enrollees; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provides appropriate access to drugs that are included in broadly accepted treatment guidelines and that are indicative of general best practices at the time.
</P>
<P>(b) A health plan does not fail to provide EHB prescription drug benefits solely because it does not offer drugs approved by the Food and Drug Administration as a service described in § 156.280(d) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(c) A health plan providing essential health benefits must have the following processes in place that allow an enrollee, the enrollee's designee, or the enrollee's prescribing physician (or other prescriber, as appropriate) to request and gain access to clinically appropriate drugs not otherwise covered by the health plan (a request for exception). In the event that an exception request is granted, the plan must treat the excepted drug(s) as an essential health benefit, including by counting any cost-sharing towards the plan's annual limitation on cost-sharing under § 156.130 and when calculating the plan's actuarial value under § 156.135.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Standard exception request.</I> For plans years beginning on or after January 1, 2016:
</P>
<P>(i) A health plan must have a process for an enrollee, the enrollee's designee, or the enrollee's prescribing physician (or other prescriber) to request a standard review of a decision that a drug is not covered by the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) A health plan must make its determination on a standard exception and notify the enrollee or the enrollee's designee and the prescribing physician (or other prescriber, as appropriate) of its coverage determination no later than 72 hours following receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(iii) A health plan that grants a standard exception request must provide coverage of the non-formulary drug for the duration of the prescription, including refills.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited exception request.</I> (i) A health plan must have a process for an enrollee, the enrollee's designee, or the enrollee's prescribing physician (or other prescriber) to request an expedited review based on exigent circumstances.
</P>
<P>(ii) Exigent circumstances exist when an enrollee is suffering from a health condition that may seriously jeopardize the enrollee's life, health, or ability to regain maximum function or when an enrollee is undergoing a current course of treatment using a non-formulary drug.
</P>
<P>(iii) A health plan must make its coverage determination on an expedited review request based on exigent circumstances and notify the enrollee or the enrollee's designee and the prescribing physician (or other prescriber, as appropriate) of its coverage determination no later than 24 hours following receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(iv) A health plan that grants an exception based on exigent circumstances must provide coverage of the non-formulary drug for the duration of the exigency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>External exception request review.</I> For plans years beginning on or after January 1, 2016:
</P>
<P>(i) If the health plan denies a request for a standard exception under paragraph (c)(1) of this section or for an expedited exception under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the health plan must have a process for the enrollee, the enrollee's designee, or the enrollee's prescribing physician (or other prescriber) to request that the original exception request and subsequent denial of such request be reviewed by an independent review organization.
</P>
<P>(ii) A health plan must make its determination on the external exception request and notify the enrollee or the enrollee's designee and the prescribing physician (or other prescriber, as appropriate) of its coverage determination no later than 72 hours following its receipt of the request, if the original request was a standard exception request under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, and no later than 24 hours following its receipt of the request, if the original request was an expedited exception request under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a health plan grants an external exception review of a standard exception request, the health plan must provide coverage of the non-formulary drug for the duration of the prescription. If a health plan grants an external exception review of an expedited exception request, the health plan must provide coverage of the non-formulary drug for the duration of the exigency.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Application of coverage appeals laws.</I> (i) A State may determine that a health plan in the State satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (c) if the health plan has a process to allow an enrollee to request and gain access to clinically appropriate drugs not otherwise covered by the health plan that is compliant with the State's applicable coverage appeals laws and regulations that are at least as stringent as the requirements of this paragraph (c) and include:
</P>
<P>(A) An internal review;
</P>
<P>(B) An external review;
</P>
<P>(C) The ability to expedite the reviews; and
</P>
<P>(D) Timeframes that are the same or shorter than the timeframes under paragraphs (c)(1)(ii), (c)(2)(iii), and (c)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d)(1) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2016, a health plan must publish an up-to-date, accurate, and complete list of all covered drugs on its formulary drug list, including any tiering structure that it has adopted and any restrictions on the manner in which a drug can be obtained, in a manner that is easily accessible to plan enrollees, prospective enrollees, the State, the Exchange, HHS, the U.S. Office of Personnel Management, and the general public. A formulary drug list is easily accessible when:
</P>
<P>(i) It can be viewed on the plan's public Web site through a clearly identifiable link or tab without requiring an individual to create or access an account or enter a policy number; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If an issuer offers more than one plan, when an individual can easily discern which formulary drug list applies to which plan.
</P>
<P>(2) A QHP in the Federally-facilitated Exchange must make available the information described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section on its Web site in an HHS-specified format and also submit this information to HHS, in a format and at times determined by HHS.
</P>
<P>(e) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, a health plan providing essential health benefits must have the following access procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) A health plan must allow enrollees to access prescription drug benefits at in-network retail pharmacies, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The drug is subject to restricted distribution by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The drug requires special handling, provider coordination, or patient education that cannot be provided by a retail pharmacy.
</P>
<P>(2) A health plan may charge enrollees a different cost-sharing amount for obtaining a covered drug at a retail pharmacy, but all cost sharing will count towards the plan's annual limitation on cost sharing under § 156.130 and must be accounted for in the plan's actuarial value calculated under § 156.135.
</P>
<P>(f) If a health plan covers prescription drugs in excess of the prescription drugs required to be covered under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the additional prescription drugs are considered an essential health benefit and subject to requirements including the annual limitation on cost sharing and the restriction on annual and lifetime dollar limits, unless coverage of the drug is mandated by State action and is in addition to an essential health benefit pursuant to § 155.170, in which case the drug would not be considered an essential health benefit.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30350, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10871, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12349, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 53032, Aug. 11, 2016; 89 FR 26425, Apr. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.125" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.125   Prohibition on discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An issuer does not provide EHB if its benefit design, or the implementation of its benefit design, discriminates based on an individual's age, expected length of life, present or predicted disability, degree of medical dependency, quality of life, or other health conditions. Beginning on the earlier of January 1, 2023 (the start of the 2023 plan year) or upon renewal of any plan subject to this rule, a non-discriminatory benefit design that provides EHB is one that is clinically-based.
</P>
<P>(b) An issuer providing EHB must comply with the requirements of § 156.200(e) of this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent an issuer from appropriately utilizing reasonable medical management techniques.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 87 FR 27390, May 6, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.130" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.130   Cost-sharing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual limitation on cost sharing.</I> (1) For a plan year beginning in the calendar year 2014, cost sharing may not exceed the following:
</P>
<P>(i) For self-only coverage—the annual dollar limit as described in section 223(c)(2)(A)(ii)(I) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 as amended, for self-only coverage that that is in effect for 2014; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For other than self-only coverage—the annual dollar limit in section 223(c)(2)(A)(ii)(II) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 as amended, for non-self-only coverage that is in effect for 2014.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as permitted in § 156.136 and § 156.155(a)(3)(ii), for a plan year beginning in a calendar year after 2014, cost sharing may not exceed the following:
</P>
<P>(i) For self-only coverage—the dollar limit for calendar year 2014 increased by an amount equal to the product of that amount and the premium adjustment percentage, as defined in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For other than self-only coverage—twice the dollar limit for self-only coverage described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.


</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rule for network plans.</I> In the case of a plan using a network of providers, cost sharing paid by, or on behalf of, an enrollee for benefits provided outside of such network is not required to count toward the annual limitation on cost sharing (as defined in paragraph (a) of this section).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Increase annual dollar limits in multiples of 50.</I> For a plan year beginning in a calendar year after 2014, any increase in the annual dollar limits described in paragraph (a) of this section that does not result in a multiple of 50 dollars will be rounded down, to the next lowest multiple of 50 dollars.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Premium adjustment percentage.</I> The premium adjustment percentage is the percentage (if any) by which the average per capita premium for health insurance coverage for the preceding calendar year exceeds such average per capita premium for health insurance for 2013. HHS may publish the annual premium adjustment percentage in guidance in January of the calendar year preceding the benefit year for which the premium adjustment percentage is applicable, unless HHS proposes changes to the methodology, in which case, HHS will publish the annual premium adjustment percentage in an annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters or another appropriate rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Coordination with preventive limits.</I> Nothing in this subpart is in derogation of the requirements of § 147.130 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Coverage of emergency department services.</I> Emergency department services must be provided as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Without imposing any requirement under the plan for prior authorization of services or any limitation on coverage where the provider of services is out of network that is more restrictive than the requirements or limitations that apply to emergency department services received in network; and
</P>
<P>(2) If such services are provided out-of-network, cost-sharing must be limited as provided in § 147.138(b)(3) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Use of direct support offered by drug manufacturers.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, and to the extent consistent with State law, amounts paid toward reducing the cost sharing incurred by an enrollee using any form of direct support offered by drug manufacturers for specific prescription drugs may be, but are not required to be, counted toward the annual limitation on cost sharing, as defined in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30350, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10872, Feb. 27, 2015; 84 FR 17567, Apr. 25, 2019; 85 FR 29261, May 14, 2020; 86 FR 24291, May 5, 2021; 91 FR 29874, May 20, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.135" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.135   AV calculation for determining level of coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of AV.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section, to calculate the AV of a health plan, the issuer must use the AV Calculator developed and made available by HHS for the given benefit year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception to the use of the AV Calculator.</I> If a health plan's design is not compatible with the AV Calculator, the issuer must meet the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit the actuarial certification from an actuary, who is a member of the American Academy of Actuaries, on the chosen methodology identified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(2) Calculate the plan's AV by:
</P>
<P>(i) Estimating a fit of its plan design into the parameters of the AV Calculator; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Having an actuary, who is a member of the American Academy of Actuaries, certify that the plan design was fit appropriately in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and methodologies; or
</P>
<P>(3) Use the AV Calculator to determine the AV for the plan provisions that fit within the calculator parameters and have an actuary, who is a member of the American Academy of Actuaries calculate and certify, in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and methodologies, appropriate adjustments to the AV identified by the calculator, for plan design features that deviate substantially from the parameters of the AV Calculator.
</P>
<P>(4) The calculation methods described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section may include only in-network cost-sharing, including multi-tier networks.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employer contributions to health savings accounts and amounts made available under certain health reimbursement arrangements.</I> For plans other than those in the individual market that at the time of purchase are offered in conjunction with an HSA or with integrated HRAs that may be used only for cost-sharing, annual employer contributions to HSAs and amounts newly made available under such HRAs for the current year are:
</P>
<P>(1) Counted towards the total anticipated medical spending of the standard population that is paid by the health plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Adjusted to reflect the expected spending for health care costs in a benefit year so that:
</P>
<P>(i) Any current year HSA contributions are accounted for; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amounts newly made available under such integrated HRAs for the current year are accounted for.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of state-specific standard population for the calculation of AV.</I> Beginning in 2015, if submitted by the State and approved by HHS, a state-specific data set will be used as the standard population to calculate AV in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. The data set may be approved by HHS if it is submitted in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section and:
</P>
<P>(1) Supports the calculation of AVs for the full range of health plans available in the market;
</P>
<P>(2) Is derived from a non-elderly population and estimates those likely to be covered by private health plans on or after January 1, 2014;
</P>
<P>(3) Is large enough that: (i) The demographic and spending patterns are stable over time; and (ii) Includes a substantial majority of the State's insured population, subject to the requirement in paragraph (d)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Is a statistically reliable and stable basis for area-specific calculations; and (5) Contains claims data on health care services typically offered in the then-current market.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Submission of state-specific data.</I> AV will be calculated using the default standard population described in paragraph (f) of this section, unless a data set in a format specified by HHS that can support the use of the AV Calculator as described in paragraph (a) of this section is submitted by a State and approved by HHS consistent with paragraph (d) of this section by a date specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Default standard population.</I> The default standard population for AV calculation will be developed and summary statistics, such as in continuance tables, will be provided by HHS in a format that supports the calculation of AV as described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Updates to the AV Calculator.</I> HHS will update the AV Calculator annually for material changes that may include costs, plan designs, the standard population, developments in the function and operation of the AV Calculator and other actuarially relevant factors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 13839, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 12349, Mar. 8, 2016]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.136" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.136   Expanded cost-sharing parameters.</HEAD>
<P>For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2027, if an issuer offers a bronze plan (as defined at § 156.140(b)(1)) in the individual market that complies with the cost-sharing requirements at § 156.130 and the levels of coverage requirements at § 156.140, the issuer may also offer within the same service area bronze plans that exceed the maximum annual limitation on cost sharing at § 156.130 by amounts in increments of 50 dollars in order to achieve an AV within the standard bronze de minimis variation at § 156.140(c), calculated as described in § 156.135 of this subpart, but not to exceed an amount equal to 130 percent of the annual limitation on cost sharing under section 1302(c)(1) of the Affordable Care Act.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 29874, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.140" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.140   Levels of coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement for levels of coverage.</I> AV, calculated as described in § 156.135 of this subpart, and within a de minimis variation as defined in paragraph (c) of this section, determines whether a health plan offers a bronze, silver, gold, or platinum level of coverage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The levels of coverage</I> are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>A bronze health plan</I> is a health plan that has an AV of 60 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A silver health plan</I> is a health plan that has an AV of 70 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>A gold health plan</I> is a health plan that has an AV of 80 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>A platinum health plan</I> is a health plan that has as an AV of 90 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>De minimis variation.</I> (1) The allowable variation in the AV of a health plan that does not result in a material difference in the true dollar value of the health plan is −4 percentage points and +2 percentage points, except if a health plan under paragraph (b)(1) of this section (a bronze health plan) either covers and pays for at least one major service, other than preventive services, before the deductible or meets the requirements to be a high deductible health plan within the meaning of section 223(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, in which case the allowable variation in AV for such plan is −4 percentage points and +5 percentage points.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 94180, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 18382, Apr. 18, 2017; 87 FR 27390, May 6, 2022; 90 FR 27223, June 25, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.145" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.145   Determination of minimum value.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable methods for determining MV.</I> An employer-sponsored plan provides minimum value (MV) only if the percentage of the total allowed costs of benefits provided under the plan is greater than or equal to 60 percent, and the benefits under the plan include substantial coverage of inpatient hospital services and physician services. An employer-sponsored plan may use one of the following methods to determine whether the percentage of the total allowed costs of benefits provided under the plan is not less than 60 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) The MV Calculator to be made available by HHS and the Internal Revenue Service. The result derived from the calculator may be modified under the rules in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any safe harbor established by HHS and the Internal Revenue Service.
</P>
<P>(3) A group health plan may seek certification by an actuary to determine MV if the plan contains non-standard features that are not suitable for either of the methods described in paragraphs (a)(1) or (2) of this section. The determination of MV must be made by a member of the American Academy of Actuaries, based on an analysis performed in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and methodologies.
</P>
<P>(4) Any plan in the small group market that meets any of the levels of coverage, as described in § 156.140 of this subpart, satisfies minimum value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits that may be counted towards the determination of MV.</I> (1) In the event that a group health plan uses the MV Calculator and offers an EHB outside of the parameters of the MV Calculator, the plan may seek an actuary, who is a member of the American Academy of Actuaries, to determine the value of that benefit and adjust the result derived from the MV Calculator to reflect that value.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of applying the options described in paragraph (a) of this section in determining MV, a group health plan will be permitted to take into account all benefits provided by the plan that are included in any one of the EHB-benchmarks.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standard population.</I> The standard population for MV determinations described in paragraph (a) of this section is the standard population developed by HHS for such use and described through summary statistics issued by HHS. The standard population for MV must reflect the population covered by self-insured group health plans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employer contributions to health savings accounts and amounts made available under certain health reimbursement arrangements.</I> For employer-sponsored self-insured group health plans and insured group health plans that at the time of purchase are offered in conjunction with an HSA or with integrated HRAs that may be used only for cost-sharing, annual employer contributions to HSAs and amounts newly made available under such HRAs for the current year are:
</P>
<P>(1) Counted towards the total anticipated medical spending of the standard population that is paid by the health plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Adjusted to reflect the expected spending for health care costs in a benefit year so that:
</P>
<P>(i) Any current year HSA contributions are accounted for; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amounts newly made available under such integrated HRAs for the current year are accounted for.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10872, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.150" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.150   Application to stand-alone dental plans inside the Exchange.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual limitation on cost-sharing.</I> For a stand-alone dental plan covering the pediatric dental EHB under § 155.1065 of this subchapter in any Exchange, cost sharing may not exceed $350 for one covered child and $700 for two or more covered children.
</P>
<P>(1) For plan years beginning after 2017, for one covered child—the dollar limit applicable to a stand-alone dental plan for one covered child specified in this paragraph (a) increased by the percent increase of the consumer price index for dental services for the year 2 years prior to the applicable plan year over the consumer price index for dental services for 2016.
</P>
<P>(2) For plan years after 2017, for two or more covered children—twice the dollar limit for one child described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of AV.</I> A stand-alone dental plan:
</P>
<P>(1) May not use the AV calculator in § 156.135; and
</P>
<P>(2) Must have the plan's actuarial value of coverage for pediatric dental essential health benefits certified by a member of the American Academy of Actuaries using generally accepted actuarial principles and reported to the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consumer price index for dental services defined.</I> The consumer price index for dental services is a sub-component of the U.S. Department of Labor's Bureau of Labor Statistics Consumer Price Index specific to dental services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Increments of cost sharing increases.</I> Any increase in the annual dollar limits described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that does not result in a multiple of 25 dollars will be rounded down, to the next lowest multiple of 25 dollars.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 12866, Feb. 25, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 13840, Mar. 11, 2014; 81 FR 12349, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17069, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.155" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.155   Enrollment in catastrophic plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A health plan is a catastrophic plan if it meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets all applicable requirements for health insurance coverage in the individual market (including but not limited to those requirements described in parts 147 and 148 of this subchapter), and is offered only in the individual market.
</P>
<P>(2) Does not provide a bronze, silver, gold, or platinum level of coverage described in section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) For plan years beginning before January 1, 2028, provides coverage of the essential health benefits under section 1302(b) of the Affordable Care Act, except that the plan provides no benefits for any plan year (except as provided in paragraphs (a)(4), (b), and (c) of this section) until the annual limitation on cost sharing in section 1302(c)(1) of the Affordable Care Act is reached.
</P>
<P>(ii) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2028, provides coverage of the essential health benefits under section 1302(b) of the Affordable Care Act, except that the plan provides no benefits for any plan year (except as provided in paragraphs (a)(4) and (6), (b), and (c) of this section) until an amount equal to 130 percent of the annual limitation on cost sharing in section 1302(c)(1) of the Affordable Care Act, rounded down to the next lowest multiple of 50 dollars, is reached.


</P>
<P>(4) Provides coverage for at least three primary care visits per year before reaching the deductible.
</P>
<P>(5) Covers only individuals who meet either of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Have not attained the age of 30 prior to the first day of the plan or policy year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Have received a certificate of exemption for the reasons identified in section 1302(e)(2)(B)(i) or (ii) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(6) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2027, has a plan term of either 1 plan year, or of multiple consecutive plan years not to exceed 10 plan years. Such a plan with a plan term of at least 2 consecutive plan years may utilize value-based insurance designs to provide benefits before reaching the deductible, pursuant to guidelines issued by the Secretaries of Health and Human Services, Labor, and the Treasury under section 2713(c) of the Public Health Service Act.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage of preventive health services.</I> A catastrophic plan may not impose any cost-sharing requirements (such as a copayment, coinsurance, or deductible) for preventive services, in accordance with section 2713 of the Public Health Service Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage to prevent surprise medical bills.</I> A catastrophic plan must provide benefits as required under sections 2799A-1 and 2799A-2 of the Public Health Service Act and their implementing regulations in §§ 149.110, 149.120, and 149.130 or any applicable State law providing similar protections to individuals, and will not violate paragraph (a)(3) of this section solely because of the provision of such benefits before the annual limitation on cost sharing is reached.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application for family coverage.</I> For other than self-only coverage, each individual enrolled must meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 13442, Feb. 27, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 65096, Oct. 30, 2013; 86 FR 36985, July 13, 2021; 91 FR 29874, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Qualified Health Plan Minimum Certification Standards</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 156.200" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.200   QHP issuer participation standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> In order to participate in an Exchange, a health insurance issuer must have in effect a certification issued or recognized by the Exchange to demonstrate that each health plan it offers in the Exchange is a QHP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>QHP issuer requirement.</I> A QHP issuer must—
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with the requirements of this subpart with respect to each of its QHPs on an ongoing basis;
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with Exchange processes, procedures, and requirements set forth in accordance with subpart K of part 155 of this subchapter and, in the small group market, §§ 155.705 and 155.706 of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that each QHP complies with benefit design standards, as defined in § 156.20;






</P>
<P>(4) Be licensed and in good standing to offer health insurance coverage in each State in which the issuer offers health insurance coverage;
</P>
<P>(5) Implement and report on a quality improvement strategy or strategies described in section 1311(c)(1)(E) of the Affordable Care Act consistent with the standards of section 1311(g) of the Affordable Care Act, disclose and report information on health care quality and outcomes described in sections 1311(c)(1)(H), (c)(1)(I), and (c)(3) of the Affordable Care Act, and implement appropriate enrollee satisfaction surveys consistent with section 1311(c)(4) of the Affordable Care Act
</P>
<P>(6) Pay any applicable user fees assessed under § 156.50; and
</P>
<P>(7) Comply with the standards under 45 CFR part 153.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Offering requirements.</I> A QHP issuer must offer through the Exchange:
</P>
<P>(1) At least one QHP in the silver coverage level and at least one QHP in the gold coverage level as described in § 156.140 throughout each service area in which it offers coverage through the Exchange; and,
</P>
<P>(2) A child-only plan at the same level of coverage, as described in section 1302(d)(1) of the Affordable Care Act, as any QHP offered through the Exchange to individuals who, as of the beginning of the plan year, have not attained the age of 21.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State requirements.</I> A QHP issuer certified by an Exchange must adhere to the requirements of this subpart and any provisions imposed by the Exchange, or a State in connection with its Exchange, that are conditions of participation or certification with respect to each of its QHPs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-discrimination.</I> A QHP issuer must not, with respect to its QHP, discriminate on the basis of race, color, national origin, disability, age, or sex (which includes discrimination on the basis of sex characteristics, including intersex traits; pregnancy or related conditions; sexual orientation; gender identity; and sex stereotypes).


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Broker compensation in a Federally-facilitated Exchange.</I> A QHP issuer must pay the same broker compensation for QHPs offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange that the QHP issuer pays for similar health plans offered in the State outside a Federally-facilitated Exchange.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Certification standard specific to a Federally-facilitated Exchange for plan years beginning before January 1, 2018.</I> A Federally-facilitated Exchange may certify a QHP in the individual market of a Federally-facilitated Exchange only if the QHP issuer meets one of the conditions below:
</P>
<P>(1) The QHP issuer also offers through a Federally-facilitated SHOP serving that State at least one small group market QHP at the silver level of coverage and one at the gold level of coverage as described in section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act;
</P>
<P>(2) The QHP issuer does not offer small group market products in that State, but another issuer in the same issuer group offers through a Federally-facilitated SHOP serving that State at least one small group market QHP at the silver level of coverage and one at the gold level of coverage; or
</P>
<P>(3) Neither the issuer nor any other issuer in the same issuer group has a share of the small group market, as determined by HHS, greater than 20 percent, based on the earned premiums submitted by all issuers in the State's small group market, under § 158.110 of this subchapter, on the reporting date immediately preceding the due date of the application for QHP certification.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Operational requirements.</I> As a condition of certification of a QHP, an issuer must attest that it will comply with all QHP operational requirements described in subparts D, E, H, K, L, and M of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013; 79 FR 30351, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10873, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 94181, Dec. 22, 2016; 83 FR 17069, Apr. 17, 2018; 85 FR 37248, June 19, 2020; 87 FR 27391, May 6, 2022; 89 FR 37703, May 6, 2024; 90 FR 27223, June 25, 2025]




























</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.210" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.210   QHP rate and benefit information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rate requirement.</I> A QHP issuer must set rates for an entire benefit year, or for the SHOP, plan year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rate and benefit submission.</I> A QHP issuer must submit rate and benefit information to the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rate justification.</I> A QHP issuer must submit to the Exchange a justification for a rate increase prior to the implementation of the increase. A QHP issuer must prominently post the justification on its Web site.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rate requirements</I> for <I>stand-alone dental plans.</I> For benefit and plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2024:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Age on effective date.</I> The premium rate charged by an issuer of stand-alone dental plans may vary with respect to the particular plan or coverage involved by determining the enrollee's age. Any age calculation for rating and eligibility purposes must be based on the age as of the time of policy issuance or renewal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guaranteed rates.</I> An issuer of stand-alone dental plans must set guaranteed rates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 88 FR 25922, Apr. 27, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.215" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.215   Advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reduction standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards relative to advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.</I> In order for a health plan to be certified as a QHP initially and to maintain certification to be offered in the individual market on the Exchange, the issuer must meet the requirements related to the administration of cost-sharing reductions and advance payments of the premium tax credit set forth in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.220" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.220   Transparency in coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> A QHP issuer must provide the following information in accordance with the standards in paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Claims payment policies and practices;
</P>
<P>(2) Periodic financial disclosures;
</P>
<P>(3) Data on enrollment;
</P>
<P>(4) Data on disenrollment;
</P>
<P>(5) Data on the number of claims that are denied;
</P>
<P>(6) Data on rating practices;
</P>
<P>(7) Information on cost-sharing and payments with respect to any out-of-network coverage; and
</P>
<P>(8) Information on enrollee rights under title I of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting requirement.</I> A QHP issuer must submit, in an accurate and timely manner, to be determined by HHS, the information described in paragraph (a) of this section to the Exchange, HHS and the State insurance commissioner, and make the information described in paragraph (a) of this section available to the public.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use of plain language.</I> A QHP issuer must make sure that the information submitted under paragraph (b) is provided in plain language as defined under § 155.20 of this subtitle.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enrollee cost sharing transparency.</I> A QHP issuer must make available the amount of enrollee cost sharing under the individual's plan or coverage with respect to the furnishing of a specific item or service by a participating provider in a timely manner upon the request of the individual. At a minimum, such information must be made available to such individual through an Internet Web site and such other means for individuals without access to the Internet.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.221" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.221   Access to and exchange of health data and plan information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application Programming Interface to support enrollees.</I> Subject to paragraph (h) of this section, a QHP issuer on a Federally-Facilitated Exchange must implement and maintain a standards-based Application Programming Interface (API) that permits third-party applications to retrieve, with the approval and at the direction of a current individual enrollee or the enrollee's personal representative, data specified in paragraph (b) of this section through the use of common technologies and without special effort from the enrollee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accessible content.</I> (1) A QHP issuer on a Federally-facilitate Exchange must make the following information accessible to its current enrollees or the enrollee's personal representative through the API described in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Data concerning adjudicated claims, including claims data for payment decisions that may be appealed, were appealed, or are in the process of appeal, and provider remittances and enrollee cost-sharing pertaining to such claims, no later than one (1) business day after a claim is processed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Encounter data from capitated providers, no later than one (1) business day after data concerning the encounter is received by the QHP issuer;
</P>
<P>(iii) All data classes and data elements included in a content standard in 45 CFR 170.213 that are maintained by the Qualified Health Plan (QHP) issuer no later than 1 business day after the QHP issuer receives the data; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2027, the information in paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section about prior authorizations for items and services (excluding drugs, as defined in paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section), according to the timelines in paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The prior authorization request and decision, including all of the following, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The prior authorization status.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The date the prior authorization was approved or denied.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The date or circumstance under which the prior authorization ends.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The items and services approved.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If denied, a specific reason why the request was denied.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Related structured administrative and clinical documentation submitted by a provider.
</P>
<P>(B) The information in paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section must—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Be accessible no later than 1 business day after the QHP issuer receives a prior authorization request;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Be updated no later than 1 business day after any status change; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Continue to be accessible for the duration that the authorization is active and at least 1 year after the prior authorization's last status change.
</P>
<P>(v) Drugs are defined for the purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section as any and all drugs covered by the QHP issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Technical requirements.</I> A QHP issuer on a Federally-facilitated Exchange implementing an API under paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Must implement and maintain API technology conformant with 45 CFR 170.215(a)(1), (b)(1)(i), (c)(1), and (e)(1);
</P>
<P>(2) Must conduct routine testing and monitoring, and update as appropriate, to ensure the API functions properly, including assessments to verify the API is fully and successfully implementing privacy and security features such as, but not limited to, those required to comply with HIPAA privacy and security requirements in parts 160 and 164, 42 CFR parts 2 and 3, and other applicable law protecting privacy and security of individually identifiable data;
</P>
<P>(3) Must comply with the content and vocabulary standard requirements in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, as applicable, to the data type or data element, unless alternate standards are required by other applicable law:
</P>
<P>(i) Content and vocabulary standards at 45 CFR 170.213 where such are applicable to the data type or element, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Content and vocabulary standards at part 162 of this subchapter and 42 CFR 423.160 where required by law, or where such standards are applicable to the data type or element, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) May use an updated version of any standard or all standards required under paragraphs (c)(1) or (3) of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(i) Use of the updated version of the standard is required by other applicable law, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of the updated version of the standard is not prohibited under other applicable law, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) For content and vocabulary standards other than those at 45 CFR 170.213, the Secretary has not prohibited use of the updated version of a standard for purposes of this section or part 170 of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(B) For standards at 45 CFR 170.213 and 45 CFR 170.215, the National Coordinator has approved the updated version for use in the ONC Health IT Certification Program; and
</P>
<P>(C) Using the updated version of the standard, implementation guide, or specification does not disrupt an end user's ability to access the data specified in paragraph (b) of this section or §§ 156.221, 156.222, and 156.223 through the required APIs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Documentation requirements for APIs.</I> For each API implemented in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, a QHP issuer on a Federally-Facilitated Exchange must make publicly accessible, by posting directly on its website and/or via publicly accessible hyperlink(s), complete accompanying documentation that contains, at a minimum the information listed in this paragraph. For the purposes of this section, “publicly accessible” means that any person using commonly available technology to browse the internet could access the information without any preconditions or additional steps, such as a fee for access to the documentation; a requirement to receive a copy of the material via email; a requirement to register or create an account to receive the documentation; or a requirement to read promotional material or agree to receive future communications from the organization making the documentation available;
</P>
<P>(1) API syntax, function names, required and optional parameters supported and their data types, return variables and their types/structures, exceptions and exception handling methods and their returns;
</P>
<P>(2) The software components and configurations an application must use in order to successfully interact with the API and process its response(s); and
</P>
<P>(3) All applicable technical requirements and attributes necessary for an application to be registered with any authorization server(s) deployed in conjunction with the API.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Denial or discontinuation of access to the API.</I> A QHP issuer on a Federally-Facilitated Exchange may deny or discontinue any third party application's connection to the API required under paragraph (a) of this section if the QHP issuer:
</P>
<P>(1) Reasonably determines, consistent with its security risk analysis under 45 CFR part 164 subpart C, that allowing an application to connect or remain connected to the API would present an unacceptable level of risk to the security of personally identifiable information, including protected health information, on the QHP issuer's systems; and
</P>
<P>(2) Makes this determination using objective, verifiable criteria that are applied fairly and consistently across all apps and developers through which parties seek to access electronic health information, as defined in 45 CFR 171.102, including but not limited to criteria that rely on automated monitoring and risk mitigation tools.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reporting on Patient Access API usage.</I> Beginning in 2026, by March 31 following any calendar year that it offers a QHP on a Federally-facilitated Exchange, a QHP issuer must report to CMS the following metrics, in the form of aggregated, de-identified data, for the previous calendar year at the issuer level in the form and manner specified by the Secretary:
</P>
<P>(1) The total number of unique enrollees whose data are transferred via the Patient Access API to a health app designated by the enrollee.
</P>
<P>(2) The total number of unique enrollees whose data are transferred more than once via the Patient Access API to a health app designated by the enrollee.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Enrollee resources regarding privacy and security.</I> A QHP issuer on a Federally-facilitated Exchange must provide in an easily accessible location on its public website and through other appropriate mechanisms through which it ordinarily communicates with current and former enrollees seeking to access their health information held by the QHP issuer, educational resources in non-technical, simple and easy-to-understand language explaining at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) General information on steps the individual may consider taking to help protect the privacy and security of their health information, including factors to consider in selecting an application including secondary uses of data, and the importance of understanding the security and privacy practices of any application to which they will entrust their health information; and
</P>
<P>(2) An overview of which types of organizations or individuals are and are not likely to be HIPAA covered entities, the oversight responsibilities of the Office for Civil Rights (OCR) and the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), and how to submit a complaint to:
</P>
<P>(i) The HHS Office for Civil Rights (OCR); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Federal Trade Commission (FTC).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exception.</I> (1) If a plan applying for QHP certification to be offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange believes it cannot satisfy the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (g) of this section, the issuer must include as part of its QHP application a narrative justification describing the reasons why the plan cannot reasonably satisfy the requirements for the applicable plan year, the impact of non-compliance upon enrollees, the current or proposed means of providing health information to enrollees, and solutions and a timeline to achieve compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Federally-facilitated Exchange may grant an exception to the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (g) of this section if the Exchange determines that making such health plan available through such Exchange is in the interests of qualified individuals in the State or States in which such Exchange operates.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicability.</I> A QHP issuer on an individual market Federally-facilitated Exchange, not including QHP issuers offering only stand-alone dental plans, must comply with the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (e) and (g) of this section beginning with plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2021, and with the requirements in paragraph (f) of this section beginning in 2026, with regard to data:
</P>
<P>(1) With a date of service on or after January 1, 2016; and
</P>
<P>(2) That are maintained by the QHP issuer for enrollees in QHPs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 25638, May 1, 2020, as amended at 89 FR 8986, Feb. 8, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.222" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.222   Access to and exchange of health data for providers and payers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application programming interface to support data exchange from payers to providers—Provider Access API.</I> Unless granted an exception under paragraph (c) of this section, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2027, QHP issuers on a Federally-facilitated Exchange must do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>API requirements.</I> Implement and maintain an application programming interface (API) conformant with all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 156.221(c)(2) through (4), (d), and (e).
</P>
<P>(ii) The standards in 45 CFR 170.215(a)(1), (b)(1)(i), (c)(1), and (d)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provider access.</I> Make the data specified in § 156.221(b) with a date of service on or after January 1, 2016, excluding provider remittances and enrollee cost-sharing information, that are maintained by the QHP issuer to available in-network providers via the API required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section no later than 1 business day after receiving a request from such a provider, if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The QHP issuer authenticates the identity of the provider that requests access and attributes the enrollee to the provider under the attribution process described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The enrollee does not opt out as described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosure of the data is not prohibited by other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Attribution.</I> Establish and maintain a process to associate enrollees with their in-network providers to enable data exchange via the Provider Access API.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Opt out and patient educational resources.</I> (i) Establish and maintain a process to allow an enrollee or the enrollee's personal representative to opt out of data exchange described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and to change their permission at any time. That process must be available before the first date on which the QHP issuer makes enrollee information available via the Provider Access API and at any time while the enrollee is enrolled with the QHP issuer.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide information to enrollees in plain language about the benefits of API data exchange with their providers, their opt out rights, and instructions both for opting out of data exchange and for subsequently opting in, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Before the first date on which the QHP issuer makes enrollee information available through the Provider Access API.
</P>
<P>(B) No later than 1 week after the after the coverage start date or no later than 1 week after the effectuation of coverage, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(C) At least annually.
</P>
<P>(D) In an easily accessible location on its public website.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Provider resources.</I> Provide on its website and through other appropriate provider communications, information in plain language explaining the process for requesting enrollee data using the Provider Access API required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The resources must include information about how to use the QHP issuer's attribution process to associate enrollees with their providers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application programming interface to support data exchange between payers—Payer-to-Payer API.</I> Unless granted an exception under paragraph (c) of this section, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2027, QHP issuers on a Federally-facilitated Exchange must do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>API requirements.</I> Implement and maintain an API conformant with all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 156.221(c)(2) through (4), (d), and (e).
</P>
<P>(ii) The standards in 45 CFR 170.215(a)(1), (b)(1)(i), and (d)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Opt in.</I> Establish and maintain a process to allow enrollees or their personal representatives to opt into the QHP issuer's payer to payer data exchange with the enrollee's previous payer(s), described in paragraphs (b)(4) and (5) of this section, and with concurrent payer(s), described in paragraph (b)(6) of this section, and to change their permission at any time.
</P>
<P>(i) The opt in process must be offered as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) To current enrollees, no later than the compliance date.
</P>
<P>(B) To new enrollees, no later than 1 week after the coverage start date or no later than 1 week after the effectuation of coverage, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an enrollee does not respond or additional information is necessary, the QHP issuer must make reasonable efforts to engage with the enrollee to collect this information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Identify previous and concurrent payers.</I> Establish and maintain a process to identify a new enrollee's previous and concurrent payer(s) to facilitate the Payer-to-Payer API data exchange. The information request process must start as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For current enrollees, no later than the compliance date.
</P>
<P>(ii) For new enrollees, no later than 1 week after the coverage start date or no later than 1 week after the effectuation of coverage, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an enrollee does not respond or additional information is necessary, the QHP issuer must make reasonable efforts to engage with the enrollee to collect this information.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exchange request requirements.</I> Exchange enrollee data with other payers, consistent with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The QHP issuer must request the data specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section through the enrollee's previous payers' API, if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The enrollee has opted in, as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The exchange is not prohibited by other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(ii) The data to be requested are all of the following with a date of service within 5 years before the request:
</P>
<P>(A) Data specified in § 156.221(b) excluding the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Provider remittances and enrollee cost-sharing information.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Denied prior authorizations.
</P>
<P>(B) Unstructured administrative and clinical documentation submitted by a provider related to prior authorizations.
</P>
<P>(iii) The QHP issuer must include an attestation with this request affirming that the enrollee is enrolled with the QHP issuer and has opted into the data exchange.
</P>
<P>(iv) The QHP issuer must complete this request as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) No later than 1 week after the payer has sufficient identifying information about previous payers and the enrollee has opted in.
</P>
<P>(B) At an enrollee's request, within 1 week of the request.
</P>
<P>(v) The QHP issuer must receive, through the API required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and incorporate into its records about the enrollee, any data made available by other payers in response to the request.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exchange response requirements.</I> Make available the data specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section that are maintained by the QHP issuer to other payers via the API required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section within 1 business day of receiving a request, if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The payer that requests access has its identity authenticated and includes an attestation with the request that the patient is enrolled with the payer and has opted into the data exchange.
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure of the data is not prohibited by other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Concurrent coverage data exchange requirements.</I> When an enrollee has provided sufficient identifying information about concurrent payers and has opted in as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a QHP issuer on a Federally-facilitated Exchange must do the following, through the API required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Request the enrollee's data from all known concurrent payers as described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, and at least quarterly thereafter while the enrollee is enrolled with both payers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Respond as described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section within 1 business day of a request from any concurrent payers. If agreed upon with the requesting payer, the QHP issuer may exclude any data that were previously sent to or originally received from the concurrent payer.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Patient educational resources.</I> Provide information to enrollees in plain language, explaining at a minimum: the benefits of Payer-to-Payer API data exchange, their ability to opt in or withdraw that permission, and instructions for doing so. The QHP issuer must provide the following resources:
</P>
<P>(i) When requesting an enrollee's permission for Payer-to-Payer API data exchange, as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) At least annually, in appropriate mechanisms through which it ordinarily communicates with current enrollees.
</P>
<P>(iii) In an easily accessible location on its public website.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception.</I> (1) If a plan applying for QHP certification to be offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange believes it cannot satisfy the requirements in paragraph (a) or (b) (or paragraphs (a) and (b)) of this section, the issuer must include a narrative justification in its QHP application that describes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The reasons why the issuer cannot reasonably satisfy the requirements for the applicable plan year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The impact of non-compliance upon providers and enrollees.
</P>
<P>(iii) The current or proposed means of providing health information to payers.
</P>
<P>(iv) Solutions and a timeline to achieve compliance with the requirements in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section (or paragraphs (a) and (b)).
</P>
<P>(2) The Federally-facilitated Exchange may grant an exception to the requirements in paragraph (a) or (b) (or paragraphs (a) and (b)) of this section if the Exchange determines that making QHPs of such issuer available through such Exchange is in the interests of qualified individuals in the State or States in which such Exchange operates, and an exception is warranted to permit the issuer to offer QHPs through the FFE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 8986, Feb. 8, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.223" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.223   Prior authorization requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Communicating a reason for denial.</I> Beginning January 1, 2026, if the QHP issuer denies a prior authorization request (excluding a request for coverage of drugs as defined in § 156.221(b)(1)(v)), the response to the provider must include a specific reason for the denial, regardless of the method used to communicate that information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prior Authorization Application Programming Interface (API).</I> Unless granted an exception under paragraph (d) of this section, for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2027, a QHP issuer on a Federally-facilitated Exchange must implement and maintain an API conformant with § 156.221(c)(2) through (4), (d), and (e), and the standards in 45 CFR 170.215(a)(1), (b)(1)(i), and (c)(1) that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is populated with the QHP issuer's list of covered items and services (excluding drugs as defined in § 156.221(b)(1)(v)) that require prior authorization;
</P>
<P>(2) Can identify all documentation required by the QHP issuer for approval of any items or services that require prior authorization;
</P>
<P>(3) Supports a HIPAA-compliant prior authorization request and response, as described in 45 CFR part 162; and
</P>
<P>(4) Communicates the following information about prior authorization requests:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the QHP issuer—
</P>
<P>(A) Approves the prior authorization request (and the date or circumstance under which the authorization ends);
</P>
<P>(B) Denies the prior authorization request; or
</P>
<P>(C) Requests more information.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the QHP issuer denies the prior authorization request, it must include a specific reason for the denial.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Publicly reporting prior authorization metrics.</I> Beginning in 2026, following each year it offers a QHP on a Federally-facilitated Exchange, a QHP issuer must report prior authorization data, excluding data on drugs as defined in § 156.221(b)(1)(v), at the issuer level by March 31. The QHP issuer must make the following data from the previous calendar year publicly accessible by posting them on its website:
</P>
<P>(1) A list of all items and services that require prior authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) The percentage of standard prior authorization requests that were approved, aggregated for all items and services.
</P>
<P>(3) The percentage of standard prior authorization requests that were denied, aggregated for all items and services.
</P>
<P>(4) The percentage of standard prior authorization requests that were approved after appeal, aggregated for all items and services.
</P>
<P>(5) The percentage of prior authorization requests for which the timeframe for review was extended, and the request was approved, aggregated for all items and services.
</P>
<P>(6) The percentage of expedited prior authorization requests that were approved, aggregated for all items and services.
</P>
<P>(7) The percentage of expedited prior authorization requests that were denied, aggregated for all items and services.
</P>
<P>(8) The average and median time that elapsed between the submission of a request and a determination by the QHP issuer, for standard prior authorizations, aggregated for all items and services.
</P>
<P>(9) The average and median time that elapsed between the submission of a request and a decision by the QHP issuer for expedited prior authorizations, aggregated for all items and services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exception.</I> (1) If a plan applying for QHP certification to be offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange believes it cannot satisfy the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, the issuer must include a narrative justification in its QHP application that describes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The reasons why the issuer cannot reasonably satisfy the requirements for the applicable plan year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The impact of non-compliance upon providers and enrollees.
</P>
<P>(iii) The current or proposed means of providing health information to providers.
</P>
<P>(iv) Solutions and a timeline to achieve compliance with the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Federally-facilitated Exchange (FFE) may grant an exception to the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section if the Exchange determines that making QHPs of such issuer available through such Exchange is in the interests of qualified individuals in the State or States in which such Exchange operates and an exception is warranted to permit the issuer to offer QHPs through the FFE.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 8988, Feb. 8, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.225" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.225   Marketing and benefit design of QHPs.</HEAD>
<P>A QHP issuer and its officials, employees, agents and representatives must—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>State law applies.</I> Comply with any applicable State laws and regulations regarding marketing by health insurance issuers; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-discrimination.</I> Not employ marketing practices or benefit designs that will have the effect of discouraging the enrollment of individuals with significant health needs in QHPs; and
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plan marketing names.</I> Offer plans and plan variations with marketing names that include correct information, without omission of material fact, and do not include content that is misleading.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 88 FR 25922, Apr. 27, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.230" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.230   Provider access standards for network plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> (1) A QHP that uses a network of providers must ensure that the provider network consisting of in-network providers, as available to all enrollees, meets the following standards:
</P>
<P>(i) Includes essential community providers in accordance with § 156.235;


</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains a network that is sufficient in number and types of providers, including providers that specialize in mental health and substance use disorder services, to ensure that all services will be accessible without unreasonable delay; and


</P>
<P>(iii) Is consistent with the rules for network plans of section 2702(c) of the PHS Act.


</P>
<P>(2)(i) <I>Standards.</I> A QHP issuer in a Federally-facilitated Exchange in a State that CMS has not determined to have an Effective Provider Access Review Program as described in § 155.1050(d) must comply with the requirement in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section by:


</P>
<P>(A) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, meeting time and distance standards established by the Federally-facilitated Exchange. Such time and distance standards will be developed for consistency with industry standards and published in guidance. Quantitative reviews of compliance with time and distance standards will be conducted using issuer-submitted data; and




</P>
<P>(B) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, meeting appointment wait time standards established by the Federally-facilitated Exchange. Such appointment wait time standards will be developed for consistency with industry standards and published in guidance.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Justification.</I> If a plan applying for QHP certification to be offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange in a State that CMS has not determined to have an Effective Provider Access Review Program as described in § 155.1050(d) does not satisfy the network adequacy standards described in paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, the issuer must include as part of its QHP application a justification describing how the plan's provider network provides an adequate level of service for enrollees and how the plan's provider network will be strengthened and brought closer to compliance with the network adequacy standards prior to the start of the plan year. The issuer must provide information as requested by the FFE to support this justification.


</P>
<P>(3) When CMS is conducting provider access reviews under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, the Federally-facilitated Exchange may grant an exception to the requirements in paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(A) and (B) of this section if the Exchange determines that making such health plan available through such Exchange is in the interests of qualified individuals in the State or States in which such Exchange operates.


</P>
<P>(4) A limited exception to the requirement described under paragraph (a)(1) of this section is available to stand-alone dental plans issuers that sell plans in areas where it is prohibitively difficult for the issuer to establish a network of dental providers; this exception is not available to medical QHP issuers. Under this exception, an area is considered “prohibitively difficult” for the stand-alone dental plan issuer to establish a network of dental providers based on attestations from State departments of insurance in States with at least 80 percent of counties classified as Counties with Extreme Access Considerations (CEAC) that at least one of the following factors exists in the area of concern: a significant shortage of dental providers, a significant number of dental providers unwilling to contract with Exchange issuers, or significant geographic limitations impacting consumer access to dental providers.








</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access to provider directory.</I> (1) A QHP issuer must make its provider directory for a QHP available to the Exchange for publication online in accordance with guidance from HHS and to potential enrollees in hard copy upon request. In the provider directory, a QHP issuer must identify providers that are not accepting new patients.
</P>
<P>(2) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2016, a QHP issuer must publish an up-to-date, accurate, and complete provider directory, including information on which providers are accepting new patients, the provider's location, contact information, specialty, medical group, and any institutional affiliations, in a manner that is easily accessible to plan enrollees, prospective enrollees, the State, the Exchange, HHS and OPM. A provider directory is easily accessible when—
</P>
<P>(i) The general public is able to view all of the current providers for a plan in the provider directory on the issuer's public Web site through a clearly identifiable link or tab and without creating or accessing an account or entering a policy number; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If a health plan issuer maintains multiple provider networks, the general public is able to easily discern which providers participate in which plans and which provider networks.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Increasing consumer transparency.</I> A QHP issuer in a Federally-facilitated Exchange must make available the information described in paragraph (b) of this section on its Web site in an HHS specified format and also submit this information to HHS, in a format and manner and at times determined by HHS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Provider transitions.</I> A QHP issuer in a Federally-facilitated Exchange must—
</P>
<P>(1) Make a good faith effort to provide written notice of discontinuation of a provider 30 days prior to the effective date of the change or otherwise as soon as practicable, to enrollees who are patients seen on a regular basis by the provider or who receive primary care from the provider whose contract is being discontinued, irrespective of whether the contract is being discontinued due to a termination for cause or without cause, or due to a non-renewal;
</P>
<P>(2) In cases where a provider is terminated without cause, allow an enrollee in an active course of treatment to continue treatment until the treatment is complete or for 90 days, whichever is shorter, at in-network cost-sharing rates.
</P>
<P>(i) For the purposes of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, active course of treatment means:
</P>
<P>(A) An ongoing course of treatment for a life-threatening condition, defined as a disease or condition for which likelihood of death is probable unless the course of the disease or condition is interrupted;
</P>
<P>(B) An ongoing course of treatment for a serious acute condition, defined as a disease or condition requiring complex ongoing care which the covered person is currently receiving, such as chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or post-operative visits;
</P>
<P>(C) The second or third trimester of pregnancy, through the postpartum period; or
</P>
<P>(D) An ongoing course of treatment for a health condition for which a treating physician or health care provider attests that discontinuing care by that physician or health care provider would worsen the condition or interfere with anticipated outcomes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any QHP issuer decision made for a request for continuity of care under paragraph (d)(2) of this section must be subject to the health benefit plan's internal and external grievance and appeal processes in accordance with applicable State or Federal law or regulations.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Out-of-network cost-sharing.</I> Beginning for the 2018 and later benefit years, for a network to be deemed adequate, each QHP must:




</P>
<P>(1) Notwithstanding § 156.130(c), count the cost sharing paid by an enrollee for an essential health benefit provided by an out-of-network ancillary provider in an in-network setting towards the enrollee's annual limitation on cost sharing; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provide a written notice to the enrollee by the longer of when the issuer would typically respond to a prior authorization request timely submitted, or 48 hours before the provision of the benefit, that additional costs may be incurred for an essential health benefit provided by an out-of- network ancillary provider in an in-network setting, including balance billing charges, unless such costs are prohibited under State law, and that any additional charges may not count toward the in-network annual limitation on cost sharing.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved] 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 10873, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12349, Mar. 8, 2016; 86 FR 6178, Jan. 19, 2021; 87 FR 27391, May 6, 2022; 88 FR 25922, Apr. 27, 2023; 91 FR 29874, May 20, 2026]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.235" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.235   Essential community provider standards for network plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General ECP standard.</I> (1) A QHP issuer that uses a provider network consisting of in-network providers must ensure that the provider network of each of its QHPs includes a sufficient number and geographic distribution of essential community providers (ECPs), where available, to ensure reasonable and timely access to a broad range of such providers for low-income individuals or individuals residing in Health Professional Shortage Areas within the QHP's service area, in accordance with the Exchange's network adequacy standards.


</P>
<P>(2) A network plan applying for QHP certification to be offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange has a sufficient number and geographic distribution of ECPs if it demonstrates in its QHP application that—
</P>
<P>(i) The QHP issuer's provider network includes as participating providers at least a minimum percentage, as specified by HHS, of available ECPs in each network plan's service area collectively across all ECP categories defined under paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, and at least a minimum percentage of available ECPs in each network plan's service area within certain individual ECP categories, as specified by HHS. Multiple providers at a single location will count as a single ECP toward both the available ECPs in the network plan's service area and the issuer's satisfaction of the ECP participation standard. For network plans that use tiered networks, to count toward the issuer's satisfaction of the ECP standards, providers must be contracted within the network tier that results in the lowest cost-sharing obligation. For network plans with two network tiers (for example, participating providers and preferred providers), such as many preferred provider organizations (PPOs), where cost-sharing is lower for preferred providers, only preferred providers will be counted towards ECP standards; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuer of the network plan offers contracts to—


</P>
<P>(A) All available Indian health care providers in the service area, applying the special terms and conditions required by Federal law and regulations as referenced in the recommended model QHP addendum for Indian health care providers developed by HHS; and




</P>
<P>(B) At least one ECP in each of the eight (8) ECP categories in each county in the service area, where an ECP in that category is available and provides medical or dental services that are covered by the issuer plan type. The ECP categories are: Federally Qualified Health Centers, Ryan White Program Providers, Family Planning Providers, Indian Health Care Providers, Inpatient Hospitals, Mental Health Facilities, Substance Use Disorder Treatment Centers, and Other ECP Providers. The Other ECP Providers category includes the following types of providers: Rural Health Clinics, Black Lung Clinics, Hemophilia Treatment Centers, Sexually Transmitted Disease Clinics, Tuberculosis Clinics, and Rural Emergency Hospitals.




</P>
<P>(3) A network plan applying for QHP certification to be offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange must include as part of its QHP application the status of contract offers to qualified ECPs available in the network plan's service area. A network plan does not need to report on the status of contract offers for all available ECPs in the network plan's service area, but must at least report on the status of contract offers for all ECPs which the issuer has either included in its network plan or offered a contract to be included in its network plan within each service area.




</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section requires any QHP to provide coverage for any specific medical procedure.
</P>
<P>(5) A network plan that provides a majority of covered professional services through physicians employed by the issuer or through a single contracted medical group may instead comply with the alternate standard described in paragraph (b) of this section.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternate ECP standard.</I> (1) A network plan described in paragraph (a)(5) of this section must have a sufficient number and geographic distribution of employed providers and hospital facilities, or providers of its contracted medical group and hospital facilities, to ensure reasonable and timely access for low-income individuals or individuals residing in Health Professional Shortage Areas within the network plan's service area, in accordance with the Exchange's network adequacy standards.
</P>
<P>(2) A network plan described in paragraph (a)(5) of this section applying for QHP certification to be offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange has a sufficient number and geographic distribution of employed or contracted providers if it demonstrates in its QHP application that—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of its providers that are located in Health Professional Shortage Areas or five-digit zip codes in which 30 percent or more of the population falls below 200 percent of the Federal poverty level satisfies a minimum percentage, specified by HHS, of available ECPs in each network plan's service area collectively across all ECP categories defined under paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, and at least a minimum percentage of available ECPs in each network plan's service area within certain individual ECP categories, as specified by HHS. Multiple providers at a single location will count as a single ECP toward both the available ECPs in the network plan's service area and the issuer's satisfaction of the ECP participation standard. For network plans that use tiered networks, to count toward the issuer's satisfaction of the ECP standards, providers must be contracted within the network tier that results in the lowest cost-sharing obligation. For network plans with two network tiers (for example, participating providers and preferred providers), such as many PPOs, where cost sharing is lower for preferred providers, only preferred providers would be counted towards ECP standards; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuer's integrated delivery system provides all of the categories of services provided by entities in each of the ECP categories in each county in the network plan's service area as outlined in the general ECP standard, or otherwise offers a contract to at least one ECP outside of the issuer's integrated delivery system per ECP category in each county in the network plan's service area that can provide those services to low-income, medically underserved individuals.
</P>
<P>(3) A network plan applying for QHP certification to be offered through a Federally-facilitated Exchange must include as part of its QHP application the status of contract offers to qualified ECPs available in the network plan's service area. A network plan does not need to report on the status of contract offers for all available ECPs in the network plan's service area, but must at least report on the status of contract offers for all ECPs which the issuer has either included in its network plan or offered a contract to be included in its network plan within each service area.




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition.</I> An essential community provider is a provider that serves predominantly low-income, medically underserved individuals, including a health care provider defined in section 340B(a)(4) of the PHS Act; or described in section 1927(c)(1)(D)(i)(IV) of the Act as set forth by section 221 of Pub. L. 111-8; or a State-owned family planning service site, or governmental family planning service site, or not-for-profit family planning service site that does not receive Federal funding under special programs, including under Title X of the PHS Act, or an Indian health care provider, unless any of the above providers has lost its status under either of these sections, 340(B) of the PHS Act or 1927 of the Act as a result of violating Federal law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment rates.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a) of this section may be construed to require a QHP issuer to contract with an ECP if such provider refuses to accept the same rates and contract provisions included in contracts accepted by similarly situated providers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Payment of Federally qualified health centers.</I> If an item or service covered by a QHP is provided by a Federally-qualified health center (as defined in section 1905(l)(2)(B) of the Act) to an enrollee of a QHP, the QHP issuer must pay the Federally qualified health center for the item or service an amount that is not less than the amount of payment that would have been paid to the center under section 1902(bb) of the Act for such item or service. Nothing in this paragraph (e) precludes a QHP issuer and Federally-qualified health center from agreeing upon payment rates other than those that would have been paid to the center under section 1902(bb) of the Act, as long as that rate is at least equal to the generally applicable payment rate of the issuer described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 10873, Feb. 27, 2015, as amended at 88 FR 25922, Apr. 27, 2023; 91 FR 29875, May 20, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.236" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.236   Provider access and essential community providers standards for non-network plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A QHP that does not use a network of providers (a non-network plan) must ensure access to a range of providers that accept the non-network plan's benefit amount as payment in full, including essential community providers (ECPs) and providers that specialize in mental health and substance use disorder services, to ensure that services will be accessible without unreasonable delay. A non-network plan does not provide access to a range of providers in this manner by simply providing some benefit amount for covered services rendered by any provider without providing the Exchange any other contextual information.
</P>
<P>(b) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2028, a non-network plan applying for QHP certification to be offered as a QHP through a Federally-facilitated Exchange must submit the following information to the Federally-facilitated Exchange for a determination that it provides access to a sufficient choice of providers that accept the non-network plan's benefit amount as payment in full, and reasonable and timely access to ECPs that accept the plan's benefit amount as payment in full:
</P>
<P>(1) The non-network plan's assessed percentage of providers in each plan's service area that accepts the plan's benefit amount as payment in full; and for ECPs, whether the non-network plan meets at least a minimum percentage, as specified by HHS, of available ECPs that accept the plan's benefit amount as payment in full in each plan's service area collectively across all ECP categories defined under § 156.235(a)(2)(ii)(B), and at least a minimum percentage of available ECPs that accept the plan's benefit amount as payment in full in each plan's service area within certain individual ECP categories, as specified by HHS;
</P>
<P>(2) For ECPs, whether the non-network plan offers the benefit amount as payment in full to at least one ECP in each of the eight (8) ECP categories per county in the plan's service area described in § 156.235(a)(2)(ii)(B);
</P>
<P>(3) For ECPs, whether the non-network plan offers the benefit amount as payment in full to all available Indian health care providers in the plan's service area;
</P>
<P>(4) The non-network plan's strategy for conducting continuous outreach to available providers (including ECPs) in a particular area to determine whether they would accept the plan's benefit amount as payment in full;
</P>
<P>(5) The non-network plan's strategy for making benefit amounts publicly available, including to plan enrollees, potential enrollees, and providers (including ECPs), in an easily accessible and understandable format, and for regularly updating any changes to benefit amounts;
</P>
<P>(6) The non-network plan's methodology for determining benefit amounts;
</P>
<P>(7) The non-network plan's strategy for providing consumer-friendly and public information about potential balance billing scenarios and expected out-of-pocket costs, including historical data on actual out-of-pocket costs incurred by its enrollees while accessing providers (including ECPs) in the area, and information on navigating episodes of care with multiple benefit amounts (including for ancillary providers and services);
</P>
<P>(8) The availability of an exceptions process under the non-network plan for enrollees who cannot find providers (including ECPs) willing to accept the benefit amount as payment in full; and
</P>
<P>(9) The non-network plan's strategy for providing adequate customer service or online provider directory assistance resources to assist plan enrollees and potential enrollees in finding providers (including ECPs) in their area who will accept the plan's benefit amount as payment in full, and to assist plan enrollees in receiving real-time cost estimates prior to care being furnished.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 29875, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.245" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.245   Treatment of direct primary care medical homes.</HEAD>
<P>A QHP issuer may provide coverage through a direct primary care medical home that meets criteria established by HHS, so long as the QHP meets all requirements that are otherwise applicable and the services covered by the direct primary care medical home are coordinated with the QHP issuer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.250" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.250   Meaningful access to qualified health plan information.</HEAD>
<P>A QHP issuer must provide all information that is critical for obtaining health insurance coverage or access to health care services through the QHP, including applications, forms, and notices, to qualified individuals, applicants, qualified employers, qualified employees, and enrollees in accordance with the standards described in § 155.205(c) of this subchapter. Information is deemed to be critical for obtaining health insurance coverage or access to health care services if the issuer is required by law or regulation to provide the document to a qualified individual, applicant, qualified employer, qualified employee, or enrollee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 10874, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.255" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.255   Rating variations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rating areas.</I> A QHP issuer, including an issuer of a multi-State plan, may vary premiums by the geographic rating area established under section 2701(a)(2) of the PHS Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Same premium rates.</I> A QHP issuer must charge the same premium rate without regard to whether the plan is offered through an Exchange, or whether the plan is offered directly from the issuer or through an agent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.260" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.260   Enrollment periods for qualified individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Individual market requirement.</I> A QHP issuer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Enroll a qualified individual during the initial and annual open enrollment periods described in § 155.410(b) and (e) of this subchapter, and abide by the effective dates of coverage established by the Exchange in accordance with § 155.410(c) and (f) of this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) Make available, at a minimum, special enrollment periods described in § 155.420(d) of this subchapter, for QHPs and abide by the effective dates of coverage established by the Exchange in accordance with § 155.420(b) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of effective date.</I> A QHP issuer must notify a qualified individual of his or her effective date of coverage.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.265" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.265   Enrollment process for qualified individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A QHP issuer must process enrollment in accordance with this section.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enrollment through the Exchange for the individual market.</I> (1) A QHP issuer must enroll a qualified individual only if the Exchange—
</P>
<P>(i) Notifies the QHP issuer that the individual is a qualified individual; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Transmits information to the QHP issuer as provided in § 155.400(a) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(2) If an applicant initiates enrollment directly with the QHP issuer for enrollment through the Exchange, the QHP issuer must either—
</P>
<P>(i) Direct the individual to file an application with the Exchange in accordance with § 155.310, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure the applicant's completion of an eligibility verification and enrollment application through the Exchange Internet Web site as described in § 155.405, or ensure that the eligibility application information is submitted for an eligibility determination through the Exchange-approved Web service subject to meeting the requirements in paragraph (b)(3) through (5) of this section;


</P>
<P>(3) When an Internet Web site of an issuer is used to complete the Exchange eligibility application outlined in this section, at a minimum, the Internet Web site must:
</P>
<P>(i) Use exactly the same eligibility application language as appears in the FFE Single Streamlined Application required in § 155.405 of this subchapter, unless HHS approves a deviation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that all necessary information for the consumer's applicable eligibility circumstances are submitted through the Exchange-approved Web service; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the process used for consumers to complete the eligibility application complies with all applicable Exchange standards, including §§ 155.230 and 155.260(b) of this subchapter; and




</P>
<P>(4) An issuer must obtain HHS approval that the requirements of this section have been met prior to completing an applicant's eligibility application through the issuer's Internet Web site.
</P>
<P>(5) HHS or its designee may periodically monitor and audit an agent, broker, or issuer to assess its compliance with the applicable requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acceptance of enrollment information.</I> A QHP issuer must accept enrollment information consistent with the privacy and security requirements established by the Exchange in accordance with § 155.260 and in an electronic format that is consistent with § 155.270.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Premium payment.</I> A QHP issuer must follow the premium payment process established by the Exchange in accordance with § 155.240 of this subchapter and the payment rules established in § 155.400(e) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enrollment information package.</I> A QHP issuer must provide new enrollees an enrollment information package that is compliant with accessibility and readability standards established in § 155.230(b).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Enrollment reconciliation.</I> A QHP issuer must reconcile enrollment files with the Exchange in a format specified by the Exchange (or, for QHP issuers in State Exchanges on the Federal Platform, the Federal Platform) and resolve assigned updates no less than once a month in accordance with § 155.400(d) of this subchapter, using the most recent enrollment information that is available and that has been verified to the best of the issuer's knowledge or belief.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Timely updates to enrollment records.</I> A QHP issuer offering plans through an Exchange must, in a format specified by the Exchange (or, for QHP issuers in State Exchanges on the Federal Platform, the Federal Platform), either:
</P>
<P>(1) Verify to the Exchange (or, for QHP issuers in State Exchanges on the Federal Platform, the Federal Platform) that the information in the enrollment reconciliation file received from the Exchange (or, for QHP issuers in State Exchanges on the Federal Platform, the Federal Platform) accurately reflects its enrollment data for the applicable benefit year in its next enrollment reconciliation file submission to the Exchange (or, for QHP issuers in State Exchanges on the Federal Platform, the Federal Platform), and update its internal enrollment records accordingly; or
</P>
<P>(2) Describe to the Exchange (or for QHP issuers in State Exchanges on the Federal Platform, the Federal Platform) within one reconciliation cycle any discrepancy it identifies in the enrollment reconciliation files it received from the Exchange (or for QHP issuers in State Exchanges on the Federal Platform, the Federal Platform).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 76218, Dec. 17, 2013; 79 FR 30351, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10874, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12350, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 94181, Dec. 22, 2016; 85 FR 29261, May 14, 2020; 91 FR 29876, May 20, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.270" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.270   Termination of coverage or enrollment for qualified individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A QHP issuer may only terminate enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange as permitted by the Exchange in accordance with § 155.430(b) of this subchapter. (See also § 147.106 of this subchapter for termination of coverage.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of coverage or enrollment notice requirement.</I> If a QHP issuer terminates an enrollee's coverage or enrollment in a QHP through the Exchange in accordance with § 155.430(b) of this subchapter, the QHP issuer must, promptly and without undue delay:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the enrollee with a notice of termination that includes the termination effective date and reason for termination.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Termination of coverage or enrollment due to non-payment of premium.</I> A QHP issuer must establish a standard policy for the termination of enrollment of enrollees through the Exchange due to non-payment of premium as permitted by the Exchange in § 155.430(b)(2)(ii) of this subchapter. This policy for the termination of enrollment:
</P>
<P>(1) Must include the grace period for enrollees receiving advance payments of the premium tax credits as described in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Must be applied uniformly to enrollees in similar circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grace period for recipients of advance payments of the premium tax credit.</I> A QHP issuer must provide a grace period of 3 consecutive months for an enrollee, who when failing to timely pay premiums, is receiving advance payments of the premium tax credit. During the grace period, the QHP issuer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Pay all appropriate claims for services rendered to the enrollee during the first month of the grace period and may pend claims for services rendered to the enrollee in the second and third months of the grace period;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify HHS of such non-payment; and,
</P>
<P>(3) Notify providers of the possibility for denied claims when an enrollee is in the second and third months of the grace period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advance payments of the premium tax credit.</I> For the 3-month grace period described in paragraph (d) of this section, a QHP issuer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Continue to collect advance payments of the premium tax credit on behalf of the enrollee from the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(2) Return advance payments of the premium tax credit paid on the behalf of such enrollee for the second and third months of the grace period if the enrollee exhausts the grace period as described in paragraph (g) of this section.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of non-payment of premiums.</I> If an enrollee is delinquent on premium payment, the QHP issuer must provide the enrollee with notice of such payment delinquency. Issuers offering QHPs in Exchanges on the Federal platform must provide such notices promptly and without undue delay, within 10 business days of the date the issuer should have discovered the delinquency.




</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exhaustion of grace period.</I> If an enrollee receiving advance payments of the premium tax credit exhausts the 3-month grace period in paragraph (d) of this section without paying all outstanding premiums, subject to a premium payment threshold implemented under § 155.400(g) of this subchapter, if applicable, the QHP issuer must terminate the enrollee's enrollment through the Exchange on the effective date described in § 155.430(d)(4) of this subchapter, provided that the QHP issuer meets the notice requirement specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Records of termination of coverage.</I> QHP issuers must maintain records in accordance with Exchange standards established in accordance with § 155.430(c) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Effective date of termination of coverage or enrollment.</I> QHP issuers must abide by the termination of coverage or enrollment effective dates described in § 155.430(d) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Operational instructions.</I> QHP issuers must follow the transaction rules established by the Exchange in accordance with § 155.430(e) of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 42322, July 15, 2013; 78 FR 54143, Aug. 30, 2013; 79 FR 30351, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10874, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12350, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 53032, Aug. 11, 2016; 85 FR 29261, May 14, 2020; 88 FR 25923, Apr. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.272" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.272   Issuer participation for the full plan year.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An issuer offering a QHP through an individual market Exchange must make the QHP available for enrollment through the Exchange for the full plan year for which the plan was certified, including to eligible enrollees during limited open enrollment periods, unless a basis for suppression under § 156.815 applies.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless a basis for suppression under § 156.815 applies, an issuer offering a QHP through a SHOP must make the QHP available for enrollment through the SHOP for the full plan year for which the QHP was certified.
</P>
<P>(c) An issuer offering a QHP through a Federally-facilitated Exchange or a Federally-facilitated SHOP that does not comply with paragraph (a) or (b) of this section may, at the discretion of HHS, be precluded from offering QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange or Federally-facilitated SHOP for up to the two succeeding plan years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 94181, Dec. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.275" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.275   Accreditation of QHP issuers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A QHP issuer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be accredited on the basis of local performance of its QHPs in the following categories by an accrediting entity recognized by HHS:
</P>
<P>(i) Clinical quality measures, such as the Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set;
</P>
<P>(ii) Patient experience ratings on a standardized CAHPS survey;
</P>
<P>(iii) Consumer access;
</P>
<P>(iv) Utilization management;
</P>
<P>(v) Quality assurance;
</P>
<P>(vi) Provider credentialing;
</P>
<P>(vii) Complaints and appeals;
</P>
<P>(viii) Provider access; and


</P>
<P>(ix) Patient information programs, and
</P>
<P>(2) Authorize the accrediting entity that accredits the QHP issuer to release to the Exchange and HHS a copy of its most recent accreditation survey, together with any survey-related information that HHS may require, such as corrective action plans and summaries of findings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timeframe for accreditation.</I> A QHP issuer must be accredited within the timeframe established by the Exchange in accordance with § 155.1045 of this subchapter. The QHP issuer must maintain accreditation so long as the QHP issuer offers QHPs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accreditation</I>—(1) <I>Recognition of accrediting entity by HHS</I>—(i) <I>Application.</I> An accrediting entity may apply to HHS for recognition. An application must include the documentation described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section and demonstrate, in a concise and organized fashion how the accrediting entity meets the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Proposed notice.</I> Within 60 days of receiving a complete application as described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, HHS will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> identifying the accrediting entity making the request, summarizing HHS's analysis of whether the accrediting entity meets the criteria described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, and providing no less than a 30-day public comment period about whether HHS should recognize the accrediting entity.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Final notice.</I> After the close of the comment period described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, HHS will notify the public in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the names of the accrediting entities recognized and those not recognized as accrediting entities by the Secretary of HHS to provide accreditation of QHPs.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Other recognition.</I> Upon completion of conditions listed in paragraphs (c)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, HHS recognized, and provided notice to the public in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) and URAC as accrediting entities by the Secretary of HHS to provide accreditation of QHPs meeting the requirement of this section.


</P>
<P>(2)(i) <I>Scope of accreditation.</I> Subject to paragraphs (c)(2)(ii), (iii), and (iv) of this section, recognized accrediting entities must provide accreditation within the categories identified in paragraphs (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clinical quality measures.</I> Recognized accrediting entities must include a clinical quality measure set in their accreditation standards for health plans that:
</P>
<P>(A) Spans a breadth of conditions and domains, including, but not limited to, preventive care, mental health and substance abuse disorders, chronic care, and acute care.
</P>
<P>(B) Includes measures that are applicable to adults and measures that are applicable to children.
</P>
<P>(C) Aligns with the priorities of the National Strategy for Quality Improvement in Health Care issued by the Secretary of HHS and submitted to Congress on March 12, 2011;
</P>
<P>(D) Only includes measures that are either developed or adopted by a voluntary consensus standards setting body (such as those described in the National Technology and Transfer Advancement of Act of 1995 (NTTAA) and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A-119 (1998)) or, where appropriate endorsed measures are unavailable, are in common use for health plan quality measurement and meet health plan industry standards; and
</P>
<P>(E) Is evidence-based.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Level of accreditation.</I> Recognized accrediting entities must provide accreditation at the Exchange product type level unless the product type level of accreditation is not methodologically sound. In such cases, the recognized accrediting entity must demonstrate that the Exchange product type level accreditation is not methodologically sound as a condition of the Exchange granting an exception to authorize accreditation at an aggregated level.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Provider access.</I> The provider access standards for accreditation used by the recognized accrediting entities must, at a minimum, be consistent with the general requirements for network plans codified in § 156.230(a)(2) and (3) and the general requirements for non-network plans codified in § 156.236(a).


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Methodological and scoring criteria for accreditation.</I> Recognized accrediting entities must use transparent and rigorous methodological and scoring criteria.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Documentation.</I> An accrediting entity applying to be recognized under the process described in (c)(1) of this section must provide the following documentation:
</P>
<P>(i) To be recognized, an accrediting entity must provide current accreditation standards and requirements, processes and measure specifications for performance measures to demonstrate that it meets the conditions described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section to HHS.
</P>
<P>(ii) Recognized accrediting entities must provide to HHS any proposed changes or updates to the accreditation standards and requirements, processes, and measure specifications for performance measures with 60 days notice prior to public notification.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Data sharing requirements between the recognized accrediting entities and Exchanges.</I> When authorized by an accredited QHP issuer pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, recognized accrediting entities must provide the following QHP issuer's accreditation survey data elements to the Exchange, other than personally identifiable information (as described in OMB Memorandum M-07-16), in which the issuer plans to operate one or more QHPs during the annual certification period or as changes occur to these data throughout the coverage year—the name, address, Health Insurance Oversight System (HIOS) issuer identifier, and unique accreditation identifier(s) of the QHP issuer and its accredited product line(s) and type(s) which have been released; and for each accredited product type:
</P>
<P>(i) HIOS product identifier (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(ii) Accreditation status, survey type, or level (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(iii) Accreditation score;
</P>
<P>(iv) Expiration date of accreditation; and
</P>
<P>(v) Clinical quality measure results and adult and child CAHPS measure survey results (and corresponding expiration dates of these data) at the level specified by the Exchange.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 42671, July 20, 2012; 78 FR 12869, Feb. 25, 2013; 91 FR 29876, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.280" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.280   Segregation of funds for abortion services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>State opt-out of abortion coverage.</I> A QHP issuer must comply with a State law that prohibits abortion coverage in QHPs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of opt out.</I> A QHP issuer may provide coverage of abortion services through the Exchange in a State described in paragraph (a) of this section if the State repeals such law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voluntary choice of coverage of abortion services.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of title I of the Affordable Care Act (or any other amendment made under that title):
</P>
<P>(1) Nothing in title I of the Affordable Care Act (or any amendments by that title) shall be construed to require a QHP issuer to provide coverage of services described in paragraph (d) of this section as part of its essential health benefits, as described in section 1302(b) of the Affordable Care Act, for any plan year.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the QHP issuer must determine whether or not the QHP provides coverage of services described in paragraph (d) of this section as part of such benefits for the plan year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Abortion services</I>—(1) <I>Abortions for which public funding is prohibited.</I> The services described in this paragraph are abortion services for which the expenditure of Federal funds appropriated for HHS is not permitted, based on the law in effect 6 months before the beginning of the plan year involved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Abortions for which public funding is allowed.</I> The services described in this paragraph are abortion services for which the expenditure of Federal funds appropriated for HHS is permitted, based on the law in effect 6 months before the beginning of the plan year involved.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibition on the use of Federal funds.</I> (1) If a QHP provides coverage of services described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the QHP issuer must not use any amount attributable to any of the following for the purposes of paying for such services:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit under section 36B of the Code and the amount (if any) of the advance payment of the credit under section 1412 of the Affordable Care Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any cost-sharing reduction under section 1402 of the Affordable Care Act and the amount (if any) of the advance payments of the reduction under section 1412 of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Establishment of allocation accounts.</I> In the case of a QHP to which paragraph (e)(1) of this section applies, the QHP issuer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Collect from each enrollee in the QHP (without regard to the enrollee's age, sex, or family status) a separate payment for each of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) An amount equal to the portion of the premium to be paid directly by the enrollee for coverage under the QHP of services other than services described in (d)(1) of this section (after reductions for credits and cost-sharing reductions described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(B) An amount equal to the actuarial value of the coverage of services described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An issuer will be considered to satisfy the obligation in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section if it sends the policy holder a single monthly invoice or bill that separately itemizes the premium amount for coverage of abortion services described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; sends the policy holder a separate monthly bill for these services; or sends the policy holder a notice at or soon after the time of enrollment that the monthly invoice or bill will include a separate charge for such services, and specifies the charge.
</P>
<P>(iii) Deposit all such separate payments into separate allocation accounts as provided in paragraph (e)(3) of this section. In the case of an enrollee whose premium for coverage under the QHP is paid through employee payroll deposit, the separate payments required under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section shall each be paid by a separate deposit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Segregation of funds.</I> (i) The QHP issuer to which paragraph (e)(1) of this section applies must establish allocation accounts described in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section for enrollees receiving the amounts described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Allocation accounts.</I> The QHP issuer to which paragraph (e)(1) of this section applies must deposit:
</P>
<P>(A) All payments described in paragraph (e)(2)(i)(A) of this section into a separate account that consists solely of such payments and that is used exclusively to pay for services other than the services described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) All payments described in paragraph (e)(2)(i)(B) of this section into a separate account that consists solely of such payments and that is used exclusively to pay for services described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Actuarial value.</I> The QHP issuer must estimate the basic per enrollee, per month cost, determined on an average actuarial basis, for including coverage under the QHP of services described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. In making such an estimate, the QHP issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) May take into account the impact on overall costs of the inclusion of such coverage, but may not take into account any cost reduction estimated to result from such services, including prenatal care, delivery, or postnatal care;
</P>
<P>(ii) Must estimate such costs as if such coverage were included for the entire population covered; and
</P>
<P>(iii) May not estimate such a cost at less than one dollar per enrollee, per month.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Ensuring compliance with segregation requirements.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (e)(5)(iv) of this section, the QHP issuer must comply with the efforts or direction of the State health insurance commissioner to ensure compliance with this section through the segregation of QHP funds in accordance with applicable provisions of generally accepted accounting requirements, circulars on funds management of the Office of Management and Budget and guidance on accounting of the Government Accountability Office.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each QHP issuer that participates in an Exchange and offers coverage for services described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section should, as a condition of participating in an Exchange, submit a plan that details its process and methodology for meeting the requirements of section 1303(b)(2)(C), (D), and (E) (hereinafter, “segregation plan”) to the State health insurance commissioner. The segregation plan should describe the QHP issuer's financial accounting systems, including appropriate accounting documentation and internal controls, that would ensure the segregation of funds required by section 1303(b)(2)(C), (D), and (E), and should include:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial accounting systems, including accounting documentation and internal controls, that would ensure the appropriate segregation of payments received for coverage of services described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section from those received for coverage of all other services;
</P>
<P>(B) The financial accounting systems, including accounting documentation and internal controls, that would ensure that all expenditures for services described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section are reimbursed from the appropriate account; and
</P>
<P>(C) An explanation of how the QHP issuer's systems, accounting documentation, and controls meet the requirements for segregation accounts under the law.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each QHP issuer participating in the Exchange must provide to the State insurance commissioner an annual assurance statement attesting that the plan has complied with section 1303 of the Affordable Care Act and applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nothing in this clause shall prohibit the right of an individual or QHP issuer to appeal such action in courts of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rules relating to notice</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> A QHP that provides for coverage of services in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, must provide a notice to enrollees, only as part of the summary of benefits and coverage explanation, at the time of enrollment, of such coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules relating to payments.</I> The notice described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, any advertising used by the QHP issuer with respect to the QHP, any information provided by the Exchange, and any other information specified by HHS must provide information only with respect to the total amount of the combined payments for services described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section and other services covered by the QHP.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>No discrimination on basis of provision of abortion.</I> No QHP offered through an Exchange may discriminate against any individual health care provider or health care facility because of its unwillingness to provide, pay for, provide coverage of, or refer for abortions.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Application of State and Federal laws regarding abortions</I>—(1) <I>No preemption of State laws regarding abortion.</I> Nothing in the Affordable Care Act shall be construed to preempt or otherwise have any effect on State laws regarding the prohibition of (or requirement of) coverage, funding, or procedural requirements on abortions, including parental notification or consent for the performance of an abortion on a minor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No effect on Federal laws regarding abortion.</I> Nothing in the Affordable Care Act shall be construed to have any effect on Federal laws regarding:
</P>
<P>(i) Conscience protection;
</P>
<P>(ii) Willingness or refusal to provide abortion; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Discrimination on the basis of the willingness or refusal to provide, pay for, cover, or refer for abortion or to provide or participate in training to provide abortion.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No effect on Federal civil rights law.</I> Nothing in section 1303(c) of the Affordable Care Act shall alter the rights and obligations of employees and employers under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Application of emergency services laws.</I> Nothing in the Affordable Care Act shall be construed to relieve any health care provider from providing emergency services as required by State or Federal law, including section 1867 of the Act (popularly known as “EMTALA”).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 71710, Dec. 27, 2019; 85 FR 2888, Jan. 17, 2020; 85 FR 27629, May 8, 2020; 86 FR 53506, Sept. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.285" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.285   Additional standards specific to SHOP for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>SHOP rating and premium payment requirements.</I> QHP issuers offering a QHP through a SHOP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Accept payment from the SHOP on behalf of a qualified employer or an enrollee in accordance with § 155.705(b)(4) of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Adhere to the SHOP timeline for rate setting as established in § 155.705(b)(6) of this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(3) Charge the same contract rate for a plan year.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Adhere to the premium rating standards described in § 147.102 of this subchapter regardless of whether the QHP being sold through the SHOP is sold in the small group market or the large group market; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Effective in plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, a QHP issuer in a Federally-facilitated SHOP may not offer to an employer premiums that are based on average enrollee premium amounts under § 147.102(c)(3) of this subchapter, if the employer elects to offer coverage to its employees under § 155.705(b)(3)(iv)(A) of this subchapter. This paragraph (a)(4)(ii) also applies to stand-alone dental plans in a Federally-facilitated SHOP, if the employer elects to offer coverage to its employees under § 155.705(b)(3)(v)(B) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enrollment periods for the SHOP.</I> QHP issuers offering a QHP through the SHOP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Enroll a qualified employee in accordance with the qualified employer's initial and annual employee open enrollment periods described in § 155.725 of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide special enrollment periods as described in § 155.725(j);
</P>
<P>(3) Provide an enrollment period for an employee who becomes a qualified employee outside of the initial or annual open enrollment period as described in § 155.725(g) of this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(4) Adhere to effective dates of coverage established in accordance with § 155.725 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enrollment process for the SHOP.</I> A QHP issuer offering a QHP through the SHOP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Adhere to the enrollment timeline and process for the SHOP as described in § 155.720(b) of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Receive enrollment information in an electronic format, in accordance with the requirements in §§ 155.260 and 155.270 of this subchapter, from the SHOP as described in § 155.720(c);
</P>
<P>(3) Notify new enrollees of their effective date of coverage consistent with § 155.720(e) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide new enrollees with the enrollment information package as described in § 156.265(e);
</P>
<P>(5) Send enrollment reconciliation files on at least a monthly basis, and, in a Federally-facilitated SHOP, according to a process, timeline, and file format established by the Federally-facilitated SHOP;
</P>
<P>(6) Acknowledge receipt of enrollment information in accordance with SHOP standards; and
</P>
<P>(7) Enroll all qualified employees consistent with the plan year of the applicable qualified employer.
</P>
<P>(8) A QHP issuer must enroll a qualified employee only if the SHOP—
</P>
<P>(i) Notifies the QHP issuer that the employee is a qualified employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Transmits information to the QHP issuer as provided in § 155.400(a) of this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Effective for QHPs offered through a Federally-facilitated SHOP in plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, does not send a cancellation notice to the QHP issuer prior to the effective date of coverage.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination of coverage or enrollment in the SHOP.</I> QHP issuers offering a QHP through the SHOP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with the following requirements with respect to termination of enrollees in the SHOP:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Effective in plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, requirements regarding termination of coverage or enrollment established in § 155.735 of this subchapter, if applicable to the coverage or enrollment being terminated; otherwise
</P>
<P>(B) General requirements regarding termination of coverage or enrollment established in § 156.270(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a QHP issuer terminates an enrollee's coverage or enrollment through the SHOP in accordance with § 155.735(d)(1)(iii) or (v) of this subchapter, the QHP issuer must notify the qualified employer and the enrollee of the termination. Such notice must include the termination effective date and reason for termination, and must be sent within 3 business days if an electronic notice is sent, and within 5 business days if a mailed hard copy notice is sent. When a primary subscriber and his or her dependents live at the same address, a separate termination notice need not be sent to each dependent at that address, provided that the notice sent to each primary subscriber at that address contains all required information about the termination for the primary subscriber and his or her dependents at that address.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Effective in plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, requirements regarding termination of coverage or enrollment effective dates as set forth in § 155.735 of this subchapter, if applicable to the coverage or enrollment being terminated; otherwise
</P>
<P>(B) Requirements regarding termination of coverage or enrollment effective dates as set forth in § 156.270(i).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Participation rules.</I> QHP issuers offering a QHP through the SHOP may impose group participation rules for the offering of health insurance coverage in connection with a QHP only if and to the extent authorized by the SHOP in accordance with § 155.705 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018. Additional standards specific to SHOP for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018 are in § 156.286.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013; 78 FR 33240, June 4, 2013; 78 FR 54143, Aug. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13840, Mar. 11, 2014; 80 FR 10874, Feb. 27, 2015; 80 FR 10875, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 12350, Mar. 8, 2016; 83 FR 17069, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.286" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.286   Additional standards specific to SHOP for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>SHOP rating and premium payment requirements.</I> QHP issuers offering a QHP through a SHOP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Accept payment from a qualified employer or an enrollee, or a SHOP on behalf of a qualified employer or enrollee, in accordance with applicable SHOP requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Adhere to the SHOP timeline for rate setting as established in § 155.706(b)(6) of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Charge the same contract rate for a plan year; and
</P>
<P>(4) Adhere to the premium rating standards described in § 147.102 of this subchapter regardless of whether the QHP being sold through the SHOP is sold in the small group market or the large group market.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enrollment periods and processes for the SHOP.</I> QHP issuers offering a QHP through the SHOP must adhere to enrollment periods and processes established by the SHOP, consistent with § 155.726 of this subchapter, and establish a uniform enrollment timeline and process for enrolling qualified employers and employer group members.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enrollment process for the SHOP.</I> A QHP issuer offering a QHP through the SHOP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide new enrollees with the enrollment information package as described in § 156.265(e); and
</P>
<P>(2) Enroll all qualified employees consistent with the plan year of the applicable qualified employer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Participation rules.</I> QHP issuers offering a QHP through the SHOP may impose group participation rules for the offering of health insurance coverage in connection with a QHP only if and to the extent authorized by the SHOP in accordance with § 155.706 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employer choice.</I> QHP issuers offering a QHP through the SHOP must accept enrollments from groups in accordance with the employer choice policies applicable to the SHOP under § 155.706(b)(3) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(f)<I> Identification of SHOP enrollments.</I> QHP issuers offering a QHP through the SHOP must use a uniform enrollment form, maintain processes sufficient to identify whether a group market enrollment is an enrollment through the SHOP, and maintain records of SHOP enrollments for a period of 10 years following the enrollment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applicability date.</I> The provisions of this section apply for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2018.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17069, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.290" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.290   Non-certification and decertification of QHPs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-certification for a subsequent, consecutive certification cycle.</I> If a QHP issuer elects not to seek certification for a subsequent, consecutive certification cycle with the Exchange, the QHP issuer, at a minimum, must—
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the Exchange of its decision prior to the beginning of the recertification process and adhere to the procedures adopted by the Exchange in accordance with § 155.1075 of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Fulfill its obligation to cover benefits for each enrollee through the end of the plan or benefit year through the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(3) Fulfill data reporting obligations from the last plan or benefit year of the certification;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide notice to enrollees as described in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) Terminate the coverage or enrollment through the Exchange of enrollees in the QHP in accordance with § 156.270, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of QHP non-availability.</I> When, for a subsequent, consecutive certification cycle, a QHP issuer elects not to seek certification with the Exchange, or the Exchange denies certification of a QHP, the QHP issuer must provide written notice to each enrollee in the form and manner specified by the Secretary under § 147.106 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decertification.</I> If a QHP is decertified by the Exchange, the QHP issuer must terminate the enrollment of enrollees through the Exchange only after:
</P>
<P>(1) The Exchange has made notification as described in § 155.1080 of this subchapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) Enrollees have an opportunity to enroll in other coverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 10875, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 94181, Dec. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.295" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.3.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.295   Prescription drug distribution and cost reporting by QHP issuers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> In a form, manner, and at such times specified by HHS, a QHP issuer that administers a prescription drug benefit without the use of a pharmacy benefit manager must provide to HHS the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The percentage of all prescriptions that were provided under the QHP through retail pharmacies compared to mail order pharmacies, and the percentage of prescriptions for which a generic drug was available and dispensed compared to all drugs dispensed;
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate amount, and the type of rebates, discounts or price concessions (excluding bona fide service fees) that the QHP issuer negotiates that are attributable to patient utilization under the QHP, and the aggregate amount of the rebates, discounts, or price concessions that are passed through to the QHP issuer, and the total number of prescriptions that were dispensed.
</P>
<P>(i) Bona fide service fees means fees paid by a manufacturer to an entity that represent fair market value for a bona fide, itemized service actually performed on behalf of the manufacturer that the manufacturer would otherwise perform (or contract for) in the absence of the service arrangement, and that are not passed on in whole or in part to a client or customer of an entity, whether or not the entity takes title to the drug.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation on disclosure.</I> Information disclosed by a QHP issuer under this section shall not be disclosed by HHS, except that HHS may disclose the information in a form which does not disclose the identity of a specific QHP or prices charged for specific drugs, for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) As HHS determines to be necessary to carry out section 1150A or part D of title XVIII of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) To permit the Comptroller General to review the information provided;
</P>
<P>(3) To permit the Director of the Congressional Budget Office to review the information provided; or
</P>
<P>(4) To States to carry out section 1311 of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Penalties.</I> A QHP issuer that fails to report the information described in paragraph (a) of this section to HHS on a timely basis or knowingly provides false information will be subject to the provisions of subsection (b)(3)(C) of section 1927 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 18469, Mar. 27, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 24292, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Standards for Qualified Health Plan Issuers for Specific Types of Exchanges</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 54143, Aug. 30, 2013, unless otherwise noted.








</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 156.330" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.330   Changes of ownership of issuers of Qualified Health Plans in Federally-facilitated Exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>When a QHP issuer that offers one or more QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange undergoes a change of ownership as recognized by the State in which the issuer offers the QHP, the QHP issuer must notify HHS of the change in a manner to be specified by HHS, and provide the legal name and Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) of the new owner and the effective date of the change at least 30 days prior to the effective date of the change of ownership. The new owner must agree to adhere to all applicable statutes and regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65096, Oct. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.340" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.340   Standards for downstream and delegated entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Effective October 1, 2013, notwithstanding any relationship(s) that a QHP issuer may have with delegated and downstream entities, a QHP issuer maintains responsibility for its compliance and the compliance of any of its delegated or downstream entities with all applicable Federal standards related to Exchanges. The applicable standards depend on the Exchange model type in which the QHP is offered, as described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(1) QHP issuers participating in Exchange models that do not use the Federal platform, including State Exchanges and State Exchange SHOPs. QHP issuers maintain responsibility for ensuring their downstream and delegated entities comply with the Federal standards related to Exchanges, including the standards in subpart C of this part with respect to each of its QHPs on an ongoing basis, as well as the Exchange processes, procedures, and standards in accordance with subparts H and K of part 155 and, in the small group market, §§ 155.705 and 155.706 of this subchapter, unless the standard is specifically applicable to a Federally-facilitated Exchange or FF-SHOP;


</P>
<P>(2) QHP issuers participating in Exchanges that use the Federal platform, including Federally-facilitated Exchanges, FF-SHOPs, SBE-FPs, and SBE-FP-SHOPs. QHP issuers maintain responsibility for ensuring their downstream and delegated entities comply with Federal standards related to Exchanges, including the standards in subpart C of part 156 with respect to each of its QHPs on an ongoing basis, as well as the Exchange processes, procedures, and standards in accordance with subparts H and K of part 155 of this subchapter and, in the small group market, §§ 155.705 and 155.706 of this subchapter if applicable to the Exchange type in which the QHP issuer is operating. QHP issuers are also responsible for their downstream and delegated entities' compliance with the standards of § 155.220 of this subchapter with respect to assisting with enrollment in QHPs, and the standards of §§ 156.705 and 156.715 of this subchapter for maintenance of records and compliance reviews if applicable to the Exchange type in which the QHP issuer is operating.






</P>
<P>(b) <I>Delegation agreement specifications.</I> If any of the QHP issuer's activities or obligations, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, are delegated to other parties, the QHP issuer's agreement with any delegated or downstream entity must—
</P>
<P>(1) Specify the delegated activities and reporting responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for revocation of the delegated activities and reporting standards or specify other remedies in instances where HHS or the QHP issuer determines that such parties have not performed satisfactorily;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify that the delegated or downstream entity must comply with all applicable laws and regulations relating to the standards specified under paragraph (a) of this section;


</P>
<P>(4) Specify that the delegated or downstream entity must permit access by the Secretary and the OIG or their designees in connection with their right to evaluate through an audit, inspection, or other means, to the delegated or downstream entity's books, contracts, computers, or other electronic systems, including medical records and documentation, relating to the QHP issuer's obligations in accordance with Federal standards under paragraph (a) of this section until 10 years from the final date of the agreement period;


</P>
<P>(5) All agreements between issuers offering QHPs through an Exchange and delegated or downstream entities the issuers engage to support the issuer's activities on an Exchange must include language stating that the relevant Exchange authority may demand and receive the delegated or downstream entity's books, contracts, computers, or other electronic systems, including medical records and documentation, relating to the QHP issuer's obligations in accordance with Federal standards under paragraph (a) of this section until 10 years from the final date of the agreement period.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54143, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 87 FR 27392, May 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.350" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.350   Eligibility and enrollment standards for Qualified Health Plan issuers on State-based Exchanges on the Federal platform.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to participate in a State-based Exchange on the Federal platform, a QHP issuer must comply with HHS regulations, and guidance pertaining to issuer eligibility and enrollment functions as if the issuer were an issuer of a QHP on a Federally-facilitated Exchange. These requirements include—
</P>
<P>(1) Section 156.285(a)(4)(ii) regarding the premiums for plans offered on the SHOP, for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 156.285(c)(5) and (c)(8)(iii) regarding the enrollment process for SHOP, for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 2018; and
</P>
<P>(3) Section 156.715 regarding compliance reviews of QHP issuers, to the extent relating directly to applicable eligibility and enrollment functions.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 156.265(d) of this subchapter regarding binder payments and premium payment deadlines.
</P>
<P>(b) HHS will permit issuers of QHPs in each State-based Exchange on the Federal platform to directly enroll applicants in a manner that is considered to be through the Exchange, as if the issuers were issuers of QHPs on Federally-facilitated Exchanges under § 156.1230(a), to the extent permitted by applicable State law.
</P>
<P>(c) If the State-based Exchange on the Federal platform does not substantially enforce a requirement in paragraph (a) of this section against the issuer or plan, then HHS may do so, in accordance with the enforcement remedies in subpart I of this part, subject to the administrative review process in subpart J of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 12351, Mar. 8, 2016, as amended at 81 FR 94181, Dec. 22, 2016; 83 FR 17069, Apr. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Health Insurance Issuer Responsibilities With Respect to Advance Payments of the Premium Tax Credit and Cost-Sharing Reductions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 156.400" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.400   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Advance payments of the premium tax credit</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Affordable Care Act</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Annual limitation on cost sharing</I> means the annual dollar limit on cost sharing required to be paid by an enrollee that is established by a particular qualified health plan.
</P>
<P><I>De minimis variation</I> means the allowable variation in the AV of a health plan that does not result in a material difference in the true dollar value of the health plan as established in § 156.140(c).
</P>
<P><I>De minimis variation for a silver plan variation</I> means a −1-percentage point and percentage point allowable AV variation.








</P>
<P><I>Federal poverty level</I> or <I>FPL</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.300(a) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Indian</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.300(a) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Limited cost sharing plan variation</I> means, with respect to a QHP at any level of coverage, the variation of such QHP described in § 156.420(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Maximum annual limitation on cost sharing</I> means the highest annual dollar amount that qualified health plans (other than QHPs with cost-sharing reductions) may require in cost sharing for a particular year, as established for that year under § 156.130.
</P>
<P><I>Most generous</I> or <I>more generous</I> means, as between a QHP (including a standard silver plan) or plan variation and one or more other plan variations of the same QHP, the standard plan or plan variation designed for the category of individuals last listed in § 155.305(g)(3) of this subchapter. <I>Least generous</I> or <I>less generous</I> has the opposite meaning.
</P>
<P><I>Plan variation</I> means a zero cost sharing plan variation, a limited cost sharing plan variation, or a silver plan variation.
</P>
<P><I>Reduced maximum annual limitation on cost sharing</I> means the dollar value of the maximum annual limitation on cost sharing for a silver plan variation that remains after applying the reduction, if any, in the maximum annual limitation on cost sharing required by section 1402 of the Affordable Care Act as announced in the annual HHS notice of benefit and payment parameters.
</P>
<P><I>Silver plan variation</I> means, with respect to a standard silver plan, any of the variations of that standard silver plan described in § 156.420(a).
</P>
<P><I>Specified sex-trait modification procedure</I> means any pharmaceutical or surgical intervention that is provided for the purpose of attempting to align an individual's physical appearance or body with an asserted identity that differs from the individual's sex either by:
</P>
<P>(1) Intentionally disrupting or suppressing the normal development of natural biological functions, including primary or secondary sex-based traits; or
</P>
<P>(2) Intentionally altering an individual's physical appearance or body, including amputating, minimizing or destroying primary or secondary sex-based traits such as the sexual and reproductive organs.
</P>
<P>(3) This term does not include procedures undertaken:
</P>
<P>(i) To treat a person with a medically verifiable disorder of sexual development; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes other than attempting to align an individual's physical appearance or body with an asserted identity that differs from the individual's sex.
</P>
<P><I>Stand-alone dental plan</I> means a plan offered through an Exchange under § 155.1065 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Standard plan</I> means a QHP offered at one of the four levels of coverage, defined at § 156.140, with an annual limitation on cost sharing that conforms to the requirements of § 156.130(a). A standard plan at the bronze, silver, gold, or platinum level of coverage is referred to as a standard bronze plan, a standard silver plan, a standard gold plan, and a standard platinum plan, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Zero cost sharing plan variation</I> means, with respect to a QHP at any level of coverage, the variation of such QHP described in § 156.420(b)(1).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 65097, Oct. 30, 2013; 87 FR 27392, May 6, 2022; 90 FR 27223, June 25, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.410" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.410   Cost-sharing reductions for enrollees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A QHP issuer must ensure that an individual eligible for cost-sharing reductions, as demonstrated by assignment to a particular plan variation, pays only the cost sharing required of an eligible individual for the applicable covered service under the plan variation. The cost-sharing reduction for which an individual is eligible must be applied when the cost sharing is collected.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assignment to applicable plan variation.</I> If an individual is determined to be eligible to enroll in a QHP in the individual market offered through an Exchange and elects to do so, the QHP issuer must assign the individual under enrollment and eligibility information submitted by the Exchange as follows—
</P>
<P>(1) If the individual is determined eligible by the Exchange for cost-sharing reductions under § 155.305(g)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this subchapter (subject to the special rule for family policies set forth in § 155.305(g)(3) of this subchapter) and chooses to enroll in a silver health plan, the QHP issuer must assign the individual to the silver plan variation of the selected silver health plan described in § 156.420(a)(1), (2), or (3), respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) If the individual is determined eligible by the Exchange for cost-sharing reductions for Indians with lower household income under § 155.350(a) of this subchapter (subject to the special rule for family policies set forth in § 155.305(g)(3) of this subchapter), and chooses to enroll in a QHP, the QHP issuer must assign the individual to the zero cost sharing plan variation of the selected QHP with all cost sharing eliminated described in § 156.420(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) If the individual is determined by the Exchange to be eligible for cost-sharing reductions for Indians regardless of household income under § 155.350(b) of this subchapter (subject to the special rule for family policies set forth in § 155.305(g)(3) of this subchapter), and chooses to enroll in a QHP, the QHP issuer must assign the individual to the limited cost sharing plan variation of the selected QHP with the prohibition on cost sharing for benefits received from the Indian Health Service and certain other providers described in § 156.420(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) If the individual is determined by the Exchange not to be eligible for cost-sharing reductions (including eligibility under the special rule for family policies set forth in § 155.305(g)(3) of this subchapter), and chooses to enroll in a QHP, the QHP issuer must assign the individual to the selected QHP with no cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Improper cost-sharing reductions.</I> (1) If a QHP issuer fails to ensure that an individual assigned to a plan variation receives the cost-sharing reductions required under the applicable plan variation, taking into account § 156.425(b) concerning continuity of deductibles and out-of-pocket amounts (if applicable), then the QHP issuer must notify the enrollee of the improper application of any cost-sharing reduction within 45 calendar days of discovery of such improper application, and refund any resulting excess cost sharing paid by or for the enrollee as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the excess cost sharing was paid by the provider, the QHP issuer must refund the excess cost sharing to the provider within 45 calendar days of discovery of the improper application.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the excess cost sharing was not paid by the provider and is not requested by the enrollee as a refund, the QHP issuer must, within 45 calendar days of discovery of the error, apply the excess cost sharing paid by or for the enrollee to the enrollee's portion of the premium (or refund the amount directly). If any excess premium remains, the QHP issuer must apply the excess premium to the enrollee's portion of the premium for each subsequent month for the remainder of the period of enrollment or benefit year until the excess is fully applied (or refund any remaining amount directly). If any excess premium remains at the end of the period of enrollment or benefit year, the QHP issuer must refund the enrollee any remaining excess cost sharing paid by or for the enrollee within 45 calendar days of the end of the period of enrollment or benefit year, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the excess cost sharing was not paid by the provider, and if a refund is requested by the enrollee, the refund must be provided to the enrollee within 45 calendar days of the date of the request.
</P>
<P>(2) If a QHP issuer provides an individual assigned to a plan variation greater cost-sharing reductions than required under the applicable plan variation, taking into account § 156.425(b) concerning continuity of deductibles and out-of-pocket amounts (if applicable), then the QHP issuer will not be eligible for reimbursement of any excess cost-sharing reductions provided to the enrollee, and may not seek reimbursement from the enrollee or the applicable provider for any of the excess cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Improper assignment.</I> If a QHP issuer does not assign an individual to the applicable plan variation (or standard plan without cost-sharing reductions) in accordance with §§ 156.410(b) and 156.425(a) based on the eligibility and enrollment information or notification provided by the Exchange, then the QHP issuer must reassign the enrollee to the applicable plan variation (or standard plan without cost-sharing reductions) and notify the enrollee of the improper assignment such that:
</P>
<P>(1) If the QHP issuer discovers the improper assignment between the first and fifteenth day of the month, the QHP issuer must reassign the enrollee to the correct plan variation (or standard plan without cost-sharing reductions) by the first day of the following month.
</P>
<P>(2) If the QHP issuer discovers the improper assignment between the sixteen and the last day of the month, the QHP issuer must reassign the individual to the correct plan variation (or standard plan without cost-sharing reductions) by the first day of the second following month.
</P>
<P>(3) If, pursuant to a reassignment under this paragraph (d), a QHP issuer reassigns an enrollee from a more generous plan variation to a less generous plan variation of a QHP (or a standard plan without cost-sharing reductions), the QHP issuer will not be eligible for reimbursement for any of the excess cost-sharing reductions provided to the enrollee following the effective date of eligibility required by the Exchange, and may not seek reimbursement from the enrollee or the applicable provider for any of the excess cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(4) If, pursuant to a reassignment under this paragraph (d), a QHP issuer reassigns an enrollee from a less generous plan variation (or a standard plan without cost-sharing reductions) to a more generous plan variation of a QHP, the QHP issuer must recalculate the enrollee's liability for cost sharing paid between the effective date of eligibility required by the Exchange and the date on which the issuer effectuated the change, and must refund any excess cost sharing paid by or for the enrollee during such period as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the excess cost sharing was paid by the provider, the QHP issuer must refund the excess cost sharing to the provider within 45 calendar days of discovery of the improper assignment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the excess cost sharing was not paid by the provider and is not requested by the enrollee as a refund, the QHP issuer must, within 45 calendar days of discovery of the improper assignment, apply the excess cost sharing paid by or for the enrollee to the enrollee's portion of the premium (or refund the amount directly). If any excess premium remains, the QHP issuer must apply the excess premium to the enrollee's portion of the premium for each subsequent month for the remainder of the period of enrollment or benefit year until the excess is fully applied (or refund the remaining amount directly). If any excess premium remains at the end of the period of enrollment or benefit year, the QHP issuer must refund the enrollee any remaining excess cost sharing paid by or for the enrollee within 45 calendar days of the end of the period of enrollment or benefit year, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the excess cost sharing was not paid by the provider, then, if the enrollee requests a refund, the refund must be provided to the enrollee within 45 calendar days of the date of the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 65097, Oct. 30, 2013; 80 FR 10875, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.420" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.420   Plan variations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of silver plan variations.</I> For each of its silver health plans that an issuer offers, or intends to offer in the individual market on an Exchange, the issuer must submit annually to the Exchange for certification prior to each benefit year the standard silver plan and three variations of the standard silver plan, as follows—
</P>
<P>(1) For individuals eligible for cost-sharing reductions under § 155.305(g)(2)(i) of this subchapter, a variation of the standard silver plan with:
</P>
<P>(i) An annual limitation on cost sharing no greater than the reduced maximum annual limitation on cost sharing specified in the annual HHS guidance or notice of benefit and payment parameters for such individuals, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other cost-sharing reductions such that the AV of the silver plan variation is 94 percent plus or minus the de minimis variation for a silver plan variation;
</P>
<P>(2) For individuals eligible for cost-sharing reductions under § 155.305(g)(2)(ii) of this subchapter, a variation of the standard silver plan with:
</P>
<P>(i) An annual limitation on cost sharing no greater than the reduced maximum annual limitation on cost sharing specified in the annual HHS guidance or notice of benefit and payment parameters for such individuals, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other cost-sharing reductions such that the AV of the silver plan variation is 87 percent plus or minus the de minimis variation for a silver plan variation; and
</P>
<P>(3) For individuals eligible for cost-sharing reductions under § 155.305(g)(2)(iii) of this subchapter, a variation of the standard silver plan with:
</P>
<P>(i) An annual limitation on cost sharing no greater than the reduced maximum annual limitation on cost sharing specified in the annual HHS guidance or notice of benefit and payment parameters for such individuals, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other cost-sharing reductions such that the AV of the silver plan variation is 73 percent plus or minus the de minimis variation for a silver plan variation (subject to § 156.420(h)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of zero and limited cost sharing plan variations.</I> For each of its health plans at any level of coverage that an issuer offers, or intends to offer in the individual market on an Exchange, the issuer must submit to the Exchange for certification the health plan and two variations of the health plan, as follows—
</P>
<P>(1) For individuals eligible for cost-sharing reductions under § 155.350(a) of this subchapter, a variation of the health plan with all cost sharing eliminated; and
</P>
<P>(2) For individuals eligible for cost-sharing reductions under § 155.350(b) of this subchapter, a variation of the health plan with no cost sharing on any item or service that is an EHB furnished directly by the Indian Health Service, an Indian Tribe, Tribal Organization, or Urban Indian Organization (each as defined in 25 U.S.C. 1603), or through referral under contract health services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Benefit and network equivalence in silver plan variations.</I> A standard silver plan and each silver plan variation thereof must cover the same benefits and providers. Each silver plan variation is subject to all requirements applicable to the standard silver plan (except for the requirement that the plan have an AV as set forth in § 156.140(b)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Benefit and network equivalence in zero and limited cost sharing plan variations.</I> A QHP and each zero cost sharing plan variation or limited cost sharing plan variation thereof must cover the same benefits and providers. The out-of-pocket spending required of enrollees in the zero cost sharing plan variation of a QHP for a benefit that is not an essential health benefit from a provider (including a provider outside the plan's network) may not exceed the corresponding out-of-pocket spending required in the limited cost sharing plan variation of the QHP and the corresponding out-of-pocket spending required in the silver plan variation of the QHP for individuals eligible for cost-sharing reductions under § 155.305(g)(2)(i) of this subchapter, in the case of a silver QHP. The out-of-pocket spending required of enrollees in the limited cost sharing plan variation of the QHP for a benefit that is not an essential health benefit from a provider (including a provider outside the plan's network) may not exceed the corresponding out-of-pocket spending required in the QHP with no cost-sharing reductions. A limited cost sharing plan variation must have the same cost sharing for essential health benefits not described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section as the QHP with no cost-sharing reductions. Each zero cost sharing plan variation or limited cost sharing plan variation is subject to all requirements applicable to the QHP (except for the requirement that the plan have an AV as set forth in § 156.140(b)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Decreasing cost sharing and out-of-pocket spending in higher AV silver plan variations.</I> The cost sharing or out-of-pocket spending required of enrollees under any silver plan variation of a standard silver plan for a benefit from a provider (including a provider outside the plan's network) may not exceed the corresponding cost sharing or out-of-pocket spending required in the standard silver plan or any other silver plan variation thereof with a lower AV.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Minimum AV differential between 70 percent and 73 percent silver plan variations.</I> Notwithstanding any permitted de minimis variation in AV for a health plan or permitted de minimis variation for a silver plan variation, the AVs of a standard silver plan and the silver plan variation thereof described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section must differ by at least 2 percentage points.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Multi-state plans.</I> The U.S. Office of Personnel Management will determine the time and manner for multi-State plans, as defined in § 155.1000(a) of this subchapter, to submit silver plan variations, zero cost sharing plan variations, and limited cost sharing plan variations.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice.</I> No later than November 1, 2015, for each plan variation that an issuer offers in accordance with the rules of this section, an issuer must provide a summary of benefits and coverage that accurately represents each plan variation consistent with the requirements set forth in § 147.200 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 13840, Mar. 11, 2014; 80 FR 10875, Feb. 27, 2015; 86 FR 24292, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.425" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.425   Changes in eligibility for cost-sharing reductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date of change in assignment.</I> If the Exchange notifies a QHP issuer of a change in an enrollee's eligibility for cost-sharing reductions (including a change in the individual's eligibility under the special rule for family policies set forth in § 155.305(g)(3) of this subchapter due to a change in eligibility of another individual on the same policy), then the QHP issuer must change the individual's assignment such that the individual is assigned to the applicable standard plan or plan variation of the QHP as required under § 156.410(b) as of the effective date of eligibility required by the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continuity of deductible and out-of-pocket amounts.</I> In the case of a change in assignment to a different plan variation (or standard plan without cost-sharing reductions) of the same QHP in the course of a benefit year under this section, the QHP issuer must ensure that any cost sharing paid by the applicable individual under previous plan variations (or standard plan without cost-sharing reductions) for that benefit year is taken into account in the new plan variation (or standard plan without cost-sharing reductions) for purposes of calculating cost sharing based on aggregate spending by the individual, such as for deductibles or for the annual limitations on cost sharing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice upon assignment.</I> Beginning on January 1, 2016, if an individual's assignment to a standard plan or plan variation of the QHP changes in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the issuer must provide to that individual a summary of benefits and coverage that accurately reflects the new plan variation (or standard plan variation without cost-sharing reductions) in a manner consistent with § 147.200 of this subchapter as soon as practicable following receipt of notice from the Exchange, but not later than 7 business days following receipt of notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10875, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.430" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.430   Payment for cost-sharing reductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advance payments for cost-sharing reductions.</I> (1) When there is an appropriation to make cost-sharing reduction payments to QHP issuers, a QHP issuer will receive periodic advance payments from HHS to the extent permitted by the appropriation and calculated in accordance with § 155.1030(b)(3) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(2) HHS may adjust the advance payment amount for a particular QHP during the benefit year if the QHP issuer provides evidence, certified by a member of the American Academy of Actuaries in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and methodologies, that the advance payments for a particular QHP are likely to be substantially different than the cost-sharing reduction amounts that the QHP provides that will be reimbursed by HHS.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission of actual amounts</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For each plan variation that a QHP issuer offers on the Exchange, it must submit to HHS, in the manner and timeframe established by HHS, for each policy, the total allowed costs for essential health benefits charged for the policy for the benefit year, broken down by all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount the issuer paid.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount the enrollee(s) paid.
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount the enrollee(s) would have paid under the standard plan without cost-sharing reductions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard methodology.</I> A QHP issuer must calculate the value of the amount the enrollee(s) would have paid under the standard plan without cost-sharing reductions by applying the actual cost-sharing requirements for the standard plan to the allowed costs for essential health benefits under the enrollee's policy for the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(i) For reconciliation of cost-sharing reduction amounts advanced for the 2014 and 2015 benefit years, an issuer of a QHP using the standard or simplified methodology may calculate claims amounts attributable to EHB, including cost sharing amounts attributable to EHB, by reducing total claims amounts by the plan-specific percentage estimate of non-essential health benefit claims submitted on the Uniform Rate Review Template for the corresponding benefit year, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The non-essential health benefits percentage estimate is less than 2 percent; and
</P>
<P>(B) Out-of-pocket expenses for non-EHB benefits are included in the calculation of amounts subject to a deductible or annual limitation on cost sharing, but copayments and coinsurance rates on non-EHB benefits are not reduced under the plan variation.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Selection of methodology.</I> For benefit years 2014 through 2016, notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a QHP issuer may choose to calculate the amounts that would have been paid under the standard plan without cost-sharing reductions using the simplified methodology described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The QHP issuer must notify HHS prior to the start of each benefit year, in the manner and timeframe established by HHS, whether or not it selects the simplified methodology for the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the QHP issuer selects the simplified methodology, it must apply the simplified methodology to all plan variations it offers on the Exchange for a benefit year.
</P>
<P>(iii) The QHP issuer may not select the simplified methodology for a benefit year if the QHP issuer did not select the simplified methodology for the prior benefit year.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section, if a QHP issuer merges with or acquires another issuer of a QHP on the Exchange, or acquires a QHP offered on the Exchange from another QHP issuer, and if one, but not all, of the merging, acquiring, or acquired parties had selected the simplified methodology for the benefit year, then for the benefit year in which the merger or acquisition took place, the QHP issuer must calculate the amounts that would have been paid using the methodology (whether the standard methodology described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section or the simplified methodology described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section) selected with respect to the plan variation prior to the start of the benefit year (even if the selection was not made by that QHP issuer). For the next benefit year (if such benefit year is 2015 or 2016), the QHP issuer may select the simplified methodology (subject to paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section but, for that benefit year, not paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section) or the standard methodology.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Simplified methodology.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(4)(v) of this section, a QHP issuer that selects the simplified methodology described in this paragraph (c)(4) must calculate the amount that the enrollees would have paid under the standard plan without cost-sharing reductions for each policy that was assigned to a plan variation for any portion of the benefit year by applying each set of the standard plan's effective cost-sharing parameters (as calculated under paragraphs (c)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section) to the corresponding subgroup of total allowed costs for EHB for the policy (as described in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section).
</P>
<P>(i) For plan variation policies with total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year that are:
</P>
<P>(A) Less than or equal to the effective deductible, the amount that the enrollees would have paid under the standard plan is equal to the total allowed costs for EHB under the policy for the benefit year multiplied by the effective pre-deductible coinsurance rate.
</P>
<P>(B) Greater than the effective deductible but less than the effective claims ceiling, the amount that the enrollees would have paid under the standard plan is equal to the sum of (x) the average deductible, plus (y) the effective non-deductible cost sharing, plus (z) the difference, if positive, between the total allowed costs under the policy for the benefit year for EHB that are subject to a deductible and the average deductible, multiplied by the effective post-deductible coinsurance rate.
</P>
<P>(C) Greater than or equal to the effective claims ceiling, the amount that the enrollees would have paid under the standard plan is equal to the annual limitation on cost sharing for the standard plan (as defined at 45 CFR 156.400), or, at the QHP issuer's election on a policy-by-policy basis, the amount calculated pursuant to the standard methodology described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section,
</P>
<P>(ii) The QHP issuer must calculate one or more sets of effective cost-sharing parameters, as described in paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section, based on policies assigned to the standard plan without cost-sharing reductions for the entire benefit year and must separately apply each set of effective cost-sharing parameters to the corresponding subgroup of total allowed costs for EHB for each plan variation policy, as described in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If the standard plan has separate cost-sharing parameters for self-only coverage and other than self-only coverage, but does not have separate cost-sharing parameters for pharmaceutical and medical services, the QHP issuer must calculate and apply separate sets of effective cost-sharing parameters based on the costs of enrollees in the standard plan with self-only coverage, and based on the costs of enrollees in the standard plan with other than self-only coverage.
</P>
<P>(B) If the standard plan has separate cost-sharing parameters for pharmaceutical and medical services, but does not have separate cost-sharing parameters for self-only coverage and other than self-only coverage, the QHP issuer must calculate and apply separate sets of effective cost-sharing parameters based on the medical costs of the enrollees in the standard plan, and based on the pharmaceutical costs of the enrollees in the standard plan.
</P>
<P>(C) If the standard plan has separate cost-sharing parameters for self-only coverage and other than self-only coverage, and also has separate cost-sharing parameters for pharmaceutical and medical services, the QHP issuer must calculate and apply separate sets of effective cost-sharing parameters based on the medical costs of enrollees in the standard plan with self-only coverage, based on the pharmaceutical costs of enrollees in the standard plan with self-only coverage, based on the medical costs of enrollees in the standard plan with other than self-only coverage, and based on the pharmaceutical costs of enrollees in the standard plan with other than self-only coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) The effective cost-sharing parameters for the standard plan without cost-sharing reductions must be calculated based on policies assigned to the standard plan for the entire benefit year for each of the required subgroups under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If the standard plan has only one deductible (for the applicable subgroup), the average deductible of the standard plan is that deductible amount. If the standard plan has more than one deductible (for the applicable subgroup), the average deductible is the weighted average of the deductibles, weighted by allowed costs for EHB under the standard plan for the benefit year that are subject to each separate deductible. Services that are not subject to any deductible (including services subject to copayments or coinsurance but not any deductible) are not to be incorporated into the calculation of the average deductible.
</P>
<P>(B) The effective non-deductible cost sharing for the applicable subgroup is the average portion of total allowed costs for EHB that are not subject to any deductible for the standard plan for the benefit year incurred for standard plan enrollees and payable by the enrollees as cost sharing. The effective non-deductible cost sharing must be calculated based only on standard plan policies with total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year that are above the effective deductible but for which associated cost sharing for EHB is less than the annual limitation on cost sharing.
</P>
<P>(C) The effective deductible for the applicable subgroup is equal to the sum of the average deductible and the average total allowed costs for EHB that are not subject to any deductible for the standard plan for the benefit year. The average total allowed costs for EHB that are not subject to any deductible for the standard plan for the benefit year must be calculated based only on standard plan policies with total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year that are above the average deductible but for which associated cost sharing for EHB is less than the annual limitation on cost sharing.
</P>
<P>(D) The effective pre-deductible coinsurance rate for the applicable subgroup is the proportion of the total allowed costs for EHB under the standard plan for the benefit year incurred for standard plan enrollees and payable as cost sharing. The effective pre-deductible coinsurance rate must be calculated based only on standard plan policies with total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year that are less than or equal to the effective deductible.
</P>
<P>(E) The effective post-deductible coinsurance rate for the applicable subgroup is the quotient of (x) the portion of average allowed costs for EHB subject to a deductible incurred for enrollees for the benefit year, and payable by the enrollees as cost sharing other than through a deductible, over the difference of (y) the average allowed costs for EHB subject to a deductible incurred for enrollees for the benefit year, and (z) the average deductible. The effective post-deductible coinsurance rate must be calculated based only on standard plan policies with total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year that are above the effective deductible but for which associated cost sharing for EHB is less than the annual limitation on cost sharing.
</P>
<P>(F) The effective claims ceiling for the applicable subgroup is calculated as the effective deductible plus the quotient of (x) the difference between the annual limitation on cost sharing and the sum of the average deductible and the effective non-deductible cost sharing, divided by (y) the effective post-deductible coinsurance rate.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a QHP issuer uses the simplified methodology described in this paragraph (c)(4), and the QHP issuer's standard plan does not meet any of the criteria in paragraphs (c)(4)(v)(A) through (D) of this section, the QHP issuer must also submit to HHS, in the manner and timeframe established by HHS, the following information for each standard plan offered by the QHP issuer in the individual market through the Exchange for each of the required subgroups described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The average deductible for each applicable subgroup;
</P>
<P>(B) The effective deductible for each applicable subgroup;
</P>
<P>(C) The effective non-deductible cost sharing amount for each applicable subgroup;
</P>
<P>(D) The effective pre-deductible coinsurance rate for each applicable subgroup;
</P>
<P>(E) The effective post-deductible coinsurance rate for each applicable subgroup;
</P>
<P>(F) The effective claims ceiling for each applicable subgroup; and
</P>
<P>(G) A memorandum developed by a member of the American Academy of Actuaries in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and methodologies that describes how the QHP issuer calculated the effective cost-sharing parameters for each applicable subgroup for the standard plan.
</P>
<P>(v) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, if a QHP issuer's standard plan meets the criteria in any of the following subparagraphs, and the QHP issuer has selected the simplified methodology described in this paragraph (c)(4), then the QHP issuer must calculate the amount that the enrollees in the plan variation would have paid under the standard plan without cost-sharing reductions as the lesser of the annual limitation on cost sharing for the standard plan or the amount equal to the product of, (x) one minus the standard plan's actuarial value, as calculated under 45 CFR 156.135, and (y) the total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year under each policy that was assigned to a plan variation for any portion of the benefit year.
</P>
<P>(A) The standard plan has separate cost-sharing parameters for self-only coverage and other than self-only coverage, does not have separate cost-sharing parameters for pharmaceutical and medical services, and has an enrollment during the benefit year of fewer than 12,000 member months for coverage with total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year that are greater than the effective deductible, but for which associated cost sharing for EHB is less than the annual limitation on cost sharing, in either of the following categories -
</P>
<P>(1) Self-only coverage; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other than self-only coverage.
</P>
<P>(B) The standard plan has separate cost-sharing parameters for pharmaceutical and medical services, does not have separate cost-sharing parameters for self-only coverage and other than self-only coverage, and has an enrollment during the benefit year of fewer than 12,000 member months for coverage with total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year that are greater than the effective deductible, but for which associated cost sharing for EHB is less than the annual limitation on cost sharing, in either of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(1) Coverage of medical services; or
</P>
<P>(2) Coverage of pharmaceutical services.
</P>
<P>(C) The standard plan has separate cost-sharing parameters for self-only coverage and other than self-only coverage and for pharmaceutical and medical services, and has an enrollment during the benefit year of fewer than 12,000 member months for coverage with total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year that are greater than the effective deductible, but for which associated cost sharing for EHB is less than the annual limitation on cost sharing, in any of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(1) Self-only coverage of medical services;
</P>
<P>(2) Self-only coverage of pharmaceutical services;
</P>
<P>(3) Other than self-only coverage of medical services; or
</P>
<P>(4) Other than self-only coverage of pharmaceutical services.
</P>
<P>(D) The standard plan does not have separate cost-sharing parameters for pharmaceutical and medical services, or for self-only coverage and other than self-only coverage, and has an enrollment during the benefit year of fewer than 12,000 member months with total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year that are greater than the effective deductible, but for which associated cost sharing for EHB is less than the annual limitation on cost sharing.
</P>
<P>(vi) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(4)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, and paragraphs (c)(4)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section, if more than eighty percent of the total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year under a standard plan for a subgroup that requires a separate set of effective cost-sharing parameters pursuant to paragraph (c)(4)(ii) are not subject to a deductible, then:
</P>
<P>(A) The average deductible, the effective non-deductible cost sharing, and the effective deductible for the subgroup equal zero;
</P>
<P>(B) The effective pre-deductible coinsurance rate for the subgroup is equal to the effective post-deductible coinsurance rate for the subgroup, which is determined based on all standard plan policies for the applicable subgroup for which associated cost sharing for EHB is less than the annual limitation on cost sharing, and calculated for the applicable subgroup as the proportion of the total allowed costs for EHB under the standard plan for the benefit year incurred for standard plan enrollees and payable as cost sharing (including cost sharing payable through a deductible); and
</P>
<P>(C) The amount that enrollees in the applicable subgroup in plan variation policies with total allowed costs for EHB for the benefit year that are less than the effective claims ceiling would have paid under the standard plan must be calculated using the formula in paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reimbursement of providers.</I> In the case of a benefit for which the QHP issuer compensates an applicable provider in whole or in part on a fee-for-service basis, allowed costs associated with the benefit may be included in the calculation of the amount that an enrollee(s) would have paid under the standard plan without cost-sharing reductions only to the extent the amount was either payable by the enrollee(s) as cost sharing under the plan variation or was reimbursed to the provider by the QHP issuer.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cost-sharing reductions data submissions.</I> HHS will periodically provide a submission window for issuers to submit cost-sharing reduction data documenting cost-sharing reduction amounts issuers paid, as specified in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section, in a form and manner specified by HHS in guidance, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. When HHS makes cost-sharing reduction payments to QHP issuers, HHS will notify QHP issuers that the submission of the cost-sharing data is mandatory for those issuers having received cost-sharing reduction payments for any part of the benefit year and voluntary for other issuers, and HHS will use the data to reconcile advance cost-sharing reduction payments to issuers against the actual amounts of cost-sharing reductions QHP issuers provided, as determined by HHS based on amounts specified in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. In the absence of an appropriation to make cost-sharing reduction payments to issuers, HHS will notify QHP issuers that the submission of the cost-sharing data is voluntary. The cost-sharing data that must be submitted in either a voluntary or mandatory submission includes:






</P>
<P>(1) The actual amount of cost-sharing reductions provided to enrollees and reimbursed to providers by the QHP issuer for benefits for which the QHP issuer compensates the applicable providers in whole or in part on a fee-for-service basis; and
</P>
<P>(2) The actual amount of cost-sharing reductions provided to enrollees for benefits for which the QHP issuer compensates the applicable providers in any other manner.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Cost-sharing reductions payments and charges.</I> If the actual amounts of cost-sharing reductions determined by HHS based on amounts described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section are—


</P>
<P>(1) More than the amount of advance payments HHS provided, and the QHP issuer has timely provided the data of actual amounts of cost-sharing reductions as required under paragraph (c) of this section, if an appropriation is available to make cost-sharing payments to QHP issuers, HHS will make a payment to the QHP issuer for the difference; or






</P>
<P>(2) Less than the amount of advance payments provided, the QHP issuer must repay the difference to HHS in the manner and timeframe specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Cost-sharing reductions during special periods.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the cost-sharing reduction reconciliation process described in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section, a QHP issuer will not be eligible for reimbursement of any cost-sharing reductions provided following a termination of coverage effective date with respect to a grace period as described in § 155.430(b)(2)(ii)(A) or (B) of this subchapter. However, the QHP issuer will be eligible for reimbursement of cost-sharing reductions provided prior to the termination of coverage effective date. Advance payments of cost-sharing reductions will be paid to a QHP issuer prior to a determination of termination (including during any grace period, but the QHP issuer will be required to repay any advance payments made with respect to any month after any termination of coverage effective date during a grace period).
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the cost-sharing reduction reconciliation process described in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section, if the termination of coverage effective date is prior to the determination of termination other than in the circumstances described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, and if the termination (or the late determination thereof) is the fault of the QHP issuer, as reasonably determined by the Exchange, the QHP issuer will not be eligible for advance payments and reimbursement for cost-sharing reductions provided during the period following the termination of coverage effective date and prior to the determination of the termination.
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to the requirements of the cost-sharing reduction reconciliation process described in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section, if the termination of coverage effective date is prior to the determination of termination other than in the circumstances described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, and if the reason for the termination (or late determination thereof) is not the fault of the QHP issuer, as reasonably determined by the Exchange, the QHP issuer will be eligible for advance payments and reimbursement for cost-sharing reductions provided during such period.
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to the requirements of the cost-sharing reduction reconciliation process described in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section, a QHP issuer will be eligible for advance payments and reimbursement for cost-sharing reductions provided during any period of coverage pending resolution of inconsistencies in information required to determine eligibility for enrollment under § 155.315(f) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Prohibition on reduction in payments to Indian health providers.</I> If an Indian is enrolled in a QHP in the individual market through an Exchange and is furnished an item or service directly by the Indian Health Service, an Indian Tribe, Tribal Organization, or Urban Indian Organization, or through referral under contract health services, the QHP issuer may not reduce the payment to any such entity for such item or service by the amount of any cost sharing that would be due from the Indian but for the prohibitions on cost sharing set forth in § 156.410(b)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reconciliation of the cost-sharing reduction portion of advance payments discrepancies and appeals.</I> (1) If an issuer reports a discrepancy and seeks to dispute the notification of the amount of reconciliation of the cost-sharing reduction portion of advance payments, it must report the discrepancy to HHS within 30 calendar days of notification of the amount of reconciliation of the cost-sharing reduction portion of advance payments as described in paragraph (e) of this section, in the manner set forth by HHS.
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer may appeal the amount of reconciliation of the cost-sharing reduction portion of advance payments, under the process set forth in § 156.1220.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15535, 15555, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 65097, Oct. 30, 2013; 79 FR 13840, Mar. 11, 2014; 80 FR 10875, Feb. 27, 2015; 81 FR 94181, Dec. 22, 2016; 87 FR 27392, May 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.440" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.440   Plans eligible for advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing reductions.</HEAD>
<P>Except as noted in paragraph (a) through (c) of this section, the provisions of this subpart apply to qualified health plans offered in the individual market on the Exchange.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Catastrophic plans.</I> The provisions of this subpart do not apply to catastrophic plans described in § 156.155.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stand-alone dental plans.</I> The provisions of this subpart, to the extent relating to cost-sharing reductions, do not apply to stand-alone dental plans. The provisions of this subpart, to the extent relating to advance payments of the premium tax credit, apply to stand-alone dental plans.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Child-only plans.</I> The provisions of this subpart apply to child-only QHPs, described in § 156.200(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.460" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.460   Reduction of enrollee's share of premium to account for advance payments of the premium tax credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reduction of enrollee's share of premium to account for advance payments of the premium tax credit.</I> A QHP issuer that receives notice from the Exchange that an individual enrolled in the issuer's QHP is eligible for an advance payment of the premium tax credit must—
</P>
<P>(1) Reduce the portion of the premium charged to or for the individual for the applicable month(s) by the amount of the advance payment of the premium tax credit;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the Exchange of the reduction in the portion of the premium charged to the individual in accordance with § 156.265(g); and
</P>
<P>(3) Include with each billing statement, as applicable, to or for the individual the amount of the advance payment of the premium tax credit for the applicable month(s), and the remaining premium owed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Delays in payment.</I> A QHP issuer may not refuse to commence coverage under a policy or terminate coverage on account of any delay in payment of an advance payment of the premium tax credit on behalf of an enrollee if the QHP issuer has been notified by the Exchange under § 155.340(a) of this subchapter that the QHP issuer will receive such advance payment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Refunds to enrollees for improper reduction of enrollee's share of premium to account for advance payments of the premium tax credit.</I> If a QHP issuer discovers that it did not reduce the portion of the premium charged to or for an enrollee for the applicable month(s) by the amount of the advance payment of the premium tax credit in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the QHP issuer must notify the enrollee of the improper reduction within 45 calendar days of the QHP issuer's discovery of the improper reduction and refund any excess premium paid by or for the enrollee, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Unless a refund is requested by or for the enrollee, the QHP issuer must, within 45 calendar days of discovery of the error, apply the excess premium paid by or for the enrollee to the enrollee's portion of the premium (or refund the amount directly). If any excess premium remains, the QHP issuer must apply the excess premium to the enrollee's portion of the premium for each subsequent month for the remainder of the period of enrollment or benefit year until the excess is fully applied (or refund the remaining amount directly). If any excess premium remains at the end of the period of enrollment or benefit year, the QHP issuer must refund any excess premium within 45 calendar days of the end of the period of enrollment or benefit year, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(2) If a refund is requested by or for the enrollee, the refund must be provided within 45 calendar days of the date of the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 65100, Oct. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.470" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.470   Allocation of rates for advance payments of the premium tax credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Allocation to additional health benefits for QHPs.</I> An issuer must provide to the Exchange annually for approval, in the manner and timeframe established by HHS, for each health plan at any level of coverage offered, or intended to be offered, in the individual market on an Exchange, an allocation of the rate for the plan to:
</P>
<P>(1) EHB, other than services described in § 156.280(d)(1); and
</P>
<P>(2) Any other services or benefits offered by the health plan not described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allocation to additional health benefits for stand-alone dental plans.</I> An issuer must provide to the Exchange annually for approval, in the manner and timeframe established by HHS, for each stand-alone dental plan offered, or intended to be offered, in the individual market on the Exchange, a dollar allocation of the expected premium for the plan, to:
</P>
<P>(1) The pediatric dental essential health benefit, and
</P>
<P>(2) Any benefits offered by the stand-alone dental plan that are not the pediatric dental essential health benefit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Allocation standards for QHPs.</I> The issuer must ensure that the allocation described in paragraph (a) of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) Is performed by a member of the American Academy of Actuaries in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and methodologies;
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonably reflects the allocation of the expected allowed claims costs attributable to EHB (excluding those services described in § 156.280(d)(1));
</P>
<P>(3) Is consistent with the allocation applicable to State-required benefits to be submitted by the issuer under § 155.170(c) of this subchapter, and the allocation requirements described in § 156.280(e)(4) for certain services; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is calculated under the fair health insurance premium standards described at 45 CFR 147.102, the single risk pool standards described at 45 CFR 156.80, and the same premium rate standards described at 45 CFR 156.255.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Allocation standards for stand-alone dental plans.</I> The issuer must ensure that the dollar allocation described in paragraph (b) of this section is performed by a member of the American Academy of Actuaries in accordance with generally accepted actuarial principles and methodologies.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosure of attribution and allocation methods.</I> An issuer of a health plan at any level of coverage or a stand-alone dental plan offered, or intended to be offered, in the individual market on the Exchange must submit to the Exchange annually for approval, an actuarial memorandum, in the manner and timeframe specified by HHS, with a detailed description of the methods and specific bases used to perform the allocations set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b), and demonstrating that the allocations meet the standards set forth in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, respectively.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Multi-State plans.</I> Issuers of multi-State plans, as defined in § 155.1000(a) of this subchapter, must submit the allocations and actuarial memorandum described in this section to the U.S. Office of Personnel Management, in the time and manner established by the U.S. Office of Personnel Management.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 15535, Mar. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 13840, Mar. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.480" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.480   Oversight of the administration of the advance payments of the premium tax credit, cost-sharing reductions, and user fee programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Maintenance of records.</I> An issuer that offers a QHP in the individual market through a State Exchange must adhere to, and ensure that any relevant delegated entities and downstream entities adhere to, the standards set forth in § 156.705 concerning maintenance of documents and records, whether paper, electronic, or in other media, by issuers offering QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange, in connection with cost-sharing reductions and advance payments of the premium tax credit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual reporting requirements.</I> For each benefit year, an issuer that offers a QHP in the individual market through an Exchange must report to HHS, in the manner and timeframe required by HHS, summary statistics specified by HHS with respect to administration of cost-sharing reduction and advance payments of the premium tax credit programs, including any failure to adhere to the standards set forth under §§ 156.410(a) through (d), 156.425(a) through (b), and 156.460(a) through (c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Audits and compliance reviews.</I> HHS or its designee may audit or conduct a compliance review of an issuer offering a QHP through an Exchange to assess its compliance with the applicable requirements related to administration of the advance payments of the premium tax credit, cost-sharing reductions, and user fee programs. Compliance reviews conducted under this section will follow the standards set forth in § 156.715.


</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice of audit.</I> HHS will provide at least 30 calendar days advance notice of its intent to conduct an audit of an issuer under this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conferences.</I> All audits will include an entrance conference at which the scope of the audit will be presented and an exit conference at which the initial audit findings will be discussed.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance with audit activities.</I> To comply with an audit under this section, the issuer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that its relevant employees, agents, contractors, subcontractors, downstream entities, and delegated entities cooperate with any audit or compliance review under this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Submit complete and accurate data to HHS or its designees that is necessary to complete the audit, in the format and manner specified by HHS, no later than 30 calendar days after the initial audit response deadline established by HHS at the entrance conference described under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section for the applicable benefit year;
</P>
<P>(iii) Respond to all audit notices, letters, and inquiries, including requests for supplemental or supporting information, as requested by HHS, no later than 15 calendar days after the date of the notice, letter, request, or inquiry; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In circumstances in which an issuer cannot provide the requested data or response to HHS within the timeframes under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section, as applicable, the issuer may make a written request for an extension to HHS. The extension request must be submitted within the timeframe established under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) or (iii), as applicable, and must detail the reason for the extension request and the good cause in support of the request. If the extension is granted, the issuer must respond within the timeframe specified in HHS's notice granting the extension of time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Preliminary audit findings.</I> HHS will share its preliminary audit findings with the issuer, who will then have 30 calendar days to respond to such findings in the format and manner specified by HHS.
</P>
<P>(i) If the issuer does not dispute or otherwise respond to the preliminary findings, the audit findings will become final.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the issuer responds and disputes the preliminary findings, HHS will review and consider such response and finalize the audit findings after such review.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Final audit findings.</I> If an audit results in the inclusion of a finding in the final audit report, the issuer must comply with the actions set forth in the final audit report in the manner and timeframe established by HHS, and the issuer must complete all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 45 calendar days of the issuance of the final audit or compliance review report, provide a written corrective action plan to HHS for approval.
</P>
<P>(ii) Implement that plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide to HHS written documentation of the corrective actions once taken.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Failure to comply with audit activities.</I> If an issuer fails to comply with the audit activities set forth in this section in the manner and timeframes specified by HHS:
</P>
<P>(i) HHS will notify the issuer of payments received under this subpart that the issuer has not adequately substantiated; and
</P>
<P>(ii) HHS will notify the issuer that HHS may recoup any payments identified in paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Circumstances requiring HHS enforcement.</I> If HHS determines that the State Exchange or State-based Exchange on the Federal platform is not enforcing or fails to substantially enforce compliance with the applicable requirements related to administration of the advance payments of the premium tax credit, cost-sharing reductions, and user fee programs, then HHS may do so and may pursue the imposition of civil money penalties as specified in § 156.805 for noncompliance by QHP issuers participating in the State Exchange or State-based Exchange on the Federal platform.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65100, Oct. 30, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 24292, May 5, 2021; 91 FR 29876, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Consumer Operated and Oriented Plan Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.500" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.500   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements section 1322 of the Affordable Care Act by establishing the Consumer Operated and Oriented Plan (CO-OP) program to foster the creation of new consumer-governed, private, nonprofit health insurance issuers, known as “CO-OPs.” Under this program, loans are awarded to encourage the development of CO-OPs. Applicants that meet the eligibility standards of the CO-OP program may apply to receive loans to help fund start-up costs and meet the solvency requirements of States in which the applicant seeks to be licensed to issue CO-OP qualified health plans. This subpart sets forth the eligibility and governance requirements for the CO-OP program, CO-OP standards, and the terms for loans awarded under the CO-OP program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.505" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.505   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means an entity eligible to apply for a loan described in § 156.520 of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer operated and oriented plan (CO-OP)</I> means a loan recipient that satisfies the standards in section 1322(c) of the Affordable Care Act and § 156.515 of this subpart within the timeframes specified in this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>CO-OP qualified health plan</I> means a health plan that has in effect a certification that it meets the standards described in subpart C of this part, except that the plan can be deemed certified by CMS or an entity designated by CMS as described in § 156.520(e).
</P>
<P><I>Exchange</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Formation board</I> means the initial board of directors of the applicant or loan recipient before it has begun accepting enrollment and had an election by the members of the organization to the board of directors.
</P>
<P><I>Individual market</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Issuer</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Member</I> means an individual covered under health insurance policies issued by a loan recipient.
</P>
<P><I>Nonprofit member organization</I> or <I>nonprofit member corporation</I> means a nonprofit, not-for-profit, public benefit, or similar membership entity organized as appropriate under State law.
</P>
<P><I>Operational board</I> means the board of directors elected by the members of the loan recipient after it has begun accepting enrollment.
</P>
<P><I>Predecessor, with respect to a new entity,</I> means any entity that participates in a merger, consolidation, purchase or acquisition of property or stock, corporate separation, or other similar business transaction that results in the formation of the new entity.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-existing issuer</I> means a health insurance issuer licensed by a State regulator that marketed individual or group health insurance benefit plans (other than Medicare or Medicaid Managed Care plans) on July 16, 2009.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified nonprofit health insurance issuer</I> means an entity that satisfies or can reasonably be expected to satisfy the standards in section 1322(c) of the Affordable Care Act and § 156.515 of this subpart within the time frames specified in this subpart, until such time as CMS determines the entity does not satisfy or cannot reasonably be expected to satisfy these standards.
</P>
<P><I>Related entity</I> means an entity that shares common ownership, control, or governance structure (including management team or Board members) with a pre-existing issuer, and satisfies at least one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Retains responsibilities for the services to be provided by the issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) Furnishes services to the issuer's enrollees under an oral or written agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) Performs some of the issuer's management functions under contract or delegation.
</P>
<P><I>Representative</I> means an officer, director, or trustee of an organization, or group of organizations; or a senior executive or high-level representative of the Federal government, or a State or local government or a sub-unit thereof.
</P>
<P><I>SHOP</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Small group market</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P><I>Solvency Loan</I> means a loan provided by CMS to a loan recipient in order to meet State solvency and reserve requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means an organization or individual that is involved in the development, creation, or organization of the CO-OP or provides 40 percent or more in total funding to a CO-OP (excluding any loans received from the CO-OP Program).
</P>
<P><I>Start-up Loan</I> means a loan provided by CMS to a loan recipient for costs associated with establishing a CO-OP.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> has the meaning given to the term in § 155.20 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 77411, Dec. 13, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 18474, Mar. 27, 2012; 81 FR 29155, May 11, 2016; 81 FR 94181, Dec. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.510" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.510   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In addition to the eligibility standards set forth in the CO-OP program Funding Opportunity Announcement (FOA), to be eligible to apply for and receive a loan under the CO-OP program, an organization must intend to become a CO-OP and be a nonprofit member organization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions from eligibility.</I> (1) Subject to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an organization is not eligible to apply for a loan if:
</P>
<P>(i) The organization or a sponsor of the organization is a pre-existing issuer, a holding company (an organization that exists primarily to hold stock in other companies) that controls a pre-existing issuer, a trade association comprised of pre-existing issuers and whose purpose is to represent the interests of the health insurance industry, a foundation established by a pre-existing issuer, a related entity, or a predecessor of either a pre-existing issuer or related entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The organization receives 25 percent or more of its total funding (excluding any loans received from the CO-OP Program) from pre-existing issuers, holding companies (organizations that exists primarily to hold stock in other companies) that control pre-existing issuers, trade associations comprised of pre-existing issuers and whose purpose is to represent the interests of the health insurance industry, foundations established by a pre-existing issuer, a related entity, or a predecessor of either a pre-existing issuer or related entity; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A State or local government, any political subdivision thereof, or any instrumentality of such government or political subdivision is a sponsor of the organization. The organization receives 40 percent or more of its total funding (excluding any loans received from the CO-OP Program) from a State or local government, any political subdivision thereof, or any instrumentality of such a government or political subdivision.
</P>
<P>(2) The exclusions in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(ii) of this section do not exclude from eligibility an applicant that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has as a sponsor a nonprofit, not-for-profit, public benefit, or similarly organized entity that is also a sponsor for a pre-existing issuer but is not an issuer, a foundation established by a pre-existing issuer, a holding company that controls a pre-existing issuer, or a trade association comprised of pre-existing issuers and whose purpose is to represent the interests of the health insurance industry, provided that the pre-existing issuer sponsored by the nonprofit organization does not share any of its board or the same chief executive with the applicant; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has purchased assets from a preexisting issuer provided that it is an arm's-length transaction where each party acts independently and has no other relationship with the other party.
</P>
<P>(3) The exclusion of any instrumentality of a State or local government in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section does not exclude from eligibility or sponsorship an organization that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a government organization under State law;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no employee of a State or local government serving in his or her official capacity as a senior executive (for example, President, Chief Executive Officer, or Chief Financial Officer) for the organization; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a board of directors on which fewer than half of its directors are employees of a State or local government serving in their official capacities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 77411, Dec. 13, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 18474, Mar. 27, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.515" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.515   CO-OP standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A CO-OP must satisfy the standards in this section in addition to all other statutory, regulatory, or other requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Governance requirements.</I> A CO-OP must meet the following governance requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Member control.</I> A CO-OP must implement policies and procedures to foster and ensure member control of the organization. Accordingly, a CO-OP must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The CO-OP must be governed by an operational board with a majority of directors elected by a majority vote of a quorum of the CO-OP's members that are age 18 or older;
</P>
<P>(ii) All members age 18 or older must be eligible to vote for each of the directors on the organization's operational board subject to a vote of the members under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Each member age 18 or older must have one vote in each election for each director subject to a vote of the members under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section in that election;
</P>
<P>(iv) The first elected directors of the organization's operational board must be elected no later than one year after the effective date on which the organization provides coverage to its first member; the entire operational board must be elected or in place, and in full compliance with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, no later than two years after the same date;
</P>
<P>(v) Elections of the directors on the organization's operational board subject to a vote of the members under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section must be contested so that the total number of candidates for contested seats on the operational board exceeds the number of contested seats for such directors, except in cases where a seat is vacated mid- term due to death, resignation, or removal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards for board of directors.</I> The operational board for a CO-OP must meet the following standards:
</P>
<P>(i) Each director must meet ethical, conflict-of-interest, and disclosure standards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each director has one vote;
</P>
<P>(iii) Positions on the board of directors may be designated for individuals with specialized expertise, experience, or affiliation (for example, providers, employers, and unions); and
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Limitation on government and issuer participation.</I> No representative of any Federal, State or local government (or of any political subdivision or instrumentality thereof) and no representative of any organization described in § 156.510(b)(1)(i) (in the case of a representative of a State or local government or organization described in § 156.510(b)(1)(i), with respect to a State in which the CO-OP issues policies), may serve on the CO-OP's formation board or as a director on the organization's operational board.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ethics and conflict of interest protections.</I> The CO-OP must have governing documents that incorporate ethics, conflict of interest, and disclosure standards. The standards must protect against insurance industry involvement and interference. In addition, the standards must ensure that each director acts in the sole interest of the CO-OP, its members, and its local geographic community as appropriate, avoids self dealing, and acts prudently and consistently with the terms of the CO-OP's governance documents and applicable State and Federal law. At a minimum, these standards must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A mechanism to identify potential ethical or other conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(ii) A duty on the CO-OP's executive officers and directors to disclose all potential conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(iii) A process to determine the extent to which a conflict exists;
</P>
<P>(iv) A process to address any conflict of interest; and
</P>
<P>(v) A process to be followed in the event a director or executive officer of the CO-OP violates these standards.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consumer focus.</I> The CO-OP must operate with a strong consumer focus, including timeliness, responsiveness, and accountability to members.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards for health plan issuance.</I> A CO-OP must meet several standards for the issuance of health plans in the individual and small group market.
</P>
<P>(1) At least two-thirds of the policies or contracts for health insurance coverage issued by a CO-OP in each State in which it is licensed must be CO-OP qualified health plans offered in the individual and small group markets.
</P>
<P>(2) Loan recipients must offer a CO-OP qualified health plan at the silver and gold benefit levels, defined in section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act, in every individual market Exchange that serves the geographic regions in which the organization is licensed and intends to provide health care coverage. If offering at least one plan in the small group market, loan recipients must offer a CO-OP qualified health plan at both the silver and gold benefit levels, defined in section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act, in each SHOP that serves the geographic regions in which the organization offers coverage in the small group market.
</P>
<P>(3) Within the earlier of thirty-six months following the initial drawdown of the Start-up Loan or one year following the initial drawdown of the Solvency Loan, loan recipients must be licensed in a State and offer at least one CO-OP qualified health plan at the silver and gold benefit levels, defined in section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act, in the individual market Exchanges and if the loan recipient offers coverage in the small group market, at the silver and gold benefit levels, defined in section 1302(d) of the Affordable Care Act, in the SHOPs. Loan recipients may only begin offering plans and accepting enrollment in the Exchanges for new CO-OP qualified health plans during the open enrollment period for each applicable Exchange.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirement to become a CO-OP.</I> Loan recipients must meet the standards of § 156.515 no later than five years following initial drawdown of the Start-up Loan or three years following the initial drawdown of a Solvency Loan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 77411, Dec. 13, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29155, May 11, 2016; 81 FR 94182, Dec. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.520" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.520   Loan terms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overview of Loans.</I> Applicants may apply for the following loans under this section: Start-up Loans and Solvency Loans.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Use of loans.</I> All loans awarded under this subpart must be used in a manner that is consistent with the FOA, the loan agreement, and all other statutory, regulatory, or other requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Solvency loans.</I> Solvency Loans awarded under this section will be structured in a manner that ensures that the loan amount is recognized by State insurance regulators as contributing to the State-determined reserve requirements or other solvency requirements (rather than debt) consistent with the insurance regulations for the States in which the loan recipient will offer a CO-OP qualified health plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Repayment period.</I> The loan recipient must make loan payments consistent with the approved repayment schedule in the loan agreement until the loan is paid in full consistent with State reserve requirements, solvency regulations, and requisite surplus note arrangements. Subject to their ability to meet State reserve requirements, solvency regulations, or requisite surplus note arrangements, the loan recipient must repay its loans and, if applicable, penalties within the repayment periods in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), or (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The contractual repayment period for Start-up Loans and any applicable penalty pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section is 5 years following each drawdown of loan funds consistent with the terms of the loan agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) The contractual repayment period for Solvency Loans and any applicable penalty pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section is 15 years following each drawdown of loan funds consistent with the terms of the loan agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) Changes to the loan terms, including the repayment periods, may be executed if CMS determines that the loan recipient is unable to repay the loans as a result of State reserve requirements, solvency regulations, or requisite surplus note arrangements or without compromising coverage stability, member control, quality of care, or market stability. In the case of a loan modification or workout, the repayment period for loans awarded under this subpart is the repayment period established in the loan modification or workout. The revised terms must meet all other regulatory, statutory, and other requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interest rates.</I> Loan recipients will be charged interest for the loans awarded under this subpart. Interest will be accrued starting from the date of drawdown on the loan amounts that have been drawn down and not yet repaid by the loan recipient. The interest rate will be determined based on the date of award.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Start-up Loans.</I> Consistent with the terms of the loan agreement, the interest rate for Start-up Loans is equal to the greater of the average interest rate on marketable Treasury securities of similar maturity minus one percentage point or zero percent. If the loan recipient's loan agreement is terminated by CMS, the loan recipient will be charged the interest and penalty described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Solvency Loans.</I> Consistent with the terms of the loan agreement, the interest rate for Solvency Loans is equal to the greater of the average interest rate on marketable Treasury securities of similar maturity minus two percentage points or zero percent. If a loan recipient's loan agreement is terminated by CMS, the loan recipient will be charged the interest and penalty described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Penalty payment.</I> If CMS terminates a loan recipient's loan agreement because the loan recipient is not in compliance with program rules or the terms of its loan agreement, or CMS has reason to believe that the organization engages in, or has engaged in, criminal or fraudulent activities or activities that cause material harm to the organization's members or the government, the loan recipient must repay 110 percent of the aggregate amount of loans received under this subpart. In addition, the loan recipient must pay interest on the aggregate amount of loans received for the period the loans were outstanding equal to the average interest rate on marketable Treasury securities of similar maturity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to pay.</I> Loan recipients that fail to make loan payments consistent with the repayment schedule or loan modification or workout approved by CMS will be subject to any and all remedies available to CMS under law to collect the debt.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Deeming of CO-OP qualified health plans.</I> Health plans offered by a loan recipient may be deemed certified as a CO-OP qualified health plan to participate in the Exchanges for two years and may be recertified every two years for up to ten years following the life of any loan awarded to the loan recipient under this subpart, consistent with section 1301(a)(2) of the Affordable Care Act.
</P>
<P>(1) To be deemed as certified to participate in the Exchanges, the plan must comply with the standards for CO-OP qualified health plans set forth pursuant to section 1311(c) of the Affordable Care Act, all State-specific standards established by an Exchange for qualified health plans operating in that Exchange, except for those State-specific standards that operate to exclude loan recipients due to being new issuers or based on other characteristics that are inherent in the design of a CO-OP, and the standards of the CO-OP program as set forth in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) A loan recipient seeking to have a plan deemed as certified to participate in the Exchanges must provide evidence to CMS or an entity designated by CMS that the plan complies with the standards for CO-OP qualified health plans set forth pursuant to section 1311(c) of the Affordable Care Act, all State-specific standards established by an Exchange for qualified health plans operating in that Exchange, except for those State-specific standards that operate to exclude loan recipients due to being new issuers or based on other characteristics that are inherent in the design of a CO-OP, and the standards of the CO-OP program as set forth in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) If a plan offered by a loan recipient is deemed to be certified to participate in the Exchanges or loses its deemed status and is no longer certified to participate in the Exchanges, CMS or an entity designated by CMS will provide notice to the Exchanges in which the loan recipient offers CO-OP qualified health plans.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conversions and voluntary terminations.</I> (1) The loan recipient shall not convert or sell to a for-profit or non-consumer operated entity at any time after receiving a loan under this subpart. The loan recipient shall not undertake any transaction that would result in the CO-OP implementing a governance structure that does not meet the standards in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) CMS may, in its sole discretion, approve a request by a loan recipient to voluntarily terminate its loan agreement with CMS, and cease to constitute a QNHII, for the purpose of permitting a loan recipient to pursue innovative business plans that are not otherwise consistent with the requirements of this subpart, provided that all outstanding CO-OP loans issued to the loan recipient are repaid in full prior to termination of the loan agreement, and CMS believes granting the request would meaningfully enhance consumer access to quality, affordable, member-focused, non-profit health care options in affected markets.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 77411, Dec. 13, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 18474, Mar. 27, 2012; 89 FR 26426, Apr. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Minimum Essential Coverage</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 39529, July 1, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 156.600" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.600   The definition of minimum essential coverage.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>minimum essential coverage</I> has the same meaning as provided in section 5000A(f) of the Code and its implementing regulations for purposes of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.602" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.602   Other coverage that qualifies as minimum essential coverage.</HEAD>
<P>The following types of coverage are designated by the Secretary as minimum essential coverage for purposes of section 5000A(f)(1)(E) of the Code:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Self-funded student health coverage.</I> Coverage offered to students by an institution of higher education (as defined in the Higher Education Act of 1965), where the institution assumes the risk for payment of claims, are designated as minimum essential coverage for plan or policy years beginning on or before December 31, 2014. For coverage beginning after December 31, 2014, sponsors of self-funded student health coverage may apply to be recognized as minimum essential coverage pursuant to the process provided under 45 CFR 156.604.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Refugee Medical Assistance supported by the Administration for Children and Families.</I> Coverage under Refugee Medical Assistance, authorized under section 412(e)(7)(A) of The Immigration and Nationality Act, provides up to eight months of coverage to certain noncitizens who are considered Refugees, as defined in section 101(a)(42) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Medicare advantage plans.</I> Coverage under the Medicare program pursuant to Part C of title XVIII of the Social Security Act, which provides Medicare Parts A and B benefits through a private insurer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State high risk pool coverage.</I> A qualified high risk pool as defined by section 2744(c)(2) of the Public Health Service Act established on or before November 26, 2014 in any State.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other coverage.</I> Other coverage that qualifies pursuant to § 156.604.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 39529, July 1, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 10875, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.604" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.604   Requirements for recognition as minimum essential coverage for types of coverage not otherwise designated minimum essential coverage in the statute or this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may recognize “other coverage” as minimum essential coverage provided HHS determines that the coverage meets the following substantive and procedural requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Coverage requirements.</I> A plan must meet substantially all the requirements of title I of the Affordable Care Act pertaining to non-grandfathered, individual health insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedural requirements for recognition as minimum essential coverage.</I> To be considered for recognition as minimum essential coverage, the sponsor of the coverage, government agency, health insurance issuer, or plan administrator must submit the following information to HHS:
</P>
<P>(i) Identity of the plan sponsor and appropriate contact persons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Basic information about the plan, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Name of the organization sponsoring the plan;
</P>
<P>(B) Name and title of the individual who is authorized to make, and makes, this certification on behalf of the organization;
</P>
<P>(C) Address of the individual named above;
</P>
<P>(D) Phone number of the individual named above;
</P>
<P>(E) Number of enrollees;
</P>
<P>(F) Eligibility criteria;
</P>
<P>(G) Cost sharing requirements, including deductible and out-of-pocket maximum limit;
</P>
<P>(H) Essential health benefits covered; and
</P>
<P>(I) A certification by the appropriate individual, named pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(b), that the organization substantially complies with the requirements of title I of the Affordable Care Act that apply to non-grandfathered plans in the individual market and any plan documentation or other information that demonstrate that the coverage substantially comply with these requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) CMS will publish a list of types of coverage that the Secretary has recognized as minimum essential coverage pursuant to this provision.
</P>
<P>(c) If at any time the Secretary determines that a type of coverage previously recognized as minimum essential coverage no longer meets the coverage requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Secretary may revoke the recognition of such coverage.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice.</I> Once recognized as minimum essential coverage, the sponsor of the coverage, government agency, health insurance issuer, or plan administrator must provide notice to all enrollees of its minimum essential coverage status and must comply with the information reporting requirements of section 6055 of the Internal Revenue Code and implementing regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 39529, July 1, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30351, May 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.606" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.606   HHS audit authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may audit a plan or program recognized as minimum essential coverage under § 156.604 at any time to ensure compliance with the requirements of § 156.604(a).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Oversight and Financial Integrity Standards for Issuers of Qualified Health Plans in Federally-Facilitated Exchanges</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 65100, Oct. 30, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 156.705" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.705   Maintenance of records for Federally-facilitated Exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General standard.</I> Issuers offering QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange must maintain all documents and records (whether paper, electronic, or other media) and other evidence of accounting procedures and practices, necessary for HHS to do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Periodically audit financial records related to QHP issuers' participation in a Federally-facilitated Exchange, and evaluate the ability of QHP issuers to bear the risk of potential financial losses; and
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct compliance reviews or otherwise monitor QHP issuers' compliance with all Exchange standards applicable to issuers offering QHPs in a federally-facilitated Exchange as listed in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records.</I> The records described in paragraph (a) of this section include the sources listed in § 155.1210(b)(2), (3), and (5) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record retention timeframe.</I> Issuers offering QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange must maintain all records referenced in paragraph (a) of this section for 10 years.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record availability.</I> Issuers offering QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange must make all records in paragraph (a) of this section available to HHS, the OIG, the Comptroller General, or their designees, upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.715" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.715   Compliance reviews of QHP issuers in Federally-facilitated Exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General standard.</I> Issuers offering QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange may be subject to compliance reviews to ensure ongoing compliance with Exchange standards applicable to issuers offering QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records.</I> In preparation for or in the course of the compliance review, a QHP issuer must make available for HHS to review the records of the QHP issuer that pertain to its activities within a Federally-facilitated Exchange. Such records may include, but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The QHP issuer's books and contracts, including the QHP issuer's policy manuals and other QHP plan benefit information provided to the QHP issuer's enrollees;
</P>
<P>(2) The QHP issuer's policies and procedures, protocols, standard operating procedures, or other similar manuals related to the QHP issuer's activities in a Federally-facilitated Exchange;
</P>
<P>(3) Any other information reasonably necessary for HHS to—
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate the QHP issuer's compliance with QHP certification standards and other Exchange standards applicable to issuers offering QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange;
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluate the QHP's performance, including its adherence to an effective compliance plan, within a Federally-facilitated Exchange;
</P>
<P>(iii) Verify that the QHP issuer has performed the duties attested to as part of the QHP certification process; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Assess the likelihood of fraud or abuse.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interest of Qualified Individuals and Qualified Employers.</I> HHS's findings from the compliance reviews under this section may be in conjunction with other findings related to the QHP issuers' compliance with certification standards, used to confirm that permitting the issuer's QHPs to be available through a Federally-facilitated Exchange is in the interest of the qualified individuals and qualified employers as provided under § 155.1000(c)(2) of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Onsite and desk reviews.</I> The QHP issuer will make available, for the purposes listed in paragraph (c) of this section, its premises, physical facilities and equipment (including computer and other electronic systems), for HHS to conduct a compliance review as provided under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) A compliance review under this section will be carried out as an onsite or desk review based on the specific circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless otherwise specified, nothing in this section is intended to preempt Federal laws and regulations related to information privacy and security.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance review timeframe.</I> A QHP issuer may be subject to a compliance review up to 10 years from the last day of that plan benefit year, or 10 years from the last day that the QHP certification is effective if the QHP is no longer available through a Federally-facilitated Exchange; provided, however, that if the 10 year review period falls during an ongoing compliance review, the review period would be extended until the compliance review is completed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to comply.</I> A QHP issuer that fails to comply with a compliance review under this section may be subject to enforcement remedies under subpart I of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65100, Oct. 30, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 94182, Dec. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Enforcement Remedies in the Exchanges</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 54143, Aug. 30, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 156.800" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.800   Available remedies; Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Kinds of sanctions.</I> HHS may impose the following types of sanctions on QHP issuers in an Exchange that are not in compliance with Exchange standards applicable to issuers offering QHPs in an Exchange:
</P>
<P>(1) Civil money penalties as specified in § 156.805; and
</P>
<P>(2) Decertification of a QHP offered by the non-compliant QHP issuer in a Federally-facilitated Exchange as described in § 156.810.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> Sanctions under subpart I are applicable for noncompliance with QHP issuer participation standards and other standards applicable to issuers offering QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange. Sanctions under paragraph (a)(1) of this section are also applicable for noncompliance by QHP issuers participating in State Exchanges and State-based Exchanges on the Federal platform when HHS is responsible for enforcement of any of the requirements applicable to the actions identified in § 156.805(a) that are applicable to issuers offering a QHP in a State Exchange or State-based Exchange on the Federal platform.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance standard.</I> For calendar years 2014 and 2015, sanctions under this subpart will not be imposed if the QHP issuer has made good faith efforts to comply with applicable requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information sharing.</I> HHS may consult and share information about QHP issuers with other Federal and State regulatory and enforcement entities to the extent that the consultation and information is necessary for purposes of State or Federal oversight and enforcement activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54143, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30351, May 27, 2014; 80 FR 10875, Feb. 27, 2015; 86 FR 24293, May 5, 2021; 91 FR 29876, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.805" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.805   Bases and process for imposing civil money penalties in Federally-facilitated Exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for imposing civil money penalties.</I> Civil money penalties may be imposed on an issuer in an Exchange if, based on credible evidence, HHS has reasonably determined that the issuer has engaged in one or more of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Misconduct in the Federally-facilitated Exchange or substantial non-compliance with the Exchange standards and requirements applicable to issuers offering QHPs in the Federally-facilitated Exchange, including but not limited to issuer standards and requirements under parts 153 and 156 of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Limiting the QHP's enrollees' access to medically necessary items and services that are required to be covered as a condition of the QHP issuer's ongoing participation in the Federally-facilitated Exchange, if the limitation has adversely affected or has a substantial likelihood of adversely affecting one or more enrollees in the QHP offered by the QHP issuer;
</P>
<P>(3) Imposing on enrollees premiums in excess of the monthly beneficiary premiums permitted by Federal standards applicable to QHP issuers participating in the Federally-facilitated Exchange;
</P>
<P>(4) Engaging in any practice that would reasonably be expected to have the effect of denying or discouraging enrollment into a QHP offered by the issuer (except as permitted by this part) by qualified individuals whose medical condition or history indicates the potential for a future need for significant medical services or items;
</P>
<P>(5) Intentionally or recklessly misrepresenting or falsifying information that it furnishes—
</P>
<P>(i) To HHS or an Exchange; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To an individual or entity upon which HHS relies to make its certifications or evaluations of the QHP issuer's ongoing compliance with Exchange standards applicable to issuers offering QHPs in the Federally-facilitated Exchange;
</P>
<P>(6) Failure to remit user fees assessed under § 156.50(c); or
</P>
<P>(7) Failure to comply with the cost-sharing reductions and advance payments of the premium tax credit standards of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors in determining the amount of civil money penalties assessed.</I> In determining the amount of civil money penalties, HHS will identify the lawful purpose or purposes of the civil money penalty, and take into account the following factors as appropriate to the circumstances of the case:


</P>
<P>(1) The QHP issuer's previous or ongoing record of compliance;
</P>
<P>(2) The level of the violation, as determined in part by—
</P>
<P>(i) The frequency of the violation, taking into consideration whether any violation is an isolated occurrence, represents a pattern, or is widespread; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The magnitude of financial and other impacts on enrollees and qualified individuals; and
</P>
<P>(3) Aggravating or mitigating circumstances, or other such factors as justice may require, including complaints about the issuer with regard to the issuer's compliance with the medical loss ratio standards required by the Affordable Care Act and as codified by applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maximum penalty.</I> The maximum amount of penalty imposed for each violation is $100 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 for each day for each QHP issuer for each individual adversely affected by the QHP issuer's non-compliance; and where the number of individuals cannot be determined, HHS may estimate the number of individuals adversely affected by the violation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for hearing.</I> (1) An issuer may appeal the assessment of a civil money penalty under this section by filing a request for hearing under an applicable administrative hearing process.
</P>
<P>(2) If an issuer files a request for hearing under this paragraph (d), the assessment of a civil money penalty will not occur prior to the issuance of the final administrative decision in the appeal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to request a hearing.</I> (1) If the QHP issuer does not request a hearing within 30 days of the issuance of the notice described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, HHS may assess the proposed civil money penalty.
</P>
<P>(2) HHS will notify the issuer in writing of any penalty that has been assessed under this subpart and of the means by which the QHP issuer or another responsible entity may satisfy the CMP assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) The QHP issuer has no right to appeal a penalty with respect to which it has not requested a hearing in accordance with the requirements of the applicable administrative hearing process unless the QHP issuer can show good cause, as determined under § 156.905(b), for failing to timely exercise its right to a hearing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Circumstances requiring HHS enforcement in State Exchanges and State-based Exchanges on the Federal platform.</I> (1) HHS will enforce the requirements applicable to the actions identified in paragraph (a) of this section that are applicable to issuers offering a QHP in a State Exchange or State-based Exchange on the Federal platform, if the State with enforcement authority over such Exchange notifies HHS that it is not enforcing these requirements or if HHS makes a determination using the process set forth at 45 CFR 150.201, <I>et seq.</I> that such State is failing to substantially enforce these requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) If HHS is responsible under paragraph (f)(1) of this section for enforcement of the requirements applicable to the actions identified in paragraph (a) of this section that are applicable to issuers offering a QHP in a State Exchange or State-based Exchange on the Federal platform, HHS may impose civil money penalties on an issuer in such Exchange, in accordance with the bases and process for imposing civil money penalties set forth in this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54143, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 15245, Mar. 19, 2014; 79 FR 30351, May 27, 2014; 81 FR 12351, Mar. 8, 2016; 81 FR 61581, Sept. 6, 2016; 86 FR 24293, May 5, 2021; 91 FR 29876, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.806" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.806   Notice of non-compliance.</HEAD>
<P>If HHS learns of a potential violation described in § 156.805 or if a State informs HHS of a potential violation, prior to imposing any CMPs, HHS must provide a written notice to the issuer, to include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Describe the potential violation.
</P>
<P>(b) Provide 30 days from the date of the notice for the QHP issuer to respond and to provide additional information to refute an alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(c) State that a civil money penalty may be assessed if the allegations are not, as determined by HHS, refuted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 30351, May 27, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.810" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.810   Bases and process for decertification of a QHP offered by an issuer through a Federally-facilitated Exchange.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bases for decertification.</I> A QHP may be decertified on one or more of the following grounds:
</P>
<P>(1) The QHP issuer substantially fails to comply with the Federal laws and regulations applicable to QHP issuers participating in the Federally-facilitated Exchange;
</P>
<P>(2) The QHP issuer substantially fails to comply with the standards related to the risk adjustment, reinsurance, or risk corridors programs under 45 CFR part 153, including providing HHS with valid risk adjustment, reinsurance or risk corridors data;
</P>
<P>(3) The QHP issuer substantially fails to comply with the transparency and marketing standards in §§ 156.220 and 156.225;
</P>
<P>(4) The QHP issuer substantially fails to comply with the standards regarding advance payments of the premium tax credit and cost-sharing in subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(5) The QHP issuer is operating in the Federally-facilitated Exchange in a manner that hinders the efficient and effective administration of the Exchange;
</P>
<P>(6) The QHP no longer meets the applicable standards set forth under subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) Based on credible evidence, the QHP issuer has committed or participated in fraudulent or abusive activities, including submission of false or fraudulent data;
</P>
<P>(8) The QHP issuer substantially fails to meet the requirements under § 156.230 related to provider access standards for network plans, § 156.235 related to essential community provider access standards for network plans, or § 156.236 related to provider access and essential community providers standards for non-network plans, as applicable;


</P>
<P>(9) The QHP issuer substantially fails to comply with the law and regulations related to internal claims and appeals and external review processes; 
</P>
<P>(10) The State recommends to HHS that the QHP should no longer be available in a Federally-facilitated Exchange;
</P>
<P>(11) The QHP issuer substantially fails to comply with the privacy or security standards set forth in § 156.260;
</P>
<P>(12) The QHP issuer substantially fails to meet the requirements related to the cases forwarded to QHP issuers under subpart K of this part;
</P>
<P>(13) The QHP issuer substantially fails to meet the requirements related to the offering of a QHP under subpart M of this part;
</P>
<P>(14) The QHP issuer offering the QHP is the subject of a pending, ongoing, or final State regulatory or enforcement action or determination that relates to the issuer offering QHPs in the Federally-facilitated Exchanges; or
</P>
<P>(15) HHS reasonably believes that the QHP issuer lacks the financial viability to provide coverage under its QHPs until the end of the plan year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>State sanctions and determinations</I>—(1) <I>State sanctions.</I> HHS may consider regulatory or enforcement actions taken by a State against a QHP issuer as a factor in determining whether to decertify a QHP offered by that issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State determinations.</I> HHS may decertify a QHP offered by an issuer in a Federally-facilitated Exchange based on a determination or action by a State as it relates to the issuer offering QHPs in a Federally-facilitated Exchange, including when a State places an issuer or its parent organization into receivership or when the State recommends to HHS that the QHP no longer be available in a Federally-facilitated Exchange.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standard decertification process.</I> For decertification actions on grounds other than those described in paragraphs (a)(7), (8), or (9) of this section, HHS will provide written notices to the QHP issuer, enrollees in that QHP, and the State department of insurance in the State in which the QHP is being decertified. The written notice must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The effective date of the decertification, which will be a date specified by HHS that is no earlier than 30 days after the date of issuance of the notice;
</P>
<P>(2) The reason for the decertification, including the regulation or regulations that are the basis for the decertification;
</P>
<P>(3) For the written notice to the QHP issuer, information about the effect of the decertification on the ability of the issuer to offer the QHP in the Federally-facilitated Exchange and must include information about the procedure for appealing the decertification by making a hearing request; and
</P>
<P>(4) The written notice to the QHP enrollees must include information about the effect of the decertification on enrollment in the QHP and about the availability of a special enrollment period, as described in § 155.420 of this subchapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Expedited decertification process.</I> For decertification actions on grounds described in paragraphs (a)(6), (7), (8), or (9) of this section, HHS will provide written notice to the QHP issuer, enrollees, and the State department of insurance in the State in which the QHP is being decertified. The written notice must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The effective date of the decertification, which will be a date specified by HHS; and
</P>
<P>(2) The information required by paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Request for hearing.</I> An issuer may appeal the decertification of a QHP offered by that issuer under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section by filing a request for hearing under an applicable administrative hearing process.
</P>
<P>(1) If an issuer files a request for hearing under this paragraph (e):
</P>
<P>(i) If the decertification is under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the decertification will not take effect prior to the issuance of the final administrative decision in the appeal, notwithstanding the effective date specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the decertification is under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the decertification will be effective on the date specified in the notice of decertification, but the certification of the QHP may be reinstated immediately upon issuance of a final administrative decision that the QHP should not be decertified.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54143, Aug. 30, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 30351, May 27, 2014; 81 FR 12351, Mar. 8, 2016; 91 FR 29877, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.815" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.815   Plan suppression.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suppression</I> means temporarily making a QHP certified to be offered through the Federally-facilitated Exchange unavailable for enrollment through the Federally-facilitated Exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for suppression.</I> A QHP may be suppressed as described in paragraph (a) of this section on one or more of the following grounds:
</P>
<P>(1) The QHP issuer notifies HHS of its intent to withdraw the QHP from a Federally-facilitated Exchange when one of the exceptions to guaranteed renewability of coverage related to discontinuing a particular product or discontinuing all coverage under § 147.106(c) or (d) of this subchapter applies;
</P>
<P>(2) Data submitted for the QHP is incomplete or inaccurate;
</P>
<P>(3) The QHP is in the process of being decertified as described in § 156.810(c) or (d), or the QHP issuer is appealing a completed decertification as described in subpart J of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) The QHP issuer offering the QHP is the subject of a pending, ongoing, or final State regulatory or enforcement action or determination that could affect the issuer's ability to enroll consumers or otherwise relates to the issuer offering QHPs in the Federally-facilitated Exchanges; or
</P>
<P>(5) One of the exceptions to guaranteed availability of coverage related to special rules for network plans or financial capacity limits under § 147.104(c) or (d) of this subchapter applies.
</P>
<P>(c) A multi-State plan as defined in § 155.1000(a) of this subchapter may be suppressed as described in paragraph (a) of this section if OPM notifies the Exchange that:
</P>
<P>(1) OPM has found a compliance violation within the multi-State plan, or
</P>
<P>(2) One of the grounds for suppression in paragraph (b) of this section exists for the multi-State plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 10875, Feb. 27, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Administrative Review of QHP Issuer Sanctions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 65101, Oct. 30, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 156.901" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.901   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this subpart, unless the context indicates otherwise:
</P>
<P><I>ALJ</I> means administrative law judge of the Departmental Appeals Board of HHS.
</P>
<P><I>Filing date</I> means the date filed electronically.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing</I> includes a hearing on a written record as well as an in-person, telephone, or video teleconference hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means HHS or the respondent.
</P>
<P><I>Receipt date</I> means five days after the date of a document, unless there is a showing that it was in fact received later.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means an entity that received a notice of proposed assessment of a civil money penalty issued pursuant to § 156.805 or a notice of decertification pursuant to § 156.810(c) or (d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65101, Oct. 30, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 24293, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.903" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.903   Scope of Administrative Law Judge's (ALJ) authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ has the authority, including all of the authority conferred by the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554a), to adopt whatever procedures may be necessary or proper to carry out in an efficient and effective manner the ALJ's duty to provide a fair and impartial hearing on the record and to issue an initial decision concerning the imposition of a civil money penalty of a QHP offered in a Federally-facilitated Exchange, State Exchange, and State-based Exchange on the Federal platform, or the decertification of a QHP offered in a Federally-facilitated Exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ's authority includes the authority to modify, consistent with the Administrative Procedures Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), any hearing procedures set out in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ does not have the authority to find invalid or refuse to follow Federal statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ, upon his or her own motion or at the request of a party, may issue subpoenas if they are reasonably necessary for the full presentation of a case.
</P>
<P>(1) The party must file a written request for a subpoena with the ALJ at least 5 calendar days before the date set for the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) The request must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the witnesses or documents to be produced;
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe their addresses or location with sufficient particularity to permit them to be found; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify the pertinent facts the party expects to establish by the witnesses or documents, and indicate why those facts could not be established without use of a subpoena.
</P>
<P>(3) Subpoenas are issued in the name of the Secretary.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65101, Oct. 30, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 24293, May 5, 2021; 91 FR 29877, May 20, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.905" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.905   Filing of request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A respondent has a right to a hearing before an ALJ if it files a request for hearing that complies with § 156.907(a), within 30 days after the date of issuance of either HHS' notice of proposed assessment under § 156.805, notice of decertification of a QHP under § 156.810(c) or § 156.810(d). The request for hearing should be addressed as instructed in the notice of proposed determination. “date of issuance” is five (5) days after the filing date, unless there is a showing that the document was received earlier.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ may extend the time for filing a request for hearing only if the ALJ finds that the respondent was prevented by events or circumstances beyond its control from filing its request within the time specified above. Any request for an extension of time must be made promptly by written motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.907" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.907   Form and content of request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The request for hearing must do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify any factual or legal bases for the assessment or decertifications with which the respondent disagrees.
</P>
<P>(2) Describe with reasonable specificity the basis for the disagreement, including any affirmative facts or legal arguments on which the respondent is relying.
</P>
<P>(b) Identify the relevant notice of assessment or decertification by date and attach a copy of the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.909" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.909   Amendment of notice of assessment or decertification request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The ALJ may permit CMS to amend its notice of assessment or decertification, or permit the respondent to amend a request for hearing that complies with § 156.907(a), if the ALJ finds that no undue prejudice to either party will result.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.911" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.911   Dismissal of request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>An ALJ will order a request for hearing dismissed if the ALJ determines that:
</P>
<P>(a) The request for hearing was not filed within 30 days as specified by § 156.905(a) or any extension of time granted by the ALJ pursuant to § 156.905(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The request for hearing fails to meet the requirements of § 156.907.
</P>
<P>(c) The entity that filed the request for hearing is not a respondent under § 156.901.
</P>
<P>(d) The respondent has abandoned its request.
</P>
<P>(e) The respondent withdraws its request for hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.913" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.913   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>HHS has exclusive authority to settle any issue or any case, without the consent of the ALJ at any time before or after the ALJ's decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.915" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.915   Intervention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may grant the request of an entity, other than the respondent, to intervene if all of the following occur:
</P>
<P>(1) The entity has a significant interest relating to the subject matter of the case.
</P>
<P>(2) Disposition of the case will, as a practical matter, likely impair or impede the entity's ability to protect that interest.
</P>
<P>(3) The entity's interest is not adequately represented by the existing parties.
</P>
<P>(4) The intervention will not unduly delay or prejudice the adjudication of the rights of the existing parties.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for intervention must specify the grounds for intervention and the manner in which the entity seeks to participate in the proceedings. Any participation by an intervenor must be in the manner and by any deadline set by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department of Labor (DOL) or the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) may intervene without regard to paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.917" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.917   Issues to be heard and decided by ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ has the authority to hear and decide the following issues:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether a basis exists to assess a civil money penalty against the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the amount of the assessed civil money penalty is reasonable.
</P>
<P>(3) Whether a basis exists to decertify a QHP offered by the respondent in a Federally-facilitated Exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) In deciding whether the amount of a civil money penalty is reasonable, the ALJ—
</P>
<P>(1) Will apply the factors that are identified in § 156.805 for civil money penalties.
</P>
<P>(2) May consider evidence of record relating to any factor that HHS did not apply in making its initial determination, so long as that factor is identified in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) If the ALJ finds that a basis exists to assess a civil money penalty, the ALJ may sustain, reduce, or increase the penalty that HHS assessed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.919" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.919   Forms of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All hearings before an ALJ are on the record. The ALJ may receive argument or testimony in writing, in person, by telephone, or by video teleconference. The ALJ may receive testimony by telephone only if the ALJ determines that doing so is in the interest of justice and economy and that no party will be unduly prejudiced. The ALJ may require submission of a witness' direct testimony in writing only if the witness is available for cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ may decide a case based solely on the written record where there is no disputed issue of material fact the resolution of which requires the receipt of oral testimony.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65101, Oct. 30, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 24293, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.921" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.921   Appearance of counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Any attorney who is to appear on behalf of a party must promptly file, with the ALJ, a notice of appearance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.923" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.923   Communications with the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>No party or person (except employees of the ALJ's office) may communicate in any way with the ALJ on any matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for both parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a party or person from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.925" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.925   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any request to the ALJ for an order or ruling must be by motion, stating the relief sought, the authority relied upon, and the facts alleged. All motions must be in writing, with a copy served on the opposing party, except in either of the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) The motion is presented during an oral proceeding before an ALJ at which both parties have the opportunity to be present.
</P>
<P>(2) An extension of time is being requested by agreement of the parties or with waiver of objections by the opposing party.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specified in this subpart, any response or opposition to a motion must be filed within 20 days of the party's receipt of the motion. The ALJ does not rule on a motion before the time for filing a response to the motion has expired except where the response is filed at an earlier date, where the opposing party consents to the motion being granted, or where the ALJ determines that the motion should be denied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.927" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.927   Form and service of submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every submission filed with the ALJ must be filed electronically and include:
</P>
<P>(1) A caption on the first page, setting forth the title of the case, the docket number (if known), and a description of the submission (such as “Motion for Discovery”).
</P>
<P>(2) The signatory's name, address, and telephone number.
</P>
<P>(3) A signed certificate of service, specifying each address to which a copy of the submission is sent, the date on which it is sent, and the method of service.
</P>
<P>(b) A party filing a submission with the ALJ must, at the time of filing, serve a copy of such submission on the opposing party. An intervenor filing a submission with the ALJ must, at the time of filing, serve a copy of the submission on all parties. If a party is represented by an attorney, service must be made on the attorney. An electronically filed submission is considered served on all parties using the electronic filing system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65101, Oct. 30, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 24293, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.929" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.929   Computation of time and extensions of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this subpart, in computing any period of time, the time begins with the day following the act, event, or default and includes the last day of the period unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday observed by the Federal government, in which event it includes the next business day. When the period of time allowed is less than seven days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays observed by the Federal government are excluded from the computation.
</P>
<P>(b) The period of time for filing any responsive pleading or papers is determined by the date of receipt (as defined in § 156.901) of the submission to which a response is being made.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ may grant extensions of the filing deadlines specified in these regulations or set by the ALJ for good cause shown (except that requests for extensions of time to file a request for hearing may be granted only on the grounds specified in § 156.905(b)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.931" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.931   Acknowledgement of request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>After receipt of the request for hearing, the ALJ assigned to the case or someone acting on behalf of the ALJ will send a written notice to the parties that acknowledges receipt of the request for hearing, identifies the docket number assigned to the case, and provides instructions for filing submissions and other general information concerning procedures. The ALJ will set out the next steps in the case either as part of the acknowledgement or on a later date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 24293, May 5, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 156.935" NODE="45:2.0.1.1.14.10.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 156.935   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parties must identify any need for discovery from the opposing party as soon as possible, but no later than the time for the reply specified in § 156.937(c). Upon request of a party, the ALJ may stay proceedings for a reasonable period pending completion of discovery if the ALJ determines that a party would not be able to make the submissions required by § 156.937 without discovery. The parties should attempt to resolve any discovery issues informally before seeking an order from the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) Discovery devices may include requests for production of documents, requests for admission, interrogatories, depositions, and stipulations. The ALJ orders interrogatories or depositions only if these are the only means to develop the record adequately on an issue that the ALJ must resolve to decide the case.
</P>
<P>(c) Each discovery request must be responded to within 30 days of receipt, unless that period of time is extended for good cause by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(d) A party to whom a discovery request is directed may object in writing for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(1) Compliance with the request is unduly burdensome or expensive.
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance with the request will unduly delay the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(3) The request seeks information that is wholly outside of any matter in dispute.
</P>
<P>(4) The request seeks privileged information. Any party asserting a claim of privilege must sufficiently describe the information or document being withheld to show that the privilege applies. If an asserted privilege applies to only part of a document, a party withholding the entire document must state why the nonprivileged part is not segregable.
</P>
<